28-07-2024

1901CMD303001240061 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1)

For the given figure :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) The vector sum of the forces of 10 N and 6 N can be :

(1) 2 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 18 N
(4) 20 N.

3)

In the following figure what are the angles between vectors, respectively:-

(1) 30°, 60°, 150°

(2) 90°, 120°, 150°
(3) 120°, 60°, 30°
(4) 90°, 150°, 60°

4) Magnitude of a vector

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) The sum of the series is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The expression is a

(1) Unit vector

(2) Null vector
(3) Vector of magnitude
(4) Scalar

7) If a particle moves from point P (2, 3, 5) to point Q (3, 4, 5). Its displacement vector be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) For the vectors and shown in figure if A = 15 N, B = 15 N, then = ..........

(1) 15 N
(2)
(3) 30 N

(4)
9) Minimum numbers of coplanar vectors having different magnitudes give zero resultant are:

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) More than four

10) If then angle between and will be :

(1) 90°
(2) 15°
(3) 30°
(4) 135°

11) The direction cosines of are :

(1) 1,1,1
(2) 2,2,2

(3)

(4)

12) What is the maximum number of rectangular components into which a vector can be split in its
own plane ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) Infinite

13) If , find angle of from x-axis.

(1) 53°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 30°

14) The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the vectors

and is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

15) What happens when we multiply a vector by (–3) ?

(1) Direction reverses and unit changes

(2) Direction reverses and magnitude tripled
(3) Direction and magnitude remains unchanged
(4) Direction remains unchanged but magnitude tripled

16)

A force acts on a body and displaces it by . The work done by

the force is :

(1) 10 J
(2) 12 J
(3) 18 J
(4) 25 J

17) If a vector is perpendicular to the vector . Then the value of is

(1) -1
(2) 1/2
(3) -1/2
(4) 1

18)

Find cross product of

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

19) A vector points vertically downward & points towards east, then the vector product is

(1) along west

(2) along east
(3) zero
(4) along south
20) Find the value of so that the two vectors and are anti-parallel

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) -2
(4) 3

21) Find if and

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 4

22) Find the value of log20 20

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 5

23)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24)

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Find
(1)
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 1.925

26) Roots of x2 – 17x + 16 = 0 will be

(1) 1, 16
(2) –1, –16
(3) –1, 16
(4) 1, –16

27)

Find sum and product of roots of equation

2x2 – 3x + 5 = 0

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 3, 5

28)

If g' = , then by applying Binomial theorem : (if h << R)

g' =
(1)

(2)
g' =
g' =
(3)

g' =
(4)

29)

If then =?
(1) M × N

(2)

(3) M – N
(4) M + N

30) , find

(1) 0.8
(2) .34
(3) 1.9
(4) None

31) The component of a vector along the vector is :

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 5
(4) 10

32) The vector and are perpendicular to each other. The negative
value of a is:-

(1) 3
(2) –3
(3) 1
(4) –1

33) If and than and are :

(1) parallel
(2) opposite
(3) equal
(4) normal

34) If three vectors satisfy the relation and , then can be parallel to

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) If and then value of is -

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) –20
(4) 15

SECTION-B

1)

The magnitude of vectors and are respectively 6, 8 and 10 units where than angle
between will be :

(1) 0°
(2) 45°
(3) 90°
(4) 60°

2)

In the given figure, is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3)

Two vectors and are such that and A – B = C. Which of the following statements, is
correct ?

(1) is parallel to
(2) is anti-parallel to
(3) is perpendicular to
(4) and are equal in magnitude

4)

Vector makes angles α, β & γ with the x, y and z axes respectively, then cos2α + cos2 β + cos2 γ =
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

5)

A vector is along the positive Y-axis. If its vector product with another vector is zero then
may be:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6)

The value of is

(1) 0
(2)
(3)
(4)

7)

In vector diagram shown in figure where is the resultant of & . If R = , then angle between
& :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 135°
(4) 75°

8)

If is a unit vector in the direction of the vector then :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

9) Given , if then find out vector :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Which of the following is the value of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) log2(x) = –5, find the value of x

(1) 1/15
(2) 1/35
(3) 1/45
(4) 1/32

12) x2 + 2x + 6 = 0 then x :

(1) —2, 1
(2) 0, 0
(3) No real solution
(4) 1, 2

13)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14)

Find

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

15) If first term is –100 and common difference of an A.P. is 2. then its 21st term is :

(1) 20
(2) –20
(3) 60
(4) –60

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following contains maximum number of atoms ?

(1) 4 g of H2
(2) 16 g of O2
(3) 28 g of N2
(4) 18 g of H2O

2) The volume of a gas in discharge tube is 1.12 × 10–7 mL at STP. Then the number of molecule of
gas in the tube is -

(1) 3.01 × 104

(2) 3.01 × 1015
(3) 3.01 × 1012
(4) 3.01 × 1016

3) For a gaseous reaction of the type

aA + bB → cC + dD,
Which statement is wrong ?

