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RTSE 2025-26 Class VIII Question Paper

The document is a question paper for the RTSE 2025-26 for Class VIII, consisting of 60 compulsory multiple-choice questions across various subjects including English, Mathematics, Science, General Knowledge, and Reasoning. Each question carries one mark, with specific instructions on answering and submitting the OMR sheet. The results will be announced by November 8, 2025, and the document emphasizes the importance of education.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
298 views7 pages

RTSE 2025-26 Class VIII Question Paper

The document is a question paper for the RTSE 2025-26 for Class VIII, consisting of 60 compulsory multiple-choice questions across various subjects including English, Mathematics, Science, General Knowledge, and Reasoning. Each question carries one mark, with specific instructions on answering and submitting the OMR sheet. The results will be announced by November 8, 2025, and the document emphasizes the importance of education.

Uploaded by

dev369000
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

QUESTION PAPER FOR RTSE 2025-26

CLASS – VIII
Duration of Exam :-60 Minutes Maximum Marks: - 60
Name: ______________________Father’s Name : ___________________________Date : 02nd NOV. 2025
Present School Name: __________________________________________Address_________________________
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :-
1. The Total No. of Questions is 60 & all are compulsory to attempt.
2. All questions are MCQ & only one option is correct. Darken one bubble in your OMR with your correct
answer.
3. Use only blue/black ball point pen to darken one bubble in OMR.
4. Each question carries one mark. On Right answer 1 mark will be awarded.
5. Cuttings in answers or Overwritten answers or using Fluid in OMR will be considered as wrong answer.
6. No negative marking in RTSE Phase - I.
7. You can take help from Room Invigilator to fill your details in OMR. Avoid doing mistakes.
8. Must submit your OMR before leaving examination hall.
9. RTSE result will be declared by 8th November 2025 and uploaded on website
. [Link].

Investment in Education never goes waste.

May Your Luck Smile at You!


(1)
ENGLISH
1 Choose the word that means the opposite of the given word : AMBIGUOUS
(a) Obscure (b) Vague (c) Clear (d) Complex

2 Choose the sentence with no grammatical error :


(a) Hardly had I (b) Hardly I had (c) Hardly had I (d) Hardly had I reached the
reached the station reached the station reached the station that the train
than the train when the train station when the departed.
departed. departed. train departed.

3 Select the correctly reported speech form : Direct: He said, “Had I known, I would have helped
you.”
(a) He said that if he (b) He said that had he (c) He said he had (d) He told that if he knew, he
had known, he known, he would known, he would have helped me.
would have helped help me. would have
me. helped me.

4 Choose the correct usage of a modal verb : She ___ have taken your book by mistake.
(a) should (b) could (c) must (d) would

5 Which of the following words can function both as a noun and an adjective ?
(a) Light (b) Beautiful (c) Quickly (d) Honest

6 Which sentence uses the perfect infinitive correctly ?


(a) She seems have (b) She seems to have (c) She seemed to (d) She seems to finishing the
finished the work. finished the work. finished the work.
work.

7 It was not ________who said that, but _________. :


(a) me, she (b) I, her (c) me, her (d) I, she

8 Select the correct form of the verb : By the time you arrive, we ___ our lunch.
(a) finished (b) have finished (c) will have (d) had finished
finished

9 Find the sentence with the correct sequence of tenses :


(a) He said that he will (b) He said that he (c) He says that he (d) He said that he meet me the
meet me the next would meet me the would meet me next day.
day. next day. the next day.

10 Choose the sentence where the participle is used correctly :


(a) Having finished the (b) Having finished the (c) Having finished, (d) The bill was paid, having
meal, the bill was meal, we paid the the bill was paid finished the meal.
paid. bill. by us.

11 Pick the correct form : Neither of the players ___ injured.

(a) were (b) are (c) was (d) have

12 Choose the correctly transformed negative sentence : Positive: Everyone was present.

(a) No one was absent. (b) Someone was (c) All were not (d) Everyone wasn’t present.
absent. present.

