IISGNII

PERFORMANCE EVALUATION
Practice Set/Paper Correct Answers Total No. Of Questions Percentage Of
Marks

Paper 1

Paper 2

Paper 3

Paper 4

Paper 5

Paper 6

Paper 7

Paper 8

Paper 9

Paper 10

Paper 11

A Grade 85 % -100 % ,

B Grade 70% -84.99 % ,

C Grade 55% -69.99%

D Grade 40 % -54.55%

3
 1 Agriculture Engineering
IISGNII (A) Cohesion and Internal Friction

Soil Mechanics (B) Texture and Structure

(C) Moisture Content
Section 1: Basic Concepts
(D) Organic Matter
1. What are the three phases of soil?
Answer: A
(A) Solids, Liquids, and Gases
Section 2: Soil Classification and Properties
(B) Sand, Silt, and Clay
6. The plasticity index of soil is the range of
(C) Organic Matter, Minerals, and Water water content between:
(D) None of the above (A) Liquid and Plastic Limits
Answer: A (B) Plastic and Shrinkage Limits
2. Which property measures soil’s ability to (C) Liquid and Shrinkage Limits
retain water?
(D) None of the above
(A) Porosity
Answer: A
(B) Permeability
7. What is the standard unit of permeability
(C) Water Holding Capacity in soil mechanics?
(D) Plasticity (A) m/s
Answer: C (B) cm²/s
3. What is the term for the amount of void (C) L/m²
space in soil?
(D) kg/m³
(A) Bulk Density
Answer: A
(B) Porosity
8. The Unified Soil Classification System
(C) Compaction (USCS) is primarily based on:
(D) Void Ratio (A) Soil Color
Answer: B (B) Particle Size Distribution and
Plasticity
4. Which soil particle size is the smallest?
o (C) Soil pH
(A) Gravel
o (D) Organic Matter Content
(B) Sand
o Answer: B
(C) Silt
9. What is the dry density of soil?
(D) Clay
o (A) Total Mass per Unit Volume
Answer: D
o (B) Mass of Solids per Unit Volume
5. What is soil shear strength primarily of Soil
influenced by?

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 Agriculture Engineering 2
o (C) Mass of Water per Unit Volume 14. Which factor does not affect soil
compaction?
o (D) None of the above
o (A) Soil Type
o Answer: B
o (B) Compaction Effort
10. What is the Atterberg limit test used for?
o (C) Time of Compaction
o (A) Measuring Soil Strength
o (D) Moisture Content
o (B) Determining Soil Plasticity
o Answer: C
o (C) Calculating Permeability
15. What is the primary cause of settlement in
o (D) Testing Soil Fertility cohesive soils?
o Answer: B o (A) Shrinkage
Section 3: Soil Compaction and Consolidation o (B) Consolidation
11. Compaction improves which property of o (C) Swelling
soil?
o (D) Compaction
o (A) Porosity
o Answer: B
o (B) Shear Strength
Section 4: Permeability and Seepage
o (C) Permeability
16. Darcy’s law relates to:
o (D) All of the above
o (A) Water Retention in Soil
o Answer: B
o (B) Flow of Water Through Soil
12. What is the purpose of a Proctor Test?
o (C) Soil Erosion
o (A) To Measure Soil Permeability
o (D) None of the above
o (B) To Determine Maximum Dry
Density and Optimum Moisture o Answer: B
Content
17. Which soil type typically has the lowest
o (C) To Test Shear Strength permeability?
o (D) To Analyze Soil Texture o (A) Sand
o Answer: B o (B) Silt
13. What happens during soil consolidation? o (C) Gravel
o (A) Increase in Void Ratio o (D) Clay
o (B) Compression Due to Expulsion o Answer: D
of Water
18. The coefficient of permeability depends
o (C) Increase in Porosity on:
o (D) Expansion of Soil Particles o (A) Grain Size
o Answer: B o (B) Void Ratio

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 3 Agriculture Engineering
o (C) Soil Structure 23. Slope stability in soils is affected by:
o (D) All of the above o (A) Shear Strength
o Answer: D o (B) Moisture Content
19. What is seepage velocity? o (C) External Loads
o (A) Velocity of Water Flow Through o (D) All of the above
Voids
o Answer: D
o (B) Rate of Water Infiltration
24. What is the critical state in soil
o (C) Water Velocity on Soil Surface mechanics?
o (D) None of the above o (A) State of Maximum Porosity
o Answer: A o (B) State of Continuous Deformation
Without Strength Change
20. Which method is used to measure soil
permeability? o (C) State of Complete Saturation
o (A) Proctor Test o (D) None of the above
o (B) Falling Head Test o Answer: B
o (C) Atterberg Limit Test 25. What instrument is used in a direct shear
test?
o (D) Shear Test
o (A) Compression Machine
o Answer: B
o (B) Shear Box
Section 5: Shear Strength and Stability
o (C) Permeameter
21. The angle of internal friction is associated
with: o (D) Proctor Apparatus
o (A) Cohesionless Soils o Answer: B
o (B) Clay Soils Section 6: Foundation Engineering
o (C) Organic Soils 26. What is the primary purpose of a soil
foundation?
o (D) All Soils
o (A) To Support and Distribute Loads
o Answer: A from a Structure
22. The shear strength of soil is described by o (B) To Improve Soil Fertility
which equation?
o (C) To Prevent Soil Erosion
o (A) Darcy’s Law
o (D) To Measure Soil Strength
o (B) Terzaghi’s Equation
o Answer: A
o (C) Mohr-Coulomb Equation
27. What is bearing capacity?
o (D) Bernoulli’s Equation
o (A) Soil’s Ability to Hold Moisture
o Answer: C

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 Agriculture Engineering 4
o (B) Maximum Load Soil Can o (D) Falling Head Test
Support Per Unit Area
o Answer: A
o (C) Minimum Load Required to
Collapse Soil 32. The term “critical hydraulic gradient”
relates to:
o (D) None of the above
o (A) Compaction
o Answer: B
o (B) Seepage Pressure
28. Which type of foundation is suitable for
weak soils? o (C) Liquefaction

o (A) Shallow Foundation o (D) Shear Strength

o (B) Deep Foundation o Answer: B

o (C) Strip Footing 33. Soil liquefaction occurs in:

o (D) None of the above o (A) Dense Gravel

o Answer: B o (B) Saturated Loose Sands

29. What is the purpose of a plate load test? o (C) Dry Clay
o (A) To Determine Bearing Capacity o (D) Compact Sand

o (B) To Measure Permeability o Answer: B

o (C) To Test Soil Plasticity 34. Which of the following increases soil
permeability?
o (D) To Evaluate Shear Strength
o (A) High Clay Content
o Answer: A
o (B) Well-Graded Particles
30. Which type of soil exhibits the highest
bearing capacity? o (C) Low Void Ratio
o (A) Sand o (D) Open-Graded Aggregates

o (B) Gravel o Answer: D

o (C) Clay 35. The “hydrometer analysis” is used to

determine:
o (D) Loam
o (A) Grain Size Distribution in Fine-
o Answer: B Grained Soils
Section 7: Advanced Topics in Soil Mechanics o (B) Shear Strength
31. Which method is used for slope stability o (C) Permeability Coefficient
analysis?
o (D) Soil Compaction Level
o (A) Limit Equilibrium Method
o Answer: A
o (B) Direct Shear Test
36. What is the primary factor in soil
o (C) Proctor Test swelling?

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5 Agriculture Engineering
o (A) High Plasticity o (C) Organic Mulch Used for Slope
Protection
o (B) Low Permeability
o (D) None of the Above
o (C) Large Void Ratio
o Answer: A
o (D) High Organic Content
Section 8: Case Studies and Applications
o Answer: A
41. Which technique is used for groundwater
37. The term “active earth pressure” refers recharge in agricultural areas?
to:
o (A) Permeable Pavements
o (A) Pressure Exerted by Soil on a
Retaining Wall When Soil Expands o (B) Contour Trenching
o (B) Passive Resistance of Soil o (C) Check Dams
o (C) Vertical Load on Foundations o (D) All of the Above
o (D) None of the Above o Answer: D
o Answer: A 42. Contour farming helps primarily with:
38. What is the typical range of soil bulk o (A) Reducing Soil Erosion
density for agricultural purposes?
o (B) Increasing Soil Permeability
o (A) 1.0-1.3 g/cm³
o (C) Enhancing Soil Compaction
o (B) 1.1-1.6 g/cm³
o (D) Promoting Soil Liquefaction
o (C) 1.5-2.0 g/cm³
o Answer: A
o (D) 2.0-2.5 g/cm³
43. What is “capillary rise” in soil mechanics?
o Answer: B
o (A) Upward Movement of Water
39. What role does organic matter play in soil Due to Surface Tension
mechanics?
o (B) Increase in Soil Temperature
o (A) Increases Permeability
o (C) Downward Movement of Water
o (B) Enhances Aggregation
o (D) None of the Above
o (C) Reduces Shear Strength
o Answer: A
o (D) All of the Above
44. What factor most significantly affects
o Answer: D drainage in clayey soils?
40. In the context of soil erosion control, o (A) Permeability
“riprap” refers to:
o (B) Cohesion
o (A) Layer of Stones Placed on
Slopes or Channels o (C) Shrinkage Limit

o (B) Plastic Sheeting for Covering o (D) Bulk Density

Soil
o Answer: A

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Agriculture Engineering 6
45. Which soil property is crucial for 4. The specific heat of a gas is highest in
designing farm ponds? which process?
o (A) Permeability o (A) Isothermal
o (B) Plasticity o (B) Adiabatic
o (C) Shear Strength o (C) Isochoric
o (D) All of the Above o (D) Isobaric
o Answer: D o Answer: D
5. Which property of a system is not a
thermodynamic property?
Thermodynamics: Basic
Concepts o (A) Pressure
1. Which law of thermodynamics introduces o (B) Volume
the concept of entropy?
o (C) Temperature
o (A) Zeroth Law
o (D) Heat
o (B) First Law
o Answer: D
o (C) Second Law
o (D) Third Law
Heat Engines: Principles
o Answer: C
6. What is the function of a heat engine?
2. What does the Zeroth Law of
Thermodynamics establish? o (A) Convert mechanical work into
heat
o (A) Conservation of Energy
o (B) Convert heat into mechanical
o (B) Thermal Equilibrium work
o (C) Direction of Heat Transfer o (C) Store energy
o (D) Absolute Zero o (D) Transfer heat between reservoirs
o Answer: B o Answer: B
3. Which process occurs at constant 7. What is the working cycle of a gasoline
temperature? engine?
o (A) Isothermal o (A) Otto Cycle
o (B) Adiabatic o (B) Diesel Cycle
o (C) Isochoric o (C) Brayton Cycle
o (D) Isobaric o (D) Carnot Cycle
o Answer: A o Answer: A
8. Which cycle is used in steam turbines?

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 7 Agriculture Engineering
o (A) Otto Cycle o (C) Volume
o (B) Rankine Cycle o (D) Density
o (C) Diesel Cycle o Answer: C
o (D) Brayton Cycle 13. What remains constant in an isochoric
process?
o Answer: B
o (A) Pressure
9. What is the efficiency of a Carnot engine
dependent on? o (B) Volume
o (A) Heat supplied o (C) Temperature
o (B) Temperatures of heat reservoirs o (D) Enthalpy
o (C) Working substance o Answer: B
o (D) Mechanical load 14. What is enthalpy a measure of?
o Answer: B o (A) Internal Energy + PV Work
10. Which gas is commonly used in o (B) Work Done by System
refrigeration cycles?
o (C) Heat Lost
o (A) Hydrogen
o (D) Pressure-Volume Work Only
o (B) Nitrogen
o Answer: A
o (C) Ammonia
15. What is the unit of entropy?
o (D) Helium
o (A) Joules
o Answer: C
o (B) Kelvin
o (C) Joules/Kelvin
Thermodynamic Processes and Properties
o (D) Watts
11. In which process is no heat transferred?
o Answer: C
o (A) Isobaric
Applications in Agricultural Engineering
o (B) Adiabatic
16. Which system uses thermodynamics for
o (C) Isochoric grain drying?
o (D) Isothermal o (A) Combustion Engine
o Answer: B o (B) Solar Dryer
12. Which is an extensive property of a o (C) Refrigeration System
system?
o (D) Heat Pump
o (A) Pressure
o Answer: B
o (B) Temperature

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 Agriculture Engineering 8
17. What is the primary working fluid in o (C) Zeroth Law
steam engines?
o (D) Boyle’s Law
o (A) Air
o Answer: B
o (B) Water
22. In a diesel cycle, ignition occurs at:
o (C) Oil
o (A) Constant Pressure
o (D) Refrigerant
o (B) Constant Volume
o Answer: B
o (C) Constant Temperature
18. What is the main advantage of using a
Stirling engine? o (D) Variable Pressure
o (A) High Speed o Answer: A

o (B) Use of Any Heat Source 23. Which component removes exhaust gases
in an engine?
o (C) Low Cost
o (A) Carburetor
o (D) High Power Output
o (B) Exhaust Valve
o Answer: B
o (C) Piston
19. Which cycle is used in biogas engines?
o (D) Spark Plug
o (A) Otto Cycle
o Answer: B
o (B) Diesel Cycle
24. What is the thermal efficiency of an ideal
o (C) Dual Cycle Carnot engine?
o (D) Carnot Cycle o (A) 1 - (T2/T1)
o Answer: A o (B) (T1 - T2)/T1
20. What is a common application of a heat o (C) 1/T1
exchanger in agriculture?
o (D) T2 - T1
o (A) Cooling Tractors
o Answer: A
o (B) Heating Greenhouses
25. What is the primary factor in engine
o (C) Grain Storage knocking?
o (D) Solar Dryers o (A) Fuel Type
o Answer: B o (B) Compression Ratio
Advanced Topics o (C) Lubrication
21. Which law governs the operation of heat o (D) Cooling System
pumps?
o Answer: B
o (A) First Law of Thermodynamics
Advanced Applications in Heat Engines
o (B) Second Law of Thermodynamics

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9 Agriculture Engineering
26. Which component in an internal  (A) Solid and Solid
combustion engine controls the fuel-air
mixture?  (B) Liquid and Liquid
 (A) Piston  (C) Fluids of different temperatures

 (B) Carburetor  (D) Solid and Liquid

 (C) Exhaust Valve  Answer: C
 (D) Radiator Renewable Energy Systems
 Answer: B 31. Which engine cycle is most applicable in
solar thermal power plants?
27. What is the purpose of a turbocharger in
a heat engine?  (A) Otto Cycle
 (A) Reduce fuel consumption  (B) Brayton Cycle

 (B) Increase power output by compressing  (C) Rankine Cycle

intake air
 (D) Diesel Cycle
 (C) Enhance exhaust gas emission
 Answer: C
 (D) Cool the engine
32. Which thermodynamic principle is
 Answer: B employed in photovoltaic panels?

28. What is the typical compression ratio in  (A) Thermal Equilibrium

diesel engines compared to gasoline
engines?  (B) Energy Conversion

 (A) Lower  (C) Phase Transition

 (B) Equal  (D) Entropy Reduction

 (C) Higher  Answer: B

 (D) Unrelated 33. What is the primary challenge in biomass

gasification engines?
 Answer: C
 (A) High Emission Levels
29. What type of energy is converted by the
alternator in an agricultural engine?  (B) Inconsistent Fuel Supply

 (A) Thermal to Mechanical  (C) High Capital Costs

 (B) Mechanical to Electrical  (D) Low Energy Efficiency

 (C) Chemical to Thermal  Answer: B

 (D) Electrical to Chemical 34. Which renewable energy source uses the
thermodynamic Brayton cycle?
 Answer: B
 (A) Solar Panels
30. In a heat exchanger, the heat transfer
occurs between:  (B) Wind Turbines
 (C) Gas Turbines

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Agriculture Engineering 10
 (D) Biogas Plants 39. Which heat transfer mechanism is
predominant in a solar dryer?
 Answer: C
 (A) Conduction
35. What is the main use of geothermal
heat engines in agriculture?  (B) Convection
 (A) Powering Tractors  (C) Radiation
 (B) Drying Crops  (D) Both B and C
 (C) Heating Greenhouses  Answer: D
 (D) Irrigation Systems 40. What is the role of insulation in
agricultural storage facilities?
 Answer: C
 (A) Enhance Heat Transfer
 (B) Reduce Heat Loss or Gain
Heat Transfer in Agricultural Engineering
 (C) Increase Material Durability
36. Which mode of heat transfer does not
require a medium?  (D) Promote Airflow
 (A) Conduction  Answer: B
 (B) Convection Agricultural Machinery and Thermodynamics
 (C) Radiation 41. What is the primary advantage of using
direct injection in diesel engines?
 (D) All of the above
 (A) Lower Fuel Consumption
 Answer: C
 (B) Reduced Noise
37. The thermal conductivity of a
material measures its ability to:  (C) Higher Compression Ratio
 (A) Reflect Heat  (D) Simpler Design
 (B) Absorb Heat  Answer: A
 (C) Conduct Heat 42. Which engine component prevents
overheating during operation?
 (D) Store Heat
 (A) Radiator
 Answer: C
 (B) Flywheel
38. What is the primary factor affecting
convective heat transfer?  (C) Carburetor
 (A) Surface Color  (D) Clutch
 (B) Temperature Difference  Answer: A
 (C) Heat Capacity 43. What is the main thermodynamic cycle in
most agricultural tractors?
 (D) Material Density
 (A) Carnot Cycle
 Answer: B

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 11 Agriculture Engineering
 (B) Otto Cycle  Answer: C
 (C) Diesel Cycle 48. What limits the maximum efficiency of
any heat engine?
 (D) Rankine Cycle
 (A) Type of Fuel
 Answer: C
 (B) Operating Temperature Range
44. Which type of energy loss is significant in
agricultural engines?  (C) Engine Size
 (A) Heat Loss to the Environment  (D) Material Used
 (B) Sound Energy Loss  Answer: B
 (C) Frictional Loss 49. Why are high-speed engines less efficient
at part-load conditions?
 (D) All of the above
 (A) Increased Frictional Losses
 Answer: D
 (B) Poor Air-Fuel Mixing
45. What is the purpose of a flywheel in an
engine?  (C) Incomplete Combustion
 (A) Increase Speed  (D) All of the above
 (B) Store Rotational Energy  Answer: D
 (C) Cool the Engine 50. What is the primary role of superheating
in steam engines?
 (D) Reduce Emissions
 (A) Reduce Fuel Consumption
 Answer: B
 (B) Improve Efficiency by Reducing
Miscellaneous Advanced Concepts Condensation Losses
46. What is the measure of an engine’s ability  (C) Lower Operating Temperature
to perform work?
 (D) Increase Exhaust Heat
 (A) Power
 Answer: B
 (B) Torque
 (C) Efficiency
Farm Machinery and Equipment
 (D) Fuel Consumption Rate
with Answers
 Answer: C
Set-1
47. Which refrigerant is commonly used in
agricultural cold storage? Basics of Farm Machinery and Equipment
 (A) R134a 1. Which of the following is an example of
primary tillage equipment?
 (B) CO2
a) Harrow
 (C) Ammonia
b) Plow
 (D) R22

