Student's Solution Copy [Code - 27131]

NEET PATTERN TEST Brahmastra Semi Major Test-03

13th NEET - Phase 12
KOTA

Date:

Duration: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 720

Physics - Section A

1. 4.

Answer: 2 Answer: 4

Sol: Sol:
q 1 = 20 unitq 1 = – 30 unit
q1 = 20 unit
R = − 30cm ⇒ f = − 15cm
q1 =– 30 unit
O = + 2. 5cm, u = − 10cm
From conservation of charge 1 1
By mirror formula − 15 = υ
20 + (–30) = –10 unit
1 30
Final charge on both 5μC each. ⇒ ( +2.5)
= −
( − 10 )
⇒ I = + 7. 5cm

F ∝ q 1q 1

F1 ( 20 ) ( 30 ) 24
F2
= =
(5) (5) 1

2.

Answer: 3

Sol:
u = + 0. 2 v = − 0. 5
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
⇒ v + μ = f ⇒ −0.5 + 0.2 = f ⇒ f = 3m

f = 66. 67cm.

3.

Answer: 2

Sol:
mg
According to the question, eE = mg ⇒ E = e
5. 7.

Answer: 1 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

The work done in carrying a test charge consists in π/4

product of difference of potential at points A and B
and value of test charge. 8.

Answer: 1

Sol:

The electric field from the electric potential

equation is derived as
dV
E= -
dr
Potential at A ∂V
Ex = – = –4
1 q ∂x
VA =
4πε 0 a
∂V
Ey = – = –9
∂y
Potential at B
∂V
1 q Ez = – =3
VB = ∂z
4πε 0 a
→
E = E xî + E yĵ + E zk̂ = – 4î– 9ĵ + 3k̂
Thus, work done in carrying a test charge – Q from
→
A to B ˆ
E = Ex î + Ey ĵ + Ez k

( )
w = V A − V B ( − Q) = 0 ˆ
=– 4 î – 9 ĵ + 3k

6. 9.

Answer: 1 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:

By using the relation, ​Given, A = δ m

dV
Electric field intensity, E = -

where,
dr

μ=
sin
( ) A + δm
2

;
A
sin 2
potential difference = V
A A
2 sin 2 cos 2
distance = r sin A
√3 = sin 2
A
=
sin 2
A
From the graph,

the distance, r = 5 cm √3 A
= cos
2 2
potential, V = 2. 5 V

Electric field intensity,

E= -
(0-5)
A = 2 cos - 1
( ) √3
2

(6-4)
A = 2 × 30°
( -5)
E= - = 60°
2

E = 2. 5 V / cm
10. 13.

Answer: 3 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:
1 Qr 1
E= ⋅ ⇒E∝
4πε 0 R3 R3

11.

Answer: 2

Sol:
I0
When it pass through A intensity become Let 'm' be the mass of each ball and 'q' be the
2 Kq 2
charge on each ball. Force of repulsion F =
Now When it pass through B intensity become r2

I0 In equilibrium, Tcosθ = mg . . . . . . . (1)

I=
2
cos 2θ
Tsinθ = F . . . . . . . (2)
12.
From equation (1) and (2) we get

()
Answer: 1
F Kq 2
tanθ = = 2 ..... 3
Sol: mg r mg

()
()
r
2
And by geometry tanθ = ..... 4
y

2kλ θ
Field due to charged arc at the centre = sin
R 2
By equation (3) and (4), Before repulsion
Field due to remaining part at the centre will be
equal and opposite to the field due to removed
part.
() r
2
Kq 2
tanθ = =
y r 2mg
2kλ θ
E= ⋅ sin
R 2

2kλ
R ()
θ
2

kλ K Q d
E= θ= ⋅ ⋅
R R 2πR R

KQd
E=
2πR 3

( )
()
r'
2
Kq 2
After repulsion tanθ = = ..... 5
r ' 2mg
() y
2

r
By equation (4) and (5) we have r' = 1
23
14. 17.

Answer: 3 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:

Given incident angle i = 45°

angle of deviation, D = i – r

15° = 45 − r ⇒ r = 30°

now, by snell's law

n 1 sin i = n 2 sin r
Since distance between plate and –ve charge is
1 sin 45° = μ sin 30° less than that between plate and +ve charge,
electric force acts on object towards plate.
1 1
= μ2 18.
√2
Answer: 1
μ= √2 = 1 .414
Sol:
15.
C
V= μ
Answer: 2
v1 μ2 λ1
Sol:
So, v = μ = λ
2 1 2
flux emitted from the surface S2
μ2 3500 1
q in q2 + q3 2 × 10 – 6 – 3 × 10 – 6 Hence, μ = 7000 = 2
ϕ= ε = εo
= ε0
1
o

⇒ ϕ = − 36π × 10 3N. m 2 / C

16.
()
Now, critical angle, θ = sin – 1 μ
μ2

1
⇒ ()
1
θsin – 1 2

Answer: 3 ⇒ θ = 30º
Sol: 19.
I max 25
Given :- I = 1 Answer: 1
min
Sol:

[ ] √I1 + √I2 The quantity of charge passing through any cross-

2
25
= 1 section per second is nothing but the current
√I1 − √I2 flowing in the conductor.
As given, the current is a steady current, which
√ I 1 + √I 2 5
means the current is uniform throughout the
= 1 cross-section. Hence it is independent of the Area
√ I 1 − √I 2 of the cross-section.​

√
4 I1 = 6 I2
√
I1 9
⇒ I = 4
2
20. 22.

Answer: 1 Answer: 4

Sol: Sol:

Given,
1
f 1 ( )
= (μ - 1) R - R
2
1 1
size of image = 1/4 size of object
v 1/4 1 v u
m = u = 1 ⇒ m = 1/4 ⇒ 4 = u ⇒ v = 4
1
4 1 ( )
= (1. 4– 1) R - R
2
1 1
....(1) m =

⇒
1

4
=
v

u
=

u
1/4

1
⇒ m = 1/4

( )
u
⇒ v =
4
1 1 1
= (1. 6– 1) R - R ....(2)
f 1 2 now use lens formula:
1 1 1 4 1 1 4−1 1
1
v
− u = f ⇒ u − u = 30 ⇒ u
= 30
2
⇒ f = – 12. 8
1 1 1
− =
v u f
21. 4 1 1
⇒ − =
u u 30
Answer: 2 4−1 1
⇒ =
u
Sol:
30

⇒ u = 90 cm
Given:
J0 23.
J=
r2 Answer: 2
ri = a Sol:

r 0 = 2a Given :

I R = 10Ω
∴ current density J = dA
V = 20 volt
OR I = ∫ rr 0 JdA t = 2 min. = 2 × 60 sec
i

J0 By Ohm's law
= ∫ 2a
a 2 2πrdr
r V
i= R
I = 2πJ 0[lnr] 2a
a
Q
∵ i= t
I = 2πJ 0ln2
Vt 20 ×2×60
so ⇒ Q = R = 10
= 240 C

24.

