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Class IX General Science Exam Paper

This document is a sample question paper for the Class IX General Science Second Terminal Examination, covering Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. It includes various types of questions such as multiple choice, assertion-reasoning, and descriptive questions, with a total of 80 marks allocated across three sections. General instructions for answering the questions and organizing the answer sheets are also provided.

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Anvi Sardana
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
10 views5 pages

Class IX General Science Exam Paper

This document is a sample question paper for the Class IX General Science Second Terminal Examination, covering Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. It includes various types of questions such as multiple choice, assertion-reasoning, and descriptive questions, with a total of 80 marks allocated across three sections. General instructions for answering the questions and organizing the answer sheets are also provided.

Uploaded by

Anvi Sardana
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

SAMPLE PAPER

SECOND TERMINAL EXAMINATION


Sub:-General Science
Class- IX

Time:- 3hrs M.M- 80

General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises three sections: Physics, Chemistry and biology. All questions
are compulsory.
2. Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of
the alternatives in such questions.
3. In case study, parts a and b are compulsory, but there is a choice in part c.
4. For MCQs,write the correct option along with the statement.
5. Physics, chemistry and biology questions are to be attempted in separate sheets. At the end of
the examination, please tie the sheets in the order: physics-chemistry - biology.
6. In physics(Q 5), chemistry(Q 7), Biology (Q7) and (Q8),a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding
statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements, given below, mark the correct answer as: (a) Both
assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (b) Both assertion and reason
are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

PHYSICS (27 MARKS)


Q1. During summer, an echo is heard (1)
(a)​ Sooner than during winter (b) Later than during winter
(c)​ After same time as during winter (d) Not heard
Q2. Ultrasound can be heard by (1)
(a)​ Whales (b) Rhinoceros (c)​ Bat (d) Human beings
Q3. Two boys A and B do equal work. They will have equal power if (1)
(a)​ Time taken by boy A to do the work is more than the time taken by boy B.
(b) Time taken by boy A to do the work is less than the time taken by boy B.
(c)​ Time taken by both boys is equal
(d) Power is independent of the time taken to do work.
Q4. The force of attraction between two unit point masses separated by a unit distance is called (1)
(a) gravitational potential (b) acceleration due to gravity
(c) gravitational field (d) universal gravitational constant
Q5 Assertion : When the force retards the motion of a body, the work done is negative.
Reason : Work done depends on angle between force and displacement. (1)
Q6. The velocity-time graph below shows the motion of a cyclist. From the graph, find the acceleration and
the distance covered by the cyclist in 15 seconds. (2)

Q7 A bullet fired against a glass window pane makes a hole in it, and the glass pane is not cracked. But on the other
hand, when a stone strikes the same glass pane, it gets smashed. Why is it so? (2)
OR
Q7. Derive the mathematical relation of Newton’s second law of motion.
Q8. (a) State Newton’s First Law of motion.
(b) A force of 5 N produces an acceleration of 10 m/s2 on a mass m1 and an acceleration of 20 m/s2 on a mass m2.
What acceleration would the same force provide if both the masses are tied together? (3)
Q9. An object is thrown vertically upwards and rises to a height of 10 m. Calculate (i) the velocity with which the
object was thrown upward and (ii) the time taken by the object to reach the highest point. (3)

Q10 (a) Define 1 watt of power.


(b) What is the work to be done to increase the velocity of a car from 30 km/h to 60 km/h if the mass of the car is
1500 kg. (3)

Q11. (a) In what direction does the buoyant force on an object immersed in a liquid act?
(b) The volume of 50 g of a substance is 20 cm3. If the density of water is 1 g/cm3, will the substance float
or sink?
(c) How does the force of gravitation between two objects change when the distance between them is reduced to
half ?
OR
Q11. (a) An object weighs 10 N when measured on the surface of the earth. What would be its weight when measured
on the surface of the moon?
(b) Why does a body reach the ground quicker at poles than at the equator when dropped from the same height?
(c)Give three differences between acceleration due to gravity (g) and universal gravitational constant (G).
(5)
Q12. Read the paragraph given below carefully:
Air is the most common medium through which sound travels. When a vibrating object moves forward, it pushes and
compresses the air in front of it creating a region of high pressure. This region is called a compression. When the
vibrating object moves backwards, it creates a region of low pressure called rarefaction. Compression is the region of
high pressure and rarefaction is the region of low pressure. Pressure is related to the number of particles of a medium
in a given volume. More density of the particles in the medium gives more pressure and vice versa. Thus, propagation
of sound can be visualised as propagation of density variations or pressure variations in the medium.