15
Agriculture Engineering 12
c) Seeder Design Principles
d) Sprinkler 6. Ergonomics in farm machinery design
ensures:
Answer: b) Plow
a) Maximum fuel efficiency
2. What is the primary purpose of secondary
tillage equipment? b) Comfort and safety for operators
a) To plant seeds c) Faster operation
b) To refine soil texture d) Reduced maintenance costs
c) To water crops Answer: b) Comfort and safety for operators
d) To harvest crops 7. Which material is commonly used for
corrosion resistance in farm machinery?
Answer: b) To refine soil texture
a) Steel
3. Which machine is primarily used for
planting seeds? b) Aluminum
a) Planter c) Stainless steel
b) Cultivator d) Plastic
c) Rotavator Answer: c) Stainless steel
d) Roller 8. The power source for most modern
tractors is:
Answer: a) Planter
a) Steam
4. Which of the following is a post-harvest
machine? b) Electricity
a) Combine harvester c) Diesel engines
b) Thresher d) Wind energy
c) Disc plow Answer: c) Diesel engines
d) Cultivator Specific Machines and Tools
Answer: b) Thresher 9. Which equipment is used for drip
irrigation?
5. What is the function of a combine
harvester? a) Harrow
a) Irrigation b) Nozzles
b) Tillage c) Pipes and emitters
c) Harvesting, threshing, and winnowing d) Rotavator
d) Soil testing Answer: c) Pipes and emitters
Answer: c) Harvesting, threshing, and 10. A rotary tiller is commonly referred to as:
winnowing
a) Rotavator

16
 13 Agriculture Engineering
b) Planter Answer: d) All of the above
c) Disc plow Irrigation Machinery
d) Harvester 15. Which of the following is not an irrigation
machine?
Answer: a) Rotavator
a) Sprinkler system
11. Which machine can perform simultaneous
plowing and harrowing? b) Drip system
a) Disc plow c) Seed drill
b) Combine plow d) Pump
c) Rotavator Answer: c) Seed drill
d) Subsoiler 16. The major advantage of sprinkler
irrigation is:
Answer: c) Rotavator
a) Minimal water wastage
12. The main purpose of a sprayer is:
b) Reduced soil erosion
a) To distribute seeds
c) Uniform water distribution
b) To irrigate crops
d) All of the above
c) To apply pesticides and herbicides
Answer: d) All of the above
d) To harvest crops
Maintenance and Challenges
Answer: c) To apply pesticides and herbicides
17. Proper maintenance of farm machinery
Mechanization and Efficiency helps in:
13. Which type of energy is most commonly a) Increasing operational costs
utilized in farm machinery?
b) Reducing downtime
a) Chemical energy
c) Decreasing lifespan
b) Thermal energy
d) Increasing fuel consumption
c) Mechanical energy
Answer: b) Reducing downtime
d) Solar energy
18. Which of the following is a common
Answer: c) Mechanical energy problem in heavy farm machinery?
14. GPS-enabled machinery is primarily used a) Soil compaction
for:
b) Rusting
a) Mapping field boundaries
c) High initial costs
b) Automated spraying and sowing
d) All of the above
c) Reducing overlap during operations
Answer: d) All of the above
d) All of the above

17
 Agriculture Engineering 14
19. Lubrication in farm machinery is essential a) Moldboard plow
to:
b) Chisel plow
a) Increase wear and tear
c) Disk plow
b) Reduce friction and overheating
d) Reversible plow
c) Slow down operations
Answer: b) Chisel plow
d) Increase weight
3. What is the primary purpose of a combine
Answer: b) Reduce friction and overheating harvester?
Future Trends a) Fertilizing
20. What is a major advantage of b) Irrigating
autonomous tractors?
c) Harvesting grain
a) Reduced fuel consumption
d) Cultivating soil
b) Labor savings
Answer: c) Harvesting grain
c) Enhanced precision farming
4. What does a seed drill do?
d) All of the above
a) Plants seeds in rows at a uniform depth
Answer: d) All of the above
b) Harvests crops
21. The use of drones in agriculture is
beneficial for: c) Fertilizes the soil

a) Crop spraying d) Cultivates the land

b) Soil analysis Answer: a) Plants seeds in rows at a uniform depth

c) Field mapping 5. What is the function of a baler in farming?

d) All of the above a) Gathers and compresses harvested crops into
bales
Answer: d) All of the above
b) Irrigates fields
Set-2
c) Digs trenches for planting
1. What is the primary function of a tractor in
farming? d) Transports crops to the market

a) Plowing Answer: a) Gathers and compresses harvested

crops into bales
b) Irrigation
6. What kind of tractor attachment is used for
c) Harvesting tilling soil?
d) Transporting crops a) Harrow
Answer: a) Plowing b) Plow
2. Which type of plow is best suited for hard or c) Seeder
rocky soil?
d) Cultivator

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 15 Agriculture Engineering
Answer: b) Plow b) Sprayer
7. Which equipment is used to prepare the c) Baler
seedbed by breaking up soil clumps and leveling
the surface? d) Tiller

a) Disc harrow Answer: b) Sprayer

b) Rotary tiller 12. Which of the following is used to harvest root
crops like potatoes?
c) Plow
a) Combine harvester
d) Combine harvester
b) Potato harvester
Answer: a) Disc harrow
c) Disc harrow
8. What is the function of an irrigation pump?
d) Seed drill
a) Watering plants
Answer: b) Potato harvester
b) Collecting crop residues
13. Which machine is used to reduce the size of
c) Shredding plants crop residues and turn them into mulch?
d) Harvesting grains a) Mower
Answer: a) Watering plants b) Shredder
9. Which type of equipment is used for mowing c) Plow
grass or other vegetation?
d) Tractor
a) Mower
Answer: b) Shredder
b) Tiller
14. Which tool is used to break up the soil to
c) Harvester create furrows for planting seeds?
d) Seeder a) Harrow
Answer: a) Mower b) Plow
10. What is the main advantage of a no-till c) Seeder
planter?
d) Cultivator
a) It increases soil erosion
Answer: b) Plow
b) It reduces the cost of irrigation
15. What type of tractor implement is used for
c) It minimizes soil disturbance aerating soil?
d) It requires more labor a) Disc harrow
Answer: c) It minimizes soil disturbance b) Aerator
11. Which machinery is used for spraying c) Seeder
pesticides and fertilizers?
d) Mower
a) Seeder
Answer: b) Aerator

19
 Agriculture Engineering 16
16. What type of soil is best suited for a chisel d) To dig trenches
plow?
Answer: a) To break up large clods of soil
a) Sandy soil
21. What is the function of a fertilizer spreader?
b) Loamy soil
a) To apply water to crops
c) Clay soil
b) To apply fertilizers to the soil
d) Rocky soil
c) To harvest crops
Answer: d) Rocky soil
d) To plow the soil
17. What is the main purpose of a rotary tiller?
Answer: b) To apply fertilizers to the soil
a) To chop and mix soil
22. What type of equipment is used for de-
b) To plant seeds weeding fields?
c) To irrigate fields a) Seeder
d) To harvest crops b) Cultivator
Answer: a) To chop and mix soil c) Tiller
18. Which of the following machines is used for d) Harrow
applying lime to the soil?
Answer: b) Cultivator
a) Seeder
23. Which tractor attachment is designed to
b) Lime spreader remove snow from fields or roads?
c) Cultivator a) Plow
d) Harvester b) Snow blower
Answer: b) Lime spreader c) Seeder
19. Which machinery is most commonly used for d) Cultivator
harvesting rice?
Answer: b) Snow blower
a) Combine harvester
24. What is the function of a hay rake?
b) Rice thresher
a) To collect hay after it is cut
c) Rice harvester
b) To plant seeds in rows
d) Reaper
c) To water crops
Answer: c) Rice harvester
d) To break up large clods of soil
20. What is the primary purpose of a harrow?
Answer: a) To collect hay after it is cut
a) To break up large clods of soil
25. What is a combine harvester designed to do?
b) To water the plants
a) Plow the soil
c) To cut vegetation
b) Harvest and thresh grain

20
 17 Agriculture Engineering
c) Plant seeds a) Baler
d) Spread fertilizer b) Mower
Answer: b) Harvest and thresh grain c) Disc harrow
26. What type of harvester is designed for d) Plow
cutting cotton?
Answer: a) Baler
a) Combine harvester
31. What is the function of a stump grinder in
b) Cotton picker land clearing?
c) Corn header a) To level uneven land
d) Potato harvester b) To remove tree stumps
Answer: b) Cotton picker c) To dig irrigation trenches
27. What is the function of a windrower? d) To plant saplings
a) To harvest grains Answer: b) To remove tree stumps
b) To collect hay into rows for drying 32. What is a key benefit of using a no-till drill?
c) To plow the soil a) It reduces fuel consumption
d) To chop and shred crop residues b) It prevents soil erosion
Answer: b) To collect hay into rows for drying c) It accelerates plant growth
28. Which machine is used for planting seeds in d) It requires more frequent irrigation
rows at a uniform depth?
Answer: b) It prevents soil erosion
a) Seeder
33. What is a crawler tractor best suited for?
b) Harrow
a) Heavy lifting and towing
c) Baler
b) Mowing grass
d) Cultivator
c) Precision planting
Answer: a) Seeder
d) Soil aeration
29. What is a combine harvester’s threshing
mechanism responsible for? Answer: a) Heavy lifting and towing

a) Breaking up large soil clumps 34. Which piece of equipment is used to clear
land for farming?
b) Cutting the crops
a) Plow
c) Separating the grain from the stalks
b) Bulldozer
d) Spreading fertilizer
c) Seeder
Answer: c) Separating the grain from the stalks
d) Harrow
30. Which piece of equipment is used for cutting
and binding hay into bales? Answer: b) Bulldozer

21
 Agriculture Engineering 18
35. What type of machine is used for grading b) Seeder
roads?
c) Mower
a) Combine harvester
d) Cultivator
b) Road grader
Answer: a) Tree planter
c) Tractor
40. What is the main function of a cultivator?
d) Cultivator
a) To plow the soil
Answer: b) Road grader
b) To break up clods and aerate soil
36. What is the function of a stone picker in
agriculture? c) To harvest crops
a) To collect rocks from the field d) To transport materials

b) To harvest grains Answer: b) To break up clods and aerate soil

c) To break large soil clumps 41. What is the function of an auger in farming?

d) To plant seeds a) To move grain from storage to transport vehicles

Answer: a) To collect rocks from the field b) To plant seeds in rows

37. What is the main advantage of a reversible c) To water plants
plow?
d) To harvest crops
a) It is ideal for wet soil
Answer: a) To move grain from storage to transport
b) It can be turned around to plow in the opposite vehicles
direction
42. What is a key feature of a four-wheel-drive
c) It has more horsepower tractor?
d) It requires less fuel a) It can operate in wet conditions
Answer: b) It can be turned around to plow in the b) It is lighter and more fuel-efficient
opposite direction
c) It requires less maintenance
38. What is a loader used for?
d) It is ideal for mowing grass
a) Planting seeds
Answer: a) It can operate in wet conditions
b) Moving soil or materials
43. What type of harvester is used for cutting and
c) Harvesting crops gathering corn?

d) Watering plants a) Cotton harvester

Answer: b) Moving soil or materials b) Combine harvester

39. Which piece of equipment is used for planting c) Corn header
trees or shrubs?
d) Potato harvester
a) Tree planter
Answer: c) Corn header

22
 19 Agriculture Engineering
44. What is the purpose of a slurry tanker? Answer: b) To transport harvested grain to storage
a) To transport liquid manure 49. What does a mower-conditioner do?
b) To plant seeds a) It cuts hay and dries it by conditioning
c) To harvest crops b) It harvests grains
d) To apply fertilizers c) It plants seeds in rows
Answer: a) To transport liquid manure d) It irrigates crops
45. What is a key benefit of using precision Answer: a) It cuts hay and dries it by conditioning
farming equipment?
50. What is the primary purpose of a manure
a) Increased labor requirements spreader?
b) Reduced equipment maintenance a) To plow the soil
c) Improved efficiency and yield b) To water the crops
d) Higher fuel consumption c) To spread manure evenly across fields
Answer: c) Improved efficiency and yield d) To harvest crops
46. What type of equipment is used for irrigation Answer: c) To spread manure evenly across fields
in large farms?
Watershed Hydrology
a) Tractors
b) Irrigation pivots
1. What is the primary purpose of watershed
c) Combine harvesters management?
d) Sprayers a) To control soil erosion
Answer: b) Irrigation pivots b) To manage water resources and reduce flooding
47. What is the function of a corn planter? c) To cultivate crops
a) To water crops d) To build dams
b) To harvest corn Answer: b) To manage water resources and reduce
flooding
c) To plant corn seeds
2. The area of land where all the water that falls
d) To plow the field on it drains into a common outlet is known as:
Answer: c) To plant corn seeds a) Watershed
48. What is the function of a grain cart? b) River basin
a) To harvest grain c) Aquifer
b) To transport harvested grain to storage d) Floodplain
c) To plant seeds Answer: a) Watershed
d) To irrigate fields 3. The term “runoff” in hydrology refers to:

23
 Agriculture Engineering 20
a) Water that evaporates from the soil b) The relationship between precipitation and
infiltration
b) Water that infiltrates into the ground
c) The discharge of water over time from a specific
c) Water that flows over the land surface into rivers location
or lakes
d) The amount of runoff in a watershed
d) Water that is stored in reservoirs
Answer: c) The discharge of water over time from a
Answer: c) Water that flows over the land surface specific location
into rivers or lakes
8. The term “watershed divide” refers to:
4. The process by which water moves from the
earth’s surface to the atmosphere is called: a) The point where all the water from a watershed
converges
a) Precipitation
b) The line that separates one watershed from
b) Evaporation another
c) Transpiration c) The area where water is stored in the watershed
d) Infiltration d) The outlet of a river
Answer: b) Evaporation Answer: b) The line that separates one watershed
from another
5. What is the main component of the
hydrological cycle that contributes to water 9. What is the primary source of water for rivers
entering the groundwater system? and streams in a watershed?
a) Precipitation a) Groundwater
b) Runoff b) Rainfall
c) Infiltration c) Runoff
d) Evaporation d) Evaporation
Answer: c) Infiltration Answer: b) Rainfall
6. Which of the following best describes 10. What is the term for the amount of water that
“evapotranspiration”? infiltrates into the soil after rainfall?
a) The movement of water from oceans to the a) Surface runoff
atmosphere
b) Precipitation
b) The combined process of evaporation and
transpiration c) Infiltration rate
c) The infiltration of water into the soil d) Groundwater recharge
d) The flow of water over land into rivers Answer: c) Infiltration rate
Answer: b) The combined process of evaporation 11. Which of the following is a major factor
and transpiration affecting the infiltration rate in a watershed?
7. A hydrograph is a graphical representation of: a) Temperature
a) The temperature over a given time period b) Soil type

24
 21 Agriculture Engineering
c) Vegetation Answer: c) To estimate the quantity of runoff
generated by rainfall
d) All of the above
16. Which of the following factors does NOT
Answer: d) All of the above directly affect the rate of surface runoff in a
watershed?
12. What is the role of vegetation in watershed
hydrology? a) Soil permeability
a) Increasing surface runoff b) Slope of the land
b) Reducing soil erosion and increasing infiltration c) Type of vegetation cover
c) Increasing evaporation only d) The depth of the water table
d) Reducing precipitation Answer: d) The depth of the water table
Answer: b) Reducing soil erosion and increasing 17. What is “streamflow” in the context of
infiltration watershed hydrology?
13. The term “baseflow” refers to: a) The movement of groundwater
a) The amount of water stored in the soil b) The movement of water through the soil
b) The flow of water in rivers that is sustained by c) The flow of water in rivers and streams
groundwater
d) The water that evaporates from lakes
c) The amount of water lost through evaporation
Answer: c) The flow of water in rivers and streams
d) The initial stage of floodwater flow
18. Which of the following is an example of non-
Answer: b) The flow of water in rivers that is point source pollution in a watershed?
sustained by groundwater
a) Industrial discharge
14. Which of the following is the primary cause of
flooding in a watershed? b) Agricultural runoff
a) High evaporation rates c) Wastewater treatment plant discharge
b) Excessive runoff due to heavy rainfall d) Oil spills
c) Low temperatures Answer: b) Agricultural runoff
d) Rapid infiltration into the soil 19. The term “saturation excess” runoff refers
to:
Answer: b) Excessive runoff due to heavy rainfall
a) Runoff caused by soil reaching its maximum
15. What is the purpose of a rainfall-runoff model storage capacity
in watershed hydrology?
b) Runoff due to high rainfall intensity
a) To predict the amount of rainfall
c) The discharge from rivers and streams
b) To predict the water table levels
d) Water that is stored in reservoirs
c) To estimate the quantity of runoff generated by
rainfall Answer: a) Runoff caused by soil reaching its
maximum storage capacity
d) To measure evaporation rates

25
 Agriculture Engineering 22
20. A “flash flood” in a watershed is typically b) Wastewater treatment
caused by:
c) Deforestation
a) Prolonged heavy rainfall
d) Riparian buffer zones
b) Rapid snowmelt
Answer: c) Deforestation
c) Short-duration, intense rainfall
25. A “permeable surface” in a watershed refers
d) High evaporation rates to:
Answer: c) Short-duration, intense rainfall a) A surface that allows water to pass through and
infiltrate the ground
21. What is the key characteristic of a “drainage
basin” in watershed hydrology? b) A surface that prevents water infiltration
a) It is the land area from which a river or stream c) A surface that reflects water away
collects water
d) A surface that retains water in the form of lakes
b) It refers to the area of land used for agriculture
Answer: a) A surface that allows water to pass
c) It is the boundary of the water table through and infiltrate the ground
d) It is the storage area for groundwater 26. What is the purpose of a detention basin in a
watershed?
Answer: a) It is the land area from which a river or
stream collects water a) To store and gradually release runoff
22. Which factor can reduce the risk of flooding b) To increase the flow of water to rivers
in a watershed?
c) To increase evaporation
a) Increased vegetation cover
d) To irrigate agricultural land
b) Increased urbanization
Answer: a) To store and gradually release runoff
c) Increased impervious surfaces
27. What does the term “hydraulic conductivity”
d) Higher temperatures refer to?
Answer: a) Increased vegetation cover a) The speed at which water flows in rivers
23. The time between the occurrence of rainfall b) The ability of soil to transmit water
and the peak of the resulting runoff is known as:
c) The rate at which water is lost through
a) Lag time evaporation
b) Infiltration time d) The amount of water in the atmosphere
c) Baseflow time Answer: b) The ability of soil to transmit water
d) Recession time 28. The process of “erosion” in a watershed
refers to:
Answer: a) Lag time
a) The accumulation of sediment in rivers
24. Which of the following is NOT a method used
to manage water quality in a watershed? b) The wearing away of the soil by water, wind, or
human activity
a) Erosion control