Answer: 1

Sol:
10 – 4
I = 3 = 2A

Power given by 10V battery = EI = 6 × 2 = 12W

25. 27.

Answer: 3 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:
v2 In 1st case,
P= R
aq
E
I1 = R + G
v = 10 volt
In 2nd case
R eq = ( ) 5R
5+R
I2 =
E
SG
R+ S+G
P = 30W
for half deflection,
( 10 ) 2
1
30 = I 2G = 2 I 1
( ) 5R
5+R
1 E E S
= SG
15R 2 R+G S+G
R+ S+G
= 10
5+R
RS
15R = 50 + 10R ⇒ G = R-S

5R = 50 10 × 4 20
G = 10 - 4 = 3 Ω
R = 10Ω
28.
26.
Answer: 2
Answer: 3
Sol:
Sol:
Equivalent ckt is
Let the resistance of wire be equal to R. If the
length is tripled and thickness is made 1/4 then 5V
I = ( 30 + 20 ) Ω = 50 A
5
the new resistance will be 48 R. Hence new
balance length will be 48 L.
29. 32.

Answer: 1 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

The initial energy stored in the first capacitor. Power of the combination of lens
1 1
U0 =
2
CV2 =
2
× 0.1 × (10)2 = 5.0 J ( ) ( )
P = P1 + P2 = 1 / f1 + 1 / f2

When this capacitor is connected to the second f1 and f2 are focal length (in meter)
uncharged capacitor, the charge distributes
1 1
equally. This shows that the capacitance of the P= - = 2. 5 - 4 = - 1. 5D
40 / 100 25 / 100
second capacitor is also C. The voltage across each
capacitor will be . If U be the energy stored in 33.
the two capacitors, then Answer: 1

U= C
1
2 ()
V 2
2
+
1
2
C
()
V 2
2
=
1
4
CV2 = 2.5 J
Sol:
ω1
=–
f1
ω2 f2
U0 5.0 2
= =
U 2.5 1 34.
30. Answer: 1
Answer: 1 Sol:
Sol: Magnifying power of a telescope
f0
m=
fe

f0
5= f
e

f0 = 5fe
charge flown = 300μC f0 + fe = 60
31. 6fe = 60
Answer: 3 fe = 10
Sol: The focal length of eye piece is fe = 10 cm
P = P1 + P2 35.
P = -1 + 2 = + 1D Answer: 2
100
P= = 1⇒ f = 100 cm Sol:
f cm
λD
As focal length is positive the nature will be β=
d
converging
βd
λ=
D

put value and solve it

36. 39.

Answer: 2 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:
n 1λ 1 = n 2λ 2 Q = Constant

12 × 600 = n 2 × 400 New capacitance = KC (increases)

V
n 2 = 18 V′ = (decreases)
K

37. Q2
U′ = (decreases)
2KC
Answer: 2
Q Q
Sol: E= ⇒ E' = (decreases)
A ∈0 KA ∈ 0

40.

Answer: 2

Sol:
C . C eq
C eq = C +

(
⇒ C + C eq
C + C eq

)Ceq = C 2 + C. C eq + C. C eq
C eq =
( ) Er 1 + ∈ r 2
2
C

⇒C 2eq - C. C eq - C 2 = 0 =
( )( )
4+6
2
1μF = 5μF

C+ √C 2 + 4C 2 C + √5C 41.
C eq = =
2 2
Answer: 4
1 + √5
C eq = C Sol:
2

38.

Answer: 1

Sol:

When oil is present

K ∈ 0A 2 ∈ 0A
C= =
d d

When oil is removed. 2C × C 5C

∴ C eq = +C=
2 ∈ 0A 2C + C 3
C' = 5ε 0A
d
C eq =
' 3d
∴ C = C/2

∴ (1)
42. 43.

Answer: 3 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

the given circuit is,

For potential energy to be minimum the bigger

charges should be farthest. Let x be the distance
of q from 2q. Then potential energy of the system
shown in figure would be

here, 1μF, 2μF and 3μF capacitor are in parallel, so

their equivalent capacitance is 6μF
U=K
[ ( 2q ) ( q )
x
+
( 8q ) ( q )
(9-x)
+
( 2q ) ( 8q )
9 ]
now, the three 6μF capacitor are in series, 1
Here, K =
4πε 0
1 1 1 1 3 1
So, = + + = =
C 6 6 6 6 2 2 8
For U to be minimum + shoule be minimum.
x 9-x
hence, C = 2μF

So, Q = CV = 2 × 12 = 24μC

Hence, each 6μFcapacitor has potential difference

d
dx [ 2
x
+
8
9-x ] =0

= 24 / 6 = 4 V. -2 8
∴ + =0
x2
(9-x) 2

x 1
9-x
=
2

or x = 3 xm

i.e., distanc eof charge q from 2q should be 3 cm.

Electric field at q
K ( 2q ) K ( 8q )
E= - =0
( 3 × 10 -2
) 2
( 6 × 10 - 2 ) 2

44.

Answer: 2

Sol:
dR
α=
R 0dT

()
200
T2
∴ ΔR = R 0 × 2 × 10 - 6
2
100

= R 0 × 10 - 6 × 200 2 - 100 2 ( )
ΔR
= 3 × 10 - 2
R

ΔR
∴
R
× 100 = 3
45. Sol:

Answer: 4 Given, capacitance of capacitor

C = 20 mF = 20 × 10−6 F

Rate of change of potential

( )
dV
dt
= 3 v/s

∴ q = CV
dq dV
or, dt = C dt

or, iC = 20 × 10−6 × 3 = 60 × 10−6 A = 60 μA

As we know that id = ic = 60 μA

[Alternate Solution : we know that id = ic and the

displacement current has finite value when
potential difference across capacitor is changing]
 Chemistry - Section A

46. 48.

Answer: 3 Answer: 4

Sol: Sol:

Diamagnetic substances have all paired electron.

[Fe(CN)6]3– Oxidation state of Fe=+3 (A)

(B) Carbonyl group must have methyl group

49.