(1) a litre of A combines with b litre of B to give C and D

(2) a mole of A combines with b moles of B to give C and D
(3) a g of A combines with b g of B to give C and D
(4) a molecules of A combines with b molecules of B to give C and D

4) The modern atomic weight scale is based on.

(1) C12
(2) O16
(3) H1
(4) C13

5) Which one of the following has maximum number of atoms?

(1) 1g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]

(2) 1g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
(3) 1g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
(4) 1g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]

6) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Both 12g of carbon and 27g of Aluminium will have 6.02 × 1023 atoms.
Statement-II : Gram atomic mass of an element contains Avogadro's no. of atoms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.

7) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : 1g each of O2 and O3 contains and atoms respectively.

Statement-II : 1g each of O2 and O3 contains same number of molecules.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.

8) The number of electron in 3.1 mg is

(NA = 6 × 1023)

(1) 32
(2) 1.6 × 10–3
(3) 9.6 × 1020
(4) 9.6 × 1023

9) An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of sulphur in it. Its emperial formula is -

(1) SO2
(2) SO3
(3) SO
(4) S2O

10) 5.6 L of oxygen at NTP is equivalent to –

(1) 1 mol
(2) 1/2 mol
(3) 1/4 mol
(4) 1/8 mol

11) The empirical formula of an organic compound containing carbon and hydrogen is CH2. The
mass of one litre of this organic gas is exactly equal to that of one litre of N2 at same temperature
and pressure. Therefore, the molecular formula of the organic gas is –

(1) C2H4
(2) C3H6
(3) C6H12
(4) C4H8

12) On analysis, a certain compound was found to contain iodine and oxygen in the ratio of 254:80.
The formula of the compound is : (At mass I = 127, O = 16)

(1) IO
(2) I2O
(3) I5O2
(4) I2O5

13) If avogadro number NA, is changed from 6.022 × 1023 mol–1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol–1, this would
change :

(1) the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation

(2) the ratio of elements to each other in a compound
(3) the definition of mass in units of grams
(4) the mass of one mole of carbon

14) Gram atomic weight of oxygen is

(1) 16 amu
(2) 16 g
(3) 32 amu
(4) 32 g

15) Given that one mole of N2 at NTP occupies 22.4 litre the density of N2 is -

(1) 1.25 g L–1

(2) 0.80 g L–1
(3) 2.5 g L–1
(4) 1.60 g L–1

16) 0.44 g of a colourless oxide of nitrogen occupies 224 mL at STP. The compound is -

(1) N2O
(2) NO
(3) N2O4
(4) NO2

17) The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas is :- (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1)

(1) 1.800 × 1022

(2) 6.026 × 1022
(3) 1.806 × 1023
(4) 3.600 × 1023

18) A gas is found to contain 2.34 g of Nitrogen and 5.34 g of oxygen. Simplest formula of the
compound is -

(1) N2O
(2) NO
(3) N2O3
(4) NO2

19) A compound of X and Y has equal mass of them. If their atomic weights are 30 and 20
respectively. Molecular formula of that compound (its mol. wt. is 120) could be -

(1) X2Y2
(2) X3Y3
(3) X2Y3
(4) X3Y2

20) If 0.5 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mole of Na3PO4 the maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2
that can be formed is -
3BaCl2 + 2Na3 PO4 → Ba3 (PO4)2 + 6NaCl

(1) 0.7
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.1

21) If 1/2 moles of oxygen combine with Aluminimum to form Al2O3 then weight of Aluminium metal
used in the reaction is
4Al(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Al2O3(s)

(1) 27 g
(2) 18 g
(3) 54 g
(4) 40.5 g

22) Density of a gas STP is 1.43 g L–1. What is its molecular weight ?

(1) 16
(2) 32
(3) 48
(4) 64

23) What is the mass of a molecule of CH4 :–

(1) 16 g
(2) 26.6 × 1022 g
(3) 2.66 × 10–23 g
(4) 16 NA g

24) The weight of one atom of Uranium is 238 amu. Its actual weight is .... g.

(1) 1.43 × 1026

(2) 3.94 × 10–22
(3) 6.99 × 10–23
(4) None of these

25) 4 g of hydrogen are ignited with 4 g of oxygen. The weight of water formed is -

(1) 0.5 g
(2) 3.5 g
(3) 4.5 g
(4) 2.5 g

26) The number of litres of air required to burn 8 litres of C2H2 is approximately -

(1) 40
(2) 60
(3) 80
(4) 100

27) 9 g of Al will react, with : 2Al + O2 → Al2 O3

(1) 6 g O2
(2) 8 g O2
(3) 9 g O2
(4) 4 g O2

28) Number of neutrons present in 1.7 g of ammonia is -

(1) NA
(2) (NA/10) × 4
(3) (NA/10) × 7
(4) NA × 10 × 7

29) The density of the solution is 2.15 g mL–1 , then mass of 2.5 mL solution in correct significant
figures is

(1) 5375 × 10–3 g

(2) 5.4 g
(3) 5.38 g
(4) 53.75 g

30) 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion give 40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of H2O (vap.). The
hydrocarbon is -

(1) C4H5
(2) C8H10
(3) C4H8
(4) C4H10

31) A hydrocarbon contains 75% of carbon. Then its molecular formula is -

(1) CH4
(2) C2H4
(3) C2H6
(4) C2H2

32) A gas is found to have the formula (CO)x. It's VD is 70. The value of x must be:-

(1) 7
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

33) 1 L of a hydrocarbon weighs as much as one litre of CO2 Under similar conditions. Then the
molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is -

(1) C3H8
(2) C2H6
(3) C2H4
(4) C3H6

34) In which case the number of molecules of water maximum?