26
 23 Agriculture Engineering
c) The infiltration of water into the soil 33. What does “groundwater recharge” refer to?
d) The growth of vegetation a) The process of water flowing from rivers into the
groundwater system
Answer: b) The wearing away of the soil by water,
wind, or human activity b) The process of water entering and replenishing
the groundwater
29. What is the “water table” in a watershed
system? c) The process of water evaporating into the
atmosphere
a) The level of water stored in rivers and lakes
d) The loss of water from underground storage
b) The upper level of groundwater
Answer: b) The process of water entering and
c) The amount of rainfall received replenishing the groundwater
d) The surface from which water evaporates 34. The term “infiltration capacity” refers to:
Answer: b) The upper level of groundwater a) The maximum amount of water that can be
absorbed by soil in a given time
30. What is the role of “riparian zones” in
watershed management? b) The amount of water evaporated from the soil
a) They provide habitats for wildlife c) The rate at which water flows in rivers
b) They filter pollutants from runoff d) The ability of a watershed to store water
c) They help in flood control Answer: a) The maximum amount of water that can
be absorbed by soil in a given time
d) All of the above
35. A “floodplain” is:
Answer: d) All of the above
a) The area where groundwater is stored
31. What is the main cause of “surface runoff”?
b) The area adjacent to a river that is regularly
a) High evaporation rates flooded
b) Impervious surfaces preventing infiltration c) The land used for farming
c) Saturation of the soil d) The area of highest runoff in a watershed
d) Water movement through vegetation Answer: b) The area adjacent to a river that is
regularly flooded
Answer: b) Impervious surfaces preventing
infiltration 36. Which of the following is a characteristic of a
“steep watershed”?
32. A “hydrograph” typically shows the
relationship between: a) High infiltration rates
a) Precipitation and temperature b) Shorter lag time and higher peak runoff
b) Runoff and time c) Slow runoff
c) Soil moisture and plant growth d) Lower risk of flooding
d) Evaporation and infiltration Answer: b) Shorter lag time and higher peak runoff
Answer: b) Runoff and time

27
 Agriculture Engineering 24
37. What is the “critical rainfall” for a 41. What is “precipitation excess” in a
watershed? watershed?
a) The minimum rainfall required to replenish a) The amount of water that evaporates
groundwater
b) The water that exceeds the infiltration capacity of
b) The maximum rainfall that a watershed can the soil and becomes runoff
handle without flooding
c) The water that infiltrates into groundwater
c) The average annual rainfall for the area
d) The water lost through transpiration
d) The total amount of rainfall over a year
Answer: b) The water that exceeds the infiltration
Answer: b) The maximum rainfall that a watershed capacity of the soil and becomes runoff
can handle without flooding
42. What is a “watershed outlet”?
38. A “flood” occurs when:
a) The highest point in the watershed
a) The rate of precipitation exceeds the watershed’s
capacity for infiltration and storage b) The point where water exits the watershed, often
into a river or ocean
b) The water table reaches its maximum level
c) The boundary separating different watersheds
c) Groundwater levels increase
d) The area where precipitation is highest
d) Evaporation exceeds rainfall
Answer: b) The point where water exits the
Answer: a) The rate of precipitation exceeds the watershed, often into a river or ocean
watershed’s capacity for infiltration and storage
43. Which of the following is an example of a
39. The term “hydrological model” refers to: method for increasing infiltration in a watershed?
a) A system that simulates the movement and a) Building concrete channels
distribution of water in a watershed
b) Installing stormwater retention ponds
b) A process for planting vegetation
c) Deforestation
c) A system for controlling flooding
d) Increasing impervious surfaces
d) A system for monitoring precipitation
Answer: b) Installing stormwater retention ponds
Answer: a) A system that simulates the movement
and distribution of water in a watershed 44. What is the role of wetlands in watershed
hydrology?
40. The “recession limb” of a hydrograph shows:
a) They store and filter water, reducing flood risks
a) The initial rise in river discharge and improving water quality
b) The peak flow during a flood b) They increase evaporation rates
c) The decrease in flow after a flood event c) They increase the speed of runoff
d) The level of groundwater recharge d) They decrease the amount of precipitation
Answer: c) The decrease in flow after a flood Answer: a) They store and filter water, reducing
event flood risks and improving water quality
45. What is a “stormwater management plan”?

28
 25 Agriculture Engineering
a) A plan to increase the flow of stormwater c) A reservoir used for irrigation
b) A strategy to manage and control runoff during d) A type of stormwater retention system
heavy rainfall events
Answer: b) An area of vegetation along rivers or
c) A method for planting vegetation streams that helps filter pollutants
d) A system to increase groundwater recharge 50. What is the effect of deforestation on
watershed hydrology?
Answer: b) A strategy to manage and control runoff
during heavy rainfall events a) Increased infiltration and groundwater recharge
46. Which of the following is a characteristic of b) Increased soil erosion and surface runoff
urbanization in a watershed?
c) Decreased surface runoff
a) Reduced runoff
d) Increased water retention in the soil
b) Increased infiltration
Answer: b) Increased soil erosion and surface
c) Increased impervious surfaces and runoff runoff
d) Decreased flood risks Crop Process Engineering
Answer: c) Increased impervious surfaces and 1. Crop process engineering primarily deals with:
runoff
a) Cultivation of crops
47. The “overland flow” in a watershed is:
b) Harvesting and post-harvest processing of crops
a) The movement of water beneath the surface
c) Soil fertility management
b) The slow movement of water through soil
d) Genetic modification of crops
c) The flow of water over the land surface
Answer: b) Harvesting and post-harvest processing
d) The evaporation of water from soil of crops
Answer: c) The flow of water over the land surface 2. What is the main purpose of crop drying in
post-harvest processing?
48. What is the main function of a “watershed
management plan”? a) To enhance nutritional value
a) To increase agricultural productivity b) To reduce microbial spoilage and extend shelf
life
b) To optimize water usage and prevent flooding
c) To increase the weight of the crop
c) To monitor temperatures
d) To make the crop easier to digest
d) To build reservoirs for water storage
Answer: b) To reduce microbial spoilage and
Answer: b) To optimize water usage and prevent extend shelf life
flooding
3. The process of separating grains from the
49. The term “riparian buffer” refers to: stalk is called:
a) A land area with high runoff potential a) Threshing
b) An area of vegetation along rivers or streams that b) Plowing
helps filter pollutants

29
 Agriculture Engineering 26
c) Milling 8. The process of removing the outer hull or shell
from seeds or grains is called:
d) Fermentation
a) Milling
Answer: a) Threshing
b) Hulling
4. Which of the following methods is commonly
used for drying crops like grains and vegetables? c) Threshing
a) Sun drying d) Polishing
b) Air drying Answer: b) Hulling
c) Mechanical drying 9. In crop processing, what does “tempering”
refer to?
d) All of the above
a) The process of soaking grains to soften them
Answer: d) All of the above before milling
5. The primary function of a grain mill is to: b) The process of grinding seeds into smaller pieces
a) Dry grains c) The process of drying seeds
b) Remove foreign matter d) The process of freezing crops for preservation
c) Grind the grains into flour Answer: a) The process of soaking grains to soften
them before milling
d) Package the grain
10. What is the purpose of blanching vegetables
Answer: c) Grind the grains into flour in crop process engineering?
6. Which of the following is the main objective of a) To remove pesticides
seed processing?
b) To enhance color
a) To increase seed size
c) To preserve nutrients and flavor before freezing
b) To clean, sort, and treat seeds to enhance or canning
germination
d) To reduce moisture content
c) To modify seed color
Answer: c) To preserve nutrients and flavor before
d) To reduce seed moisture freezing or canning
Answer: b) To clean, sort, and treat seeds to 11. The moisture content of grains is usually
enhance germination measured using:
7. Which of the following is NOT a common post- a) A colorimeter
harvest treatment of crops?
b) A thermometer
a) Fermentation
c) A moisture meter
b) Freezing
d) A spectrophotometer
c) Irrigation
Answer: c) A moisture meter
d) Canning
Answer: c) Irrigation

30
 27 Agriculture Engineering
12. Which machine is primarily used for cleaning 16. Which of the following methods is used for
grains by removing dust, dirt, and other foreign increasing the shelf life of fresh fruits and
particles? vegetables?
a) Thresher a) Freezing
b) Grain cleaner b) Irrigation
c) Seed dryer c) Drying
d) Seed drill d) Both a and c
Answer: b) Grain cleaner Answer: d) Both a and c
13. In crop processing, what does “dehulling” 17. What is the primary goal of fermentation in
mean? crop processing?
a) Removing the outer shell of seeds or grains a) To increase the nutritional value of crops
b) Soaking seeds in water to improve germination b) To enhance shelf life and create new products
c) Sorting seeds according to size c) To eliminate toxins from crops
d) Removing the outer leaves of vegetables d) To increase the size of crops
Answer: a) Removing the outer shell of seeds or Answer: b) To enhance shelf life and create new
grains products
14. What is the key factor in designing a crop 18. Which of the following is NOT a factor
processing plant? affecting the quality of processed crops?
a) Availability of labor a) Temperature
b) Local demand for processed crops b) Moisture content
c) Type and scale of processing equipment c) Sunlight exposure during processing
d) Climate conditions d) Processing time
Answer: c) Type and scale of processing equipment Answer: c) Sunlight exposure during processing
15. What does “cold pressing” refer to in crop oil 19. The process of separating oil from oilseeds is
extraction? called:
a) Extracting oil at high temperatures to increase a) Refining
yield
b) Milling
b) Extracting oil without using heat to preserve
nutrients c) Oil extraction

c) Pressing oil seeds without cleaning them d) Sifting

d) Using chemical solvents to extract oil Answer: c) Oil extraction

Answer: b) Extracting oil without using heat to 20. Which of the following methods is used to
preserve nutrients preserve the nutritional quality of crops during
processing?

31
 Agriculture Engineering 28
a) Freeze drying a) Fermentation
b) Canning at high temperatures b) Freezing
c) Chemical preservation c) Milling
d) Salt curing d) Irradiation
Answer: a) Freeze drying Answer: c) Milling
21. What is the role of an extruder in crop 25. The process of “hydrolyzing” starches in crop
processing? processing results in:
a) To grind grains into flour a) The production of sugars
b) To mix and shape processed food products b) Increased protein content
c) To dry crops for storage c) The preservation of the crop
d) To remove water from vegetables d) Increased oil content
Answer: b) To mix and shape processed food Answer: a) The production of sugars
products
26. What is “sifting” used for in crop processing?
22. The term “fortification” in crop processing
refers to: a) Removing unwanted particles from grains

a) The addition of vitamins and minerals to b) Grinding crops into finer powder
processed crops
c) Freezing crops for preservation
b) The preservation of crops through freezing
d) Packaging processed crops
c) The packaging of crops in airtight containers
Answer: a) Removing unwanted particles from
d) The drying of crops to increase shelf life grains
Answer: a) The addition of vitamins and minerals 27. What does “packing” involve in crop
to processed crops processing?

23. In crop processing, what does “irradiation” a) Preserving crops by freezing them
refer to?
b) Preparing crops for transportation and sale
a) The process of heating crops to destroy harmful
microorganisms c) Grinding crops into powder

b) The use of light or radiation to preserve food and d) Soaking crops to improve flavor
kill pathogens
Answer: b) Preparing crops for transportation and
c) The mechanical separation of grain from stalk sale

d) The fermentation of food products 28. What is the primary reason for washing crops
before processing?
Answer: b) The use of light or radiation to
preserve food and kill pathogens a) To remove pesticides and dirt

24. Which of the following is an example of a b) To increase the shelf life of the crop
mechanical process used in crop processing?
c) To soften the crop

32
 29 Agriculture Engineering
d) To improve color and appearance Answer: a) Separating fine flour from coarse
particles
Answer: a) To remove pesticides and dirt
33. Which of the following best describes
29. Which of the following is the most common “flaking” in crop processing?
type of crop packaging used for processed
grains? a) The process of drying crops
a) Glass bottles b) Grinding grains into fine flour
b) Metal tins c) Flattening grains or seeds into thin sheets
c) Plastic bags d) Removing the outer shell of seeds
d) Wooden crates Answer: c) Flattening grains or seeds into thin
sheets
Answer: c) Plastic bags
34. The term “cold storage” in crop process
30. In crop process engineering, “grading” refers engineering refers to:
to:
a) Storing crops at low temperatures to extend shelf
a) The sorting of crops based on size, weight, or life
quality
b) Freezing crops to preserve their nutrients
b) The process of drying crops
c) Keeping crops in warm conditions for faster
c) The milling of crops into smaller particles ripening
d) The fermentation of crops d) Storing crops at room temperature
Answer: a) The sorting of crops based on size, Answer: a) Storing crops at low temperatures to
weight, or quality extend shelf life
31. Which of the following is a common method 35. The “biochemical” method of preserving
used for extracting juice from fruits and crops involves:
vegetables in crop processing?
a) The use of chemicals to preserve freshness
a) Filtration
b) The use of microbial cultures to ferment food
b) Mechanical pressing
c) The use of high temperature to sterilize crops
c) Drying
d) The use of mechanical methods to process crops
d) Fermentation
Answer: b) The use of microbial cultures to ferment
Answer: b) Mechanical pressing food
32. In the milling process, the term “screening” 36. What is the purpose of “canning” in crop
refers to: processing?
a) Separating fine flour from coarse particles a) To increase the nutritional value of crops
b) Cleaning crops before processing b) To preserve crops by sealing them in airtight
containers
c) Removing water from crops
c) To reduce the weight of crops
d) Packaging flour into bags
d) To soften the texture of crops

33
 Agriculture Engineering 30
Answer: b) To preserve crops by sealing them in 41. In crop processing, the term “blending” refers
airtight containers to:
37. What does “pasteurization” do in crop a) Mixing different types of crops together to create
processing? new products
a) Freezes crops for long-term storage b) Grinding crops into smaller pieces
b) Removes toxins from crops c) Separating different crops based on size
c) Kills harmful bacteria by heating crops to a d) Freezing crops for storage
specific temperature
Answer: a) Mixing different types of crops together
d) Preserves crops by dehydrating them to create new products
Answer: c) Kills harmful bacteria by heating crops 42. What is the function of “dehydration” in crop
to a specific temperature processing?
38. Which of the following processes is involved a) To remove excess moisture from crops to prevent
in the extraction of essential oils from crops? spoilage
a) Cold pressing b) To preserve the flavor of crops
b) Solvent extraction c) To soften the texture of crops
c) Steam distillation d) To increase the volume of crops
d) All of the above Answer: a) To remove excess moisture from crops
to prevent spoilage
Answer: d) All of the above
43. What is “concentration” in crop processing?
39. The process of “mashing” in crop processing
refers to: a) The process of grinding crops into fine powder
a) Crushing or grinding crops into a paste or slurry b) The process of removing water from a liquid to
make it thicker
b) Heating crops for fermentation
c) The process of cooling crops
c) Sifting crops into different sizes
d) The process of freezing crops to maintain
d) Freezing crops for long-term storage nutrients
Answer: a) Crushing or grinding crops into a paste Answer: b) The process of removing water from a
or slurry liquid to make it thicker
40. Which of the following is an example of a 44. What does “germination” refer to in crop
biotechnological process used in crop processing? processing?
a) Fermentation a) The growth of seeds into new plants
b) Freeze drying b) The removal of toxins from crops
c) Canning c) The drying of crops for storage
d) Sun drying d) The freezing of crops to preserve flavor
Answer: a) Fermentation Answer: a) The growth of seeds into new plants

34
 31 Agriculture Engineering
45. What is the primary goal of “refining” in crop a) Freezing
oil processing?
b) Canning
a) To remove impurities and improve the quality of
oil c) Smoking

b) To increase the volume of oil produced d) Drying

c) To extract oil more efficiently Answer: c) Smoking
d) To improve the taste of the oil 50. What is “cryogenic grinding” used for in crop
processing?
Answer: a) To remove impurities and improve the
quality of oil a) Grinding crops using very low temperatures to
preserve volatile compounds
46. What is the process of “cooling” used for in
crop processing? b) Freezing crops for storage

a) To increase shelf life by lowering temperatures c) Grinding crops to increase surface area for
extraction
b) To soften crops for easier handling
d) Crushing crops using mechanical force
c) To kill harmful microorganisms
Answer: a) Grinding crops using very low
d) To prepare crops for freezing temperatures to preserve volatile compounds
Answer: a) To increase shelf life by lowering
temperatures
Food Processing
47. Which of the following is a benefit of
“smoking” in crop processing? 1. Food processing is primarily concerned with:

a) Enhances flavor a) The cultivation of crops

b) Increases nutritional content b) The transformation of raw ingredients into food
products
c) Increases shelf life by drying crops
c) The packaging of food products
d) Removes toxins from crops
d) The distribution of food products
Answer: a) Enhances flavor
Answer: b) The transformation of raw ingredients
48. In crop processing, what is the primary into food products
reason for using “sprouting”?
2. The main goal of food preservation is to:
a) To increase the nutrient content of seeds
a) Improve taste
b) To preserve the seed for long-term storage
b) Increase shelf life
c) To increase the size of seeds
c) Reduce processing time
d) To kill harmful microorganisms
d) Make food more nutritious
Answer: a) To increase the nutrient content of seeds
Answer: b) Increase shelf life
49. Which of the following methods is most
commonly used for preserving the flavor of 3. Which of the following is the most commonly
crops? used method for preserving food?

