14-09-2025

1001CMD303001250067 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle moves from a point m to m when a force of is applied. How

much work has been done by the force ?

(1) 5 J
(2) 2 J
(3) 8 J
(4) 11 J

2) If the K.E. of a body is increased by 300%, its momentum will increase by :-

(1) 100%
(2) 150%
(3)
(4) 175%

3) A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a
nearly weightless spring of force constant K = 50 N/m. The maximum compression for the spring
would be :-

(1) 0.15 m
(2) 0.12 m
(3) 1.5 m
(4) 0.5 m

4) The potential energy of a system is represented in the first figure. The force acting on the system
will be represented by :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Potential energy function is given by

U = xyz2
Expression for conservative force would be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of above

6) A particle moves with the velocity under the influence of a constant force,
. The instantaneous power applied is :-

(1) 5 W
(2) 10 W
(3) 20 W
(4) 30 W

7) Water falls from a height of 50 m at the rate of 20 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
frictional forces are 20% of energy incident on the turbine. The power generated by the turbine is (g
= 10ms–2)

(1) 10 kW
(2) 12 kW
(3) 8 kW
(4) 9 kW

8) A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5 cm. Then work done by spring in
extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is :-

(1) 32J
(2) 16J
(3) 12J
(4) 8J

9) A particle of mass 0.1 kg is subjected to a force which varies with distance as shown. If it starts its

journey from rest at x = 0, then its velocity at x = 12 m is :-

(1) 0 m/s
(2) m/s
(3) m/s
(4) 40 m/s

10) If first half part of incline plane is smooth and next half part is rough and block start from rest
and again comes to rest just before reaching at bottom of incline plane then find μ (coefficient of

friction) of rough part ?

(1) μ = tanθ

(2)

(3) μ = 2tanθ
(4) μ = 3tanθ

11) Find work done by force F = 2x to displace a particle from x = 1 to x = 3 m

(1) 4 J
(2) 8 J
(3) 9 J
(4) 3 J

12) The force acting on body moving along x-axis varies with the position of the particle as shown in
the figure the body is in equilibrium at

(1) At x = x2
(2) At x = x1
(3) Both x1 and x2
(4) Both x1 and x3

13) Gas at a pressure P0 is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and
their speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure P will be equal to :-

(1) 4P0
(2) 2P0
(3) P0

(4)

14) 1 mole of an ideal gas is contained in a cubical volume V, ABCDEFGH at 300 K. One face of the
cube (EFGH) is made up of a material which totally absorbs any gas molecule incident on it. At any

given time,

(1) the pressure on EFGH would be zero.

(2) the pressure on all the faces will the equal.
(3) the pressure on EFGH would be double the pressure on ABCD.
(4) the pressure on EFGH would be half that on ABCD

15) Statement-1 : At low pressure and high temperature real gas approaches the ideal gas
behaviour.
and
Statement-2 : At low pressure and high temperature the molecules are far apart and molecular
interactions are negligible.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
16) If the total number of H2 molecules is double that of the O2 molecules then ratio of total kinetic
energies of H2 to that of O2 at 300K

(1) 1: 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 16

17) An ideal gas follows a process PT = constant. The correct graph between pressure & volume is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) If the root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecule at a given temperature and pressure is 2
km/s, the root mean square velocity of oxygen at the same condition in km/s is :

(1) 2.0
(2) 0.5
(3) 1.5
(4) 1.0

19) A ball of thermal capacity 10 cal/°C is heated to the temperature of furnace. It is then
transferred into a vessel containing water. The water equivalent of vessel and the contents is 200
gm. The temperature of the vessel and its contents rises from 10°C to 40°C. What is the temperature
of furnace?

(1) 640°C
(2) 64°C
(3) 600°C
(4) 100°C

20) If two balls of same metal of mass 5 gm & 10 gm strikes a target with same speed. All of their
kinetic energy is converted into heat and all of heat produced by them is absorbed by them, then for
which ball change in temperature will be higher ?

(1) For bigger ball

(2) For smaller ball
(3) Equal for both
(4) None of the above

21)

A person weighing 50 kg takes in 1500 k cal diet per day, If this energy were to be used in heating
the body of person without any losses, then the rise in his temperature is :-

(specific heat of human body = 0.83 cal g–1C–1)

(1) 30 °C
(2) 48 °C
(3) 40.16 °C
(4) 36.14 °C

22) A gas is found to obey the law P2V = constant. The initial temperature and volume are T0 and V0.
If the gas expands to a volume 3V0, then the final temperature becomes :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A process is shown in the diagram. Which of the following curves may represent the same

process?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Match the following columns and mark the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

(A) Adiabatic bulk modulus (p)

(B) Slope of P-V graph in isothermal

process (q)

(C) Degree of freedom (r)

(D) Molar heat capacity at constant

pressure divided by R (s)
(1) A - s, B - r, C - p, D - q
(2) A - r, B - p, C - q, D - s
(3) A - r, B - s, C - q, D - p
(4) A - s, B - p, C - q, D - r

25) A gas is filled in the cylinder shown in the figure. The two pistons are joined by a string. If the

gas is heated, the pistons will :-

(1) Move towards left

(2) Move towards right
(3) Remain stationary
(4) None of these

26) If for hydrogen Cp - Cv = m and for nitrogen Cp - Cv = n, where Cp and Cv refer to specific heats
per unit mass respectively at constant pressure and constant volume. The relation between m and n
is:-
(Molecular weight of hydrogen = 2 and molecular weight of nitrogen = 28)

(1) n = 14 m
(2) n = 7 m
(3) m = 7 n
(4) m = 14 n

27) A container has N molecules at absolute temperature T. If the number of molecules is doubled
but kinetic energy in the box remains the same as before, the absolute temperature of the gas is :-

(1) T
(2) T/2
(3) 2T
(4) zero

28) Water is boiling in a large vessel as shown in figure. If another vessel containing water is dipped

in the bigger vessel as shown. Choose correct options for water in smaller vessel

(1) will not boil

(2) will boil below 100°C
(3) will boil above 100°C
(4) will boil at 100°C

29) When A & B inter change their position then distance travelled by plank is :-

(1) 60 cm towards left

(2) 30 cm towards right
(3) 30 cm towards left
(4) Stationary

30) A racing car is travelling along a track at a constant speed of 40 m/s. A T.V. camera men is
recording the event from a distance of 30m directly away from the track as shown in figure. In order
to keep the car under view in the position shown, the angular speed with which the camera should
be rotated, is-

(1) 4/3 rad/sec

(2) 3/4 rad/sec
(3) 8/3 rad/sec
(4) 1 rad/sec

31) A particle is moving in a circle of radius 12m. At an instant its speed is 6 m/s and the speed is
increasing at the rate 4 m/s2. Find the acceleration of the particle:

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 12 m/s2
(4) 7 m/s2

32) A scooter weighing 150 kg together with its rider moving at 36 km/hr is to take a turn of
radius 30 m. What horizontal force on the scooter is needed to make the turn possible.

(1) 500 N
(2) 1500 N
(3) 1800 N
(4) None of these

33) A string of length 0.1 m cannot bear a tension more than 100 N it is tied to a body of mass 100 g
and rotated in a horizontal circle. The maximum angular velocity can be -

(1) 100 rad/s

(2) 1000 rad/s
(3) 10000 rad/s
(4) 0.1 rad/s

34) Two particles tied to different strings are whirled in a horizontal circle as shown in figure. The
ratio of lengths of the strings so that they complete their circular path with equal time period is :
(1)

(2)

(3) 1
(4) None of these

35) A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the
banking angle is 45°, the speed of the car is :-

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 30 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

36) A body of mass M kg is released to slide down on the surface of the hemisphere of radius 5 m. It
leaves the surface when its velocity is 5m/s. At this instant the angle made by the radius vector of
the body with the vertical is : (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s2)

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

37) A small block of mass m slides along a smooth frictional track as shown in the figure. If it starts

from rest at P, velocity of block at point Q is–

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Zero

38) Find the position of centre of Mass :-

(1) (4, 6)
(2) (6/5, 18/5)
(3) (3, 1)
(4) (1, 3)

39) Five uniform circular plates, each of diameter b and mass m are laid out in a pattern shown.
Using the origin shown, find the y- coordinate of the centre of mass of the five-plate system :

(1) b/5
(2) b/3
(3) 4b/5
(4) 2b/5

40) The centre of mass of a non-uniform rod of length L whose mass per unit length λ varies as λ =

where k is a constant and x is the distance of any point on rod from its one end, is (from the
same end)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A square plate of length 'a' is removed from A metal disc (R). Find shift of COM. from origin

(distance) :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

42) Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are moving with velocities 2 m/s and 10 m/s respectively
towards each other. What is the speed of their centre of mass ?