It has one unpaired electron and is paramagnetic. Answer: 4

[NiCl4]2– Oxidation state of Ni=+2 Sol:

Henry law, is p = KHx

x = mole fraction of dissolved gas

p = Partial pressure of gas

It has two unpaired electrons and is paramagnetic ∴ log p = log KH + log x

Ni(CO)4 Oxidation state of Ni=0 log x = log p – log KH

⇒ y=mx–C

50.

Answer: 3

Sol:

[Co(NH3)5 ONO]2+
It has no unpaired electron and is diamagnetic. Pentaamminenitrito-Ocobalt (III) ion.
[MnCl4]2– Oxidation state of Mn = +2 51.

Answer: 1

Sol:

A Dehydration of alcohol is a reaction in which

It is paramagnetic as it has five unpaired alcohol reacts with protic acid to lose water
electrons. molecules and form alkenes

47.

Answer: 2

Sol:

π = icRT

π ∝ i

0 . 38 I AB
2
= = i AB = 2. 37 Major Product - Ethene
0 . 16 1 2
52. 56.

Answer: 3 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

H⊕
→
– H 2O
→
( t1 / 2 ) 1
( t1 / 2 ) 2
=
()
a2 n – 1
a1

()
75 2 n–1
–H⊕ NaBH 4
150
= 1
→ →

⇒ 2–1 = 2n–1
H⊕ –H⊕ –1 = n –1
→ → →
– H 2O ⇒ n=0

So it is zero order reaction.

57.

53. Answer: 1

Answer: 1 Sol:

Sol:

Molar conductivity of ionic compounds depend

upon no. of ions furnished by complex therefore
[Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 will conducts most due to presence
of 5 ions.

54.

Answer: 2 Because aromatic halides do not give SN reaction

in normal condition.
Sol:
58.
Acetone and aniline mixture show negative
deviation. Answer: 4
55. Sol:
Answer: 4 [Ni(Cl)4]2– oxidation state of Ni is +2
Sol: So, configuration of Ni2+=1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d8

Since base is bulky , we get Hoffmann's product as

a major product. Thus, due to sp3-hybridisation of Ni2+ in [NiCl4]2–,
the shape of [NiCl4]2– is tetrahedral.
59. 63.

Answer: 1 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

Examples of NCERT For depression in freezing point

(1) Zero order 1000 × K f × w

ΔT f =
m × W (H )
2O
(2) First order
ΔT f = 9. 3, w = 65, K f = 1. 86m Glycol = 62
(3) First order
1000 × 1 . 86 × 65
(4) Pseudo First order 9. 3 =
62 × W

60. W water = 209. 67g

Answer: 1 The mass of ice separated.

Sol: = 250 – 209.67 = 40.33 g

Organometallic compounds are those compounds 64.

in which metal atom is directly bonded with C-
Answer: 4
atom.
Organometallic compounds contain at least one Sol:
bond between a carbon atom of an organic
compound and a metal. In this reaction intumediate free radical is highly
unstable.
Cis-platin is not organometallic compound as it
does not contain carbon-metal bond. 65.

Answer: 1

Sol:

61.

Answer: 1
log
K2
K1
=
Ea
2 . 303R ( )
T2 – T1
T 1T 2

Ea 10
Sol: log2 = ×
2 . 303 × 8 . 314 298 × 308
2 . 303 100
t 93 . 75 = t log Ea = 52.89 kJ
0 . 693 1 / 2 6 . 25
2 . 303
t 93 . 75 = t log16 66.
2 . 303 × 0 . 3010 1 / 2
t1 / 2 Answer: 3
t 93 . 75 = 4log 2
0 . 3010
Sol:
t 93 . 75 = 4t 1 / 2
To give haloform reaction, carbonyl group must
62. have methyl group.

Answer: 2

Sol:
67. 70.

Answer: 4 Answer: 4

Sol: Sol:

Lucas reagent is a solution of anhydrous zinc

chloride in concentrated hydrochloric acid. This
solution is used to classify alcohols of low
molecular weight. The reaction is a substitution in
which the chloride replaces a hydroxyl group with
lucas reagent, The alcohols react immediately as
they form stable carbocations.

68.

Answer: 4

Sol:
1
Freezing point of solution ∝
i

[Co(H2O)6]Cl3, i = 4
9 α-H
[Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O i=3
Major
[Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O, i = 2
(a) 1,2-shift are possible = 3
[Co(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O, i=1
(b) α-H are present in major product = 9
69.
So the value of (a + b) = 12
Answer: 3

Sol:
XA 1000 0 . 25 1000
m= × = × = 7. 246 molal
XB MB 0 . 75 46
71. 74.

Answer: 4 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

N.A.R. of G.R. with aldehyde give 2º Alc. not 3º

Alc.

75.

Answer: 1
72.
Sol:
Answer: 4

Sol:
P º – PS n n w
Pº
= n + N ≃ N ≃ MW
solute × N

Method I

Solution has same amount of solvent, So PS value

depends only on molecular mass of solute. So, 76.
vapour pressure of solution ∝ MWsolute
Answer: 4
Method II
Sol:
N
P S = P oX Solvent = P o β–D–glucos is more stable than α–D–glucose.
n+N

77.
⇒ n ↑ PS ↓
Answer: 4
n=moles of solute
Sol:
73.
Glucose does not react with pure HCN, Schiff's
Answer: 3 reagent NaHSO3 as they cannot open the ring of
Sol: cyclic glucose.

(I) For 1st order reaction, α = 1–e–kt 78.

Answer: 3
At t = 0, α = 0 and at t, α → 1
Sol:
(II) x = kt for zero order reaction
When hundreds or thousands of monosaccharides

() k
condense together, it will form polysaccharides.
a 0α = kt ⇒ α = t These are not sweet in taste hence they are called
a0
non-sugars.

∴ Straight line passing through origin.

79. 82.

Answer: 2 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:

In [Co(en)2Cl2], four isomers are possible, two Let, Rate = k[A]x[B]y

geometrical isomers and two optical isomers.
So, 6.0 × 10–3 = k [0.1]x[0.1]y ......(1)

7.2 × 10–2 = k[0.3]x[0.1]y .......(2)

2.88 × 10–1 = k[0.3]x[0.9]y ........(3)

–2 x y
2.40 × 10 = k[0.4] [0.1] ........(4)

By 3 ÷ 2 ⇒

Now, cis-isomer also show optical isomerism. Cis 2y = 4

isomer exists in enantiomeric form as it is
unsymmetrical. ∴ y =2

Plane mirror By 4 ÷ 1 ⇒

4x = 4

∴ x=1

So, Rate = k[A]1[B]2

Order = 1 + 2 = 3

83.
80. Answer: 4
Answer: 4 Sol:
Sol: Order of reaction may be zero, whole number or
fraction number.
HCl and H2O mixture shows negative deviation
84.
∴ They form maximum boiling azeotropic mixture
Answer: 2
∴ Boiling point should be greater than 100ºC
Sol:
81.
Given ;
Answer: 1
Kf = –1.86°C/m
Sol:
3
wB = 5 gm
º
P AX A 800 × 5
YA = = M Na SO = 142 gm/mol
P Aº X A + P Bº X B 3 2
800 × 5 + 500 × 5
2 4

wA = 45.0 gm
800 × 3
= = 0. 7
800 × 3 + 500 × 2 ΔTf = 3.82°C

i=?