35
 Agriculture Engineering 32
a) Irradiation c) Freezing food to preserve it
b) Freezing d) Grinding food into smaller particles
c) Drying Answer: b) Killing harmful bacteria and extending
shelf life
d) Canning
8. The process of removing the outer skins of
Answer: d) Canning grains or seeds is called:
4. The process of converting food into a form a) Milling
that can be easily transported and stored is
called: b) Threshing
a) Fortification c) Hulling
b) Preservation d) Grinding
c) Pasteurization Answer: c) Hulling
d) Processing 9. Which of the following is a method of
mechanical food preservation?
Answer: d) Processing
a) Freezing
5. What is the purpose of blanching in food
processing? b) Canning
a) To remove toxins c) Refrigeration
b) To kill microorganisms and preserve color, d) Grinding
flavor, and texture
Answer: d) Grinding
c) To improve the nutritional content
10. The primary reason for food fermentation is
d) To ferment food to:
Answer: b) To kill microorganisms and preserve a) Enhance flavor and texture
color, flavor, and texture
b) Increase the shelf life of food
6. Which of the following methods is commonly
used for drying fruits and vegetables? c) Change the color of food
a) Freeze drying d) Both a and b

b) Sun drying Answer: d) Both a and b

c) Air drying 11. The process of converting starch into sugar

through enzymatic action is called:
d) All of the above
a) Pasteurization
Answer: d) All of the above
b) Hydrolysis
7. What is the process of pasteurization used
for? c) Fermentation

a) Increasing the nutrient content of food d) Dehydration

b) Killing harmful bacteria and extending shelf life Answer: b) Hydrolysis

36
 33 Agriculture Engineering
12. In food processing, “fortification” refers to: b) Secondary processing
a) The addition of nutrients to food c) Tertiary processing
b) The preservation of food by drying d) Food storage
c) The removal of toxins from food Answer: a) Primary processing
d) The grinding of food into powder 17. What does “irradiation” do in food
processing?
Answer: a) The addition of nutrients to food
a) Removes water from food
13. What is the purpose of freezing in food
processing? b) Kills microorganisms by exposing food to
ionizing radiation
a) To kill microorganisms
c) Freezes food for preservation
b) To preserve flavor and texture
d) Adds nutrients to food
c) To reduce the nutritional value of food
Answer: b) Kills microorganisms by exposing food
d) To increase the shelf life by reducing microbial to ionizing radiation
growth
18. The method of food preservation that
Answer: d) To increase the shelf life by reducing involves adding salt or sugar to inhibit the growth
microbial growth of microorganisms is called:
14. Which of the following is NOT a thermal food a) Fermentation
processing method?
b) Canning
a) Frying
c) Osmotic dehydration
b) Freezing
d) Freezing
c) Roasting
Answer: c) Osmotic dehydration
d) Pasteurization
19. What is the primary advantage of using a
Answer: b) Freezing vacuum pack in food preservation?
15. The method of food preservation that a) It increases the food’s taste
involves high temperatures to destroy harmful
microorganisms is called: b) It prevents food from spoiling by removing air
a) Sterilization c) It adds nutrients to food
b) Freezing d) It increases food volume
c) Drying Answer: b) It prevents food from spoiling by
removing air
d) Refrigeration
20. What is the role of enzymes in food
Answer: a) Sterilization processing?
16. The process of making food products from a) To destroy harmful microorganisms
raw agricultural commodities is known as:
b) To increase the nutritional value of food
a) Primary processing

37
 Agriculture Engineering 34
c) To aid in fermentation and breakdown of food Answer: a) Filtration
components
25. The preservation technique that uses low
d) To improve the texture of food temperatures to inhibit microbial growth is:
Answer: c) To aid in fermentation and breakdown a) Freezing
of food components
b) Canning
21. The process that involves preserving food by
heating it to a high temperature and then sealing c) Dehydration
it in a can is called:
d) Pasteurization
a) Pasteurization
Answer: a) Freezing
b) Sterilization
26. What is “homogenization” in food
c) Canning processing?

d) Freezing a) The process of removing moisture from food

Answer: c) Canning b) The process of breaking down fat globules to
create a uniform texture
22. Which of the following is a non-thermal
method of food preservation? c) The process of heating food to kill bacteria

a) Freezing d) The process of fermenting food

b) Microwave heating Answer: b) The process of breaking down fat

globules to create a uniform texture
c) Irradiation
27. The process used for preserving juice by
d) Canning heating and sealing it in containers is known as:
Answer: c) Irradiation a) Pasteurization
23. Which of the following processes is used to b) Freezing
convert liquid milk into powdered milk?
c) Canning
a) Evaporation
d) Filtration
b) Drying
Answer: a) Pasteurization
c) Canning
28. Which food preservation method involves
d) Fermentation reducing the water content of food to prevent
microbial growth?
Answer: b) Drying
a) Freezing
24. The process of separating solid particles from
a liquid is known as: b) Canning
a) Filtration c) Drying
b) Homogenization d) Irradiation
c) Distillation Answer: c) Drying
d) Canning

38
 35 Agriculture Engineering
29. The process of making food products through c) Vacuum packing
chemical reactions is called:
d) Canning
a) Mechanical processing
Answer: c) Vacuum packing
b) Chemical processing
34. The technique that uses centrifugal force to
c) Thermal processing remove excess liquid from food is called:
d) Biological processing a) Filtration b) Centrifugation
Answer: b) Chemical processing c) Evaporation d) Homogenization
30. The process of adding sugar to fruits to make Answer: b) Centrifugation
jams and jellies is an example of:
35. The process of making fermented foods, such
a) Fermentation as yogurt, involves:
b) Osmotic dehydration a) Heating to destroy microorganisms
c) Canning b) Addition of beneficial bacteria to ferment sugars
d) Freezing c) Freezing to preserve
Answer: b) Osmotic dehydration d) Drying to extend shelf life
31. The main advantage of using high-pressure Answer: b) Addition of beneficial bacteria to
processing (HPP) for food preservation is: ferment sugars
a) Increased shelf life 36. What does “cold storage” of food help to do?
b) Preservation of nutrients and flavor a) Increase the shelf life by slowing down microbial
growth
c) Improved texture
b) Increase food taste
d) Both a and b
c) Enhance the texture of food
Answer: d) Both a and b
d) Preserve the nutritional content by heating
32. Which of the following is a method used to
prevent oxidation in food processing? Answer: a) Increase the shelf life by slowing down
microbial growth
a) Use of antioxidants
37. What is the primary function of a food
b) Canning homogenizer?
c) Drying a) To mix food ingredients
d) Freezing b) To increase the food’s temperature
Answer: a) Use of antioxidants c) To break down particles into a uniform size
33. Which method is used to extend the shelf life d) To extract oil from food
of food by creating an airtight seal?
Answer: c) To break down particles into a uniform
a) Freezing size
b) Drying

39
 Agriculture Engineering 36
38. Which of the following is used to preserve c) Kill harmful bacteria
food by the process of “osmotic dehydration”?
d) Enhance the texture of food
a) Vinegar
Answer: a) Remove solid particles from a liquid
b) Sugar
43. The process of fermenting vegetables is used
c) Salt primarily to:
d) Both b and c a) Improve flavor and increase shelf life
Answer: d) Both b and c b) Increase nutritional content
39. Which of the following is an example of a c) Make vegetables more digestible
high-temperature food processing technique?
d) Reduce food volume
a) Freezing
Answer: a) Improve flavor and increase shelf life
b) Canning
44. The primary benefit of food dehydration is:
c) Drying
a) To increase food volume
d) Freezing
b) To enhance color and appearance
Answer: b) Canning
c) To reduce water content and inhibit microbial
40. Which of the following is a biological food growth
preservation method?
d) To increase shelf life by freezing
a) Irradiation
Answer: c) To reduce water content and inhibit
b) Fermentation microbial growth
c) Freezing 45. What does the term “controlled atmosphere
storage” refer to in food processing?
d) Canning
a) Storing food in a specific temperature, humidity,
Answer: b) Fermentation and gas composition to extend shelf life
41. What is the main purpose of the use of citric b) Using natural air to store food
acid in food preservation?
c) Sealing food in cans for preservation
a) To improve texture
d) Drying food in the open air
b) To act as an antioxidant
Answer: a) Storing food in a specific temperature,
c) To kill microorganisms humidity, and gas composition to extend shelf life
d) To flavor food 46. What is the main purpose of using “nitrogen
flushing” in food packaging?
Answer: b) To act as an antioxidant
a) To increase shelf life by removing oxygen
42. The main purpose of “clarification” in food
processing is to: b) To improve taste
a) Remove solid particles from a liquid c) To preserve nutritional value
b) Improve taste d) To enhance color

40
 37 Agriculture Engineering
Answer: a) To increase shelf life by removing
oxygen
Dairy Esngineering
47. The primary purpose of “homogenization” in
milk processing is to: 1. Dairy engineering primarily deals with the:

a) Increase shelf life a) Production of milk

b) Prevent the separation of fat from the liquid b) Storage of milk
c) Kill microorganisms c) Processing and handling of milk and milk
products
d) Pasteurize milk
d) Sale of milk
Answer: b) Prevent the separation of fat from the
liquid Answer: c) Processing and handling of milk and
milk products
48. Which of the following is an example of a
food processing method that does NOT involve 2. The main purpose of pasteurization in dairy
heat? processing is to:
a) Canning a) Improve the nutritional value

b) Pasteurization b) Increase the flavor

c) Fermentation c) Kill harmful microorganisms

d) Roasting d) Increase shelf life

Answer: c) Fermentation Answer: c) Kill harmful microorganisms

49. The main function of “charcoal filtration” in 3. What is the main principle behind the
food processing is to: operation of a milk cooler?
a) Remove unwanted solids a) Heating the milk to kill bacteria

b) Improve flavor b) Removing moisture from milk

c) Remove toxic chemicals c) Reducing the temperature of milk to preserve
freshness
d) Preserve food
d) Adding preservatives to milk
Answer: c) Remove toxic chemicals
Answer: c) Reducing the temperature of milk to
50. The primary goal of “cooling” in food preserve freshness
processing is to:
4. Which of the following is a mechanical method
a) Preserve nutrients used in dairy processing to separate cream from
milk?
b) Slow down microbial growth
a) Homogenization
c) Improve texture
b) Pasteurization
d) Increase food volume
c) Centrifugation
Answer: b) Slow down microbial growth
d) Filtration

41
 Agriculture Engineering 38
Answer: c) Centrifugation c) Butter making
5. In dairy engineering, homogenization is the d) Curd formation
process of:
Answer: c) Butter making
a) Separating cream from milk
10. Which of the following is a common milk
b) Preventing the separation of fat in milk processing method used to produce yogurt?
c) Heating milk to kill bacteria a) Homogenization
d) Cooling milk rapidly b) Fermentation
Answer: b) Preventing the separation of fat in milk c) Pasteurization
6. The main advantage of homogenizing milk is: d) Churning
a) Increased nutritional value Answer: b) Fermentation
b) Uniform fat dispersion in the milk 11. The main component of milk that is
responsible for its nutritional value is:
c) Increased viscosity
a) Fat
d) Improved flavor
b) Protein
Answer: b) Uniform fat dispersion in the milk
c) Lactose
7. The standard temperature for pasteurizing
milk is: d) Water
a) 100°C Answer: b) Protein
b) 65°C 12. Which of the following is used to store milk in
a refrigerated state?
c) 85°C
a) Milk tank
d) 72°C
b) Milk cooler
Answer: d) 72°C
c) Milk can
8. The process of making cheese involves:
d) All of the above
a) Pasteurization and cooling
Answer: b) Milk cooler
b) Pasteurization and curdling
13. The process of separating solid curd from
c) Homogenization and fermentation liquid whey is known as:
d) Churning and freezing a) Homogenization
Answer: b) Pasteurization and curdling b) Filtration
9. A “churn” is used in dairy engineering for the c) Whey removal
process of:
d) Curdling
a) Pasteurization
Answer: c) Whey removal
b) Homogenization
14. The function of a milk separator is to:

42
 39 Agriculture Engineering
a) Pasteurize milk Answer: c) Yogurt
b) Separate cream from milk 19. What is the main purpose of the milk
filtration process?
c) Homogenize milk
a) To increase milk volume
d) Remove bacteria from milk
b) To remove solid impurities and microorganisms
Answer: b) Separate cream from milk
c) To separate fat from milk
15. Which of the following is NOT a product of
dairy engineering? d) To enhance the flavor
a) Butter Answer: b) To remove solid impurities and
microorganisms
b) Cheese
20. Which of the following milk products is
c) Cream created by the process of evaporation?
d) Wheat flour a) Butter
Answer: d) Wheat flour b) Ghee
16. The enzyme used to coagulate milk in cheese c) Condensed milk
making is:
d) Yogurt
a) Pepsin
Answer: c) Condensed milk
b) Rennet
21. A milk sterilizer is used to:
c) Amylase
a) Pasteurize milk
d) Lipase
b) Homogenize milk
Answer: b) Rennet
c) Sterilize milk to remove all microorganisms
17. The process of converting milk into
buttermilk is achieved by: d) Separate cream from milk
a) Homogenization Answer: c) Sterilize milk to remove all
microorganisms
b) Churning
22. The process of increasing the shelf life of
c) Pasteurization dairy products by removing moisture is known
as:
d) Fermentation
a) Pasteurization
Answer: b) Churning
b) Dehydration
18. Which dairy product is made by fermenting
milk using specific bacterial cultures? c) Homogenization
a) Butter d) Fermentation
b) Cheese Answer: b) Dehydration
c) Yogurt 23. The primary function of the cream separator
in dairy engineering is to:
d) Cream

43
 Agriculture Engineering 40
a) Pasteurize milk Answer: c) The addition of rennet
b) Separate milk into curd and whey 28. In dairy engineering, “clarification” refers to:
c) Separate cream from milk a) Removing impurities from milk
d) Cool down milk b) Homogenizing milk
Answer: c) Separate cream from milk c) Pasteurizing milk
24. The refrigeration of milk at the dairy farm d) Freezing milk
helps to:
Answer: a) Removing impurities from milk
a) Maintain freshness
29. What is “ghee” in dairy processing?
b) Increase fat content
a) A type of cheese
c) Promote fermentation
b) Butter that has been clarified
d) Improve texture
c) Fermented milk
Answer: a) Maintain freshness
d) Condensed milk
25. What is the role of “evaporators” in dairy
processing? Answer: b) Butter that has been clarified
a) To freeze milk 30. The addition of which ingredient to milk
during yogurt production aids in fermentation?
b) To concentrate milk by removing water
a) Salt
c) To separate cream from milk
b) Sugar
d) To add flavor to milk
c) Bacterial culture
Answer: b) To concentrate milk by removing water
d) Rennet
26. Which of the following is a method used to
prevent the spoilage of milk during storage? Answer: c) Bacterial culture

a) Homogenization 31. The “milk processing line” in a dairy plant

typically includes:
b) Fermentation
a) Pasteurization, homogenization, and packaging
c) Refrigeration
b) Pasteurization and packaging only
d) Pasteurization
c) Homogenization and fermentation only
Answer: c) Refrigeration
d) Cooling and storage only
27. The formation of curd from milk involves:
Answer: a) Pasteurization, homogenization, and
a) The addition of salt packaging
b) The action of heat 32. The main objective of “cooling” in dairy
engineering is to:
c) The addition of rennet
a) Increase the milk temperature
d) The addition of sugar
b) Reduce the temperature to prevent spoilage

44
 41 Agriculture Engineering
c) Increase cream separation 37. The process of removing water from milk to
produce a concentrated form is called:
d) Improve taste
a) Homogenization
Answer: b) Reduce the temperature to prevent
spoilage b) Evaporation
33. The “milk powder” is produced by: c) Filtration
a) Freezing milk d) Pasteurization
b) Evaporating water from milk Answer: b) Evaporation
c) Heating milk to 100°C 38. The term “milk tank” refers to:
d) Mixing milk with additives a) A container for storing milk at the dairy farm
Answer: b) Evaporating water from milk b) A machine for separating milk
34. The primary use of a “cheese vat” in dairy c) A cooling unit for milk
engineering is to:
d) A machine for homogenizing milk
a) Pasteurize milk
Answer: a) A container for storing milk at the dairy
b) Mix curd and whey farm
c) Heat milk for cheese making 39. The primary reason for using a “vacuum
evaporator” in dairy processing is:
d) Separate fat from milk
a) To sterilize milk
Answer: c) Heat milk for cheese making
b) To concentrate milk
35. The role of a “milk pump” in dairy processing
is to: c) To homogenize milk
a) Control milk temperature d) To separate cream from milk
b) Pump milk from one container to another Answer: b) To concentrate milk
c) Separate fat from milk 40. The separation of whey from curd is essential
in the production of:
d) Mix ingredients in milk
a) Cheese
Answer: b) Pump milk from one container to
another b) Butter
36. The addition of salt in cheese making helps c) Ice cream
to:
d) Milk powder
a) Control the fermentation rate
Answer: a) Cheese
b) Improve the texture of cheese
41. Which of the following is the ideal
c) Preserve the cheese temperature for storing milk in a dairy farm
tank?
d) Both b and c
a) 4-7°C
Answer: d) Both b and c

45
 Agriculture Engineering 42
b) 10-15°C 46. The primary purpose of using “aluminum
cans” for milk storage is to:
c) 0-4°C
a) Enhance the flavor of milk
d) 25-30°C
b) Prevent bacterial growth
Answer: a) 4-7°C
c) Protect milk from light and oxidation
42. The primary function of a “butter churn” in
dairy engineering is to: d) Increase milk shelf life
a) Mix curd and whey Answer: c) Protect milk from light and oxidation
b) Homogenize milk 47. The “milk dryer” is a machine used for:
c) Separate cream from milk a) Pasteurizing milk b) Chilling milk
d) Make butter from cream c) Drying milk to produce milk powder
Answer: d) Make butter from cream d) Mixing milk with additives
43. The process of “bacterial fermentation” in Answer: c) Drying milk to produce milk powder
dairy engineering is used in the production of:
48. The process of “milk clarification” is carried
a) Butter out using:
b) Yogurt a) Heat b) Centrifugal force
c) Milk powder c) Salt
d) Ice cream d) Pressure
Answer: b) Yogurt Answer: b) Centrifugal force
44. A “dairy farm cooling system” is used to: 49. Which of the following is a common byproduct
of milk processing?
a) Cool milk and maintain its freshness
a) Butter
b) Increase the milk temperature for pasteurization
b) Yogurt
c) Separate the cream from milk
c) Cheese
d) Mix different types of milk
d) All of the above
Answer: a) Cool milk and maintain its freshness
Answer: d) All of the above
45. The key difference between “cream” and
“milk” is: 50. The final step in milk processing before
packaging is typically:
a) The fat content
a) Homogenization
b) The protein content
b) Pasteurization
c) The lactose content
c) Filtration
d) The water content
d) Cooling
Answer: a) The fat content
Answer: d) Cooling