(1) 5 m s–1
(2) Zero
(3) 6 m s–1
(4) 8 m s–1

43) The figure shows the positions and velocities of two particles. If the particles move under the
mutual attraction of each other, then the position of centre of mass at t =1 s is :-

(1) x = 5 m
(2) x = 6 m
(3) x = 3 m
(4) x = 2 m

44) If the system is released, then the acceleration of the centre of mass of the system :-

(1)

(2)

(3) g
(4) 2g

45) A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1
m. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is 0.1. The
minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the block stationary when the cylinder is
vertical and rotating about its axis, will be : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) rad/s
(2)
rad/s
(3) 10 rad/s
(4) 10π rad/s

CHEMISTRY

1) 50 ml of 0.2 M HCl is mixed with 50 ml of 0.2 M HBr. Thus, pH of the resulting solution is :-

(1) 7.00
(2) 1.7
(3) 0.30
(4) 0.7

2) The strongest conjugate base is :-

–
(1) NO3
(2) Cl–
–
(3) HSO4
–
(4) CH3COO

3) The Ksp expression for Ag2CrO4 will :-

+ 2 2–
(1) [Ag ] [CrO4 ]
+ 2–
(2) [Ag ][CrO4 ]
+ 2 2–
(3) [2Ag ] [CrO4 ]
+ 2–
(4) [2Ag ][CrO4 ]

4) Which of the following statement is correct :-

(1) pKw increase with increase of temperature

(2) pKw decrease with increase of temperature
(3) pKw = 14 at all temperature
(4) pKw = pH at all temperature

5) Compute the pH of a solution at 25°C which is twice as alkaline as pure water.

(1) 6.7
(2) 6.4
(3) 7.3
(4) 7.6

6)

In the reaction NH3 + H2O ⇌ NH4+ + OH– water behaves as :-

(1) Acid
(2) Base
(3) Neutral
(4) Both acid & Base

7) Which of the following can not produce conjugate acid and conjugate base of the given species :

(1) H2O
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) H2S, dissociate in the following way

Then what will be relation between K1 & K2:-

(1) K1 < K2
(2) K1 > K2
(3) K1 = K2
2
(4) K1 = K2

9) Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code :

List II
List I
Solubility
Electrolyte
product

(a) Bi2S3 (i) 4S3

(b) CdS (ii) 27S4

(c) Al(OH)3 (iii) 108S5

(d) CaF2 (iv) S2

Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10)

Solubility of AgBr will be minimum in :-

(1) Pure water

(2) 0.1 M CaBr2
(3) 0.1 M NaBr
(4) 0.1 M AgNO3

11) 10–5 M NaOH(aq) solution at 25°C is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the resultant solution will :-

(1) be equal to 8
(2) lie between 7 and 8
(3) lie between 6 and 7
(4) remain unchanged

12) Which of the following can act as a buffer solution?

(1) NaCl + HCl

(2) NH4OH + NaOH
(3) NH4OH + NaCl
(4) NH4OH + NH4Cl

13) % p-character in one of the hybrid orbital of carbon in CH4 :

(1) 50
(2) 33.33
(3) 25
(4) 75

14) Assertion (A): According to VSEPR model the repulsive interaction of electron pairs decrease in
the order:
Lone pair-Lone pair > Lone pair-Bond pair > Bond pair- Bond pair
Reason (R): The lone pairs are localised on the central atom and each bonded pair is shared
between two atoms. As a result, the lone pair electrons in a molecule occupy more space as
compared to the bonding pairs of electrons.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false

15) Match List-I with List-II:

 List-I List-II
(Molecules/ion) (Shape)

A SF4 i Tetrahedral

B BrF3 ii Trigonal planar

C iii See-saw

D iv T-shape
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (ii)
(2) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (ii)
(3) A = (i), B = (iii), C = (ii), D = (iv)
(4) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (i), D = (iv)

16) Which of the following molecule/ion is not linear ?

(1) HgCl2
(2)
(3)
(4) SnCl2

17) Which of the following molecule/ion is non-planar ?

(1) XeF4
(2) ClF3
(3) NH3
(4) AlCl3

18) Which of the following pair of species are isostructural ?

(1) SF4 and SiF4

(2) and H2O
(3) and XeF4
(4) and H3O+

19) Which of the set of species have same hybridisation state but different shapes ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) In which of the following bond lengths are not equal ?

(1) CH4
(2) SF6
(3) PCl5
(4) BF3

21) The correct order of bond angle is:

(1) PF3 > PCl3 > PBr3

(2) Cl2O > H2O > OF2
(3) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3
(4) XeF2 < CO2 < BeCl2

22) In which of the following molecule/ion coordinate bond is not present ?

+
(1) H3O
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) Incorrect statement regarding this reaction:

H2O + H⊕ → H3O+

(1) H2O act as Lewis base

(2) Hybridisation of oxygen atom is changed
(3) Shape of the molecule is changed
+
(4) H3O has a pyramidal structure

24) The correct order of dipole moment is:

(1) H2O > NH3 > HF

(2) NH3 > H2O > HF
(3) HF > NH3 > H2O
(4) H2O > HF > NH3

25) Which of the following has highest boiling point ?

(1) H2S
(2) H2O
(3) H2Se
(4) H2Te

26) Which of the following molecule contains net π-bond only ?

(1) B2
(2) C2
(3) N2
(4) Both (1) and (2)

27) Which of the following pair of species have the same bond order ?

(1) and O2
(2) CO and N2
(3) B2 and F2
(4) All of these

28) On the basis of MOT which molecule does not exist.

(1) He2
(2) Be2
(3) Ne2
(4) All the these

29) The least covalent halide is:

(1) AlF3
(2) AlCl3
(3) AlBr3
(4) AlI3

30) Which of the following anion is easily polarisable ?

(1) F–
(2) Cl–
(3) Br–
(4) I–

31) In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structural ?

(1) SF4 and XeF4

(2) and
(3) BF3 and NF3
(4) and XeO3

32) The correct order of C – O bond length among is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3) consists of:

(1) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds

(2) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds
(3) 1 sigma and 1 pi bond
(4) 2 sigma and 1 pi bond

34) Out of N2O, SO2, H2O, and the linear species are:

(1)
(2) N2O
(3)
(4)

35) The 'd' orbital involved in the hybridization in the PCl5 molecule is:

(1)
(2)
(3) 3dxy
(4)

36) Maximum number of H-bonds in one molecule of water is:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Which of the following is polar molecule ?

(1) SiF4
(2) XeF4
(3) BF3
(4) SF4

38) Which one of the following molecules contain no π-bond ?

(1) CO2
(2) H2O
(3) SO2
(4) NO2

39) The correct order of +1 oxidation state of group-13 elements:

(1) Al > Ga > In > Tl
(2) Al > In > Ga > Tl
(3) Al < Ga < In < Tl
(4) Tl > In > Al > Ga

40) Group-13 element which is more stable in +1 oxidation state than other elements of same group:

(1) B
(2) Al
(3) Tl
(4) Ga

41) Which of the following ion act as reducing agent ?