(2)
13 Identify the sentence where “as well as” is used with correct subject-verb agreement :
(a) The teacher as well (b) The teacher as well (c) The teacher as (d) The teacher as well as the
as the students as the students are well as the students have excited.
were excited. excited. students was
excited.
14 Choose the word that means the same as the given word : ELATED .
(a) Sad (b) Excited (c) Bored (d) Angry

MATHEMATICS
15 The ratio between the number of sides of two regular polygons is 1 : 2 and the ratio between
their corresponding interior angles is 2 : 3 . The sum of number of sides of these polygon
is______.
(a) 16 (b) 14 (c) 13 (d) 12

16 Mr. Abhay spends 20% of his income on house rent, 20% on children’s education, 40% on
other expenses and he saves the remaining income. If we have to represent the given
information on pie-chart , then the difference of central angles of savings and other expenses in
the pie-chart is ______.
(a) 36 (b) 144 (c) 72 (d) 108

17 The bisector of any two adjacent angles of parallelogram intersect at :


(a) 30 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 90

18 The difference of two numbers is 2029. On dividing the larger number by the smaller, we get 7
as quotient and the 7 as remainder. The smaller number is ______.
(a) 237 (b) 437 (c) 197 (d) 337

19 A sum of Rs. 10500 is made of 50, 20, 10 and 5 rupee notes. The number of 10 rupee notes is five
times the number of 5 rupee notes, four times the number of 20 rupee notes and ten times the
number of 50 rupee notes. The sum of number of fifty rupee and five rupee notes is ______.
(a) 200 (b) 220 (c) 150 (d) 240

𝒑
20 If is a rational number that can be formed by the given integers 55, 43, 61 and 25 using two at
𝒒
a time, then the difference between the least and the greatest rational number so formed, is___.
(a) 119 (b) (c) 1525 (d) 1525
1525 3096 119

21 If 2500 is greater than 500 by a %, then the value of a is ______.


(a) 300 (b) 350 (c) 400 (d) 450

22 In a Fort, 300 men had food provisions for 90 days. After 20 days, 50 men left the Fort. How long
would the food last at the same rate?
(a) 84 days (b) 108 days (c) 540 days (d) None of these

23 The cost price of an article is Rs. X, the selling price of the same article is Rs.Y and Z is the
profit or loss percentage. If the cost price and the selling price both are increased by the same
amount, then which of the following is true ?
(a) Z increases (b) No change in Z (c) Z decreases (d) Z increases if it is profit %
and Z decreases if it is loss %

(3)
24 If x +
𝟏
= 5, then 𝒙𝟒 +
𝟏
=?
𝒙

(a) 125 (b) 625 (c) 527 (d) None of these

25 Parallel sides of a trapezium are 77 cm and 60 cm and its non-parallel sides are 25 cm and
26 cm, then area of trapezium is ______.
(a) 1612𝑐𝑚 (b) 1640 𝑐𝑚 (c) 1644𝑐𝑚 (d) 1648 𝑐𝑚

26 If both the radius and height of a right circular cylinder are increased by 25%, then its volume
will be increased by ______.
(a) 56.25% (b) 95 % (c) 95 % (d) 56.75%

27 If area of the three adjacent faces of the cuboid is 56 𝒄𝒎𝟐 , 𝟔𝟑 𝒄𝒎𝟐 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝟕𝟐 𝒄𝒎𝟐 respectively ,
then the volume of cuboid is ______.
(a) 405 𝑐𝑚 (b) 504 𝑐𝑚 (c) 540 𝑐𝑚 (d) 450 𝑐𝑚

28 Each side of a rhombus is 15 cm and the length of one of its diagonal is 24 cm. The area of the
rhombus is ________ .
(a) 432 𝑐𝑚 (b) 216 𝑐𝑚 (c) 180 𝑐𝑚 (d) 144 𝑐𝑚

SCIENCE
29 A mass of 2 kg is falling towards the earth with an acceleration of 10 m/𝒔𝟐 . What is the force
exerted by the earth on the mass ?
(a) 5N (b) 10 N (c) 20 N (d) 2 N

30 SONAR transmits ultrasonic sound waves towards the bottom of the sea. The time interval
recorded to receive the reflected sound is 1.8 sec. If the speed of ultrasonic sound in water is
1,500 𝑚𝑠 , find the depth of the sea.
(a) 2700 mtr (b) 1350 mtr (c) 1500 mtr (d) 2000 mtr

31 Two bricks of same dimensions (10 cm x 20 cm x 30 cm) and same mass 10 kg are kept on the
floor as shown in figure. The pressure exerted on the floor will be ____ [Take g =10m /𝒔𝟐 ]

(a) (b) (c) (d)

32 Pick the odd one out :


(a) Natural gas (b) Petroleum (c) Coal (d) Charcoal

33 Which of the following is a place meant for the conservation of biodiversity in their natural
habitat ?
(a) Zoological garden (b) National park (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

34 Here, the organisms ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively belong to the group :

(4)
(a) Bacteria and Fungi (b) Protozoa and Fungi (c) Algae and (d) Fungi and Protozoa
Protozoa