∵ ΔTf = i × Kf × m
5 × 1000
– 3.82 = i × (–1.86 ) ×
142 × 45

3.82 × 142 × 45
i=
1.86 × 5 × 1000

i = 2.624 ≃ 2.63
85. 88.

Answer: 2 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:

86. Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is
a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Answer: 2
89.
Sol:
Answer: 1

Sol:

87.

Answer: 3

Sol:
90.

Answer: 4
Δ
→ → Sol:

Individual amino acids are different so they can be

distinguished by their isoelectric point.

–H⊕ Amino acids contains amino(–NH2) and carboxyl (–

→ COOH) functional [Link], for an amino acids
, the isoelectric point is the average of pka values
for the amine and the carboxyl group.
 Biology - Section A

91. 94.

Answer: 2 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

When in case of normal allele it will form the Tapetum is the innermost one cell thick layer of
same enzyme and will produce the same the microsporangium wall. The cells of this layer
phenotypic trait,which means it will lead to the are radially enlarged and store food.
transformation of the substrate S. The cells are multinucleated and provide
nourishment to developing microspores or pollen
But when the allele forms a nonfunctional enzyme grains.
or no enzyme the phenotype may be affected.
95.
92.
Answer: 4
Answer: 4
Sol:
Sol:
According to mendelian dihybrid cross,
A mature pollen grain contains two types of cells:
The ratio of phenotype is : 9:3:3:1 The ratio of
vegetative and generative cells genotype is 1:2:2:2:4:1:2:1:1
Vegetative cell is bigger, has abundant food Therefore, Homozygous for one and Heterozygous
reserve and a large irregular shaped nucleus. for other character - 8/16. In a dihybrid cross, this
The generative cell is small and floats in the phenotype would result from the combination of
cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.( it is spindle two homozygous alleles for one trait and two
shaped with dense cytoplasm and a nucleus) heterozygous alleles for the other trait. The
probability is 8/16 because there are 8
12 NCERT (PAGE 23) combinations that fulfill this condition (AABB,
AABb, AaBB, AaBb, aaBB, aaBb, AAbb, aabb) out
93. of a total of 16 possible combinations.
Answer: 4 Recombinant phenotype - 6/16 The probability is
Sol: 6/16 because there are 6 combinations (AABB,
AABb, AaBB) out of 16 that give rise to
Statement "1" is incorrect as a cross between Aa X recombinant genotypes.
aa gives Aa.
F1 like phenotype - 9/16 i.e. this phenotype is
On selfing Aa X Aa , we get AA, Aa, Aa, aa in the similar to the phenotypes of the parental
ratio of 3:1 in the F2 generation. generation. The probability is 9/16 because there
are 9 combinations (AABB, AABb, AaBB, AaBb) out
Statement "2" is incorrect as 3:1 explains the law of 16 that result in F1-like phenotypes.
of dominance.
Parental genotype - 2/16 i.e. there are 2
Stetement "3" is incorrect as law of dominance combinations (AaBb and aaBB) out of 16 that give
explains that in a monohybrid cross between the rise to parental phenotypes.
pair of contrasting traits, only one parental
character will be expressed in the F1 generation, 96.
and both the parental characters will be expressed
in the F2 generation. Answer: 1

Sol:
Statement "4"
In western countries, a large number of pollen
products in the form of tablets and syrups are
available in the market. Pollen consumption has
been claimed to increase the performance of
athletes and race horses.
97. 101.

Answer: 2 Answer: 4

Sol: Sol:

In both incomplete dominance and codominance, Polygenic inheritance is when more than one gene
both phenotypic and genotypic ratios are identical controls a character. It is also known as
1:2:1 in F2 generation. In incomplete dominance, quantitative inheritance where two or more
the phenotype of hybrid is intermediate between different pair of alleles which have a cumulative
the two parents as both the alleles express effect on governing quantitative [Link]
themselves partially. However, in codominance, kernel colour in wheat is determined by two pairs
there is no intermediate expression as both the of genes Aa and Bb. Genes A and B are dominant
alleles express themselves equally. genes which determine the red colour whereas a
and b are recessive alleles. Results of this
Where the F1 resembled either of the two parents polygenic inheritance is depicted.
(dominance) or was in-between (incomplete
dominance). But, in the case of co-dominance the
F1 generation resembles both parents.

98.

Answer: 1

Sol:

The Ovule is attached to the placenta by means of

a short stalk known as a funicle which is the point
of adherence.

Hence, the correct answer is option "1".

The ratio of 1: 4: 6: 4: 1.
99.
(i) Red (extreme) – 1/16
Answer: 2
(ii) Dark red – 4/16
Sol:
(iii) Medium red – 6/16
A polygenic trait is the one that is governed by
more than one gene. Human skin colour is a (iv) Light red – 4/16
polygenic trait governed by three pairs of genes
where dominant allele of each gene express only a (v) White – 1/16
part of trait and the full trait is expressed only in
presence of dominant alleles of all multiple genes, so, 1 red : 14 intermediate ( non parental) : 1
is called polygenic inheritance. white

Skin color genes are present on autosomes and do the ratio will be 14/16.
not exhibit sex-linked inheritance. The presence of
more than one allele for a gene is called multiple
allelism; each gene for skin color has two alleles 102.
only.
Answer: 2
Pleiotropy is the condition where a gene has its
own independent effect but also modifies the Sol:
expression of a completely different gene Nucellus is a diploid nutritive tissue in the ovule
quantitatively. that contains the embryo sac. Nucellus is made up
100. of parenchyma cells. Parenchyma cells are thin-
walled living cells with intercellular spaces. The
Answer: 2 cells of the nucellus have abundant food material.

Sol:

Micropyle is an opening for the entry of male

gamete. It can be defined as the structure in seed
plants that gives rise to and contains the female
reproductive cells.
103. 107.