(1) Pb4+
(2) Pb2+
(3) Sn2+
(4) Sn4+

42) The molecular geometry of BF3 is:

(1) tetrahedral
(2) pyramidal
(3) square planar
(4) trigonal planar

43) Which of the following molecules may exist ?

(1) He2
(2) Be2
(3) Ne2
(4) C2

44) Dipole moment of is 1.5 D. Then dipole moment of the following is:

(1) 1.5 D
(2) 2.35 D
(3) 1 D
(4) 3 D

45) Which of the following will have the maximum dipole moment ?
(1) CH3F
(2) CH3Cl
(3) CH3Br
(4) CH3I

BIOLOGY

1) An enzyme, catalyse a reaction dramatically and reaction speed is increased vigrously and
6,00000 Molecules are formed every second, find A, B and C in following reaction.

(1) A→CO2, B→H2CO3, C – Peroxidase

(2) A→CO2, B→Peroxidase, C – H2CO3
(3) A→CO2, B→RuBisCO, C – C6H12O6
(4) A→CO2, B→Carbonic anhydrase, C – H2CO3

2) Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) Almost all proteins are enzymes

(2) All enzymes are not proteins
(3) Enzymes have tertiary structure of protein
(4) Thermal stability is an important quality of enzymes of thermophilic organisms.

3) Which of the following option represents correct matching pairs ?

Category
Example
of enzyme

(A) Oxidoreductase (i) Aldolase

(B) Lyases (ii) Citrate synthase

(C) Isomerases (iii) Dehydrogenase

(D) Ligases (iv) Hexoisomerase

(1) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (i)
(2) A = (iv), B = (iii), C = (i), D = (ii)
(3) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (ii), D = (iv)
(4) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (ii)

4) Statement I : Enzymes have been classified into different groups based on the type of reactions
they catalyse.
Statement II : Hydrolases enzyme catalyses hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide and glycoside bonds.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

5) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase
(b) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide contain the vitamin riboflavin
(c) Haem act as prosthetic group of the enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide
to water and oxygen
(d) Cofactor is the part of enzyme which does not affect the catalytic activity of the enzyme
Options :-

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a) and (b)
(3) Statements (a) and (c)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

6) Which option does not shows the similarity between prosthetic groups and co-enzymes ?

(1) Organic compound

(2) Tightly bound to the apoenzyme
(3) Activator of enzyme
(4) Co-factor

7) Heam is the prosthetic group of –

(1) Peroxidase and ligase

(2) Peroxidase and catalase
(3) Catalase and dehydrogenase
(4) Pyruvate-dehydrogenase

8) An organic compound loosely bound to apoenzyme is known as :

(1) Metal ion

(2) Apoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme
(4) Coenzyme

9) Sulpha drugs kill bacteria by inhibiting synthesis of folic acid from para amino benzoic acid. This
type of control of bacterial pathogens is :-

(1) Non-competitive inhibition

(2) Allosteric inhibition
(3) Competitive inhibition
(4) Negative feedback

10) Which chemical inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by inhibitions the activity of succinate
dehydrogenase?

(1) Succinate
(2) Malonate
(3) Citric acid
(4) Glucose

11)

Consider following graphs regarding the effect of change of different factors on enzyme activity
Identify the factor (a) and (b)

(1) (a) - Substrate concentration, (b) - temperature

(2) (a) - pH, (b) - substrate concentration
(3) (a) - Temperature, (b) - pH
(4) (a) - Substrate concentration, (b) - pH

12)

(1) A-Substrate, B-Product, C-activation energy without enzyme, D-Activation energy with enzyme
(2) A-Activation energy without enzyme, B-Activation energy with enzyme, C- Product, D-Substrate
(3) A-Activation energy with enzyme, B-Activation energy without enzyme, C-Substrate, D-Reactant
(4) A-Activation energy without enzyme, B-Activation energy with enzyme, C- Reactant, D-Product

13) In half-leaf experiment, a compound is used to absorb an essential substrate of photosynthesis.

This compound is ?

(1) NaOH
(2) KOH
(3) NaCl
(4) HCl

14) Find out the wrong statement from the following :-

(1) Photosynthesis is a physicochemical process
(2) Photosynthesis is an exergonic reaction
(3) Green plants can convert light energy into chemical energy
(4) Photosynthesis is a redox process

15) Assertion : Photosynthesis is a Redox-process.

Reason : During photosynthesis oxidation of water and reduction of CO2 takes place.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

16) During photosynthesis, the oxygen in glucose comes from :

(1) Water
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Both from CO2 and water
(4) Oxygen present in air

17) Which one of the following equation suggest that O2 release during photosynthesis comes from
water :-

18 18 18
(1) 6CO2 + 12H2O → 6O2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O
18 18
(2) 6CO2 + 12H2O → 6O2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O
18 18
(3) 6CO2 + 12H2O → 6O2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O
(4) 6CO2 + 12H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2

18) First action spectra was given by :

(1) T.W. Engelmann

(2) Joseph Priestley
(3) Van Neil
(4) Robert Hill

19) Bell Jar experiment was performed by :-

(1) Von Sachs

(2) Joseph Priestley
(3) T.W. Engelmann
(4) Cornelius Van Neil

20) The scientist who proved that bacteria use H2S and CO2 to synthesize carbohydrate is :

(1) Van Niel

(2) Ruben
(3) Jean Senebier
(4) Julius Robert Mayer

21) Chlorophyll 'a' appears ------ in colour & chlorophyll 'b' appears ------ in colour on chromatogram :-

(1) Blue green, Yellow green

(2) Yellow green, Blue green
(3) Blue, Red
(4) Green, Red

22) In the chloroplast, the site of carbon reaction and photochemical reaction is-

(1) Grana and stroma respectively

(2) Grana and matrix respectively
(3) Matrix and stroma respectively
(4) Stroma and grana respectively

23) Find the correct statements from the following

(A) All living phenomena are due to underlying interactions
(B) Ernst Mayr is the pioneer of biological concept of species.
(C) Biology is the study of micro-organisms only
(D) All living organisms of present, past and future, are linked to one another by the sharing of
common genetic material in equal magnitude

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A, B & C
(4) A & D

24) Reproduction is a character of living organisms but it cannot be regarded as defining property
because:-

(1) Asexual reproduction involves only single parent

(2) Lower organisms do not reproduce under stressful environment
(3) Some living beings do not have the capacity to reproduce
(4) For lower plants, growth and reproduction are not mutually exclusive phenomena

25) Who is known as Darwin of 20th century ?

(1) Robet Hook

(2) Ernst Mayr
(3) G. N. Ramchandran
(4) Katherine Esau

26) The most obvious & technically complicated feature of all living organisms is -
(1) Growth
(2) Metabolism
(3) Cellular organisation
(4) Consciousness

27) Choose the correct sequence of taxonomic categories in ascending order :-

(1) Species → Genus → Order → Family

(2) Kingdon → Class → Family → Genus
(3) Species → Genus → Family → Order
(4) Kingdom → Class → Genus → Family

28) Number of obligate/broad taxonomic categories is :-

(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 3

29) Which one of the following diagrams represents the slime mould :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30)

The bacterial .............is very simple, but they are very complex in............

Fill in the above blanks with correct words :-

(1) Behaviour, structure respectively
(2) Reproduction, structure respectively
(3) Shape, size respectively
(4) Structure, behaviour respectively

31) Membrane bound cell organelle are absent in cell of :-

(1) Nostoc
(2) Yeast
(3) Gonyaulex
(4) Acetabularia

32) Some characteristics are given below :

Unicellular, Aquatic, Autotrophic and heterotrophic mode of nutrition and asexual reproduction by
binary fission, Eukaryotic
Above mentioned characters are related to which kingdom ?