(1) 18 mL of water
(2) 0.18 g of water
(3) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
(4) 10–3 mol of water

35) Which of the following contains greatest number of oxygen atoms ?

(1) 1 g of O
(2) 1 g of O2
(3) 1 g of O3
(4) all have the same number of atoms

SECTION-B

1) A container of volume V, contains 0.28 g of N2 gas. If same volume of an unknown gas under
similar condition of temperature and pressure weighs 0.44 g, the molecular mass of the gas is

(1) 22
(2) 44
(3) 66
(4) 88

2)

An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gives 38.71% of
C and 9.67% of H. The empirical formula of the compound would be :-

(1) CHO
(2) CH4O
(3) CH3O
(4) CH2O

3) 4.8 g of KClO3 when heated produced 1.9 g of oxygen and the residue (KCl) left behind 2.9 g.
Which law of chemical combination is illustrated.
(1) Law of mass conservation
(2) Law of definite proportion
(3) Law of reciprocal proportion
(4) Law of gaseous volume

4) The law of multiple proportion is illustrated by the pair of compounds –

(1) Sodium chloride and sodium bromide

(2) Water and heavy water
(3) Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide
(4) Magnesium hydroxide and magnesium oxide

5) 1 L of N2(g) combines with 3 L of H2(g) to form 2 L of NH3(g) under the same conditions. This law
illustrates the :

(1) Law of constant composition

(2) Law of multiple proportion
(3) Law of reciprocal proportion
(4) Gay lussac's law of gaseous volume

6) Four one litre flasks are separately filled with the gases CO2, F2, NH3 and He at same room
temperature and pressure. The ratio of total number of atoms of these gases present in the different
flasks would be-

(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 2 : 4 : 1
(4) 2 : 1 : 3 : 2

7) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R).
Assertion (A) : Hydrogen combines with oxygen to form two compounds namely, water and
hydrogen peroxide.
Reason (R) : The above example is in accordance with law of multiple proportion.
In the light of the assertion reason statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :

(1) (A) & (R) both are correct

(2) (A) & (R) both are incorrect
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

8) 8 g NaOH is dissolved in one litre of solution, its molarity is :

(1) 0.8 M
(2) 0.4 M
(3) 0.2 M
(4) 0.1 M

9) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

(a) 4.48 litres of O2 at STP (i) 0.2 moles

22
(b) 12.022 × 10 molecules of H2O (ii) 12.044 × 1023 molecules

(c) 96 g of O2 (iii) 6.4 g

(d) 88 g of CO2 (iv) 67.2 litres at STP

(Given – Molar volume of a gas at STP = 22.4 L)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

10) 11 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is :-

(1) NO
(2) N2O4
(3) CO
(4) CO2

11) The volume of 1.0 g of hydrogen at NTP is :

(1) 2.24 L
(2) 22.4 L
(3) 1.12 L
(4) 11.2 L

12) Assertion (A):– Pure water obtained from different sources such as river, well, spring, sea etc.
always contains hydrogen and oxygen combined in the ratio of 1 : 8 by mass
Reason (R):– A chemical compound always contains elements combined together in same
proportion by mass.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

13)

How many grams of NaOH will be needed to prepare 250 ml of 0.1 M solution.
(1) 1 g
(2) 10 g
(3) 4 g
(4) 6 g

14) Calculate the volume of 20% (w/v) aqueous NaOH solution required to prepare 50 ml, 0.05 M
aqueous NaOH solution.

(1) 0.25 ml
(2) 5 ml
(3) 0.5 ml
(4) 1 ml

15) Number of oxygen atoms in 8 g of ozone is -

(1) 6.02 × 1023

(2)

(3)

(4)

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Which event is not common between interphase and interkinesis ?

(1) Growth in cell

(2) RNA synthesis
(3) DNA synthesis
(4) Protein synthesis

2)
Choose the correct option based on given diagram:

A B C D
(1) Karyokinesis Metaphase Cytokinesis G1
(2) Karyokinesis Metaphase Cytokineiss G2
(3) Cytokinesis Metaphase Karyokinesis G2
(4) Metaphase Cytokinesis Karyokinesis G2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 4
(4) 32

4) Crossing over takes place between which chromatids and in which stage of the cell cycle?

(1) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I

(2) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I
(3) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I
(4) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I

5) Cell-plate represents the :

(1) Relatively extensible cell wall.