Answer: 3 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:

Morgan coined the term linkage to describe the Among all the statements only incorrect option is
physical association of genes on a chromosome & "1".
the term recombination to describe the generation
of non-parental gene combinations. In humans, a total of 23 pairs of chromosomes are
present. Out of the 23 pairs, 22 pairs are the same
104. in both (females and males).

Answer: 3 Only 1 pair (Sex chromosome) is different.

Sol: In Males, the XY chromosome is present and In

Females, the XX chromosome is present.
Meiotic division forms 4 haploid megaspores. Only
one megaspore divides mitotically to form embryo Hence, the correct option is "1" - Humans
sac and the other three disappear or disintegrates. contain 23 pairs of autosomes.

105. 108.

Answer: 4 Answer: 4

Sol: Sol:

mother is carrier, father suffering from This disease is caused by the allele in recessive
colourblindness conditions. A person who is suffering from this
disease is in a homozygous recessive condition.
106.
The affected RBCs can block blood vessels. The
Answer: 4 black shaded figures show the affected population
Sol: and those without color are the ones who are not
affected.
Self pollination is a form of pollination that can
occur when a flower has both stamen and a carpel Hence, the correct option is "4" - Sickle cell
in which the sultivar or species is self fertile and anemia.
the stamens and the sticky stigma of the carpel
contact each other in order to accomplish
pollination.

It is prevented by: dichogamy, self-sterility and

hekrogamy. Dichogamy - having pistils and
stamens that mature at different times, thus
promoting cross-pollination rather than self
pollination.

Herkogamy - common strategy employed by

angiosperms to reduce sexual interference
between male (anthers) and female (stigma)
function.
109. 111.

Answer: 1 Answer: 4

Sol: Sol:

Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell A polygene is a member of a group of non-epistatic genes that
division cycle results in gain or loss of chromosome interact additively to influence a phenotypic trait, thus
is called aneuploidy. E.g. – Down Syndrome. contributing to multiple-gene inheritance, a type of non-
Mendelian inheritance, as opposed to single-gene inheritance,
Chromosomal mutations can change the location which is the core notion of Mendelian inheritance.
as well as the number of genes on chromosomes.
In the question, it is given that height is controlled by three pairs
Examples are:- of genes (6 alleles).
1) Down's syndrome or trisomy 21 According to the values, the maximum height given is 200 cm
for AABBCC and the minimum height is 50cm for aabbcc.
2) Trisomy 13 or Patau syndrome
The plant with genotype AaBbCc has 3 dominant alleles and
3) Chromosome 5 short arm partial deletion or Cri hence the height of the plant would be:
du chat syndrome. Contribution of each polygene = (Maximum height - Minimum
height)/No. of polygene = (200 - 50)/6 = 25cm
4) Triple X syndrome.

Mendelian disorders are a group of genetic Contribution of dominant polygene in plant having genotype
disorders which are characterized by alterations AaBbCc=25 x 3 = 75
(mutations) in one gene.
Height of plant with genotype AaBbCc = Minimum height +
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a Mendelian “monogenic” Contribution of dominant polygene = 50 + 75 = 125 cm.
recessive genetic disorder caused by mutations in Hence, the correct option is "4" - 125cm.
the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance
regulator (CFTR) gene 112.

Hence, the correct option is "1" - I & III Answer: 1

alone are correct.
Sol:
110.
Nucleic acids are essential biomacromolecules of
Answer: 2 the living cells. They are polymer of nucleotides.
Nucleotides comprises of three basic units
Sol: nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and phosphate.
There are two types of nitrogenous bases purines
Since recombination frequency (crossing over) is
and pyrimidines. Adenine (A) and Guanine (G) are
directly proportional to the distance between
purines whereas Cytosine (C), Uracil (U) and
genes.
Thymine (T) are pyrimidines. Erwin Chargaff
Here 4 genes a, b, c and d have linear sequences proposed two rules which are termed as Chargaff's
a-c-b - d which depends on the gene present in rules.
the middle
These are applicable for double helix DNA/RNA
gene frequency between genes a and c = 2% ( [Link] rule, in any double stranded DNA
Distance between a and c = 2 centimorgan) the number of guanine units equals the number of
cytosine units and the number of adenine units
gene frequency between genes b and c is =13%, equals the number of thymine units. Second rule,
( Distance between b and c = 13 centimorgan) the composition of DNA varies from one species to
another. Thus, in dsDNA/ dsRNA: 1.
gene frequency between genes b and d =4%, (
Distance between b and d = 4 centimorgan) The molar ratio of A to T equals to 1. Similarly the
molar ratio of G to c equals to 1 2. The sum of
gene frequency between genes a and b =15%,( purines (A and G) equals that of pyrimidines (C
Distance between a and b = 15 centimorgan) and T) [Link] percentage of C+G does not
gene frequency between genes c and d= 17%.( necessary equal the percentage of A+T 4.
Distance between c and d = 17 centimorgan) The ratio of G+C and A+T is constant for any
species Therefore the ratio that is generally
constant for a given species is G+C/A+T as
explained by Chargaff's laws.

Thus the right answer is option A.

113. 117.

Answer: 1 Answer: 4

Sol: Sol:

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952) worked UGG is a codon that codes for the amino acid
with viruses that infect bacteria called tryptophan. UGA, UAA and UAG are codons that
bacteriophages. signal the termination of protein synthesis and do
not code for any amino acids.
Bacteria which was infected with viruses that had
radioactive DNA were radioactive, indicating that 118.
DNA was the material that passed from the virus
to the bacteria. Bacteria that were infected with Answer: 3
viruses that had radioactive proteins were not Sol:
radioactive. This indicates that proteins did not
enter the bacteria from the viruses. DNA is One GTP is hydrolyzed to GDP as each successive
therefore the genetic material that is passed from amino acid-tRNA complex attaches to the A site of
virus to bacteria. the ribosome.