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Animalia

33) Given below is a characteristics of the four kingdoms with four blanks (A-D), identify the blanks
:-

Monera Protista Fungi Plantae

Cell Present in Present
Peptidoglycan B
wall some (cellulose)
Nuclear
A Present Present Present
membrane
Body
Cellular Cellular Multicellular D
organisation
Mode of Autotrophic,
C Heterotrophic Autotrophic
nutrition heterotrophic
(1) A-Absent, B-Cellulose, C-Autotrophic, D-Tissue/organ
(2) A-Present, B-Non-cellulosic, C-Heterotrophic, D-Cellular
(3) A-Absent, B-Chitin, C-Autotrophic and heterotrophic, D-Tissue/organ
(4) A-Present, B-Peptidoglycan, C-Heterotrophic, D-Cellular

34) Red tide in ocean is caused by rapid multiplication of ______

(1) BGA
(2) Rhodophyceae algae
(3) Diatoms
(4) Dinoflagellates

35) Arrange the steps involve in sexual cycle in fungi in correct order :-

(1) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Zygote → Meiosis → Haploid spores

(2) Karyogamy → Plasmogamy → Zygote → Meiosis → Haploid spores
(3) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Zygote → Haploid spores → Meiosis
(4) Plasmogamy → Zygote → Karyogamy → Meiosis → Haploid spores

36) Ascospores are formed in :-

(1) Neurospora
(2) Penicilium
(3) Yeast
(4) All of the above

37) Identify the fungi as given in the figure and select the correct option regarding this figure.

(1) Mucor – Member of Phycomycetes

(2) Aspergillus – Member of Ascomycetes
(3) Agaricus – Member of Basidiomycetes
(4) Claviceps – Member of Ascomycetes

38) Choose the incorrect statement from following:-

(1) Yeast are used to make bread and bear.

(2) Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
(3) Cell wall of fungi is composed of chitin and polysaccharides.
Fungi show symbiotic association with algae as mycorrhiza and with roots of higher plants as
(4)
lichens.

39) Read the following statements.

(A) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
(B) Prions are made of proteins only
(C) Viruses are inert outside their specific host cell.
(D) Mumps, small pox and influenza disease are caused by bacteria.
Which statements are correct.

(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B, C and D

40) Statement-1: Our understanding of the plant kingdom has changed over time Fungi, and
members of the Monera and Protista having cell walls have now been excluded from plantae though
earlier classification placed them in the same kingdom.
Statement-2: The earliest systems of classification used only gross superficial morphological
characters such as habit, colour, number and shape of leaves etc.
Option :

(1) Both statement-1 and 2 are correct.

(2) Only statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect.
(3) Only statement-2 is correct but statement-1 is incorrect.
(4) Both statement-1 and 2 are incorrect.

41) Match column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

A Linnaeus i Natural classification

B Phylogenetic classification ii Use of computers

C Bentham and Hooker iii Artificial classification

D Numerical taxonomy iv Evolutionary relationship

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

42) Which of the following statements are correct about algae:

(i) Form and size of algae is highly variable
(ii) Volvox is filamentous form.
(iii) Ulothrix and spirogyra are colonial forms.
(iv) A few of marine forms such as kelps, form massive plant bodies.

(1) Only (i) and (ii) are correct

(2) Only (iii) and (iv) are correct
(3) Only (i) and (iv) are correct.
(4) Except (ii) all are correct.

43) In which algae type of sexual reproduction is anisogamous

(1) Ulothrix
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Volvox
(4) Eudorina

44) , and are among the 70 species of marine algae used as food.

(1) A-Volvox, B-Fucus, C-Ulothrix

(2) A-Polysiphonia, B-Laminaria, C-Dictyota
(3) A-Ulothrix, B-Fucus, C-Polysiphonia
(4) A-Porphyra, B-Laminaria, C-Sargassum.

45) Agar is obtained from:

(1) Laminaria and sargassum

(2) Polysiphonia and Porphyra
(3) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(4) Volvox and Fucus.

46) Identify the name of algae according to the following characters

i. Plant body may be unicellular, colonial or filamentous.
ii. They are usually grass green due to the dominance of pigments chlorophyll 'a' and 'b'.
iii. Most of the members have one or more storage bodies called pyrenoids located in the
chloroplast.
Options -

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

47) Which is wrongly matched

(1) Spirogyra-Motile gametes

(2) Sargassum-Chlorophyll 'C'
(3) Equisetum-Forest fire
(4) Nostoc-Water Bloom

48) Peat moss is used as a packing material for trans shipment of flowers and fruits because

(1) It is attractive
(2) Its capacity of hold water
(3) It is amphibian of plant kingdom
(4) Its gametophyte is the main plant body

49) Choose the wrong pair

(1) Hepaticopsida-Porella
(2) Lycopsida-Selaginella
(3) Bryopsida-Anthoceros
(4) Pteropsida-Adiantum

50) Peristomial teeth are present as spore dispersal mechanism in

(1) Riccia
(2) Marchantia
(3) Polytrichum
(4) Lycopodium

51) Which one of the follow is called "Walking fern"

(1) Adiantum
(2) Equisetum
(3) Dryopteris
(4) Salvinia

52) Pteridophytes are called vascular cryptogams because they are non-seeded plants containing

(1) Only vessels

(2) Both vessels and tracheids
(3) Both companion cells and vessels
(4) Both Xylem and Phloem

53) Anthrozoids of fern are-

(1) Comma shape and biflagellated

(2) Comma shape and Multiflagellated
(3) Spiral shape and Multiflagellated
(4) Spherical shape and Multiflagellated

54) Assertion (A) : Pinus displays the alternation of generations.

Reason (R) : Sporophyte is independent and main plant body.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

55) The phenomenon of sulphur shower in pine forest is due to

(1) Presence of sulphur

(2) Large number of flowers
(3) Large number of fruits
(4) Release of pollen grains in abundant amount

56) In gymnosperm mainly the method of pollination is

(1) Hydrophily
(2) Anemophily
(3) Entomophily
(4) Zoophily

57) Which of the following is matched incorrectly-

(1) Pinus-Coralloid roots

(2) Cycas-Pinnately compound leaves with sunken stomata and thick cutide.
(3) Sequoia-one of the tallest tree species.
(4) Ephedra-shrub
58) In the winged pollen grain of Pinus how many male gametes are present

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

59) Cycas resembles pteridophytes in having

(1) circinate vernation of young leaves

(2) leaves are covered with brown hairs called ramenta.
(3) Seeds are present.
(4) Both (1) and (2)

60) Statement-1: Unlike the gymnosperms where ovules are naked, in the angiosperms or
flowering plants, the pollen grains and ovules are developed in specialised structures called flowers.
Statement-2: Angiosperm range in size from the smallest Wolffia to tall trees of Eucalyptus-They
are divided into two classes, the dicotyledons and the monocotyledons.

(1) Both statment-1 and 2 are correct

(2) Only statment-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect.
(3) Only statement-2 is correct but statement-1 is incorrect
(4) Both statement-1 and 2 are incorrect

61) Which of these algae are used as a source of agar ?

A. Chlamydomonas
B. Laminaria
C. Gelidium
D. Gracilaria
E. Polysiphonia
F. Ulva
G. Sargassum

(1) A, C
(2) B, D
(3) C, D
(4) A, B

62) Partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen and carbondioxide at different parts involved in diffusion
in comparison to those in atmosphere is given in the following tables.
Identify the correct one.

Respiratory Atmospheric Blood Blood

Alveoli Tissue
gas air (deoxygenated) (Oxygenated)
O2 159 40 40 95 40
(1)
CO2 0.3 104 45 40 45
O2 159 104 40 95 45
(2)
CO2 0.3 40 45 40 40
 O2 159 104 40 95 40
(3)
CO2 0.3 40 45 40 45
O2 0.9 104 40 95 45
(4)
CO2 159 40 45 40 40
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Study the spirograph and identify the correctly matched volumes and capacities from the codes

given:

T V IRV ERV RV VITAL CAPACITY

(1) A C B D E

(2) A B C D E

(3) B A C D E

(4) C B A D E
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) From the following relationships between respiratory volume and capacities, mark the correct
option :-
(i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Residual volume (RV).
(ii) Vital capacity (VC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) + Expiratory reserve
volume (ERV)
(iii) Residual volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
(iv) Tidal volume (TV) = Inspiratory capacity (IC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

(1) (i) incorrect, (ii) incorrect, (iii) incorrect,(iv) correct

(2) (i) incorrect, (ii) correct, (iii) incorrect, (iv) correct
(3) (i) correct, (ii) correct, (iii) incorrect, (iv) correct
(4) (i) correct, (ii) incorrect, (iii) correct, (iv) incorrect

65) About 1200 ml of air is always remain inside the human lungs. It is described as :-

(1) Tidal volume

(2) Residual volume
(3) Expiratory reserve volume
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume

66) Which portion of the human respiratory system is called sound box ?