(2) Middle lamella between the walls of two adjacent cells.
(3) A furrow in the plasma membrane.
(4) None of the above

6) Select matched pair

(1) S phase : DNA Replication

(2) G2 phase :Inactive phase
(3) Quiescent stage : synthesis of DNA
(4) All of these
7) Identify stage

(1) Transition to metaphase

(2) Anaphase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Telophase

8) Which of the following is not a significance of mitosis?

(1) Production of progeny having identical genetic complement

(2) Restoration of nucleocytoplasmic ratio
(3) Replacement of dead tissue
(4) Evolution

9)

Chromosomal condensation completed in-

(1) Metaphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Late prophase
(4) Anaphase

10) In which stage of the cell cycle histone proteins synthesized in a eukaryotic cell ?

(1) During G2 phase

(2) During S phase
(3) Prophase
(4) Telophase

11) Which one of the following statement is incorrect :-

(1) M-phase is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle

(2) Cell division is a progressive process
(3) Prophase follows the S and G1 phases of interphase
(4) Prophase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material

12) Each metaphasic chromosome of a diploid cell contain?

(1) One chromatid
(2) Two chromatids
(3) 4-chromatids
(4) Depends upon orientation of metaphasic plate

13) Which of the following is true for telophase ?

(1) Reformation of nuclear envelope, Golgi, nucleolus and ER occurs

(2) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles
(3) Chromosome lose their identity as discrete units
(4) All are correct

14) Four phases of cell cycle in sequencial order is:

(1) G1 → S → G2 → M
(2) S → G1 → G2 → M
(3) G1 → G2 → S → M
(4) M → G1 → G2 → M

15)

Genetic material of bacteria is

(1) Nucleoid
(2) Genophore
(3) Nucleus
(4) Both (1) and (2)

16) It is said that the one cycle of cell division in human cells takes 24 hours. Which phase of the
cycle, do you think occupies the maximum part of cell cycle?

(1) Prophase
(2) Interphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Metaphase

17) Some cells in the adult animal do not divide. They exit G1 phase and enter an inactive stage
which is called as :-

(1) G2 phase
(2) G0 phase
(3) S-phase
(4) M-phase

18) Which of the following proteinaceous components of the cell cytoplasm help in the initiation of
the assembly of mitotic spindle ?
(1) Microtubules
(2) Microbodies
(3) Centromere
(4) Kinetochore

19) Nucleolar organizer is a :-

(1) Primary constriction

(2) Secondary constriction
(3) Tertiary constriction
(4) Centriole

20) Which cell organelle synthesises steroids ?

(1) E. R.
(2) Golgi body
(3) Peroxisomes
(4) Lysosomes

21) A student done the cell fractionation of a tissue and forgot to label his tubes. The content of one
tube when studied showed organelles bounded by membrane with activity of catalase enzyme. These
organelles could be :-

(1) SER
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Lysosome
(4) Peroxisome

22) Match column I with column II :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Algae (a) Diminished as the cell membrane mature

(ii) Primary wall (b) Calcium pectate

(iii) Middle lamella (c) Capable of growth

(iv) Secondary wall (d) Have minerals like CaCO3

(e) Formed towards the membrane

(1) (i)–d, (ii)–a, (iii)–b, (iv)–e
(2) (i)–a, (ii)–d, (iii)–b, (iv)–e
(3) (i)–d, (ii)–c, (iii)–b, (iv)–e
(4) (i)–d, (ii)–e, (iii)–a, (iv)–c

23) Assertion :- Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis.

Reason :- They are membrane bound cell organelles.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) Chromatin is chemically made of :-

(1) Nucleic acid, histone and non-histone proteins

(2) Nucleic acid and histone proteins
(3) Nucleic acid and non-histone proteins
(4) Nucleic acid

25)

Packaging of materials to be delivered either to the intracellular target and secreted outside the cell,
is performed by which cell organelle :-

(1) Golgibody
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Lysosome

26) Select the incorrect statement from the following :

(1) Both chloroplast and mitochondria contain DNA

(2) The chloroplast are generally larger than mitochondria
(3) Both chloroplast and mitochondria are surrounded by two membrane
(4) Both chloroplast and mitochondria have an internal compartment called matrix

27) Select incorrecly matched option :

(1) Typical bacteria -3-5 µm

(2) PPLO - about 0.1 µm
(3) Viruses - 0.02 - 0.2 µm
(4) Typical eukaryotic cell - 10 - 20 µm

28) Statement-I : Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids.
Statement-II : Endoplasmic reticulum principally performs the function of packaging materials.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

29) Assertion (A): Chloroplast and mitochondria are semi-autonomous cell organelles.
Reason (R): Both of these organelles have their own DNA material and protein synthesis
machinery.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

30) Assertion : Bacterial cells may be motile or non motile.

Reason : Bacterial cells may or may not posses cilia.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True &the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false

31) Assertion : Mesosome in bacteria help in respiration

Reason : Mesosome contain respiratory enzyme

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True &the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

32) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence

(2) Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living
Matthias Schleiden, A german zoologist, proposed that body of animals are composed of cells
(3)
and products of cell
(4) Schleiden and Schwann together formulated the cell theory

33) Which option is correct about lysosomes ?