Based on the above paragraph, answer the following questions:


(a) Draw a graph showing density or pressure variations with respect to distance for a disturbance produced by
sound waves.
(b) Why is a sound wave called a longitudinal wave?
(c) With the help of a diagram explain the purpose of placing a curved soundboard behind the stage?
OR
(c) What is reverberation? Write two ways of reducing reverberation? (1+1+2=4)

CHEMISTRY (26 MARKS)


1. Which of the following phenomena would increase on raising the temperature? (1)
a) Evaporation, Diffusion and Expansion of Gas
b) Solubility, Evaporation, Diffusion and compression of Gas
c) Evaporation, Diffusion and Compression of Gas
d) Diffusion, Compression of Gas , kinetic energy of Gas
2. At what temperature can water exist in both liquid and gaseous state (1)
(a) 0 degree celsius (b) 25 degree celsius (c ) 37 degree celsius (d) 100 degree celsius
3. In the given flow chart:- (1) .

a.
(i) and (ii) b.(ii) and (iii) c. (i) and ( iv) d. Only (i)
4. Which of the following molecules are triatomic: -
Water, Ammonia, Ozone, Carbon dioxide, Sulphur (1)
(a)Water, Ammonia, Sulphur (b) Water, Ozone , Carbon dioxide
(c)Ozone, Carbon dioxide, Sulphur (d)Ammonia, Ozone, Carbon dioxide
5. One atomic mass unit is: (1) (a)Mass unit equal to 1/12th of mass of one atom of C-12 isotope (1)
(b)Mass unit equal to 1/12th of mass of one atom of C-14 isotope
(c)Mass unit equal to 1/6th of mass of one oxygen atom
(d)Mass unit equal to 1/12th of mass of one hydrogen atom

6. Choose the correct electronic configuration of chlorine atom (1)


a. 2, 7, 8 b. 2,6,9 c. 2,8,7 d. 1,8,8
7. Assertion:- Sodium chloride is a pure substance (1)
Reason:- Its solution in water cannot be filtered.
8. a. Calculate the molecular mass of C2H6 .(Atomic mass of C=12u, H=1u)
b. Write the chemical formula of aluminium oxide using the criss cross method. (2)

9. a. Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Justify


b. Give on example of pair of isobars. (2)

10. a. Convert 20 degree Celsius in kelvin scale.


[Link] the following figure of interconversion of state ,label A,B,C,and D

(1+2=3)
Q 11. Observe the figure given below and answer the questions: -

(a) Name and define the effect shown by solution B in the above diagram.
(b) Above effect is the characteristic property of which type of mixtures?
(c) Mention any two characteristics of that mixture beside the above effect. (1.5+0.5+1=3)
OR
Q 11 a. Mention the dispersed phase and dispersing medium present in jelly.
b. Calculate the concentration in terms of mass by mass percentage of a solution containing 40g of sugar
dissolved 400 g of water. (1+2=3)

12. a. Observe the following table and answer the questions given below:

i) Identify the element D and write its electronic configuration.