46
 43 Agriculture Engineering
a) High water wastage
Irrigation Engineering b) Increased weed growth
c) Direct delivery of water to the root zone
1. The primary purpose of irrigation is to: d) High initial cost
a) Improve soil texture Answer: c) Direct delivery of water to the root
zone
b) Ensure adequate water supply to crops
6. In irrigation engineering, the “field capacity”
c) Control soil erosion of soil refers to:
d) Increase soil fertility a) The maximum amount of water the soil can hold
after drainage
Answer: b) Ensure adequate water supply to crops
b) The amount of water needed for crop growth
2. Which of the following is NOT a method of
irrigation? c) The soil moisture at saturation
a) Drip irrigation d) The rate of evaporation from the soil
b) Furrow irrigation Answer: a) The maximum amount of water the soil
can hold after drainage
c) Sprinkler irrigation
7. Which of the following is the most commonly
d) Air irrigation used method of irrigation in regions with water
Answer: d) Air irrigation scarcity?
a) Flood irrigation
3. The total water needed by a crop during its
growing season is called: b) Drip irrigation
a) Irrigation water c) Furrow irrigation
b) Crop water requirement d) Border irrigation
c) Evaporation Answer: b) Drip irrigation
d) Precipitation 8. The water used for irrigation that is derived
Answer: b) Crop water requirement from natural sources such as rivers, lakes, or
reservoirs is called:
4. The term “evapotranspiration” refers to: a) Groundwater
a) The sum of evaporation and plant transpiration b) Surface water
b) Evaporation only
c) Rainwater
c) Transpiration only
d) Wastewater
d) The loss of water from the soil
Answer: b) Surface water
Answer: a) The sum of evaporation and plant
transpiration 9. The term “irrigation efficiency” is defined as:

5. Which of the following is an advantage of drip a) The percentage of total water used by crops
irrigation?

47
 Agriculture Engineering 44
b) The amount of water applied to crops divided by c) Sprinkler irrigation
the total water supply
d) Subsurface irrigation
c) The percentage of water lost through evaporation
Answer: b) Furrow irrigation
d) The ratio of water supply to crop yield
14. The “irrigation water requirement” is:
Answer: b) The amount of water applied to crops
divided by the total water supply a) The total amount of water that a crop needs
during its entire growing period
10. What is the main disadvantage of surface
irrigation methods? b) The amount of water available in a field

a) Uneven distribution of water c) The amount of water that needs to be added to the
soil
b) High water wastage
d) The rate of evaporation from the crop
c) Requires high energy consumption
Answer: a) The total amount of water that a crop
d) Complex system setup needs during its entire growing period
Answer: a) Uneven distribution of water 15. The major disadvantage of flood irrigation is:
11. A sprinkler system works by: a) It is highly efficient
a) Allowing water to flow in channels b) It leads to waterlogging and soil salinization
b) Spraying water over the crops through pipes and c) It requires minimal labor
sprinklers
d) It is the most expensive method
c) Directly applying water at the root zone
Answer: b) It leads to waterlogging and soil
d) Flooding the entire field with water salinization
Answer: b) Spraying water over the crops through 16. Which of the following is NOT a component
pipes and sprinklers of an irrigation system?
12. The term “irrigation scheduling” refers to: a) Pumps
a) Determining the amount of water required by the b) Pipes
soil
c) Sprinklers
b) Deciding the time and frequency of irrigation
d) Fertilizers
c) The total water supply for the crop
Answer: d) Fertilizers
d) The water distribution system design
17. In irrigation engineering, “water holding
Answer: b) Deciding the time and frequency of capacity” refers to:
irrigation
a) The amount of water a soil can absorb
13. Which of the following is an example of a
“surface irrigation” method? b) The ability of soil to retain water after rainfall

a) Drip irrigation c) The amount of water used by crops

b) Furrow irrigation d) The drainage capacity of the soil

48
 45 Agriculture Engineering
Answer: b) The ability of soil to retain water after 22. Which of the following is used to prevent
rainfall waterlogging in irrigation systems?
18. The practice of irrigating crops by applying a) Proper drainage
water directly to the soil surface through
channels or ditches is known as: b) High water supply

a) Drip irrigation c) Low evaporation rates

b) Flood irrigation d) Frequent irrigation

c) Furrow irrigation Answer: a) Proper drainage

d) Sprinkler irrigation 23. The primary purpose of a “check dam” is to:

Answer: b) Flood irrigation a) Irrigate crops

19. “Subsurface irrigation” involves: b) Prevent floods and store water

a) Spraying water from above ground c) Increase groundwater levels

b) Dripping water directly into the soil below the d) Distribute water to fields
surface
Answer: b) Prevent floods and store water
c) Channeling water through ditches
24. The “base period” in irrigation refers to:
d) Watering plants by mist
a) The time interval required for a crop to grow
Answer: b) Dripping water directly into the soil
below the surface b) The time between two irrigation events

20. The major component of a “drip irrigation” c) The total time water is available to the crop
system is: d) The duration of irrigation water use
a) A series of ditches
Answer: a) The time interval required for a crop to
b) A sprinkler nozzle grow

c) A series of emitters that deliver water to the root 25. The “drainage system” in irrigation is
zone necessary to:

d) A central reservoir a) Remove excess water from the soil

Answer: c) A series of emitters that deliver water b) Increase water retention in the soil
to the root zone
c) Prevent soil erosion
21. The main factor influencing the efficiency of
d) Supply water to crops
irrigation systems is:
Answer: a) Remove excess water from the soil
a) Type of crops grown
b) Water distribution uniformity 26. The “irrigation duty” of water refers to:

c) Soil texture a) The area of land irrigated per unit of water

b) The amount of water required for irrigation
d) All of the above
c) The frequency of irrigation
Answer: d) All of the above

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 Agriculture Engineering 46
d) The depth of water applied Answer: a) Store rainwater for future use
Answer: a) The area of land irrigated per unit of 31. The “surface irrigation efficiency” can be
water improved by:
27. The “water use efficiency” of an irrigation a) Increasing the depth of water applied
system is defined as:
b) Improving the uniformity of water distribution
a) The ratio of crop yield to the amount of water
used c) Reducing the irrigation frequency

b) The total amount of water applied to the field d) Using high-flow pipes

c) The ratio of water lost due to evaporation Answer: b) Improving the uniformity of water
distribution
d) The rate of water consumption by plants
32. Which of the following irrigation methods is
Answer: a) The ratio of crop yield to the amount of most suitable for uneven or hilly terrain?
water used
a) Drip irrigation
28. In “sprinkler irrigation,” water is applied to
crops: b) Flood irrigation

a) In the form of droplets or sprays c) Furrow irrigation

b) By flooding the fields d) Border irrigation

c) Directly to the root zone Answer: a) Drip irrigation

d) Using pipes under the soil surface 33. A “hydraulic lift” in irrigation refers to:

Answer: a) In the form of droplets or sprays a) Lifting water from low to high elevation

29. Which of the following is the most common b) The movement of water from the irrigation system
method of irrigation in arid and semi-arid to the crops
regions?
c) The use of wind energy to pump water
a) Drip irrigation
d) A device to pump water using solar energy
b) Flood irrigation
Answer: a) Lifting water from low to high elevation
c) Surface irrigation
34. In “flood irrigation,” the water is typically
d) Sprinkler irrigation applied to:

Answer: a) Drip irrigation a) Rows of crops in a continuous flow

30. The primary objective of “water harvesting” b) Subsurface pipes for direct root watering
in irrigation engineering is to:
c) The entire field in a shallow depth
a) Store rainwater for future use
d) Only the base of the plants
b) Increase evaporation rates
Answer: c) The entire field in a shallow depth
c) Reduce water wastage
35. The “irrigation requirement” for a crop is the
d) Increase surface runoff difference between:

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 47 Agriculture Engineering
a) Total water available and crop water c) Drip irrigation
requirement
d) Border irrigation
b) Crop water requirement and the effective
precipitation Answer: b) Subsurface drainage

c) Irrigation duty and water supply 40. In “border irrigation,” water is applied to:
d) Evapotranspiration and soil moisture retention a) The whole field in parallel strips
Answer: b) Crop water requirement and the b) Directly onto crop roots
effective precipitation
c) Only to furrows between rows
36. Which irrigation method is most suitable for
high-value crops with low water requirements? d) A circular area around each plant

a) Flood irrigation Answer: a) The whole field in parallel strips

b) Drip irrigation 41. The “irrigation system design” depends on:

c) Surface irrigation a) Crop water requirements and soil properties

d) Sprinkler irrigation b) Water availability and land topography

Answer: b) Drip irrigation c) Climate and plant root zone depth

37. The primary benefit of “subsurface d) All of the above

irrigation” is: Answer: d) All of the above
a) Reduced evaporation losses
42. Which of the following irrigation systems is
b) Increased water wastage most energy-efficient for applying water?

c) Easy to install a) Flood irrigation

d) Uniform water distribution b) Drip irrigation

Answer: a) Reduced evaporation losses c) Furrow irrigation

38. A “gated pipe” system is used in which type d) Border irrigation

of irrigation?
Answer: b) Drip irrigation
a) Flood irrigation
43. The most commonly used energy source for
b) Drip irrigation running irrigation pumps is:

c) Sprinkler irrigation a) Wind power

d) Subsurface irrigation b) Solar power

Answer: a) Flood irrigation c) Electricity or diesel

39. Which of the following methods is used to d) Biomass

irrigate crops in waterlogged areas?
Answer: c) Electricity or diesel
a) Furrow irrigation
44. The “efficiency” of sprinkler irrigation is
b) Subsurface drainage generally higher compared to:

51
 Agriculture Engineering 48
a) Flood irrigation Answer: b) Water that runs off the field into rivers
or streams
b) Drip irrigation
49. Which of the following is the primary factor
c) Surface irrigation affecting irrigation water requirements for
crops?
d) Subsurface irrigation
a) Soil fertility
Answer: a) Flood irrigation
b) Plant height
45. The main disadvantage of sprinkler irrigation
is: c) Climate and weather conditions
a) High evaporation losses d) Crop variety
b) Uneven distribution on windy days Answer: c) Climate and weather conditions
c) High initial investment cost 50. Which of the following is a limitation of
surface irrigation methods?
d) Low water use efficiency
a) Need for precise water control
Answer: b) Uneven distribution on windy days
b) Uneven water distribution
46. A “floodplain” irrigation system is best suited
for: c) Low efficiency in flat terrain
a) Drip irrigation d) All of the above
b) Sprinkler irrigation Answer: d) All of the above
c) Flood irrigation Drainage Engineering
d) Subsurface irrigation 1. The primary function of drainage in agriculture
is to:
Answer: c) Flood irrigation
a) Increase soil fertility
47. “Waterlogging” is a problem typically
associated with: b) Prevent waterlogging and improve soil aeration
a) Excessive surface irrigation c) Irrigate crops
b) Drip irrigation d) Prevent soil erosion
c) Sprinkler irrigation Answer: b) Prevent waterlogging and improve soil
aeration
d) Subsurface irrigation
2. The process of removing excess water from
Answer: a) Excessive surface irrigation the soil is called:
48. The concept of “irrigation return flow” a) Irrigation
refers to:
b) Drainage
a) Water that percolates deep into the soil
c) Fertilization
b) Water that runs off the field into rivers or streams
d) Cultivation
c) Water that is re-used in the irrigation system
Answer: b) Drainage
d) Water that evaporates from the soil surface

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 49 Agriculture Engineering
3. Which of the following is a primary purpose of a) High installation cost
subsurface drainage systems?
b) Requires large volumes of water
a) To increase the soil’s water holding capacity
c) Reduces salinity issues in the soil
b) To reduce surface water evaporation
d) Leads to soil erosion
c) To remove excess water from the root zone
Answer: c) Reduces salinity issues in the soil
d) To increase soil salinity
8. In surface drainage, the water is removed
Answer: c) To remove excess water from the root from:
zone
a) Below the ground surface
4. The “field capacity” of soil refers to:
b) Above the ground surface
a) The maximum amount of water the soil can hold
after drainage c) Both above and below the ground surface

b) The water needed for crop growth d) Only the subsoil

c) The rate of drainage Answer: b) Above the ground surface

d) The drainage required for crop health 9. The “drainage coefficient” refers to:
Answer: a) The maximum amount of water the soil a) The amount of water drained from a field
can hold after drainage
b) The amount of water needed for crop growth
5. The term “water table” refers to:
c) The amount of water removed per unit area of
a) The level below which the ground is fully land
saturated with water
d) The total volume of water available for irrigation
b) The level above which drainage occurs
Answer: c) The amount of water removed per unit
c) The depth of the root zone of crops area of land
d) The maximum amount of water a field can hold 10. Which of the following drainage systems is
commonly used to prevent waterlogging in
Answer: a) The level below which the ground is irrigated fields?
fully saturated with water
a) Furrow drainage
6. The drainage method used for crops that
require frequent irrigation is: b) Open ditch drainage

a) Surface drainage c) Subsurface drainage

b) Subsurface drainage d) Combined surface and subsurface drainage

c) Vertical drainage Answer: c) Subsurface drainage

d) Combined drainage 11. A common material used for subsurface

drainage pipes is:
Answer: b) Subsurface drainage
a) Steel
7. Which of the following is an advantage of
subsurface drainage systems? b) Concrete

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 Agriculture Engineering 50
c) Clay or plastic 16. The “drainage outlet” in a drainage system is
used to:
d) Glass
a) Collect water for irrigation
Answer: c) Clay or plastic
b) Remove excess water from the drainage system
12. The term “drainage density” refers to:
c) Control water infiltration rates
a) The number of drainage systems per unit area of
land d) Prevent waterlogging in the field
b) The depth of the water table Answer: b) Remove excess water from the drainage
system
c) The speed of water removal from the soil
17. The removal of excess water from the
d) The size of drainage pipes surface of the soil through ditches or channels is
known as:
Answer: a) The number of drainage systems per
unit area of land a) Surface drainage
13. In surface drainage, the slope of the land b) Subsurface drainage
should be:
c) Groundwater recharge
a) As flat as possible
d) Water harvesting
b) Steep to allow for rapid water movement
Answer: a) Surface drainage
c) Uniform and gentle
18. “Waterlogging” is most commonly caused by:
d) Irrelevant
a) Excessive irrigation and poor drainage
Answer: c) Uniform and gentle
b) Drought conditions
14. Which of the following is NOT a type of
surface drainage system? c) High evaporation rates
a) Surface ditches d) Low water table levels
b) Broad-based dikes Answer: a) Excessive irrigation and poor drainage
c) Subsurface drains 19. The “permeability” of soil determines:
d) Surface furrows a) The rate at which water moves through the soil
Answer: c) Subsurface drains b) The drainage system layout
15. The spacing between subsurface drainage c) The amount of irrigation required
pipes is generally determined by:
d) The depth of the water table
a) Soil permeability and crop type
Answer: a) The rate at which water moves through
b) The depth of the water table the soil
c) The rainfall in the region 20. A “drainage trench” is designed to:
d) The soil temperature a) Store water for irrigation
Answer: a) Soil permeability and crop type b) Carry water away from crops and fields

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 51 Agriculture Engineering
c) Increase evaporation rates d) Insufficient irrigation
d) Control soil salinity Answer: a) Insufficient drainage leading to
waterlogging
Answer: b) Carry water away from crops and
fields 25. Which of the following is a method used to
prevent the silting of drainage channels?
21. The main difference between “open ditches”
and “subsurface drains” is: a) Regular flushing
a) The location where water is removed from the b) Construction of silt traps
soil
c) Use of plastic drainage pipes
b) The method of water storage
d) Using subsurface drainage only
c) The material used to build them
Answer: b) Construction of silt traps
d) The types of crops that can be irrigated
26. In “subsurface drainage,” water is typically
Answer: a) The location where water is removed removed from the soil through:
from the soil
a) Open channels
22. The ideal “drainage gradient” for effective
surface drainage is: b) Perforated pipes below the surface

a) 0.1 to 0.5 percent c) Surface ditches

b) 1 to 5 percent d) Open wells

c) 10 to 15 percent Answer: b) Perforated pipes below the surface

d) 5 to 10 percent 27. The “hydraulic conductivity” of soil

determines:
Answer: a) 0.1 to 0.5 percent
a) The ease with which water can flow through the
23. The function of a “tile drain” in a subsurface soil
drainage system is to:
b) The depth of the water table
a) Increase the rate of evaporation
c) The rate at which irrigation water is absorbed
b) Prevent soil erosion
d) The moisture retention capacity of the soil
c) Carry water from below the surface to an outlet
Answer: a) The ease with which water can flow
d) Regulate water flow on the surface through the soil
Answer: c) Carry water from below the surface to 28. The ideal “drainage system design” should
an outlet take into account:
24. The primary cause of soil salinization in a) Soil properties, crop type, and rainfall
irrigated lands is:
b) Only the cost of installation
a) Insufficient drainage leading to waterlogging
c) The rate of evaporation
b) Excessive rainfall
d) Only the depth of the water table
c) Overuse of chemical fertilizers
Answer: a) Soil properties, crop type, and rainfall

55
 Agriculture Engineering 52
29. The term “salinity” refers to: c) Tile drains
a) The amount of dissolved salts in the soil or water d) Water tanks
b) The level of nutrients in the soil Answer: b) Surface ditches and channels
c) The acidity or alkalinity of the soil 34. The “subsurface drainage coefficient” is
typically expressed in:
d) The depth of the water table
a) Cubic meters per second
Answer: a) The amount of dissolved salts in the
soil or water b) Liters per square meter
30. Which of the following is an example of an c) Cubic feet per hour
artificial drainage system?
d) Millimeters per day
a) Surface runoff
Answer: d) Millimeters per day
b) Subsurface drains
35. Which of the following is most suitable for
c) Water harvesting pits drainage in heavy clay soils?
d) Groundwater a) Open ditches
Answer: b) Subsurface drains b) Tile drains
31. Which of the following is a common problem c) Surface furrows
that arises from poor drainage?
d) Subsurface pipes
a) Increased crop yield
Answer: b) Tile drains
b) Decreased salinity
36. The term “intermittent drainage” refers to:
c) Waterlogging and crop root damage
a) Continuous water removal from the soil
d) Reduced nutrient content in the soil
b) Periodic removal of excess water from the soil
Answer: c) Waterlogging and crop root damage
c) Continuous irrigation
32. “Land leveling” is often required in
conjunction with: d) Occasional use of surface drainage

a) Surface drainage systems Answer: b) Periodic removal of excess water from

the soil
b) Subsurface drainage systems
37. A drainage system that uses open channels or
c) Waterlogging furrows is known as:
d) Irrigation systems a) Subsurface drainage
Answer: a) Surface drainage systems b) Surface drainage
33. In “surface drainage,” water is typically c) Tile drainage
removed through:
d) Vertical drainage
a) Subsurface perforated pipes
Answer: b) Surface drainage
b) Surface ditches and channels