114. A second GTP is broken down to GDP as the

ribosome moves to each codon in the mRNA.
Answer: 3
One ATP is hydrolyzed to AMP during amino acid
Sol: activation.
m-RNA t-RNA r-RNA Thus, the formation of each peptide bond uses 3
Have message for Adapter Play catalytic high energy molecules, one ATP and two GTP.
protein RNA role
There are three major types of RNAs : mRNA So, for single amino acids, it will be 1 ATP and 2
(messenger RNA), tRNA (transfer RNA), and rRNA GTP.
(ribosomal RNA). All three RNAs are needed to
synthesise a protein in a cell. The mRNA provides 119.
the template, tRNA brings aminoacids and reads
Answer: 3
the genetic code, and rRNAs play structural and
catalytic role during translation. Sol:
115. The lac operon consists of one regulatory gene
(the i gene) and three structural genes (z, y, and
Answer: 4
a). The I gene codes for the repressor of the lac
Sol: operon. The z gene codes for β -galactosidase,
which is primarily responsible for the hydrolysis of
DNA replication always occur from 5 to 3 end in the disaccharide lactose into its monomeric units,
continuous manner on 3 to 5 end DNA and galactose and glucose. The y gene codes for
discontinuous manner on 5 to 3 end of DNA called permease, which increases permeability of the cell
okazaki fragment after the name of discover. to β -galactosides.
116. 120.
Answer: 3 Answer: 4
Sol: Sol:
RNA Polymerase is a multiprotein found in the a-(v), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii), e-(iii)
nucleus of eukaryotes. RNA polymerase in the case
of eukaryotes has three variations and each code
for a different gene.

Protein coding is catalyzed by RNA polymerase II

into mRNA which carries the information from the
DNA to the protein synthesis site.

The role of RNA polymerase III is to transcribe the

genes for tRNAs and for 5s rRNA which is the smallest
species of ribosomal RNA.
Hence, the correct option is "3" - III, 5s
121. 123.

Answer: 1 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

The DNA fingerprinting involved 124.

1. Isolation of DNA. Answer: 3

2. Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease.
3. Seperation of DNA fragments by Sol:
electrophoresis. Base pair refers to, two complementary
4. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to nucleotides one of which is purine and the other is
nitrocellulose or nylon membrane. [Link] always pairs with Thymine or
5. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe. vice versa and Guanine always pairs with Cytosine
6. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by or vice versa. Hence 1 base pair has 2 nucleotides
autoradiography
i.e., 10,000 nitrogenous base pair will have 10,000
According to these steps ×2= 20,000 nucleotides.
A - restriction endonuclease B - Electrophoresis

C - Nitrocellulose and nylon D - Labelled VNTR

probe

E - Autoradipgraphy

125.

Answer: 2

Sol:

Pollination is the act of transferring pollen grains

from the male anther of a flower to the female
stigma. By pollination, male gamete i.e. pollen is
brought in contact with the female gamete i.e.
122.
egg. In Angiosperms, male and female gametes
Answer: 1 are present in the flowers. Pollination occurs by
means of wind, water, insects, birds etc. In
Sol: gymnosperms, male and female gametes are
present on separate plants in the form of cones.
a. According to human genome
Pollens are usually carried away by the wind to the
project, Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968).
female cones. Hence, pollination process in
b. The human genome contains an estimated angiosperm and gymnosperm perform as
30,000 genes. anemophily.

c. E. coli that has only 4.6 ×106 bp (compare it 126.

with humans whose diploid content is 6.6 × 109
Answer: 1
bp), completes the process of replication within 18
minutes; that means the average rate of Sol:
polymerization has to be approximately 2000 bp
per second. Maize flowers undergo pollination with the help of
wind. It is because their flowers are light in
d. Chromosome Y has the fewest (231). weight. This is called anemophily.
127. 130.

Answer: 3 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

Unisexual flowers only have either male or female The ABO blood group system is a good example of
flowers and do not have both stamens and carpels. multiple alleles because it involves three alleles:
Removing the anther from bisexual flowers without IA, IB, and i.
affecting the female reproductive part is known as
emasculation. Bagging is a method of protecting In a multiple allele, many alleles are present in a
an emasculated flower from unwanted pollen population for a character because an individual
grains by covering it. Hence, emasculation or contains only two alleles.
bagging is not required in unisexual flowers. 131.
128. Answer: 4
Answer: 1 Sol:
Sol: In pedigree analysis, dot in a circle represents the
Test cross: Crossing of F1 individual with carrier individual for sex linked recessive. Half
homozygous recessive progeny. It is used to shaded circle and square are used to represent
determine whether F1 progeny is homozygous or individuals heterozygous for autosomal recessive
heterozygous. traits. Full shaded circle and square are used to
Back cross: F1 is crossed with one of the parents represent affected individuals. A square with a
or genetically identical individual to the parent. diagonal line is used to represent death. So, the
Reciprocal cross: Same parents are used in two correct option is D.
different experiments. ln one experiment, parent A 132.
is used as female, .and B as male, and in the other
A is used as male and B as female. Answer: 4

Out cross: It is the technique of crossing between Sol:

different breeds with no common ancestors.
Klinefelter’s Syndrome is genetic disorder which is
129. caused due to the presence of an additional copy
of X chromosome resulting into a karyotype of 47,
Answer: 4 XXY. Such an individual has overall masculine
Sol: development, however, the feminine
development (development of breast, i.e.,
Incomplete dominance: - According to Mendel's Gynaecomastia) is also expressed. Such
law of dominance, dominant character must be individuals are sterile.
present in F1 generation. But in some organisms,
F1 generation is different from the both parents.
For example:

Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa: Incomplete

dominance was first discovered by Correns in
Mirabilis jalapa. This plant is called as '4 O' clock
plant 'or' Gul-e-Bans'. Three different types of
plant are found in Mirabilis on the basis of flower
colour, such as red, white and pink.

Flower colour in Antirrhinum majus:-

Incomplete dominance is also seen in flower colour
of this plant. This plant is also known as
'Snapdragon ' or 'Dog flower'. Incomplete
dominance is found in this plant which is the same
as Mirabilis.

Starch synthesis in the pea seed: It is

controlled by a single gene which has 2 alleles - B
and b. It is an example of incomplete dominance
as far as the phenotype of grain size is considered.
The BB alleles will produce starch grains that are
big and bb will produce smaller starch grains.
133. 136.

Answer: 2 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

a. DNA has a ‘‘Promoter site or initiation site’’ Class 12th NCERT Page No. 31, 32
where transcription begins and a ‘‘Terminator site’’
where transcription stops. Sigma factor recognises 137.
the promoter or initiation site of DNA. With the Answer: 3
help of sigma factor RNA polymerase enzyme
attached to a specific site of DNA called ‘‘Promoter Sol:
site’’.
The exact composition of the early atmosphere
b. In capping an unusual nucleotide (methyl was carbon dioxide,nitrogen gas ,water
guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5'-end of vapour,hydrogen gas and compounds in which
hnRNA. hydrogen atoms were bounded to the other light
elements like Sulphur,nitrogen,carbon etc.
c. In tailing, adenylate residues (200-300) are producing hydrogen sulphide,ammonia and
added at 3'-end in a template independent methane.
manner. It is the fully processed hnRNA, now
called mRNA, that is transported out of the nucleus Such atmosphere is referred to as reducing
for translation. atmosphere.