35 Which of the following is not used for weeding ?

(a) Khurpi (b) Seed drill (c) Plough (d) Cultivator

36 When electric current passes through the water added with common salt, the gas/gases released
is/are :
(a) Hydrogen gas only (b) Chlorine gas only (c) Both hydrogen (d) Neither hydrogen nor
and chlorine gas chlorine gas

37 Scientist who discovered fermentation is _______.


(a) Alexander Fleming (b) Louis Pasteur (c) John Mendel (d) Edward Jenner

38 Rolling friction is smaller than ______.


(a) Sliding friction (b) Static friction (c) Fluid friction (d) All of these

39 If 5 kg of a fuel liberates 60,000 KJ of energy on complete combustion then its calorific value
is______.
(a) 15,000 kJ/kg (b) 12,000 kJ/kg (c) 1,200 kJ/kg (d) 18,000 kJ/kg

40 Match the following and choose the correct option :


Column I Column II
a. Phosphorus (i) Vaporises
b. Camphor (ii) Spontaneous combustion
c. Petrol (iii) Explosion
d. Cracker (iv) Non-combustible
e. Stone piece (v) Rapid combustion
(a) a (ii), b (i), c (v), (b) a (i), b (ii), c (v), (c) a (ii), b (i), c(iv), (d) a (ii), b (i), c (iii), d (v),
d (iii), e (iv) d (iii), e (iv) d (v), e (iii) e (iv)

41 The primary male reproductive organs are situated in ______.


(a) Ovary (b) Penis (c) Scrotum (d) Vas deferens

42 The process of formation of ova is called ______.


(a) Spermatogenesis (b) Fertilization (c) Oogenesis (d) Asexual reproduction

G.K & [Link]


43 Which state government has recently announced the establishment of special education zones
[SEZs] to boost higher education ?
(a) Jharkhand (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Bihar (d) Odisha

44 Which of the following method is used for soil conservation ?


(a) Mulching (b) Rock Dam (c) Shelter belts (d) All of these

45 What is the full form of OGAT ?


(a) Online gaming (b) Online Gaming (c) Online Gaming (d) Online Gaming Association
Audit of India. Authority of India Alliance of India of India

(5)
46 Large scale destruction of forest cover and arable land has occurred due to the following :
(a) Growing (b) Ever growing (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
population demand of
population

47 Widow’s Home in Poona was established by whom in Pune ?


(a) Tarabai shinde (b) Rokeya Hussain (c) Pandita Ramabai (d) Savitribai Phule

48 A person who knows and studies several languages is known as ______.


(a) Teacher (b) Multitalented (c) Linguist (d) Learner

49 What is the purpose of fundamental rights in the Indian constitution ?


(a) To control the (b) To protect citizens (c) To manage (d) To give the government full
economy freedom and rights public services control

50 Kalamkari Print was developed in which state ?


(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Haryana (c) Rajasthan (d) Andhra Pradesh

51 Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?


(a) Right to education (b) Right to freedom (c) Right against (d) Right to property
exploitation

REASONING
52 If PET = 4
LET = 3
JEY = 2
Then what is the value of ХET ?
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8

53 Find the wrong term of the series. 1, 5, 6, 11, 17, 27, 45, 73

(a) 27 (b) 45 (c) 17 (d) 11

54 What mathematical operation should come at the place of '?' in the equation : 2 ? 6 -12 ÷ 4 + 2
= 11
(a) ÷ (b) - (c) x (d) +

55 3 4 43
7 5 57
9 11 ( ? )
(a) 34 (b) 75 (c) 119 (d) 911

56 Ganesh moves 20 metres towards East from his house. Then he turns left 3 times each time
covering a distance of 20 meters. Finally he takes 2 successive right turns, each time covering a
distance of 20 metres. In which direction is he with respect to his house ?
(a) North (b) North-East (c) South-West (d) North-West

57 How immediately many W's are there in the following series which are immediately followed by
W but not preceded by K ? D W W D H K V D W Z D W W W D D W K W W D K K D H C

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None of these

(6)
58 Sachin is the brother of the son of Ajit's son. Then what is the relationship of Sachin to Ajit ?
(a) Brother (b) Cousin (c) Nephew (d) Grandson

59 The question below has three items having certain relationship among them. The same
relationship is expressed by sets of circles, each circle representing one item irrespective of its
size. Match the items with right set of circles. Computer skilled, Graduates, Employed.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

60 In this question, three alternatives are alike in a certain way but the rest one is different. Select
the odd one.
(a) June (b) April (c) November (d) January

(7)

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