ii) Identify the relation between B and C by giving proper justification.
iii) Give the symbolic representation of element A.
b. Both helium (He) and beryllium (Be) have two valence electrons. Whereas He represents a noble gas
element, Be does not. Give reason. (1.5+1.5+1+1=5)
or
12.i) In the alpha ray scattering experiment carried out by Rutherford, a beam of alpha ray was
bombarded on gold foil as shown in the figure given below:
a. What are alpha particles?
b. After striking the gold foil, in which direction most of the alpha particles
travelled and what was the conclusion drawn after this?
c. Rebounding of alpha particles towards 'S' lead to which important
conclusion about the structure of atom?
ii) a. Draw a well labelled sketch of bohr's atomic model with 3 shells.
[Link] many electrons can be accomodated in N shell? (1+1.5+1+1.5=5)
13. On the basis of the given flow chart answer the questions given below:
a. 'Atoms are indivisible particles, which cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction’. The given postulate if
Dalton's atomic theory is in accordance with which law of chemical combination.
b. Give mass by mass ratio of carbon and oxygen in CO2.
c. When 3.0 g of magnesium is burnt in 2.00 g of oxygen, 5.00 g of magnesium oxide is produced. What mass
of magnesium oxide will be formed when 3.00 g magnesium is burnt in 5.00 g of oxygen? Which law of
chemical combination will govern your answer?
or (1+1+2=4)
c. What mass of hydrogen is required to completely react with 64 g of oxygen to form water. Name the law applied.

BIOLOGY (27 MARKS)

Q1. Who gave the statement that cells arise from pre-existing cells? (1)

a) Haeckel b) Virchow c) Hooke d) Schleiden and Schwann


Q2. Amoeba captures its food through a process known as (1)
a)Endocytosis b) Exocytosis c) Both a) and b) d) Plasmolysis
Q3. Where are contractile proteins found in our body? (1)
a) Blood b) Cartilage c) Muscles d) Bones
Q4. Identify the part labelled as 1 and 4 in the given diagram. (1)
a) 1- cell body ,4- nerve ending b) 1-axon, 4-nucleus
c) 1-Dendrite , 4- nerve ending d) 1- dendrite ,4- axon
Q5. Which of the following is an exotic breed of cattles? (1)
a) Red Sindhi b) Jersey Swiss c) Sahiwal d) Brown Swiss
Q6. Which of the following is the correct sentence? (1)
i)Cross between plants of two species is called intervarietal hybridisation.
ii)Cross between two varieties is called interspecific hybridisation.
iii) Hybridisation means crossing between genetically dissimilar plants.
iv) Introducing genes of desired character into a plant gives genetically modified crops.
a)​ i) and iv) b) i) and iii) c) iii) and iv) d) ii) and iv)
Q7. ASSERTION: If a cell is placed in hypotonic solution it swells up. (1)
REASON: In hypotonic solution the medium surrounding the cell has lower water concentration than the
cell
Q8. ASSERTION: Cardiac muscles show rhythmic contraction and relaxation throughout life (1)
REASON: Cardiac muscle cells are cylindrical, branched and nucleate.
Q9. a) Draw a well labelled diagram of mitosis. Also mention one significance of this process. (1+1+2)
b) Mention the specific role of SER and RER in membrane biogenesis .
Q10. Draw a well labelled diagram of striated muscle fibre. (2)
OR
Draw a well labelled diagram of sclerenchyma tissue (Transverse section).
Q11. a) Why should preventive measures and biological control methods be preferred for protecting
crops? (Three points) (1.5+1.5)
b) Mention three ways by which abiotic and biotic factors can affect storage grains.
Q12. Observe the given diagram and answer the following questions: (3)

a) Identify the given [Link] define it.


b) Name the part labelled as B. Also mention its location.
c) Give the function of the part labelled as (C).
Q13. i)a)Give two ways by which insect pests can attack the plants.
(3+2=5)
b) Give two advantages of building check dams.
c)How is broiler feed different from layers?
ii)Give two management practices that are common in dairy and poultry farming.
OR
Q13. (i) a)How is the River lift system a beneficial type of irrigation?
b) Mention two benefits of using green manure for farming.
c)Differentiate between inland fisheries and marine fisheries.
ii) Give one problem associated with composite fish culture. How that problem is overcome?