(1) Called power house of the cell

(2) Contain hydrolases which active at the acidic pH
(3) Formation of glycoprotein and glycolipid
(4) All the above

34) (A) Ribosomes are membrane bound cell organelles.

(B) They have their own DNA.
Read the above statements carefully and choose the correct options :-

(1) Both A and B are correct

(2) A is correct and B is incorrect
(3) Both A and B are incorrect
(4) A is incorrect and B is correct

35) Which of the following is not correct for nucleolus?

(1) Membrane less structure

(2) Called ribosome factory of cell
(3) Also present in prokaryotes
(4) It is a site for r-RNA synthesis

SECTION-B

1)

Which of the following are correct regarding prokaryotic cells ?

(A) Genetic material is not enveloped by a nuclear membrane
(B) Compartmentalisation of cytoplasm is present
(C) The plasma membrane is similar structurally to that of the eukaryotes

(D) Genetic material is organised in the form of many chromosomes

(1) A and B
(2) B and D
(3) B and C
(4) A and C

2) Assertion (A) :- Nucleus is essentially required for all living cells, to regulate cellular activities.
Reason (R) :- Nucleus is a part of endomembrane system.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

3) Assertion: Golgi apparatus remains in close association with the endoplasmic reticulum.
Reason: Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the cis face of the
golgi apparatus and move towards the maturing face.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) The cytoplasmic continuity of plant cells is maintained by:-

(1) Cell membrane

(2) Plasmodesmata
(3) Cilia
(4) Microtubules

5)

How many cell organelles in the list given below are surrounded by single membrane ?

Mitochondria, Vacuole, Lysosome, Chloroplast, Golgi apparatus, Nucleus, Nucleolus, endoplasmic

reticulum, Ribosome, Peroxysome, centriole
(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Nine
(4) Three

6) The diagram given below shows which function principally:-

(1) Biosynthesis of lipid

(2) Packaging
(3) Excretion
(4) Protein synthesis

7) Which of the following is/are present in both prokaryotic cell and eukaryotic cells ?
(A) Cell wall (B) Ribosomes
(C) Flagella (D) Cell membrane
(E) Histone proteins (F) Nuclear envelope

(1) B & D
(2) B,D & F
(3) A, B, C & D
(4) B, D & E

8)

In which of the following phases of cell cycle, crossing over occurs ?

(1) Prophase-II
(2) Metaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-I
(4) Prophase-I

9) The phase of cell cycle which marks duplication of centriole in cytoplasm also shows -

(1) Continuous growth of cell which is metabolically inactive.

(2) Reformation of Nuclear envelope
(3) Replication of DNA
(4) Splitting of centromere

10) The duration of cell cycle in human cell and Yeast cell is respectively :-

(1) 90 Min., 24 Hours

(2) 90 Min., 24 Hours
(3) 24 Hours, 90 Min.
(4) 20 Hours, 90 Min.

11) Thylakoids are present in

(1) Mitochondria
(2) vacuoles
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Ribosomes

12) During meiosis, pairing of homologous chromosomes called :-

(1) Disjunction
(2) Congression
(3) Synapsis
(4) Terminalization

13) During meiosis, crossing over occurs between:

(1) Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

(2) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
(3) Sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes.
(4) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes.

14) Bivalent are formed in _____(A)____ but clearly visualized in ____(B)_____ What are A and B
respectively ?

(1) Zygotene and Laptotene

(2) Laptotene and Zygotene
(3) Zygotene and Pachytene
(4) Pachytene and Diplotene

15) Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence -

A. Terminalisation of chiasmata
B. Crossing over
C. Synapsis
D. Disjunction of chromosomes
E. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
The correct sequence is-

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) E → D → C → B → A
(3) C → B → D → E → A
(4) C → B → E → A → D

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Which layer is absent in the embryo of diploblastic animals.

(1) Mesoderm
(2) Ectoderm
(3) Mesoglea
(4) Endoderm

2) Tissue level of body organisation is found in:-

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Porifera
(4) Aschelminthes

3) Complete digestive system is a fundamental feature of :-

(1) Annelida
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Echinodermata
(4) All of these

4) First triploblastic animals were :-

(1) Coelenterates
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Annelida

5) Cellular grade of organisation is found in :-

(1) Sponges
(2) Coelentrates
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Ctenophora
6) The animals with bilateral symmetry belong to the phylum-

(1) Coelenterata
(2) Porifera
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Arthropoda

7) Sea anemone is :

(1) Diploblastic, Radial

(2) Diploblastic, Bilateral
(3) Triploblastic, Radial
(4) Triploblastic, Bilateral

8) In radial symmetry :-

(1) Animal can not be divided into two equal halves.

(2) Animal can be divided into two equal parts through one plane.
(3) Animal can be divided into two equal parts through any plane.
(4) Some times can not be divided.

9) In some animal groups, the body is found divided into compartments with serial repetition of at
least some organs. This characteristic feature is named as :-

(1) Metachrosis
(2) Metamerism
(3) Metagenesis
(4) Metamorphosis

10) Find out diploblastic animal :-

(1) Coelenterates and Echinoderms

(2) Annelids and Ctenophores
(3) Coelenterates and Ctenophores
(4) Flat worms and Round worms

11) Which is true for flatworms ?