(1) Larynx
(2) Trachea
(3) Nasopharynx
(4) Glottis

67) Different respiratory volumes are given below :

I. Tidal Volume = 500 ml
II. Residual volume 820 ml
III. Inspiratory Reserve Volume = 2500 ml
IV. Expiratory Reserve Volume = 975 ml
The expiratory capacity (EC) is :-

(1) 3500 ml
(2) 1795 ml
(3) 1475 ml
(4) 3000 ml

68)

As the solubility of CO2 is ______ higher than that of O2, the amount of CO2 that can diffuse through
the diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much _______ compared to that of
O2.

(1) 20-25 times ; higher

(2) 10-15 times ; higher
(3) 30-35 times ; higher
(4) 20-25 times ; lower

69) Which of the following are used for normal inspiration ?

(1) IICM
(2) EICM
(3) Diaphragm
(4) Both (2) & (3)

70) In which of the following groups of animals, the respiration occur through lungs only ?
(1) Amphibians, reptiles and birds
(2) Amphibians, reptiles and mammals
(3) Reptiles, birds and mammals
(4) All of these

71) In mammals the body cavity is partitioned into thoracic and abdominal parts by

(1) Liver
(2) Lungs
(3) Ribs
(4) Diaphragm

72) Intercostal muscles are found attached with :-

(1) pelvic cavity

(2) ribs
(3) Pulmonary cavity
(4) digits

73) pCO2 maximum in:-

(1) Alveoli & deoxygenated blood

(2) Alveoli & oxygenated blood
(3) Tissue & deoxygenated blood
(4) Tissue & oxygenated blood

74) Which of the following is not correct for vital capacity ?

(1) VC = IRV + ERV

(2) VC = IC + ERV
(3) VC = EC + IRV
(4) VC = TLC – RV

75) Which is correct sequence for respiratory Volumes in human?

(1) TV < RV < ERV < IRV

(2) TV < ERV < RV < IRV
(3) TV < ERV < IRV < RV
(4) ERV < TV < RV < IRV

76) Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing :-

(1) Inspiration is a passive process where as expiration is active process

(2) Inspiration is an active process where as expiration is passive process
(3) Inspiration and expiration are active processes
(4) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes

77) Inspiration can occur, when –

(1) Pressure within the lungs is less than the atmospheric pressure.
(2) Pressure within the lungs is more than the atmospheric pressure.
(3) Pressure within the lungs and atmospheric air is same.
(4) No effect of pressure on inspiration.

78)

Which is the correct sequence of the air passage in man?

(1) Nasal cavity → pharynx → trachea → larynx → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli

(2) Nasal cavity → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli
(3) Nasal cavity → larynx → pharynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli
(4) Nasal cavity → larynx → bronchi → pharynx → trachea → bronchioles → alveoli

79) Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while
swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of :-

(1) Epiglottis
(2) Diaphragm
(3) Neck
(4) Tongue

80)

Cartilagenous rings in respiratory passage are present in

(1) Trachea, bronchi and initial bronchioles only

(2) Trachea only
(3) Trachea and initial part of bronchi only
(4) Trachea, bronchi and all bronchioles

81)

Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.

(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases

(1) only (d)

(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
82) Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can
never be expelled because :-

(1) There is a positive intrapleural pressure

(2) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the atomospheric pressure.
(3) There is a negative pressure in the lungs.
(4) There is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls

83) Statement-I : Maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration is vital
capacity.
Statement-II : On an average, a healthy human breathes 12-16 times/minute.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

84) In which of the following sequence the CO2 is diffused out of the body blood ?

(1) Endothelium → Basement membrane → Squamous epithelium

(2) Basement membrane → Squamous epithelium → Endothelium
(3) Squamous epithelium → Basement membrane → Endothelium
(4) Basement membrane → Endothelium → Squamous epithelium

85) Read the following statement carefully :-

(A) Alveoli are primary sites of exchange of gases.
(B) Trachea has 'c' shape rings which are ventrally incomplete.
(C) Covering of lung are called pleura.
(D) Right lung has 2 lobes and left has 3 lobes.
How many statement is/are correct ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Human has the ability to increase the strength of inspiration and expiration with the help
additional muscles in

(1) Ribs
(2) Diaphragm
(3) Abdomen
(4) Sternum

87) Trachea gets divided into left and right primary bronchi at the level of

(1) 4th thoracic vertebra

(2) 5th thoracic vertebra
(3) 6th thoracic vertebra
(4) 3rd thoracic vertebra

88) Match the column and find the correct combination of respiratory organ of animals :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Earthworm (i) Pulmonary

(b) Human (ii) Gills

(c) Prawn (iii) Trachea

(d) Insects (iv) Moist cuticle

(1) a–(i), b–(ii), c–(iii), d–(iv)
(2) a–(iv), b–(i), c–(ii), d–(iii)
(3) a–(iii), b–(ii), c–(iv), d–(i)
(4) a–(iv), b–(ii), c–(i), d–(iii)

89) What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the alveolar air as compared to those in atmospheric air?

(1) pO2 lesser, pCO2 higher

(2) pO2 higher, pCO2 lesser
(3) pO2 higher, pCO2 higher
(4) pO2 lesser, pCO2 lesser

90) Given below is a diagram of section of an alveolus with a pulmonary capillary. Find out the
correct diagram:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 1 3 1 4 3 4 4 3 2 4 2 4 1 3 3 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 3 2 2 4 2 1 3 4 2 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 3 1 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 1 2 3 1 4 2 1 2 2 4 4 1 2 4 3 2 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 2 4 2 4 4 4 1 4 4 4 4 3 2 4 4 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 4 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 4 3 3 2 2 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 4 2 3 1 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 1 3 2 4 3 2 1 4 1 2 3 4 1 4 3 4 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 4 4 3 1 1 2 3 3 1 4 3 2 4 2 1 3 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 3 2 2 1 3 1 4 3 4 2 3 1 2 2 1 2 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 1 1 1 3 2 2 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

= 5J

2)
∴ Momentum increases by 100 %

3)

⇒
x = 0.15 m

4) A slope of problem graph is positive and constant upto certain distance and then it becomes
zero.

So from , up to distance a, F = constant (negative) and becomes zero suddenly.

5)

U = xyz2

6)

10 + 10 + (–10)(–1)
= 30 W

7) Pin =
P0 = ηPin

= 8 kw

8)

wext =

=8J

9)

w = area of F-x curve = ΔK

vF = 40 m/s

10) ω = Δk
ωg + ωfr + ωN = kf – ki
(mgsinθ) 2L – (μmgcosθ) L + 0 = 0 – 0
mgsinθ.2L = μmgcosθ.L
μ = 2tanθ

11) F = 2x

=9–1=8J
12) Equilibrium F = 0
at x1 and x3

13)

vrms → 2vrms

14) Number of collision at any time is equal for ABCD & EFGH.
But change in momentum at ABCD is 2mv but at EFGH is mv.

15)

At high temperature, low pressure and low density, all real gas behave as an ideal gas.

17)

PT = Constant :

P2V = Constant :

18)

V2 = 0.5 km/s.

19)

(Heat loss)Ball = (Heat gain)Container + water

Let temperature of ball is 'T'

20)

ΔT =
ΔT doesn't depend on mass.