Q14. Read the given paragraph and answer the following questions:
The word 'apiculture' comes from the Latin word 'apis' which means bee. Beekeeping includes care and
management of colonies of honeybees. They are kept for their honey and other products or their
services as pollinators of fruit and vegetable blossoms or as a hobby. Beekeeping has positive ecological
consequences. Bees play an important role in the pollination of many flowering plants, thus increasing
the yield of certain crops such as sunflower and various fruits. Honey is a delicious and highly nutritious
food. (1+1+2=4)
a) Give the factors which decide the quality of honey.
b) Which variety of honey bee is commonly used for commercial honey production? Also give its
scientific name.
c) Farmers use bee-keeping as an additional income generating activity. Give reasons.
OR
b)​ Give two desirable characters of bee varieties, besides high honey production, suitable for honey
production.

Common questions

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Green manure improves soil fertility through organic matter and nitrogen fixation, enhancing soil structure and biodiversity without adverse environmental effects. Synthetic fertilizers offer immediate nutrient availability and increased crop yield but may lead to soil degradation, pollution, and reduced biodiversity. Thus, incorporating green manure aligns better with sustainability goals by promoting long-term soil health and ecological balance .

The statement implies that work done is defined with respect to the reference frame of the motion's direction. When a force acts opposite to the direction of displacement, it does negative work on the object, meaning it removes energy from the system rather than adding to it. This is consistent with the negative sign convention in the expression for work (W = Fd cosθ) when the angle θ between force and displacement is greater than 90 degrees .

Helium is a noble gas because its complete electron shell configuration (1s²) gives it stability and inertness, following the duplet rule. Beryllium, although having two valence electrons (1s² 2s²), is not inert as it does not have a filled outer shell; it tends to lose electrons to achieve the electron configuration of helium, showing reactivity uncharacteristic of noble gases .

Newton's second law of motion states that the force applied on an object is equal to the mass of the object times its acceleration, formulated as F = ma. Applying this to the car, the force required is F = 1000 kg * 25 m/s² = 25000 N. This analysis uses both conceptual understanding and mathematical skills to apply the law quantitatively .

The River lift system draws water from rivers using pumps, providing effective irrigation in areas where canal systems are impractical. Its benefits include flexibility in location and timing, allowing for targeting specific crop needs. However, limitations include high installation and operational costs, reliance on consistent river flow, and potential environmental impacts from river water extraction. This system is more advantageous in regions with challenging topographies where traditional methods are insufficient .

The assertion that SER and RER are pivotal in biogenesis is true, as they synthesize lipids and proteins, respectively, integral to cell membrane formation. The reasoning that SER's role in detoxification and RER's in protein synthesis underlie their contributions substantiates this, elaborating on a deeper understanding of cellular processes and how specific organelles maintain cell integrity and functionality .

A bullet moves with high velocity and exerts a concentrated force over a small area, resulting in the creation of a hole with minimal glass cracking due to inertia limiting lateral breakage. Conversely, a stone has lower velocity, larger mass, and impacts over a broader area, resulting in higher lateral forces that exceed the tensile strength of the glass, causing it to shatter .

The kinetic theory of gases states that the temperature of a gas is a measure of the average kinetic energy of its molecules. As temperature increases, molecular motion intensifies, resulting in higher kinetic energy. The effects are manifested in increased rates of diffusion, expansion, and pressure of gases, highlighting the direct link between temperature and molecular dynamics .

Apiculture enhances agricultural productivity through pollination, vital for fruit and seed production, directly influencing yield diversity and quality. Ecologically, it supports biodiversity through natural pollination cycles. Economically, it offers supplemental income for farmers via honey and other bee-derived products. This dual advantage fosters sustainable agricultural practices by integrating natural ecosystem services with economic activities .

Newton's First Law of Motion, also known as the law of inertia, states that an object will remain in its state of rest or uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force. This principle is significant for understanding that no motion or change occurs without an external force. A practical application is in automobile safety: seatbelts harness Newton's First Law by holding passengers in place despite the car's inertia-resistant deceleration during a sudden stop, preventing injury .

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