d. The DNA strand which has the polarity (5'→3') It has ample availability of hydrogen atoms and
and the sequence same as RNA (except thymine at their electrons and predominance of molecules
the place of uracil), is displaced during having less oxygen than hydrogen.
transcription. Strangely, this strand (which does
not code for anything) is referred to as coding 138.
strand. Answer: 1
134. Sol:
Answer: 2 The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into
Sol: the vasa efferentia through rete testis. The vasa
efferentia leave the testis and open into epididymis
Statement I :- The primary transcripts contain located along the posterior surface of each testis.
both the exons and the introns and are non- The epididymis leads to vas deferens that ascends
functional. Hence, it is subjected to a process to the abdomen and loops over the urinary
called splicing where the introns are removed and bladder. It receives a duct from seminal vesicle
exons are joined in a defined order. and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct

Statement II :- In capping an unusual nucleotide

(methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to the
5'-end of hnRNA. In tailing, adenylate residues
(200-300) are added at 3'-end in a template
independent manner.

Hence, statement-I is correct but statement-II is

incorrect.

135.

Answer: 4

Sol:

Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual

purposes. They serve as substrates i.e. nucleotides 12 ncert page 43
during replication and also provide energy for
polymerization reaction by cleavage of high energy
terminal phosphates bond or we say they provide
energy for polymerisation reaction, the two
terminal phosphates in a deoxynucleoside
triphosphates are high-energy phosphates, same
as in the case of ATP.
139. 142.

Answer: 1 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

The idea of spontaneous generation is an obsolete 12 ncert page 46

theory that states that living organisms can
originate from inanimate objects. Other common The edges of the infundibulum posses finger like
examples of spontaneous generation were that projections called fimbriae.
dust creates fleas, maggots arise from rotting The clitoris is a tiny finger like projection lies at the
meat, and bread or wheat left in a dark corner upper junction of two labia minora above the
produces mice. The theory of spontaneous urethral opening.
generation was hotly debated for hundreds of
years. During this time, many experiments were 143.
conducted to both prove and disprove the theory.
In 1668, Francesco Redi published the first set of Answer: 4
experiments challenging spontaneous generation. Sol:
In these experiments, he demonstrated that
maggots arise from the eggs of flies rather than Variations among individuals are not important in
directly from rotting meat. He did so by taking natural selection
several jars and placing raw meat inside of them.
Half the jars he left open to the environment, and 144.
the other half, he covered with gauze. John
Answer: 4
Needham, however, was not convinced. He argued
that Redi did not fully disprove the theory of Sol:
spontaneous generation. Needham maintained
that while spontaneous generation did not occur in Tertiary follicle changes into mature folicle or
larger organisms, for smaller organisms, it could graffian follicle.
still take place under the right circumstances. In
option (c) is correct but with respect to
1745, he set out to prove this by boiling broth in a
spermatogenesis not oogenesis.
flask, leaving it open to cool and then sealing it. In
several days' time, the broth was teeming with In option (a) primary follicle surrounded by
bacteria and mold. He claimed that this was proof granulase cell layer is called secondary follicle.
of the existence of spontaneous generation for
microorganisms. In option (b) antrum is charact eristic of tertiary
follicle.
140.

Answer: 2

Sol:

Female accessory ducts include oviducts (fallopian

tube), uterus and vegina.

Clitoris is external genitalia it is not included in

accessory ducts.

141.

Answer: 2

Sol:

Convergent evolution

Class 12th NCERT Page No.133

145. 150.

Answer: 1 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:

Directional natural selection occurs when one Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
extreme phenotype is favored over others, leading explanation of (A).
to a shift in the population's traits over time. The
example of DDT resistance in insects is a classic 151.
case of directional selection. In this case, insects Answer: 1
with genetic mutations that confer resistance to
DDT (a pesticide) are more likely to survive and Sol:
reproduce, leading to an increase in the frequency
of resistant individuals in the population. Extrusion of 2nd polar body of the egg nucleus
occurs before the fusion of chromosomes (which
(B) Vestigial organ: Vestigial organs are occurs during the first mitotic division of the
reduced or non-functional body parts. Their zygote). During oocyte- sperm fusion, the second
presence is not an example of directional polar body expulsion occurs and the cytoplasm
selection but rather a result of evolutionary contents of the sperm cell membrane (now fused
history. with the oocyte membrane) pass into the oocyte
(C) Survival of human babies with cytoplasm.
average body weight: This is an example of
stabilizing selection, not directional 152.
selection, where individuals with intermediate
Answer: 3
traits (like average body weight) are favored.
(D) None of these: This is incorrect, as Sol:
option A provides an example of directional
natural selection. Neanderthal and Homo sapiens have a common
ancestor, that most people think of as Homo
146. heidelbergensis. However, since Neanderthal and
Homo sapiens interbred, so another way to think
Answer: 2
of this is to simply say that we are both just a sub-
Sol: species of Homo heidelbergensis. Australopithecus
was an immediate ancestor of Homo erectus, the
Class 12th NCERT Page No. 35 ancient form from which modern humans arose.
Homo erectus, an ancestor to modern humans,
147. arose at least 1.8 million years ago. Cro-Magnon
Answer: 3 man is the direct ancestor of the Homo
sapiens. Cro-Magnon man's fossils have been
Sol: found in Africa.

NCERT Class 12th Page No. 128 153.

148. Answer: 4

Answer: 1 Sol:

Sol: presentation of various events during a menstrual

cycle is as follows :-
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Menstruation ⇨Proliferative stage ⇨Ovulation
149.
⇨Secretory Phase .
Answer: 1

Sol:

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
154. 158.

Answer: 3 Answer: 4

Sol: Sol:

The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like adult It is necessary for maintaining the inner lining of
human skull. This fact is a evident for the the uterus known as the endometrium. This lining
evolutionary pathway of human and chimpanzee. plays a vital role in carrying out the successful
A shrew-like animal that snagged insects from implantation of the embryo inside the mother's
ferns lining the shores of freshwater lakes 160 womb on the uterine wall.
million years ago, might be one of the
first "true" mammals to walk the Earth, back when This is achieved through the hormone
the dinosaurs roamed, a new fossil suggests. progesterone secreted by the female reproductive
Charles Darwin was influenced by Thomas Robert system.
Malthus, a late-eighteenth century economist. Hence, the correct option is "4"-
Malthus wrote "Essay on the Principle of Progesterone.
Population", which Darwin read and was inspired
by. The central theme of Malthus' work was that 159.
population growth would always overpower food
supply growth, creating perpetual states of hunger, Answer: 4
disease and struggle. The natural, ever-present Sol:
struggle for survival caught the attention of Darwin
and he extended Malthus' principle to the Uterine contractions are induced by the hormone
evolutionary scheme. known as oxytocin. In turn, this stimulates the
release of prostaglandins. That at last initiates the
155. uterine contractions.
Answer: 1 The process of delivering out baby after full growth
Sol: is known as parturition.