21)

Hence, m = 50 kg = 50 × 103 g
 ΔQ = 1500 kcal = 1.5 × 106 cal
s = 0.83 cal g–1°C–1
As ΔQ = msΔT

ΔT = = 36.14°C

22)

P2V = constant

∴ = constant
∴

V is made three times. So, T will becomes times.

23)

A → B P = Constant (Isobaric)
B → C T = Constant (Isothermal)

24)

25) {P → cons.}
∴ Move towards right

26)

27) KE of 1 molecule = KT

KE of molecule =
N' = 2N

⇒ T' =

28) Heat transfer will take place only if there is temperature difference.

29)

70(x) + 50(2 + x) = 80(2 – x)

= 30 cm towards left

30)

= 1 rad/sec

31)

Centripetal acceleration

ac =
Tangential acceleration at = 4 m/s2

Resultant acceleration a =

=
= 5 m/s2

32)
F = 500 N

33)

Tmax = mω2r
100 = (100×10–3)(ω2)(0.1)
ω = 100 rad/s
34) Explain question : Two particles are undergoing uniform circular motion, each attached
to a string of different lengths. find the ratio of their string lengths (L1​/L2​) given that their
time periods (T) are equal.
Concept : This question is based on conical pendulum.
Formula :

Calculation :
T1​=T2​.

L1​cosθ1​ = L2​cosθ2​

θ1​=30∘ θ2​=45∘

Final Answer : Option (2)

35)

36)

θ = 60°

37)

By COME between 'P' & 'Q'

38) Explain:- masses of three particles and their cordinates are given. We are asked to find
cordinates of COM of 3- particle system.
Concept:- COM of Descrete system

Formula:-

Calculation:-

So COM(1,3)

39) ycm =

40)

xcm =

41)

42)

so velocity of COM will be 6 m/s

43)

so, x = 5m

44)

|a1| = |a2| =
a1 = + g/2 m1 = m
 a2 = – g/2 m2 = 3m

45)

Asking About:
• Minimum angular velocity ω to keep the block from falling.
Concept :
• The normal force is providing necessary Centripetal force and limiting friction balances
gravitational force
Formula:
• Centrifugal Force = N = mw2r

• Friction Force: f = μN = μmw2r

• Condition for equilibrium f = mg

Calculation / Explanation:
μmω2R = mg

Final Answer :
The minimum angular velocity required is 10 rad/s
Correct Option : (3) 10 rad/s

CHEMISTRY

46) Asking about:

pH of solution

Concept:
pH of S.A. + S.A. mix

N3V3 = N1V1 + N2V2

= 0.7

Final Answer: The correct option is (4).

47)
Solution:

A. HNO₃ (Nitric acid) → NO₃⁻ (Strong acid, very weak conjugate base)

B. HCl (Hydrochloric acid) → Cl⁻ (Strong acid, very weak conjugate base)

C. H₂SO₄ (Sulfuric acid) → HSO₄⁻ (Very strong acid, weak conjugate base)

D. CH₃COOH (Acetic acid) → CH₃COO⁻ (Weak acid, relatively strong conjugate base)

CH₃COO⁻ is the strongest conjugate base because acetic acid is the weakest acid among the
given options, meaning its conjugate base is the strongest.

Answer option 4, (CH₃COO⁻).

48)
Ksp = [Ag+]2

49)

Explain Question : We are to identify the correct behavior of pK(w) with temperature changes.

Concept : Temperature dependence of water ionization constant pKw

Solution :
Ionization of water is endothermic, so with rising temperature, Kw increases,
and pKw = –logKw
hence pKw decreases.

Final Answer : option (2)

50) [OH–] = 2 × [OH–]water

= 2 × 10–7
∴ pOH = 6.7
hence pH = 7.3

51)

H2O act as Bronsted acid.

52) EXPLANATION: Which of the following species cannot produce both a conjugate acid and
a conjugate base?

CONCEPT :
Water (H₂O): water is amphoteric.
It can donate a proton to form OH– (conjugate base).
It can accept a proton to form H₃O⁺ (conjugate acid).
Therefore, H₂O can produce both a conjugate acid and a conjugate base.
Bicarbonate Ion (HCO₃⁻):
HCO₃⁻ can donate a proton to form CO₃²⁻ (conjugate base).
HCO₃⁻ can accept a proton to form H₂CO₃ (conjugate acid).
Therefore, HCO₃⁻ can produce both a conjugate acid and a conjugate base.
Hydrogen Sulfate Ion (HSO₄⁻):
HSO₄⁻ can donate a proton to form SO₄²⁻ (conjugate base).
HSO₄⁻ can accept a proton to form H₂SO₄ (conjugate acid).
Therefore, HSO₄⁻ can produce both a conjugate acid and a conjugate base.
Ammonium Ion (NH₄⁺):
NH₄⁺ can donate a proton to form NH₃ (conjugate base).
However, NH₄⁺ is a conjugate acid and does not readily accept another proton to become a
conjugate acid of itself. So it is not normally shown to make a conjugate acid under normal
conditions.
FINAL ANSWER : (NH₄⁺)
CORRECT OPTION = 4

53) Explanation:
Relation B/W K1 & K2

Concept:
This concept based on Dissociation constant of poly VBasic Acid .

Solution:

Given
&
we know after one dissociation Acid become weaks so that K1 > K2

Correct option:
(2) K1 > K2

54) Bi2S3 → 2Bi+3 + 3S–2 CdS → Cd+2 + S–2

Al(OH)3 → Al+3 + 3OH–
CaF2 → Ca+2 + 2F–

55) Question Asking About:

Find minimum solubility in all four options.
Concept:
Minimum solubility of AgBr occurs when a common ion is added to the solution.
Solution/Explanation:

Option (2):

Option (3):
Option (4):

0.1 M Ca Br2

56) NaOH is a base

pH > 7

57)

For Basic buffer solution (WB + WBSA)

Salt of same weak base with strong acid.

58) Hybridisation of carbon in CH4 is sp3 (25 % S + 75% p)

59) NCERT, Pg. # 113

60) NCERT, Pg. # 120 to 125

61) HgCl2 = sp, , ,

62) Non-planar shapes (Pyramidal, tetrahedral, see-saw, square pyramidal, octahedral,

pentagonal bi-pyramidal)

63)
Both are bent

64) tetrahedral; H3O+ = sp3(3σ + ℓ.p.) pyramidal OF2 = sp3(2σ + 2ℓ.p.) Bent.

65) In sp3 d hybridisation axial bonds are longer than equatorial bonds because axial bonds
suffer more repulsion.

66) NCERT, Pg. # 108, 109

67)
68)

Hyb - sp3 sp3

BA ≈ 104.5 107
shape - Vshape Trigonal
pyramidal

69) NCERT (OLD), Pg. # 112

70)

Due to presence of hydrogen bonding H2O having more boiling point

71) NCERT, Pg. # 125 and 131.

72) NCERT based

73) NCERT based

74) Ionic character ∝

75) Polarisability ∝ Charge ∝ Size of anion.

76) (a) SF4 = see saw (sp3d, one lone pair)

XeF4 = square planar (sp3, one lone pair)
(b) = pyramidal (sp3, one lone pair)
= trigonal planer (sp2)
(c) BF3 = trigonal planer (sp2)
NF3 = pyramidal (sp3 one lone pair)
(d) = pyramidal (sp3, one lone pair)
XeO3 = pyramidal (sp3, one lone pair)
77) A bond length is the average distance between the centres of nuclei of two bonded atoms.
A multiple bond (double or triple bond) is always shorter than the corresponding single bond.
The C-atom in is sp2-hybridized as shown
The C-atom in CO2 is sp-hybridized with bond distance carbon oxygen is 122 pm.
O = C = O ↔ +O ≡ C – O– ↔ – C ≡ O+
The C-atom in CO is sp-hybridized with C — O bond distance is 110 pm.
: C ≡ O+

78) In case of single bond, there is only one σ bond, in case of double bond, there is one σ and
one π bond while in case of triple bond, there is one σ and two π bonds. Thus, angular shape
of ozone (O3) contains 2σ and 1π-bond.