(1) Bilaterally symmetrical

(2) Triploblastic body plan
(3) Acoelomate animals
(4) All of these

12) Endoskeleton in sponges are made up of :-

(1) Spicules or spongin fibres

(2) Cartilage
(3) Bones
(4) All of the above

13) Triploblastic with bilateral symmetry starts from which phylum ?

(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Mollusca

14) Some Cnidarians like ‘obelia’ exhibits alternation of generation of both forms in life cycle is
termed as:-

(1) Pedogenesis
(2) Metagenesis
(3) Metamorphosis
(4) Metacrosis

15) Sponges are most primitive multicellular organisms with which of the following levels of
organisation?

(1) Acellular
(2) Cellular
(3) Tissue
(4) Organ system

16) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of sponges?

(1) Tissue level of organisation

(2) Presence of flagellated collar cells
(3) Extracellular digestion
(4) Indirect development

17) Which feature of animal is not used as a basis of animal classification ?

(1) Nature of coelom

(2) Body symmetry
(3) Pattern of circulatory system
(4) Pattern of nervous system
18) The given diagram is a cross section of which animal :-

(1) Obelia
(2) Fasciola
(3) Euspongia
(4) Hydra

19) Hooks and Suckers are present in

(1) All Flatworms

(2) Parasitic flatworms
(3) Non-parasitic flatworms
(4) None of these

20) All are types of symmetry except one, present in Animal kingdom ?

(1) Spherical
(2) Radial
(3) Bilateral
(4) Asymmetrical

21) Which of the following is known liverfluke

(1) Taenia saginata

(2) Taenia solium
(3) Fasciola hepatica
(4) Schistosoma

22) In sponges, spongocoel is lined by :-

(1) Choanocytes
(2) Amoebocytes
(3) Pinacocytes
(4) Archaeocytes

23) Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of sponges ?

(1) Cellular level of organization

(2) Presence of ostia
(3) Intracellular digestion
(4) Body supported by chitin
24) The middle layer in body wall of porifera is :

(1) Mesoderm
(2) Mesenchyme
(3) Mesoglea
(4) Mesentery

25) Which is correct regarding Roundworms

(1) Females are longer than males

(2) Males are longer than females
(3) Monoecious
(4) Females are curved from its caudal end.

26) Which of the following sponges is also known as 'Bath sponge' ?

(1) Scypha
(2) Spongilla
(3) Euspongia
(4) Leucosolenia

27) Bioluminescence is well marked in which phylum?

(1) Porifera
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Platyhelminthes

28) Which is wrong w.r.t Porifera :-

(1) Internal fertilization

(2) Indirect development
(3) Intracellular digestion
(4) Unisexual

29) Hookworms belongs to

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Nemathelminthes
(4) Both 2 and 3

30) Which of the following statement is not true ?

(1) Matrix of cartilage is solid and non pliable

(2) In one lacuna only one chondrocyte is found
(3) All bones in human body have haversian canal system
(4) All of the above

31) Non-nucleated and dead cells with Keratin protein are found in which structure ?

(1) Vagina
(2) Pharynx
(3) Oesophagus
(4) Epidermis of skin

32) Except which glands rest all of glands are multicellular ?

(1) Goblet cell

(2) Paneth cell
(3) Salivary gland
(4) Both (1) and (2)

33) Bone forming cells are known as:-

(1) Chondrocyte
(2) Osteocyte
(3) Chondroclasts
(4) Osteoclasts

34) Periosteum is composed of :

(1) WFCT (White fibrous C.T.)

(2) YFCT (Yellow fibrous C.T.)
(3) RFCT (Reticular fibrous C.T.)
(4) MALT (Mucosa associated lymphoid organ)

35) Which of the following gland don’t have duct ?

(1) Salivary gland

(2) Mammary gland
(3) Intestinal gland
(4) Adrenal gland

SECTION-B

1) Fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells are seen in :-

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Muscle tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) Connective tissue

2) Maximum intercellular space is present in ?

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Bone
(4) Cartilage

3) Identify the diagram (A) and (B)

(A) (B)

(1) Unicellular gland Unicellular gland

(2) Multicellular gland Unicellular gland

(3) Unicellular gland Multicellular gland

(4) Multicellular gland Multicellular gland

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) How many type of basic tissue found in Complex animals ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

5) See the following figure and identify the following simple epithelial tissues :-
 A B C D

Pseudostratified
(1) Squamous Cuboidal Columnar columnar
(ciliated)

Pseudostratified Ciliated
(2) Cuboidal Columnar
squamous columnar

Ciliated
(3) Squamous Cuboidal Columnar
columnar

Ciliated
(4) Cuboidal Squamous Columnar
columnar
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Identify the epithelium given below and the concerned location:-

(1) Cuboidal epithelium Ducts of glands

Inner wall of
(2) Columnar epithelium
stomach

Inner wall of
(3) Squamous epithelium
blood vessels

Collecting duct
(4) Squamous epithelium
of nephron
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7)

Simple epithelium is composed of a _____ layer of cells and functions as lining for _______, _______
and _______.