56
 53 Agriculture Engineering
38. The primary role of “drainage control b) The capacity of the soil to store excess water
structures” is to: during heavy rains
a) Regulate the flow of water into irrigation canals c) The depth of the water table
b) Prevent sediment buildup in drainage systems d) The total water that can be drained from the soil
c) Maintain a constant flow of water to crops Answer: b) The capacity of the soil to store excess
water during heavy rains
d) Control the discharge of water from drainage
systems 43. A “drainage pump” is commonly used to:
Answer: d) Control the discharge of water from a) Pump water into the field
drainage systems
b) Remove excess water from the field or drainage
39. A “siphon” is used in drainage systems to: system
a) Pump water c) Control the flow of irrigation water
b) Maintain constant water levels d) Irrigate crops automatically
c) Remove water from low points Answer: b) Remove excess water from the field or
drainage system
d) Filter water
44. A typical “surface drainage” system includes:
Answer: c) Remove water from low points
a) Subsurface pipes and pumps
40. A “French drain” is a type of:
b) Furrows, ditches, and drains
a) Surface drainage system
c) High-pressure sprinklers
b) Subsurface drainage system
d) Water harvesting structures
c) Irrigation system
Answer: b) Furrows, ditches, and drains
d) Water storage system
45. The “cost of drainage” is influenced by:
Answer: b) Subsurface drainage system
a) The length of the drainage pipes
41. In drainage engineering, “tile drains” are
typically used to: b) The type of soil, land topography, and method
used
a) Carry water from the soil surface to a drain
c) The frequency of irrigation
b) Remove water from the soil at shallow depths
d) The type of crop grown
c) Store water for irrigation purposes
Answer: b) The type of soil, land topography, and
d) Increase evaporation from the field method used
Answer: b) Remove water from the soil at shallow 46. The installation of a “perforated pipe” in
depths subsurface drainage systems helps to:
42. The “water holding capacity” of the soil is: a) Filter water
a) The amount of water retained by the soil after b) Allow water to flow freely through the pipe
drainage
c) Prevent soil erosion

57
 Agriculture Engineering 54
d) Increase water storage capacity
Answer: b) Allow water to flow freely through the Hydraulic Drives and Controls
pipe
1. What is the primary function of a hydraulic
47. The main objective of “drainage system in agricultural machinery?
maintenance” is to:
a) To regulate the temperature
a) Keep the drainage system clear of obstructions
b) To transmit power
b) Increase water storage capacity
c) To store water
c) Prevent soil salinity
d) To filter particles
d) Maintain the irrigation efficiency
Answer: b) To transmit power
Answer: a) Keep the drainage system clear of
obstructions 2. The fluid commonly used in hydraulic systems
is:
48. The “drainage system” in agriculture should
be designed to: a) Water

a) Ensure water is removed efficiently and quickly b) Oil

b) Improve soil fertility c) Air
c) Maximize water storage d) Gas

d) Minimize the need for irrigation Answer: b) Oil

Answer: a) Ensure water is removed efficiently 3. Which of the following is a basic component of
and quickly a hydraulic system?

49. Which of the following is NOT a common a) Pump

type of drainage system?
b) Gear
a) Surface drainage
c) Fuel tank
b) Subsurface drainage
d) Battery
c) Vertical drainage
Answer: a) Pump
d) Groundwater drainage
4. The primary purpose of a hydraulic pump is to:
Answer: d) Groundwater drainage
a) Convert hydraulic energy into mechanical energy
50. “Drained soils” are less prone to:
b) Convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy
a) Soil erosion
c) Control the flow of the fluid
b) Waterlogging
d) Store hydraulic energy
c) Salt accumulation
Answer: b) Convert mechanical energy into
d) Drought conditions hydraulic energy

Answer: b) Waterlogging 5. The term “hydraulic drive” refers to:

58
 55 Agriculture Engineering
a) A system that transmits energy via electrical b) Converting mechanical power into hydraulic
signals power
b) A system that transmits energy through c) Moving a piston within a cylinder to produce
compressed air linear motion
c) A system that transmits energy using hydraulic d) Storing hydraulic energy
fluid
Answer: c) Moving a piston within a cylinder to
d) A system that converts mechanical power into produce linear motion
hydraulic power
10. The purpose of a “relief valve” in a hydraulic
Answer: c) A system that transmits energy using system is to:
hydraulic fluid
a) Maintain constant pressure
6. Which of the following components is
responsible for controlling the flow of hydraulic b) Prevent over-pressurization and damage to
fluid in a system? components

a) Hydraulic cylinder c) Regulate fluid flow

b) Hydraulic pump d) Prevent fluid contamination

c) Flow control valve Answer: b) Prevent over-pressurization and

damage to components
d) Reservoir
11. Which of the following hydraulic components
Answer: c) Flow control valve controls the direction of the hydraulic fluid flow?
7. The pressure in a hydraulic system is typically a) Pressure relief valve
measured in:
b) Check valve
a) Volts
c) Directional control valve
b) Watts
d) Flow control valve
c) Pascal (Pa) or bar
Answer: c) Directional control valve
d) Liters
12. The efficiency of a hydraulic system is
Answer: c) Pascal (Pa) or bar primarily affected by:
8. A “hydraulic actuator” is responsible for: a) The weight of the system
a) Converting hydraulic pressure into motion b) The type of hydraulic fluid used
b) Pumping the hydraulic fluid c) The speed of the pump
c) Storing hydraulic energy d) The temperature of the hydraulic fluid
d) Filtering the hydraulic fluid Answer: b) The type of hydraulic fluid used
Answer: a) Converting hydraulic pressure into 13. The function of a “hydraulic accumulator” is
motion to:
9. A hydraulic cylinder operates by: a) Store mechanical energy
a) Changing the speed of the hydraulic fluid

59
 Agriculture Engineering 56
b) Absorb shocks and smooth out pressure d) Gearbox
fluctuations
Answer: b) Hydraulic cylinder
c) Increase the pressure of the hydraulic fluid
18. A “check valve” in a hydraulic system is used
d) Filter contaminants from the hydraulic fluid to:
Answer: b) Absorb shocks and smooth out pressure a) Allow fluid to flow in one direction only
fluctuations
b) Control the speed of the fluid
14. In a hydraulic system, the fluid reservoir is
used to: c) Prevent fluid contamination

a) Store the hydraulic pump d) Convert hydraulic energy into mechanical energy

b) Store hydraulic energy Answer: a) Allow fluid to flow in one direction

only
c) Hold the hydraulic fluid for circulation
19. The “hydraulic pressure” in a system is
d) Filter the fluid typically controlled by:
Answer: c) Hold the hydraulic fluid for circulation a) The size of the pipes
15. The “hydraulic pump” is powered by: b) The type of fluid used
a) A battery c) The pump speed and relief valves
b) Electrical power d) The temperature of the environment
c) A mechanical drive (e.g., from the engine) Answer: c) The pump speed and relief valves
d) Solar energy 20. In a hydraulic system, “fluid contamination”
can cause:
Answer: c) A mechanical drive (e.g., from the
engine) a) Overheating of the fluid
16. Which of the following can be used to control b) Reduced efficiency and wear of components
the speed of a hydraulic actuator?
c) Increased power output
a) Pressure relief valve
d) Increased system pressure
b) Flow control valve
Answer: b) Reduced efficiency and wear of
c) Pressure control valve components
d) Reservoir 21. What is the purpose of a “hydraulic filter” in
a hydraulic system?
Answer: b) Flow control valve
a) To increase the pressure of the hydraulic fluid
17. Which of the following is a common type of
hydraulic actuator? b) To prevent contamination and protect components
a) Electric motor c) To convert hydraulic energy into mechanical
energy
b) Hydraulic cylinder
d) To store excess hydraulic fluid
c) Hydraulic pump

60
 57 Agriculture Engineering
Answer: b) To prevent contamination and protect a) The speed at which the pump operates
components
b) The volume of fluid moving through the system
22. A “hydraulic circuit” refers to: per unit of time
a) A complete system of components that work c) The pressure at which the fluid operates
together to perform a task
d) The energy consumed by the system
b) A type of electrical system
Answer: b) The volume of fluid moving through the
c) The mechanical components of a machine system per unit of time
d) The wiring diagram of a hydraulic system 27. A “hydraulic power unit” typically includes:
Answer: a) A complete system of components that a) Only the pump and reservoir
work together to perform a task
b) The pump, motor, reservoir, and control valves
23. A “hydraulic motor” is used to:
c) The motor and actuator
a) Pump hydraulic fluid
d) Only the motor and control valves
b) Convert hydraulic pressure into rotary motion
Answer: b) The pump, motor, reservoir, and control
c) Control fluid flow valves
d) Store hydraulic energy 28. Which of the following hydraulic components
would be used to prevent overpressure in the
Answer: b) Convert hydraulic pressure into rotary system?
motion
a) Check valve
24. Which of the following is a disadvantage of
hydraulic systems? b) Pressure relief valve
a) Low energy consumption c) Flow control valve
b) High power-to-weight ratio d) Hydraulic motor
c) Potential fluid leaks and contamination Answer: b) Pressure relief valve
d) Low maintenance costs 29. What is the main function of a “hydraulic
reservoir”?
Answer: c) Potential fluid leaks and contamination
a) To store the hydraulic fluid for the system
25. The hydraulic “power” is determined by:
b) To regulate the pressure in the system
a) The speed of the pump
c) To convert fluid power into mechanical power
b) The pressure and flow rate of the fluid
d) To filter the hydraulic fluid
c) The temperature of the fluid
Answer: a) To store the hydraulic fluid for the
d) The length of the hydraulic pipes system
Answer: b) The pressure and flow rate of the fluid 30. A “variable displacement pump” allows:
26. In a hydraulic system, the term “flow rate” a) The fluid flow to remain constant
refers to:

61
 Agriculture Engineering 58
b) The flow rate to vary based on the system’s c) The speed of the fluid
requirements
d) The temperature of the fluid
c) The system to operate at a fixed pressure
Answer: a) The area of the actuator
d) The fluid temperature to remain stable
35. The efficiency of a hydraulic motor can be
Answer: b) The flow rate to vary based on the affected by:
system’s requirements
a) The size of the motor
31. A “piston-type hydraulic motor” is used for:
b) The temperature of the hydraulic fluid
a) Controlling the direction of fluid flow
c) The type of actuator used
b) Converting hydraulic fluid pressure into
rotational movement d) The voltage supplied to the system
c) Filtering contaminants from the fluid Answer: b) The temperature of the hydraulic fluid

d) Maintaining constant pressure 36. Which type of pump is most commonly used in
agricultural hydraulic systems?
Answer: b) Converting hydraulic fluid pressure
into rotational movement a) Gear pump
32. The main advantage of a hydraulic drive b) Vane pump
system over an electric drive system is:
c) Piston pump
a) It is easier to control
d) Diaphragm pump
b) It provides higher power-to-weight ratios
Answer: a) Gear pump
c) It has no moving parts
37. The use of “hydraulic fluid” in agricultural
d) It is more energy-efficient systems provides which benefit?

Answer: b) It provides higher power-to-weight a) Increased soil fertility

ratios
b) Reduction in friction and wear
33. “Hydraulic fluid” must possess which of the
following properties? c) Faster movement of soil

a) High viscosity and low compressibility d) Higher water retention in soil

b) Low viscosity and high compressibility Answer: b) Reduction in friction and wear

c) High compressibility and low viscosity 38. A “hydraulic schematic” is used to:

d) High temperature stability and high flammability a) Convert hydraulic energy into mechanical energy

Answer: a) High viscosity and low compressibility b) Show the layout and operation of a hydraulic
system
34. The “force” exerted by a hydraulic system is
directly proportional to: c) Measure the temperature of the hydraulic fluid

a) The area of the actuator d) Store hydraulic fluid

b) The size of the pump Answer: b) Show the layout and operation of a
hydraulic system

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 59 Agriculture Engineering
39. The term “hydraulic efficiency” refers to: b) Stored for long periods
a) The ratio of mechanical energy output to c) Returned to the reservoir only when needed
hydraulic energy input
d) Constantly pressurized regardless of load
b) The amount of energy consumed by the system
Answer: d) Constantly pressurized regardless of
c) The rate at which fluid flows through the system load
d) The total energy stored in the system 44. The “hydraulic cylinder” is primarily used to:
Answer: a) The ratio of mechanical energy output a) Store energy
to hydraulic energy input
b) Control fluid pressure
40. The “hydraulic accumulator” is used to:
c) Convert hydraulic fluid pressure into linear
a) Store electrical energy motion
b) Absorb pressure surges d) Filter hydraulic fluid
c) Filter the hydraulic fluid Answer: c) Convert hydraulic fluid pressure into
linear motion
d) Increase the flow rate
45. A “hydraulic fluid cooler” is used to:
Answer: b) Absorb pressure surges
a) Increase the fluid temperature
41. The primary function of a “hydraulic pressure
gauge” is to: b) Prevent fluid contamination
a) Measure the temperature of the hydraulic fluid c) Maintain the temperature of the hydraulic fluid
within the operating range
b) Measure the flow rate of the fluid
d) Filter dirt and particles from the fluid
c) Measure the pressure of the fluid in the system
Answer: c) Maintain the temperature of the
d) Control the speed of the hydraulic actuator hydraulic fluid within the operating range
Answer: c) Measure the pressure of the fluid in the 46. The “oil filtration system” in a hydraulic
system circuit helps to:
42. A “hydraulic control valve” allows: a) Control fluid pressure
a) The regulation of flow rate and direction of the b) Remove contaminants and prevent damage to
fluid components
b) The filtration of contaminants c) Maintain consistent fluid temperature
c) The pumping of hydraulic fluid d) Prevent fluid leaks
d) The storage of hydraulic energy Answer: b) Remove contaminants and prevent
damage to components
Answer: a) The regulation of flow rate and
direction of the fluid 47. The “hydraulic hose” in a system is used to:
43. In a “closed-center hydraulic system,” the a) Filter contaminants from the hydraulic fluid
fluid is:
b) Connect different components of the hydraulic
a) Continuously circulated through the system circuit

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 Agriculture Engineering 60
c) Increase the pressure of the fluid b) Gear pumps
d) Store the hydraulic fluid c) Axial flow pumps
Answer: b) Connect different components of the d) Diaphragm pumps
hydraulic circuit
Answer: b) Gear pumps
48. A “hydraulic actuator” can be used for:
2. Which of the following pumps is used primarily
a) Producing electricity in high-pressure applications?
b) Providing rotary or linear motion a) Centrifugal pump
c) Heating the hydraulic fluid b) Diaphragm pump
d) Regulating the temperature of the system c) Gear pump
Answer: b) Providing rotary or linear motion d) Peristaltic pump
49. The “pressure setting” of a relief valve Answer: c) Gear pump
should be:
3. Which of the following pump types works by
a) Lower than the system’s maximum operating imparting velocity to the fluid, which is then
pressure converted into pressure?
b) Equal to the system’s maximum operating a) Positive displacement pump
pressure
b) Centrifugal pump
c) Higher than the system’s maximum operating
pressure c) Piston pump

d) Irrelevant d) Screw pump

Answer: a) Lower than the system’s maximum Answer: b) Centrifugal pump

operating pressure
4. In which of the following pumps is the fluid
50. The “hydraulic filter” should be cleaned or displaced by the reciprocating motion of a piston?
replaced regularly to:
a) Gear pump
a) Maintain consistent flow and protect components
b) Diaphragm pump
b) Increase the pressure in the system
c) Piston pump
c) Store energy
d) Peristaltic pump
d) Cool the fluid
Answer: c) Piston pump
Answer: a) Maintain consistent flow and protect
components 5. Which pump is commonly used in agricultural
irrigation systems?
Pump Classifications a) Diaphragm pump
b) Piston pump
1. Which of the following types of pumps are
classified as positive displacement pumps? c) Centrifugal pump

a) Centrifugal pumps d) Peristaltic pump

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 61 Agriculture Engineering
Answer: c) Centrifugal pump a) Positive displacement
6. Which of the following is NOT a type of b) Centrifugal
reciprocating pump?
c) Jet
a) Plunger pump
d) Screw
b) Piston pump
Answer: a) Positive displacement
c) Gear pump
11. Which of the following is a characteristic of
d) Diaphragm pump positive displacement pumps?
Answer: c) Gear pump a) They do not create any pressure.
7. A pump that operates on the principle of b) They move a fixed volume of fluid with each
centrifugal force is called a: cycle.
a) Screw pump c) They depend on the fluid’s velocity for operation.
b) Gear pump d) They are used for high-flow applications only.
c) Centrifugal pump Answer: b) They move a fixed volume of fluid with
each cycle.
d) Vane pump
12. Which of the following types of pumps is
Answer: c) Centrifugal pump known for providing a constant flow rate
regardless of pressure?
8. Which type of pump is used to transfer highly
viscous fluids, such as oils in agricultural a) Centrifugal pump
applications?
b) Diaphragm pump
a) Diaphragm pump
c) Gear pump
b) Gear pump
d) Piston pump
c) Centrifugal pump
Answer: c) Gear pump
d) Screw pump
13. Which of the following is a characteristic of
Answer: b) Gear pump centrifugal pumps?
9. What is the primary classification for a pump a) They have high efficiency at low flow rates.
that moves fluid by creating a pressure
differential with the help of rotating blades? b) They are mostly used in high-pressure systems.
a) Positive displacement pump c) They increase fluid velocity and then convert it to
pressure.
b) Centrifugal pump
d) They are positive displacement pumps.
c) Rotary pump
Answer: c) They increase fluid velocity and then
d) Peristaltic pump convert it to pressure.
Answer: b) Centrifugal pump 14. What type of pump is most commonly used in
spraying applications for agricultural chemicals?
10. What kind of pump is a “vane pump”?
a) Gear pump