79) N2O : hence it is linear.

With 2bp and 3lp around central atom it is linear.
With 2bp (stereo active pairs) around the central atom, it is linear.

80) PCl5 molecule has trigonal bipyramidal shape and the P-atom is sp3d hybridized. The d-
orbital involved is .

81) One water molecule is joined to four water molecules – two with H-atoms and other two
with O – atoms. Thus, the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a molecule of water can

have four as shown below:

82) SF4 has sp3d hybridisation and see-saw shape with

(4 bp + 1 lp) and resultant.

83) All the molecules have O-atom with one pairs but in H2O the H-atom has no vacant orbital
for π-bonding. That's why it does not have any π-bond.
In all other given molecules, the central atom because of the presence of vacant orbitals, is
capable to form π- bonds.

84) B — H — B bridge bond in diborane is formed by the sharing of 2 electrons. 3C — 2e– bond.

85) Thallium (Tl) shows different oxidation states because of inert pair effect (+3, +1).
 86) Sn+2 oxidation Sn+4 Reducing agent.

87) In BF3, no. of σ-bonds at B atoms = 3

no. of lp on B atom = 0
∴ Total electron pairs = 3
∴ Hybridisation is sp2 and BF3 is trigonal planar in shape.

88) C2 molecule exist according to MOT.

89) μ1 = 0 (as it is symmetrical)

For μ = 0 (as it is symmetrical)

Hence, for μ will be 1.5 D

90) Although F is the most electronegative, it is expected to have maximum dipole moment
however it is too smaller in size to overpowers its electronegative effect (μ = e × d), hence its
dipole moment is lower than CH3Cl.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT XI Pg # 155

92)

NCERT-XI English Page # 154 (1st para.)

NCERT-XI िहदी पे ज # 154 (दस
ू रा पे राग ाफ)

93)

NCERT XI Pg.# 159

94) NCERT(XI) Pg. # 158

95) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 118

96) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 159

97) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 159

98) NCERT XI Pg.# 118

99) NCERT XI Pg.# 158

100) NCERT XI Pg.# 117

101)

NCERT XI Pg.# 157

102) NCERT XI Pg.# 155, (9.12.1)

103)

NCERT XI Pg.# 207

104) Module XI Pg. # 159

105)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 206, 212

106) Module no. 3, [Link]. 176 (E), 192 (H)

107)

The correct equation that suggests that O2 released during photosynthesis comes from water
is:

In photosynthesis, the oxygen (O2) released is derived from water (H2O), not carbon dioxide
(CO2). The process involves the splitting of water molecules during the light reactions
(photolysis), which releases oxygen as a byproduct. The 6CO2: molecules are converted into
glucose (C6H12O6) during the Calvin cycle, while 12H2O molecules are split to release 60:
molecules and provide electrons.
Thus, the correct equation is:
 which clearly shows that oxygen comes
from water

108)

NCERT XI Pg.# 208

109) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 207, Para-3, Line-5,6

110) Module no. 3, [Link]. 178 (E), 194 (H)

111)

Chlorophyll 'a' appears blue green in colour & chlorophyll 'b' appears yellow green in colour
on chromatogram.

112) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 209

113) Explain Question : Question asking select correct statement about the living world
Concept : This question is based on the living world
Solution :
(A) All living phenomena are due to underlying interactions. correct
(B) Ernst Mayr is the pioneer of biological concept of species. correct
(C) Biology is the study of micro-organisms only. Incorrect
Biology is the story of life on earth. Biology is the story of evolution of living
organisms on earth
(D) All living organisms of present, past and future, are linked to one another by the sharing of
common genetic material in equal magnitude Incorrect
All living organisms – present, past and future, are linked to one another by the
sharing of the common genetic material, but to varying degrees
Final Answer : option (1)

114) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 4

115) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 2

116)

NCERT XI Pg.# 5

117) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 10

118) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 8

119) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 21

120) NCERT XI(E)/(H) Page No. # 19, I para

121) Prokaryotic cell

122)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 15

123) NCERT XI Pg.# 11

124) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 15

125) NCERT XI Pg.# 23

126) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 24, 2.3.2

127) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 23, 24

128) NCERT (XI) Pg # 22

129) NCERT XI Pg.#26 & 27

130) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 23

131) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 23, 24

132) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 24

133) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 24

134) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 26

135) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 26

136) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 26

137) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 24,25,26,27,31

138) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 29

139) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 29,30,31,32,

140)

NCERT XI Pg.# 30

141) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 32

142) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 30,32

143) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 30, 32

144) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 32, 33

145) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 32, 33

146) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 32, 33

147) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 32, 33

148) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 32, 33

149) Module

150) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 34

151) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 26

152)

Solution:
Here’s a breakdown of the partial pressures of oxygen (O 2 ) and carbon dioxide (CO 2 ) in
different locations involved in the respiratory process and how they compare to the
atmospheric air (which has a partial pressure of 159 mm Hg for O2 and 0.3 mm Hg for CO2):

A. Atmospheric air:
 A. O2 : 159 mm Hg

B. CO2 : 0.3 mm Hg

B. Alveoli (where gas exchange occurs):

A. O2 : 104 mm Hg (due to mixing with dead space air and humidification)

B. CO2 : 40 mm Hg (after exchange with blood)

C. Deoxygenated blood (before it enters the lungs, from tissues to the lungs):

A. O2 : 40 mm Hg

B. CO2 : 45 mm Hg

D. Oxygenated blood (after gas exchange in the alveoli):

A. O2 : 95 mm Hg

B. CO2 : 40 mm Hg

E. Tissues (site of cellular respiration and gas exchange with blood):

A. O2 : 40 mm Hg

B. CO2 : 45 mm Hg

Comparison:

A. In Option (3):

A. O2 : 159 mm Hg in atmospheric air, 104 mm Hg in alveoli, 40 mm Hg in tissues,

and 95 mm Hg in oxygenated blood.

B. CO2 : 0.3 mm Hg in atmospheric air, 40 mm Hg in alveoli, 45 mm Hg in tissues,

and 40 mm Hg in oxygenated blood.
 This matches the expected values for partial pressures during gas exchange between the
lungs, blood, and tissues.
Thus, Option (3) is correct.

153) NCERT XI Pg. # 271

154)

A. Question: Identify the correct relationships between respiratory volumes and capacities.

B. Given Data:

A. (i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Residual volume (RV)

B. (ii) Vital capacity (VC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) +
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

C. (iii) Residual volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

D. (iv) Tidal volume (TV) = Inspiratory capacity (IC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

C. Concept: Respiratory volumes and capacities.

D. Explanation:

(i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV):
Inspiratory capacity is the maximum volume of air a person can inhale after a normal
exhalation. It includes the tidal volume (the amount of air inhaled or exhaled during normal
breathing) and the inspiratory reserve volume (the extra volume of air that can be inhaled
beyond the tidal volume). The given equation incorrectly includes Residual volume (RV). So,
statement (i) is incorrect.

(ii) Vital capacity (VC) = Tidal volume (TV) + Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) + Expiratory
reserve volume (ERV): Vital capacity is the maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a
maximum inhalation. It includes the tidal volume, the inspiratory reserve volume, and the
expiratory reserve volume (the extra volume of air that can be exhaled beyond the tidal
volume). So, statement (ii) is correct.

(iii) Residual volume (RV) = Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) - Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV):
Residual volume is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal exhalation. It cannot be
directly calculated from vital capacity. It is related to the Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) by the
formula: FRC = RV + ERV. So, statement (iii) is incorrect.

(iv) Tidal volume (TV) = Inspiratory capacity (IC) – Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV): As explained in
(i), IC = TV + IRV. Therefore, TV = IC - IRV. So, statement (iv) is correct.