(1) many, Pharynx, oesophagus, Buccal cavity

(2) Single, body cavity, ducts, tubes
(3) many, body cavity, oesophagus, Buccal Cavity.
(4) Single, Pharynx, ducts, tubes

8) Which of the following is correct statement

(1) Digestive system is incomplete in Flatworms but complete in Roundworms
(2) Digestive system is complete in Flatworms but incomplete in Roundworms
(3) Digestive system is complete in Flatworms and roundworms
(4) Digestive system is incomplete in Flatworms and Roundworms

9) Which option is incorrect about given diagram ?

(1) Free surface may have microvilli

(2) Simple epithelium
(3) Found in the walls of air sacs of lungs
(4) Form a diffusion boundary

10) Match the column I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Resist
a. I. Blood K.
compression

Site of
b. II. Bone L. production of
blood cells

Transport of
c. III. Cartilage M.
substances

(1) a-III-K, b-II-L, c-I-M

(2) a-II-L, b-III-K, c-I-M
(3) a-III-M, b-I-K, c-II-L
(4) a-II-K, b-III-M, c-I-L
11) Identify 'A' in the following figure of tendon?

(1) Collagen fibre

(2) Elastic fibre
(3) Reticular fibre
(4) Yellow fibre

12) Compound epithelium is made of more than one layer of cells and thus has limited role in ______
and ______.

(1) Secretion and absorption

(2) Chemical and mechanical stress
(3) Secretion and chemical stress
(4) Mechanical stress and secretion

13) Identify the following diagram, this represents which type of epithelium and found in which
structure ?

(1) Simple squamous, wall of blood vessels

(2) Simple cuboidal, ducts of glands
(3) Simple columnar, lining of stomach and intestine
(4) Ciliated epithelium, bronchioles

14) Petromyzon differs from scoliodon in having :-

(1) Jawed mouth

(2) Cranium
(3) Circular mouth
(4) Scales

15)

“Blind sac body plan” is found in –

(1) Sponges
(2) Annelids
(3) Coelenterates
(4) Nematodes
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 2 3 4 1 3 1 2 1 4 1 1 2 2 3 3 2 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 2 3 1 3 1 1 3 4 3 3 4 1 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 3 2 2 1 4 3 1 2 3 4 3 1 4 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 3 3 1 1 1 3 3 1 3 1 4 4 2 1 1 3 4 3 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 2 4 1 3 1 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 3 1 3 4 3 1 3 1 4 4 1 1 3 2

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 2 1 2 2 1 1 4 1 2 3 2 4 1 4 2 2 1 2 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 3 3 1 1 4 4 4 4 3 1 3 2 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 1 2 1 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 2 3 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 4 2 1 4 1 3 2 3 4 1 3 2 2 2 4 2 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 1 4 2 1 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 2 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 1 3 4 3 3 2 1 1 2 1 1 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

4)

8)

= 15N

10)

A2 + B2 + 2ABcosθ = A2 + B2 – 2AB cosθ

4AB cos θ = 0
θ = 90°

13)

15) Direction reverses and magnitude tripled

17)

Given vectors can be rewritten as and

Dot product of these vectors should be equal to zero
because they are penpendicular.

21)

22)

log20 20 = 1
 29) log X.Y = log X + logY
= logeM + logeN
= logeeM + N
=M+N

31)

32)

a2 – 2a – 3 = 0
a2 – 3a + a – 3 = 0
a(a – 3) + 1(a – 3) = 0
(a – 3) (a + 1) = 0
a=3
a=–1

36)

cos θ = 0
θ = 90°

47)
2
Because b < 4ac

CHEMISTRY

51)

52)
Moles of gas ⇒

No. of molecules of gas = × NA

53)

aA + bB → cC + dD
mass ratio is not same as coffi. Ratio so statement 3 is wrong statement for this reaction.

54) Based on C12 isotope

55)

Number of atoms = n × NA × atomicity

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

56)

→ &
Moles are same so number of atoms also same number of atoms
n × NA × 1
1 × NA × 1 = NA atoms.
→ Gram atomic mass represents mass of 1 mole of atoms & 1 mol has 6.022 × 1023 atoms.

57)

Number of atoms = n × NA × atomicity

Number of atoms of O2 =

Number of atoms of O3 =
Same number of atoms in 1 g O2 & O3 but different number of molecules.
Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is incorrect.

58) Number of electrons in

(number of electrons)
 =
= 9.6 × 1020

59)
Empirical formula = SO2

60)

61)

∵ mass of 1 L of this organic gas

= mass of 1 L of N2
∴ mass of 22.4 L (1 mol) organic gas
= mass of 22.4 L of N2 (mol wt) ⇒ 28 g
∴ mol. wt of organic gas = 28 g
empirical formula = CH2, It's wt. =14

n= =2
mol. formula = C2H4

62)

63) If NA change from 6.022 × 1023 to 6.027 × 1020 then the mass of 1 mole of carbon will also
change.