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 Agriculture Engineering 62
b) Diaphragm pump b) Peristaltic pump
c) Centrifugal pump c) Screw pump
d) Screw pump d) Diaphragm pump
Answer: b) Diaphragm pump Answer: c) Screw pump
15. What is the purpose of a “multi-stage 19. Which of the following types of pumps uses an
centrifugal pump”? oscillating diaphragm to move fluids?
a) To increase the fluid velocity a) Centrifugal pump
b) To increase the discharge pressure by using b) Gear pump
multiple impellers
c) Diaphragm pump
c) To reduce the flow rate
d) Screw pump
d) To allow for easy maintenance
Answer: c) Diaphragm pump
Answer: b) To increase the discharge pressure by
using multiple impellers 20. What is a characteristic of “regenerative
turbine pumps”?
16. Which of the following is a common feature
of diaphragm pumps? a) They operate with high efficiency at low
pressure.
a) They are only used for low-pressure
applications. b) They generate pressure through multiple stages of
fluid circulation.
b) They are primarily used in high-flow
applications. c) They are mostly used for handling high-viscosity
fluids.
c) They have no moving parts in contact with the
fluid. d) They are ideal for high-flow, low-pressure
applications.
d) They provide continuous flow without pressure
variation. Answer: b) They generate pressure through multiple
stages of fluid circulation.
Answer: c) They have no moving parts in contact
with the fluid. 21. Which of the following is a type of
reciprocating pump that uses a plunger to move
17. A “screw pump” is classified as a: fluids?
a) Reciprocating pump a) Gear pump
b) Rotary pump b) Piston pump
c) Centrifugal pump c) Peristaltic pump
d) Peristaltic pump d) Plunger pump
Answer: b) Rotary pump Answer: d) Plunger pump
18. Which type of pump is typically used in 22. In which of the following pumps is the fluid
applications that involve pumping liquids with moved by an impeller?
high solid content, such as slurry?
a) Gear pump
a) Centrifugal pump

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 63 Agriculture Engineering
b) Diaphragm pump c) Piston pump
c) Peristaltic pump d) Centrifugal pump
d) Centrifugal pump Answer: a) Diaphragm pump
Answer: d) Centrifugal pump 27. What is a key feature of a “peristaltic
pump”?
23. Which type of pump is preferred for pumping
corrosive liquids and gases in agricultural a) It is used primarily in high-flow applications.
applications?
b) It relies on the compression of a flexible tube to
a) Centrifugal pump move fluid.
b) Diaphragm pump c) It provides a constant flow rate even under
variable conditions.
c) Peristaltic pump
d) It has a reciprocating piston for fluid movement.
d) Gear pump
Answer: b) It relies on the compression of a
Answer: b) Diaphragm pump flexible tube to move fluid.
24. Which of the following pumps is classified as 28. Which of the following pumps is typically used
a “non-positive displacement” pump? for high-volume, low-pressure applications such
as irrigation?
a) Centrifugal pump
a) Piston pump
b) Gear pump
b) Gear pump
c) Piston pump
c) Centrifugal pump
d) Screw pump
d) Screw pump
Answer: a) Centrifugal pump
Answer: c) Centrifugal pump
25. What is a distinguishing feature of “rotary”
pumps? 29. What is the key difference between a gear
pump and a centrifugal pump?
a) They operate in a linear motion.
a) Gear pumps move a fixed amount of fluid per
b) They provide a continuous flow of fluid. cycle, while centrifugal pumps increase fluid
velocity.
c) They generate high pressure through centrifugal
force. b) Gear pumps are used for high-flow applications,
d) They require high fluid viscosity. while centrifugal pumps are used for low-flow
applications.
Answer: b) They provide a continuous flow of
fluid. c) Gear pumps use rotating blades to generate
pressure, while centrifugal pumps use a piston.
26. Which of the following pumps works by
d) Gear pumps provide a continuous flow of fluid,
alternating compression and expansion of a while centrifugal pumps operate in cycles.
diaphragm to move the fluid?
Answer: a) Gear pumps move a fixed amount of
a) Diaphragm pump fluid per cycle, while centrifugal pumps increase
b) Gear pump fluid velocity.

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 Agriculture Engineering 64
30. Which pump is commonly used in agricultural a) Irrigation
spraying equipment to deliver pesticides and
fertilizers? b) Fuel transfer
a) Gear pump c) Wastewater management

b) Piston pump d) Fluid lubrication systems

c) Diaphragm pump Answer: b) Fuel transfer
d) Centrifugal pump 35. Which of the following best describes a “self-
priming pump”?
Answer: c) Diaphragm pump
a) A pump that can operate without external power
31. What is the most suitable pump for
agricultural applications requiring precise flow b) A pump that can draw fluid into the pump without
control and high pressure? needing a manual start

a) Centrifugal pump c) A pump that requires high pressure to function

b) Peristaltic pump d) A pump that works only with viscous fluids

c) Piston pump Answer: b) A pump that can draw fluid into the
pump without needing a manual start
d) Gear pump
36. Which pump is typically used to transfer
Answer: c) Piston pump water from a well in agricultural irrigation
systems?
32. Which of the following pumps is best suited
for applications involving high-pressure cleaning a) Gear pump
or washing systems in agriculture?
b) Centrifugal pump
a) Gear pump
c) Piston pump
b) Centrifugal pump
d) Diaphragm pump
c) Diaphragm pump
Answer: b) Centrifugal pump
d) Piston pump
37. Which of the following pumps operates with
Answer: d) Piston pump an eccentric rotor?
33. Which type of pump is ideal for transferring a) Gear pump
sanitary fluids, such as milk, in dairy farms?
b) Piston pump
a) Gear pump
c) Peristaltic pump
b) Peristaltic pump
d) Screw pump
c) Diaphragm pump
Answer: d) Screw pump
d) Screw pump
38. A “clutch pump” is typically used in which of
Answer: b) Peristaltic pump the following situations?
34. What is a typical application of a “vane a) Constant pressure irrigation
pump” in agricultural systems?
b) Pressure washing systems

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 65 Agriculture Engineering
c) Transfer of high-pressure fluids 43. Which of the following types of pumps is
known for being able to self-prime in low-lift
d) Automatic shutdown of agricultural equipment conditions?
Answer: c) Transfer of high-pressure fluids a) Screw pump
39. Which type of pump is often used in b) Gear pump
applications requiring high suction lift and
moderate pressure? c) Diaphragm pump
a) Centrifugal pump d) Centrifugal pump
b) Diaphragm pump Answer: d) Centrifugal pump
c) Screw pump 44. What is the primary application of a “vacuum
pump” in agriculture?
d) Piston pump
a) Pressurizing water
Answer: b) Diaphragm pump
b) Pumping air
40. A “centrifugal pump” is best suited for:
c) Irrigation
a) High-pressure, low-flow applications
d) Removing air from tanks and pipes
b) Low-pressure, high-flow applications
Answer: d) Removing air from tanks and pipes
c) High-pressure, high-flow applications
45. Which pump type is ideal for handling fluids
d) Medium-pressure, medium-flow applications with suspended solids, such as in slurry
applications?
Answer: b) Low-pressure, high-flow applications
a) Centrifugal pump
41. What is the major advantage of using a
“screw pump” in agricultural applications? b) Diaphragm pump
a) Its ability to pump high-viscosity fluids c) Gear pump
b) Its low power consumption d) Peristaltic pump
c) Its ability to create very high pressure Answer: b) Diaphragm pump
d) Its suitability for low-flow applications 46. A “progressive cavity pump” is typically used
to handle:
Answer: a) Its ability to pump high-viscosity fluids
a) High-temperature fluids
42. In which type of pump is the impeller
submerged in the fluid being pumped? b) Highly viscous fluids
a) Centrifugal pump c) Low-viscosity fluids
b) Gear pump d) Corrosive fluids
c) Diaphragm pump Answer: b) Highly viscous fluids
d) Piston pump 47. A “twin screw pump” is primarily used for:
Answer: a) Centrifugal pump a) Low-pressure applications

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 Agriculture Engineering 66
b) High-pressure, high-flow applications Answer: c) Precipitation
c) Transferring gases 2. What is the process by which water moves
from the surface into the ground called?
d) Viscous fluid transfer
a) Infiltration
Answer: d) Viscous fluid transfer
b) Evaporation
48. In a “submersible pump,” the motor is
located: c) Transpiration
a) Above the water level d) Percolation
b) Below the water level Answer: a) Infiltration
c) Outside the casing 3. The zone of saturation is the region where:
d) Inside the suction pipe a) Groundwater flows in open spaces
Answer: b) Below the water level b) Water is held in the pores of soil and rocks
49. Which type of pump is most commonly used c) Water percolates through the soil
for fuel transfer in agricultural equipment?
d) Water evaporates into the atmosphere
a) Centrifugal pump b) Gear pump
Answer: b) Water is held in the pores of soil and
c) Piston pump d) Diaphragm pump rocks
Answer: b) Gear pump 4. What is the primary purpose of a well in
agricultural water systems?
50. A “double diaphragm pump” is primarily used
to: a) To increase groundwater recharge
a) Provide continuous high-pressure fluid flow b) To extract groundwater for irrigation
b) Pump highly corrosive fluids c) To reduce water evaporation
c) Handle fluids with high solid content d) To store surface water
d) Transfer high-viscosity fluids Answer: b) To extract groundwater for irrigation
Answer: c) Handle fluids with high solid content 5. Which type of well is most commonly used for
extracting groundwater in agricultural
applications?
Groundwater, Wells and Pumps a) Artesian well
b) Dug well
1. Which of the following is the primary source of c) Bored well
groundwater?
d) Shallow well
a) Rivers
Answer: c) Bored well
b) Lakes
6. In an artesian well, water rises due to:
c) Precipitation
a) Atmospheric pressure
d) Oceans

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 67 Agriculture Engineering
b) The weight of the water column Answer: b) Submersible pump
c) Capillary action 11. Which type of well is typically used for
shallow groundwater extraction?
d) Confined pressure
a) Dug well
Answer: d) Confined pressure
b) Artesian well
7. The process of withdrawing water from a well
by pumping is known as: c) Bored well
a) Injection d) Deep well
b) Percolation Answer: a) Dug well
c) Drawdown 12. What does the term “cone of depression”
refer to in relation to groundwater pumping?
d) Recharge
a) The area where water accumulates
Answer: c) Drawdown
b) The decrease in water table level around a well
8. What is the term used to describe the ability of due to excessive pumping
a rock or soil to transmit water?
c) A type of geological formation
a) Porosity
d) The recharge zone of a well
b) Permeability
Answer: b) The decrease in water table level
c) Transmissivity around a well due to excessive pumping
d) Conductivity 13. What is the main advantage of a submersible
pump in groundwater extraction?
Answer: b) Permeability
a) It operates above the ground
9. The water table is:
b) It is less prone to corrosion
a) The point at which groundwater is no longer
available c) It can lift water from greater depths
b) The upper surface of the zone of saturation d) It requires less energy than other types of pumps
c) The bottom of the well Answer: c) It can lift water from greater depths
d) The boundary between different soil layers 14. Which of the following is a significant
problem in areas with excessive groundwater
Answer: b) The upper surface of the zone of extraction?
saturation
a) Flooding
10. Which of the following is the most commonly
used pump for wells in agriculture? b) Saltwater intrusion
a) Jet pump c) Soil erosion
b) Submersible pump d) Increased vegetation growth
c) Piston pump Answer: b) Saltwater intrusion
d) Hand pump

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 Agriculture Engineering 68
15. Which of the following is NOT a a) Centrifugal pump
characteristic of an artesian well?
b) Hand pump
a) The water in the well is under pressure
c) Submersible pump
b) The water rises naturally to the surface without
pumping d) Gear pump
c) The well taps into a confined aquifer Answer: c) Submersible pump
d) It is most common in shallow groundwater 20. What is the term used for the total volume of
applications water that can be stored in the pore spaces of a
soil or rock?
Answer: d) It is most common in shallow
groundwater applications a) Permeability

16. In a confined aquifer, the water is: b) Porosity

a) In contact with the surface c) Transmissivity

b) Separated from the surface by an impermeable d) Recharge capacity
layer
Answer: b) Porosity
c) In an open reservoir
21. Which of the following is a method to prevent
d) At the surface of the ground contamination of groundwater in agricultural
areas?
Answer: b) Separated from the surface by an
impermeable layer a) Proper well casing and sealing
17. What is the primary purpose of a well casing? b) Increasing pumping rates

a) To prevent contaminants from entering the well c) Using high-pressure irrigation

b) To increase the water flow rate d) Disposing of chemicals in wells

c) To control the water level in the well Answer: a) Proper well casing and sealing
d) To prevent soil erosion 22. Which type of aquifer has the greatest water
storage capacity?
Answer: a) To prevent contaminants from entering
the well a) Unconfined aquifer

18. Which of the following is an example of a b) Confined aquifer

renewable groundwater source?
c) Artesian aquifer
a) Fossil aquifers
d) Shallow aquifer
b) Artesian wells
Answer: a) Unconfined aquifer
c) Rechargeable aquifers
23. What is a common problem that can occur
d) Saltwater aquifers with over-extraction of groundwater in
agricultural areas?
Answer: c) Rechargeable aquifers
a) Groundwater recharge
19. Which of the following is the most efficient
type of pump for lifting water from deep wells? b) Saltwater intrusion into freshwater aquifers

72
 69 Agriculture Engineering
c) Increased infiltration 28. What is the main cause of a “dry well” in
agricultural pumping systems?
d) Increased water quality
a) Increased pumping rate
Answer: b) Saltwater intrusion into freshwater
aquifers b) Water contamination
24. The main disadvantage of a jet pump is: c) Excessive precipitation
a) It is not suitable for deep wells d) Low permeability of the surrounding rock
b) It has low efficiency Answer: a) Increased pumping rate
c) It is expensive to install 29. The term “specific capacity” of a well refers
to:
d) It requires no maintenance
a) The volume of water the well can store
Answer: a) It is not suitable for deep wells
b) The flow rate of water per unit drawdown
25. Which of the following factors affects the
capacity of a well? c) The depth of the well
a) Depth of the well d) The size of the pump used
b) The permeability of the surrounding rock Answer: b) The flow rate of water per unit
drawdown
c) The type of pump used
30. What is the term used for the recharge of
d) All of the above groundwater through natural processes such as
precipitation and infiltration?
Answer: d) All of the above
a) Transpiration
26. Which of the following types of wells requires
the least amount of maintenance? b) Evaporation
a) Dug well c) Recharge
b) Bored well d) Percolation
c) Artesian well Answer: c) Recharge
d) Hand-dug well 31. Which of the following is a factor that affects
the rate of groundwater movement?
Answer: c) Artesian well
a) Permeability of the aquifer
27. What is the main function of a well screen in
groundwater extraction? b) The slope of the water table
a) To filter out larger particles from the water c) The presence of impermeable layers
b) To prevent clogging of the well d) All of the above
c) To increase the water pressure Answer: d) All of the above
d) To improve the aesthetic quality of water 32. The term “aquifer” refers to:
Answer: a) To filter out larger particles from the a) A body of water at the surface of the earth
water

73
 Agriculture Engineering 70
b) A geological formation that stores and transmits c) The rate at which water evaporates from the
groundwater surface
c) A type of well used for water extraction d) The amount of water required for irrigation
d) A natural barrier to groundwater flow Answer: a) The ability of a soil or rock to transmit
water
Answer: b) A geological formation that stores and
transmits groundwater 37. A well that does not require mechanical
pumping is called:
33. Which of the following types of pumps is best
for shallow wells with moderate water a) A hand-dug well
requirements in agriculture?
b) A flowing artesian well
a) Submersible pump
c) A borewell
b) Jet pump
d) A dug well
c) Hand pump
Answer: b) A flowing artesian well
d) Centrifugal pump
38. Which of the following is true about
Answer: b) Jet pump groundwater movement?
34. What is the main cause of well interference a) It always flows upward
when multiple wells are installed in close
proximity? b) It flows horizontally with a downward gradient

a) Increased water quality c) It only moves in vertical directions

b) Decreased recharge rate d) It does not move at all

c) Excessive pumping causing drawdown Answer: b) It flows horizontally with a downward

gradient
d) Reduced permeability
39. Which of the following types of pumps is used
Answer: c) Excessive pumping causing drawdown for groundwater extraction at large scale
commercial farms?
35. Which type of well is typically used in areas
with deep groundwater sources? a) Submersible pump
a) Dug well b) Centrifugal pump
b) Artesian well c) Gear pump
c) Bored well d) Hand pump
d) Shallow well Answer: a) Submersible pump
Answer: c) Bored well 40. The recharge rate of an aquifer depends on:
36. The term “hydraulic conductivity” refers to: a) The amount of precipitation
a) The ability of a soil or rock to transmit water b) The permeability of the soil
b) The total volume of water stored in an aquifer c) The depth of the aquifer
d) All of the above

74
 71 Agriculture Engineering
Answer: d) All of the above a) Submersible pump
41. Which of the following is an indicator of over- b) Jet pump
pumping a well?
c) Windmill
a) Increase in water quality
d) Electric grid pump
b) Decreased water level and flow rate
Answer: d) Electric grid pump
c) Increase in aquifer recharge
46. Which type of well is the most cost-effective
d) Increased soil fertility for shallow groundwater extraction?
Answer: b) Decreased water level and flow rate a) Artesian well
42. The flow rate of groundwater can be b) Dug well
determined by:
c) Bored well
a) The volume of water stored in the aquifer
d) Deep well
b) The permeability of the geological material
Answer: b) Dug well
c) The type of well used
47. What is the main characteristic of a “shallow
d) The surface area of the water table well”?
Answer: b) The permeability of the geological a) It taps into deep groundwater sources
material
b) It is used for extracting water from confined
43. Which of the following is a consequence of aquifers
poor well construction?
c) It is located within a few meters of the water
a) Improved water quality table
b) Contamination of the well d) It is only suitable for irrigation
c) Increased water storage capacity Answer: c) It is located within a few meters of the
water table
d) Reduced pumping costs
48. Which of the following is an example of a
Answer: b) Contamination of the well deep groundwater extraction method?
44. Which of the following best describes an a) Jet pump
unconfined aquifer?
b) Hand pump
a) It is located above the water table
c) Artesian well
b) It is trapped between impermeable layers
d) Dug well
c) Water can move freely in and out
Answer: c) Artesian well
d) It cannot be recharged naturally
49. Which of the following factors can reduce the
Answer: c) Water can move freely in and out efficiency of a pump in extracting groundwater?
45. Which of the following is NOT a common a) High permeability of surrounding soil
method of lifting water from wells?
b) High water table level

75
 Agriculture Engineering 72
c) Poorly designed pump casing c) Perspective projection
d) Regular maintenance of the pump d) All of the above
Answer: c) Poorly designed pump casing Answer: a) Orthographic projection
50. The term “well interference” occurs when: 4. In engineering drawing, the top view of an
object is also known as the:
a) Multiple wells cause a reduction in water levels
a) Front view
b) There is an increase in recharge rate
b) Plan view
c) Water quality is improved by pumping
c) Side view
d) The well is sealed off to prevent contamination
d) Rear view
Answer: a) Multiple wells cause a reduction in
water levels Answer: b) Plan view
5. Which of the following lines represents the
boundary of an object in an engineering drawing?
Engineering Drawing
a) Hidden line
1. What does the term “engineering drawing”
refer to? b) Centerline
a) A type of architectural design c) Object line
b) A drawing that conveys engineering concepts d) Dimension line
through symbols and dimensions
Answer: c) Object line
c) A plan for agricultural irrigation systems
6. What is the purpose of the “hidden line” in an
d) A graphic design for marketing purposes engineering drawing?
Answer: b) A drawing that conveys engineering a) To represent edges that are not visible
concepts through symbols and dimensions
b) To show the boundaries of the object
2. Which of the following is a standard sheet size
in engineering drawing? c) To represent a center of a circular feature
a) A4 d) To show dimensions
b) A3 Answer: a) To represent edges that are not visible
c) A2 7. What is the scale of an engineering drawing?

d) All of the above a) A measurement of the length of an object

Answer: d) All of the above b) The ratio of the size of the object in the drawing
to the actual size
3. Which projection method is commonly used in
engineering drawing? c) The color scheme used in the drawing

a) Orthographic projection d) A representation of time

b) Isometric projection Answer: b) The ratio of the size of the object in the
drawing to the actual size

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 73 Agriculture Engineering
8. Which of the following symbols represents a a) Object line
dimension for the diameter of a circle in
engineering drawings? b) Centerline
a) Ø c) Hidden line

b) “ d) Dimension line
c) X Answer: b) Centerline
d) “ 13. What is the purpose of a section view in
engineering drawing?
Answer: a) Ø
a) To show hidden details of an object
9. Which projection method shows an object in
three dimensions, where angles between axes are b) To represent the object from a different angle
equal?
c) To display the inner features of an object as if cut
a) Orthographic projection through
b) Isometric projection d) To show the scale of the object

c) Oblique projection Answer: c) To display the inner features of an

object as if cut through
d) Perspective projection
14. Which of the following symbols is used to
Answer: b) Isometric projection represent a thread in engineering drawings?
10. In which of the following views is the object a) ——
shown from the front, top, and side?
b) %%
a) Orthographic projection
c) Ø
b) Isometric projection
d) A series of continuous zigzag lines
c) Perspective projection
Answer: d) A series of continuous zigzag lines
d) Exploded view
15. What is the correct method of showing a
Answer: a) Orthographic projection cylindrical hole in a part?
11. What does the term “dimensioning” refer to a) Show the full circle in the plan view
in engineering drawing?
b) Show the full circle in the front view
a) Defining the material used for the object
c) Use dashed lines for the hole
b) Representing the size and location of features on
a drawing d) Represent the hole by a square shape

c) Coloring the drawing Answer: a) Show the full circle in the plan view

d) Creating a 3D model 16. What is a “leader line” used for in

engineering drawings?
Answer: b) Representing the size and location of
features on a drawing a) To represent a hidden edge

12. Which of the following lines is used to b) To define a dimension

indicate the center of a circle or arc?