Class 12th NCERT Page No. 37 Parturition is induced by the signals released
through the developing fetus. This is known as
156. fetal ejection reflex.

Answer: 3 So, the correct option is "4" - Release of

oxytocin from maternal pituitary.
Sol:
160.
First sign of a growing foetus is noticed by a
heartbeat in the fifth week. By the end of 24 Answer: 4
weeks (second trimester), the body is covered with
fine hair, eye-lids separate and eye-lashes are Sol:
formed.
The process of parturition is generally a process in
Hence the correct answer is 1st movement of which the transformation of the myometrium
foetus during of 5th month of pregnancy. occurs from a quiescent to a contractile state.

157. It requires progesterone withdrawal and estrogen

activation.
Answer: 2
In most mammals, the parturition is achieved by
Sol: changes in circulating progesterone (decrease) and
estrogen (increase).
hCG, hPL and relaxin, Explanation: Human
chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), Hence, the correct option is "4" -
human placental lactogens (hCL) and relaxin are Progesterone hormone level decreases, and
produced in human females estrogen hormone level increases.
only during pregnancy.
161. 166.

Answer: 2 Answer: 1

Sol: Sol:

A primary follicle is made up of a primary oocyte Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ARTs) are
surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells. When those technique which assist childless couple to
more layers of granulosa cells are added to the have children. Some of the ARTs includes following
primary follicle, it forms a secondary follicle. The techniques. Test tube baby, Gift, ICSI and artificial
secondary follicle also develops a covering, or a insemination. The later is applied when male
theca. partner fails to inseminate or suffer from
oligospermia (low sperm count of semen). In
A cavity appears within the membrana granulosa. artificial insemination, the semen collected either
It is called the antrum. With the appearance of this from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially
cavity, the Tertiary follicle is formed. Presence of introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus
antrum (Follicular cavity) is character feature of (IUI – intra-uterine insemination) of the female.
Tertiary follicle.
167.
The luteinizing hormone (LH) causes the Graafian
follicle to rupture, which releases the secondary Answer: 4
oocyte. This process is called ovulation.
Sol:
162.
When females cannot conceive then embryo
Answer: 2 transfer is done by using ZIFT and IUT techniques.

Sol: In this method ova from females & sperms from

the male are collected and are induced in the
Class 12th NCERT Page No. 44 laboratory under simulated conditions to form
163. zygotes.

Answer: 4 The zygote with up to 8 blastomeres is transferred

into the fallopian tube through ZIFT(Zygote
Sol: intrafallopian transfer) or embryos with more than
8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus
b, c through IUT(Intrauterine transfusion).
164. 168.
Answer: 3 Answer: 3
Sol: Sol:
A copper-bearing IUD is the most effective form of Three
emergency contraception available. The
emergency contraceptive pill regimens Class 12th NCERT Page No.134
recommended by WHO are ulipristal acetate,
levonorgestrel, or combined oral contraceptives 169.
(COCs) consisting of ethinyl estradiol plus Answer: 1
levonorgestrel.
Sol:
165.
Convergent evolution : when different organisms
Answer: 4 independently evolve similar traits, then this type
Sol: of evolution is known as convergent evolution.

Analogous structures are the result of convergent

evolution - different structures evolving for the
same function and hence having similarity.

eg. Wing of birds and insects.

Other examples of analogy are the eye of the

octopus and of mammals or the flippers of
Penguins and Dolphins.
170. 172.

Answer: 3 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

In human females, ovulation is the release of

secondary oocytes from the ovary at about the
14th day of the menstrual cycle.

Both LH and FSH attain a peak level during this

period. Rapid secretion of LH induces rupturing of
fully developed Graafian follicles and thereby
release of the ovum. LH surge is actually
responsible for ovulation.

Estrogen hormone is associated with sexual

development, menstrual cycle. The decrease in
estrogen can cause bone disorders and other
heart-related problems.

So, a decrease in estrogen is not related to human

female ovulation.
Hence the correct option is C
173.
171.
Answer: 2
Answer: 2
Sol:
Sol:
After the implantation of the blastocyst, the inner
A reducing atmosphere is an atmospheric condition cell mass of the structure differentiates into
in which oxidation is prevented by removal of endoderm, ectoderm and mesoderm.
oxygen and other oxidizing gases or vapours, and
174.
which may contain actively reducing gases such as
hydrogen, carbon monoxide, and gases such as Answer: 2
hydrogen sulfide that would be oxidized by any
present oxygen. Sol:

The primitive atmosphere of earth was reducing (iii) only

atmosphere with little or no oxygen but was rich in
175.
water vapour, carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide,
nitrogen, and hydrogen. The ozone layer of Answer: 1
present day atmosphere absorbs these UV and
gamma rays. Sol:

12th NCERT Page No – 23, 37, 38

The fetal ejection reflex is a signal for parturition,

or childbirth, that originates from the fully
developed fetus and placenta. This reflex causes
mild uterine contractions that trigger the release of
oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone

produced by the placenta during pregnancy.

Colostrum is the first milk produced after giving

birth and is rich in antibodies that help protect
newborns from infectious pathogens.

Fimbriae are finger-like projections at the ends of

fallopian tubes that collect the secondary oocyte
(ovum) released from the ovary during ovulation.
176. 179.

Answer: 2 Answer: 3

Sol: Sol:

Prophase-I of meiotic division stage Multiload 375

177. 180.

Answer: 1 Answer: 2

Sol: Sol:

Statement I is correct but Statement II is false Class 12th NCERT Page No. 59

178. Declining population growth, also known as

depopulation, is a reduction in the size of the
Answer: 3 human population. A rapid increase in mortality
Sol: rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant
mortality rate (IMR) are the possible reasons for
Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) the population decline.
programme’ deals with creating awareness among
people about various reproduction related aspects While population growth increases due to lack of
and providing facilities and support for building up awareness about contraceptive methods and
a reproductively healthy society. reduction in maternal mortality rate (MMR).

Amniocentesis is basically used to test for the

presence of certain genetic disorders such as
Down’s syndrome, haemophilia, etc., to determine
the survivability of the foetus.

Amniocentesis is not a sex determination

technique in India and is not a strategy of RCH.