155)
NCERT XI, Pg # 187

156) NCERT Pg. # 269

157)

A. Question: Calculate the expiratory capacity (EC) given the tidal volume, residual volume,
inspiratory reserve volume, and expiratory reserve volume.

B. Given Data:

A. Tidal Volume (TV) = 500 ml

B. Residual Volume (RV) = 820 ml

C. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) = 2500 ml

D. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) = 975 ml

C. Concept: Respiratory volumes and capacities, specifically expiratory capacity.

D. Explanation:

Expiratory capacity (EC) is the maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a normal
inhalation. It is the sum of the tidal volume (TV) and the expiratory reserve volume (ERV).

EC = TV + ERV

Substituting the given values:

EC = 500 ml + 975 ml EC = 1475 ml

158)

NCERT Pg No.#188

159)

Diaphragm: Primary muscle of normal inspiration.

A. External Intercostal Muscles: Assist by lifting the ribs during inspiration.

These two muscles are primarily responsible for normal, quiet breathing.
 160)

Explanation:
Reptiles, birds, and mammals are the groups of animals where respiration occurs primarily
through lungs.

A. Reptiles: Use lungs for respiration throughout their lives.

B. Birds: Also rely on lungs for respiration, with a highly efficient system of air sacs to help with
gas exchange.
C. Mammals: Respiration occurs primarily through the lungs, with a diaphragm aiding in the
process.
D. Correct Answer: (3)

161) Explanation : The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic cavity
(containing the heart and lungs) from the abdominal cavity (containing digestive organs, etc.).
It plays a crucial role in respiration by contracting and flattening during inhalation, creating
space for the lungs to expand.
The correct answer is (4) : Diaphragm

162) 1. ribs: This is the correct answer. Intercostal muscles are located between the ribs.
They play a crucial role in breathing by helping to expand and contract the rib cage.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: ribs.

163)

Explanation:

A. PCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide) is typically highest in deoxygenated blood and
tissues because:

A. Tissues: Cells produce carbon dioxide as a by product of metabolism, which

increases the PCO2 in the tissues.

B. Deoxygenated blood: After oxygen has been delivered to tissues and carbon
dioxide has been picked up, the PCO2 is higher in venous (deoxygenated) blood.

On the other hand:

A. Alveoli & oxygenated blood: In the alveoli, carbon dioxide is being expelled from the
blood, so PCO2 is lower, and in oxygenated blood, PCO2 is also relatively lower after
exchange in the lungs.
Correct Answer: (3)

164) Solution:
VC = IRV + ERV: This is incorrect because it does not include the tidal volume (TV), which is a
 part of vital capacity. It should be VC = IRV + TV + ERV.
Correct Answer: (1)

165)

TV (Tidal Volume): The amount of air inhaled or exhaled during normal, relaxed breathing.
It's the smallest volume.
RV (Residual Volume): The amount of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal exhalation.
It is greater than the tidal volume but less than the other reserve volumes.
ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume): The amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled after the
normal tidal exhalation.
IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume): The maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a
normal tidal inhalation. It is the largest volume.
TV < ERV < RV < IRV.

166)

A. Question: Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing:

B. Given Data: Options: 1. Inspiration is a passive process whereas expiration is an active process; 2.
Inspiration is an active process whereas expiration is a passive process; 3. Inspiration and expiration
are active processes; 4. Inspiration and expiration are passive processes. C. Concept: Mechanics of
breathing (inspiration and expiration). D. Explanation:

A. Inspiration: During normal breathing, inspiration is an active process. The diaphragm

contracts and moves downwards, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity. The external
intercostal muscles also contract, lifting the rib cage up and out. This expansion of the thoracic
cavity creates a negative pressure within the lungs, causing air to rush in.
B. Expiration: During normal breathing, expiration is a passive process. The diaphragm relaxes
and moves upwards, decreasing the volume of the thoracic cavity. The external intercostal
muscles also relax, allowing the rib cage to return to its resting position. This decrease in
thoracic cavity volume increases the pressure within the lungs, forcing air out.

E. Final Answer: 2. Inspiration is an active process whereas expiration is a passive process.

167)

The right answer is: (1)

Explanation:
1. The pressure inside the lungs is lower than the pressure outside in the atmosphere.
Inspiration happens when the pressure inside the lungs, known as intrapulmonary pressure, dips
below the atmospheric pressure. This pressure difference is what pulls air into the lungs, since air
naturally moves from areas of higher pressure to areas of lower pressure. When we inhale, the
diaphragm tightens and the rib cage expands, which boosts the lung volume and lowers the
pressure inside, making it easy for air to rush in.

168) NCERT- XI, Page No.- 184

169) Explanation: The epiglottis is a small flap of tissue that covers the trachea (windpipe)
 during swallowing, preventing food and drink from entering the lungs. If the epiglottis doesn't
function properly, food can enter the airway and cause coughing.

170) NCERT- XI, Page No.- 184

171)

SOLUTION/EXPLAINATION: -

During inspiration (inhalation), the following events occur:

A. Contraction of diaphragm (a):

○ The diaphragm contracts and moves downward, increasing the volume of the
thoracic cavity, which aids in drawing air into the lungs.

B. Contraction of external intercostal muscles (b):

○ The external intercostal muscles contract, causing the ribs to move upward and
outward, further expanding the thoracic cavity.

C. Pulmonary volume decreases (c):

○ This statement is incorrect. During inspiration, the pulmonary volume

increases as the lungs expand to accommodate the incoming air.

D. Intrapulmonary pressure increases (d):

○ This statement is incorrect. During inspiration, intrapulmonary pressure

decreases because the volume of the thoracic cavity increases, creating a pressure
gradient that allows air to flow into the lungs.

Thus, the correct events during inspiration are the contraction of the diaphragm and the
contraction of external intercostal muscles (option 2).

172)

Lungs do not collapse because the space around them (pleural cavity) always has a negative
pressure.
This negative pressure pulls the lungs outward and keeps them partly filled with air, so some
air (residual volume) always remains inside and cannot be expelled.

173) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 184

174)

NCERT Pg. No. 188

175)
 A. Question: How many of the given statements about the respiratory system are correct (not
incorrect)?
B. Given Data: Four statements about the respiratory system are provided.
C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of respiratory system anatomy and physiology.
D. Explanation:

(A) Alveoli are the primary sites of exchange of gases: This statement is correct. The
alveoli are the tiny air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange between the air and the blood
occurs.
(B) Trachea has 'C' shaped rings which are ventrally incomplete: This statement is
incorrect. The trachea's cartilaginous rings are C-shaped and incomplete on the dorsal
surface. This incomplete structure allows for flexibility and expansion of the esophagus during
swallowing.
(C) Covering of the lung is called pleura: This statement is correct. The lungs are enclosed
by a double-layered membrane called the pleura. The pleural fluid between the layers reduces
friction during lung movement.
(D) Right lung has 2 lobes and left has 3 lobes: This statement is incorrect. The right lung
has three lobes (superior, middle, and inferior), while the left lung has two lobes (superior and
inferior).
E. Final Answer: Two statements (A, and C) are correct. Therefore, the answer is 1

176) Explanation
In normal, quiet breathing, the primary muscles involved are the diaphragm and the external
intercostal muscles. However, the strength of inspiration and expiration can be increased by
using additional muscles, especially during forced breathing.
Correct Answer: (3)

177)

Explanation: The trachea divides into the left and right primary bronchi at the level of the 5th
thoracic vertebra (T5). This is the location of the carina, the point where the trachea bifurcates
into the bronchi that enter each lung.
Correct Answer:
5th thoracic vertebra

178) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 268

179) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 273

180)

The alveolar wall is primarily one cell thick, formed by Type I pneumocytes.

A. Type II pneumocytes, though present, are thicker and less numerous, but they do not
contribute to the thickness of the gas-exchanging surface.

Thus, the alveolar wall is effectively one cell thick for the purposes of gas exchange.