64)

Gram atomic weight of ‘O’

1 mol ‘O’ mass = 16g
 65)

Vol. of 1 mole N2 [at N.T.P.] = 22.4 L

mass of 1 mole N2 = 28g

Density of N2 =

66)

At STP 224 mL occupies → 0.44 g

∴ AT STP 22400 mL occupies ⇒ 44 g
(1 mol.)
and wt. of N2O is 44 g

67) Refer Allen module

68)

Compound is NO2

69)
Molecular formula = X2Y3

70)
3 BaCl2 + 2Na3PO4 → Ba3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl
↓ ↓ ↓
3 moles 2moles 1 mol
Given 0.5 moles 0.2 moles
so 0.3 moles of BaCl2 will react with
0.2 moles of Na3PO4 and gives 0.1 mol of Ba3(PO4)2

71)

4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3

3 mol O2 → 4 mol of Al
1 mol O2 → mol of Al

mol O2 → mol of Al

72) wt. of 1 mol = mol wt.

vol. of 1 mol = 22.4 L
d = 1.43 g/L
W=V×d

73)

1 molecule CH4 = 16 amu

1 amu = (1.66 ×10–24g)
mass of 1 molecule of CH4 = 16×(1.66 × 10–24g)
= 2.66 × 10–23g

74)

1 “U” atom = 238 amu

1 amu = 1.66 × 10–24g

1 “U” atom = 238 × (1.66 × 10–24g)

≃ 3.94 × 10–22g

75)

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

moles

L. R.

76) C2H2 + O2 → 2CO2 + H2O

↓ ↓
1 vol. vol.

∵ 1 L C2H2 required → L of O2

∴ 8 L C2H2 required →
= 20 L of O2
but 21 L O2 is present in 100 L air

77) Moles of Al =

Moles of O2 =

Wt of O2 =

78) 1 mol. of NH3 contains 7 × NA neutrons.

1.7 g of NH3 = = 0.1 mol.

∴ 0.1 mol contains ⇒ 0.1 × 7 × NA neutrons

79)

mass = Vol. × density

mass = 2.5 × 2.15

= 5.375
= 5.4g

80) CxHy(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(g)

(Hydrocarbon) ↓ ↓
10 mL 40 mL 50 mL
or 1 vol. 4 vol. 5 vol.
CxHy + 13O2 → 4CO2 + 5H2O
Comparing both sides
x=4
y = 10

81) C H

: 1
1 : 4
 formula CH4

82)

Mol. wt. = 2 × V.D.

= 2 × 70 = 140
mol. wt. of (CO)x = 28 x
Hence 28x = 140
x=5

83) wt. of 1 L of hydrocarbon = wt. of 1 L of CO2

∴ wt of 22.4 L of hydrocarbon = wt. of 22.4 L of CO2
(mol. wt of CO2) = 44 g
Ans → C3H8 have mol. wt = 44

84) (1) 18 mL water

As = 1 g/mL So = 18g

molecules = 1 × NA
(2) 0.18 g of water

= 0.01 × NA
(3) = 0.00224 L

molecules = 0.0001 × NA
(4)
–3
= 10 × NA

85) (1) 1g of O = × NA atoms

(2) 1 g of O2 = × 2 NA atoms

(3) 1 g of O3 = × 3 NA atoms,
Hence all have the same no. of atoms

86)

∵ equal volumes contains equal molecules (or moles)

∴ moles of N2 = moles of gas
(Let mol. mass of the gas = m)
 87)

Element C H O

% composition 38.71 9.67 51.62

Relative mole

Simplest ratio 1 3 1

92)

Both reaction follows law of multiple proportion A & R both are correct & R is correct explanation of
A.

97)

Law of definite proportion.

100)

1 mol of O3 contains 3NA atoms of oxygen

8 g O3 moles = mol

mol. of O3 contains ⇒ × 3NA =

BOTANY

102)

NCERT Pg.#163

103)

NCERT page no. 163

104)

Allen module page 211.

105)

OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 166

112) Ncert Page 165.

113) NEW NCERT XI Pg. # 124

 114) New NCERT - XI, fig. 10.1

116)

131) NCERT Page no 90, 91

132)

Module 01, Pg. # 167

138)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 134

144)

NCERT XI Page No. 163

148)

NCERT XI Pg # 126

149)

NCERT XIth Pg.#168, 10.4.1

ZOOLOGY

156)

NCERT-XI ; Page No. 47

157)

NCERT XIth Pg. # 50

162)

NCERT XI Page # 49

163)

NCERT Pg. 47

164)

NCERT XI(E) Page.50

166)

NCERT XIth Pg.#49

 167)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 46

168)

NCERT-XI, Page#48

170)

NCERT Page No. # 47, 4.1.2

173)

Module no. 5

177) NCERT-XI Pg. # 51 Ist para

183)

Module-2, Nurutre, Pg. # 98

191)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 101

194)

NCERT, Pg. # 101

196)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103 (Fig.7.5(a))

199)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 56, 57