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 Agriculture Engineering 74
c) To show the location of a note or label d) A line used for dimensioning
d) To represent the boundary of an object Answer: a) A hypothetical plane passing through the
object to reveal interior details
Answer: c) To show the location of a note or label
21. Which of the following is used to show the
17. Which of the following lines is used to shape of a surface on an engineering drawing?
indicate the edges of a part or component?
a) Section view
a) Object line
b) Dimension lines
b) Hidden line
c) Object lines
c) Centerline
d) Hidden lines
d) Extension line
Answer: a) Section view
Answer: a) Object line
22. Which type of projection is used when all
18. Which drawing view is used to represent the three axes (x, y, and z) are equally spaced at 120
exact shape of a surface without perspective degrees?
distortion?
a) Orthographic projection
a) Isometric view
b) Isometric projection
b) Orthographic view
c) Perspective projection
c) Perspective view
d) Oblique projection
d) Axonometric view
Answer: b) Isometric projection
Answer: b) Orthographic view
23. Which of the following lines is used to indicate
19. Which line type is used to represent the the limits of a dimension?
boundary of the part in an engineering drawing?
a) Object line
a) Object line
b) Extension line
b) Hidden line
c) Dimension line
c) Cutting plane line
d) Centerline
d) Section line
Answer: b) Extension line
Answer: a) Object line
24. What does the term “tolerances” mean in
20. Which of the following is the correct engineering drawing?
description of a “cutting plane” in an engineering
drawing? a) The thickness of the material used
a) A hypothetical plane passing through the object to b) The allowable variation from the specified
reveal interior details dimensions
b) A thick line representing the boundary of the c) The color coding of parts
drawing
d) The spacing between views
c) A line showing the center of a circular feature

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 75 Agriculture Engineering
Answer: b) The allowable variation from the Answer: a) Isometric projection
specified dimensions
29. In engineering drawing, what is the function
25. Which of the following best describes an of a “cutting plane line”?
“exploded view” in engineering drawings?
a) To represent the boundary of an object
a) A perspective view of a machine
b) To show the section view of the object
b) A drawing showing how parts fit together, with
components separated for clarity c) To indicate hidden edges

c) A section view that cuts through an object d) To dimension the object

d) A 2D representation of a 3D object Answer: b) To show the section view of the object

Answer: b) A drawing showing how parts fit 30. Which line is used to indicate the direction of
together, with components separated for clarity a view in engineering drawings?

26. Which of the following is used to indicate a a) Centerline

circular arc in an engineering drawing?
b) Cutting plane line
a) A straight line
c) Extension line
b) A series of small dots
d) Leader line
c) An arc symbol or a series of curves
Answer: b) Cutting plane line
d) A zigzag line
31. What does the term “assembly drawing”
Answer: c) An arc symbol or a series of curves refer to?

27. What is the primary purpose of a “detail a) A detailed drawing of individual parts
view” in engineering drawings?
b) A drawing that shows how individual parts fit
a) To represent the object as a whole together to form a whole

b) To show a close-up of a specific feature in c) A drawing that represents the manufacturing

greater detail process

c) To display the part in three dimensions d) A schematic diagram of a machine

d) To indicate material specifications Answer: b) A drawing that shows how individual

parts fit together to form a whole
Answer: b) To show a close-up of a specific
feature in greater detail 32. Which of the following is typically shown in a
“bore view”?
28. Which of the following projection methods is
used to represent objects in 3D without a) Internal features of a cylindrical part
distortion in the length of the object?
b) External features of a part
a) Isometric projection
c) The outline of a part
b) Orthographic projection
d) The color of the material used
c) Perspective projection
Answer: a) Internal features of a cylindrical part
d) Oblique projection

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 Agriculture Engineering 76
33. What is the purpose of the “projection b) Extension line
symbol” in engineering drawings?
c) Dimension line
a) To indicate the material of the object
d) Section line
b) To show the type of projection used
Answer: c) Dimension line
c) To represent surface texture
38. What is the standard color for centerlines in
d) To show the tolerance limits engineering drawings?
Answer: b) To show the type of projection used a) Black
34. Which line type is used to represent the path b) Red
of a feature such as a hole?
c) Blue
a) Object line
d) Yellow
b) Centerline
Answer: a) Black
c) Hidden line
39. Which of the following is NOT typically
d) Extension line included in an engineering drawing?
Answer: b) Centerline a) Part dimensions
35. What is the typical angle used in isometric b) Materials used
projection to show three-dimensional objects?
c) Assembly instructions
a) 30°
d) Marketing information
b) 45°
Answer: d) Marketing information
c) 90°
40. In engineering drawings, what does a “break
d) 120° line” indicate?
Answer: a) 30° a) That a part has been cut in half
36. In an engineering drawing, which of the b) The removal of material
following symbols indicates a counterbore?
c) A gap between two components
a) Ø
d) The termination of a dimension
b) •”
Answer: b) The removal of material
c) ˆ%
41. What is a “sketch” in the context of
d) ²% engineering drawing?
Answer: b) •” a) A highly detailed representation of a part
37. Which of the following lines is used to b) A simple, freehand drawing used to quickly
separate dimensions from the drawing in convey an idea
engineering drawings?
c) A drawing with complete dimensions
a) Object line
d) A finalized drawing ready for production

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 77 Agriculture Engineering
Answer: b) A simple, freehand drawing used to Answer: a) A surface that is perfectly aligned with
quickly convey an idea adjacent surfaces
42. What does the term “cutting plane” refer to? 46. In engineering drawings, which of the
following is used to indicate a radius dimension?
a) A cut made to extract material
a) Ø
b) A hypothetical plane that divides the object for
section views b) R
c) A line representing the size of a hole c) X
d) A type of surface finish d) “
Answer: b) A hypothetical plane that divides the Answer: b) R
object for section views
47. Which of the following types of lines is used
43. Which of the following is true about to indicate a reference for measurement in an
dimensioning in engineering drawings? engineering drawing?
a) Dimensions are not necessary for a fully detailed a) Extension line
drawing
b) Centerline
b) Dimensions should be shown in the units of
measurement used in the design c) Object line
c) Only length and width need to be dimensioned d) Section line

d) No dimension should be repeated in a drawing Answer: a) Extension line

Answer: b) Dimensions should be shown in the 48. In an orthographic projection, what does the
units of measurement used in the design front view typically represent?

44. Which of the following views shows the most a) The object as viewed from the side
detailed representation of an object?
b) The object from a 3D perspective
a) Isometric view
c) The object as seen from the top
b) Front view
d) The object as seen from the front
c) Section view
Answer: d) The object as seen from the front
d) Top view
49. What is the term for a drawing that shows a
Answer: c) Section view part broken to reveal interior features?
45. What does the “flush” symbol indicate in a) Detail drawing
engineering drawings?
b) Sectional drawing
a) A surface that is perfectly aligned with adjacent
surfaces c) Assembly drawing

b) A surface that is recessed d) 3D drawing

c) The required length of a part Answer: b) Sectional drawing

d) A 3D component representation 50. Which of the following is used to specify the

finish or surface texture of a part?

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 Agriculture Engineering 78
a) Section line a) Transformer
b) Surface texture symbol b) Diode
c) Hidden line c) Rectifier
d) Cutting plane line d) Capacitor
Answer: b) Surface texture symbol Answer: c) Rectifier
5. What is the main function of a transformer?
a) To convert DC to AC
Electrical and Electronic
b) To increase or decrease the voltage in an AC
Engineering, circuit
c) To store electrical energy
1. What is the unit of electric current? d) To regulate current flow
a) Volt Answer: b) To increase or decrease the voltage in
an AC circuit
b) Watt
6. Which component is used to measure electrical
c) Ampere resistance?
d) Ohm a) Voltmeter
Answer: c) Ampere b) Ammeter
2. Which of the following is used to store c) Ohmmeter
electrical energy?
d) Wattmeter
a) Resistor
Answer: c) Ohmmeter
b) Capacitor
7. What is the primary function of an electric
c) Inductor motor?
d) Diode a) To measure current
Answer: b) Capacitor b) To convert electrical energy into mechanical
3. What does a resistor do in a circuit? energy

a) Increases the current c) To store energy

b) Limits or regulates the flow of current d) To regulate voltage

c) Stores electrical energy Answer: b) To convert electrical energy into

mechanical energy
d) Converts electrical energy to light
8. Which of the following is a semiconductor
Answer: b) Limits or regulates the flow of current device used to control current flow?

4. Which device is used to convert AC a) Capacitor

(Alternating Current) to DC (Direct Current)?
b) Diode

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 79 Agriculture Engineering
c) Transistor a) Battery
d) Resistor b) Switch
Answer: c) Transistor c) Resistor
9. In an electric circuit, what does a voltmeter d) Capacitor
measure?
Answer: b) Switch
a) Resistance
14. In an AC circuit, what is the function of a
b) Voltage capacitor?
c) Current a) To increase voltage
d) Power b) To store electrical energy
Answer: b) Voltage c) To reduce current
10. What type of current is supplied by a d) To store mechanical energy
battery?
Answer: b) To store electrical energy
a) Alternating Current (AC)
15. Which of the following is a type of renewable
b) Direct Current (DC) energy source used in agricultural applications?
c) Pulse Current a) Coal
d) Static Current b) Solar power
Answer: b) Direct Current (DC) c) Nuclear power
11. What is the unit of electric power? d) Natural gas
a) Ampere Answer: b) Solar power
b) Watt 16. What is the primary purpose of a fuse in an
electrical circuit?
c) Volt
a) To increase current
d) Ohm
b) To limit voltage
Answer: b) Watt
c) To prevent overload by breaking the circuit
12. What is Ohm’s Law?
d) To store energy
a) V = I * R
Answer: c) To prevent overload by breaking the
b) V = I / R circuit
c) P = I * R 17. What does an ammeter measure?
d) P = V * I a) Voltage
Answer: a) V = I * R b) Current
13. Which of the following is used to control the c) Resistance
flow of electrical current in a circuit?
d) Power

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 Agriculture Engineering 80
Answer: b) Current a) To store energy
18. What is the purpose of a diode in a circuit? b) To increase current
a) To amplify the current c) To control the flow of current in a circuit
b) To control the voltage d) To measure voltage
c) To allow current to flow in only one direction Answer: c) To control the flow of current in a
circuit
d) To store energy
23. In an electrical circuit, what does the term
Answer: c) To allow current to flow in only one “grounding” refer to?
direction
a) The process of isolating parts of a circuit
19. Which of the following is a type of electric
motor commonly used in agricultural machines? b) Connecting a part of the circuit to the earth to
prevent electric shock
a) AC Motor
c) The measurement of electrical current
b) DC Motor
d) A method for increasing voltage
c) Universal Motor
Answer: b) Connecting a part of the circuit to the
d) All of the above earth to prevent electric shock
Answer: d) All of the above 24. What is the unit of electrical resistance?
20. Which of the following is a characteristic of a) Watt
an AC circuit?
b) Ampere
a) The current flows in one direction only
c) Volt
b) The voltage is always constant
d) Ohm
c) The current changes direction periodically
Answer: d) Ohm
d) The current does not change direction
25. Which of the following is used to step up or
Answer: c) The current changes direction step down voltage levels in an AC circuit?
periodically
a) Diode
21. Which of the following is used to increase the
current in a circuit? b) Transformer
a) Inductor c) Capacitor
b) Resistor d) Switch
c) Battery Answer: b) Transformer
d) Capacitor 26. Which type of electric motor is commonly
used in agricultural equipment such as tractors?
Answer: c) Battery
a) Stepper Motor
22. What is the function of a relay in electrical
circuits? b) AC Induction Motor

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 81 Agriculture Engineering
c) Universal Motor 31. What type of energy conversion takes place
in a photovoltaic (solar) panel?
d) Brushless DC Motor
a) Thermal energy to electrical energy
Answer: b) AC Induction Motor
b) Chemical energy to electrical energy
27. Which of the following is the most common
power source for small agricultural electronic c) Mechanical energy to electrical energy
devices?
d) Solar energy to electrical energy
a) Diesel engines
Answer: d) Solar energy to electrical energy
b) Batteries
32. What is the purpose of a circuit breaker in an
c) Hydroelectric power electrical system?
d) Solar panels a) To store electrical energy
Answer: b) Batteries b) To regulate voltage
28. What is the function of an inverter in an c) To break the circuit in case of an overload or
agricultural electrical system? short circuit
a) To convert DC to AC d) To measure current flow
b) To store electrical energy Answer: c) To break the circuit in case of an
overload or short circuit
c) To control the speed of motors
33. Which of the following electrical components
d) To step up the voltage is used to protect circuits from overload?
Answer: a) To convert DC to AC a) Switch b) Fuse
29. What is a typical use of a capacitor in c) Capacitor
agricultural electrical circuits?
d) Transformer
a) To store electrical energy for later use
Answer: b) Fuse
b) To prevent current overload
34. What is the function of an electric solenoid?
c) To increase the current
a) To convert electrical energy to mechanical
d) To stabilize voltage energy
Answer: d) To stabilize voltage b) To store electrical energy
30. Which of the following devices is used for c) To measure electrical resistance
controlling the speed of an electric motor?
d) To regulate current flow
a) Capacitor
Answer: a) To convert electrical energy to
b) Variable Frequency Drive (VFD) mechanical energy
c) Fuse 35. What is the typical voltage for most
agricultural electronic systems?
d) Rectifier
a) 12V DC
Answer: b) Variable Frequency Drive (VFD)

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 Agriculture Engineering 82
b) 120V AC Answer: d) High maintenance cost
c) 220V AC 40. What is the main advantage of using AC
motors in agriculture?
d) 240V DC
a) Lower efficiency
Answer: a) 12V DC
b) Higher initial cost
36. What is the purpose of a rectifier in
agricultural electronic systems? c) Easier speed control
a) To step up voltage d) Less maintenance required
b) To convert AC to DC Answer: d) Less maintenance required
c) To store electrical energy 41. Which of the following is an example of an
electronic device used in modern agricultural
d) To protect circuits from overload irrigation systems?
Answer: b) To convert AC to DC a) Manual pump
37. Which of the following components is b) Electric valve actuator
commonly used to reduce voltage in AC circuits?
c) Solar panel
a) Resistor
d) Combustion engine
b) Capacitor
Answer: b) Electric valve actuator
c) Step-down transformer
42. What is the typical power source for electric
d) Diode pumps in agricultural applications?
Answer: c) Step-down transformer a) Natural gas
38. Which type of sensor is commonly used to b) Diesel engines
monitor soil moisture in agricultural
applications? c) AC electricity
a) Temperature sensor d) Wind energy
b) Light sensor Answer: c) AC electricity
c) Moisture sensor 43. What does an electrical “short circuit” refer
to?
d) Pressure sensor
a) A break in the circuit
Answer: c) Moisture sensor
b) An unintended path of low resistance that allows
39. Which of the following is a disadvantage of excessive current to flow
using DC motors in agricultural machinery?
c) The process of converting AC to DC
a) Higher efficiency
d) A type of capacitor
b) Requires constant voltage
Answer: b) An unintended path of low resistance
c) Complicated speed control that allows excessive current to flow
d) High maintenance cost

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44. Which of the following is a primary use of an a) To provide storage for electrical energy
electric generator in agricultural engineering?
b) To regulate current flow
a) To convert solar energy to electricity
c) To convert electrical energy to mechanical
b) To convert mechanical energy to electrical energy
energy
d) To store mechanical energy
c) To regulate the flow of electricity
Answer: a) To provide storage for electrical energy
d) To store electrical energy
49. Which of the following is a major concern
Answer: b) To convert mechanical energy to when using solar energy in agriculture?
electrical energy
a) Availability of solar panels
45. Which of the following sensors is commonly
used to monitor temperature in greenhouses? b) Efficiency of energy conversion

a) Soil moisture sensor c) Inconsistency in energy generation due to weather

b) Temperature sensor d) High operational cost

c) Humidity sensor Answer: c) Inconsistency in energy generation due

to weather
d) Pressure sensor
50. Which of the following components is
Answer: b) Temperature sensor commonly used in electric tractors for speed
control?
46. What is the typical application of a variable
frequency drive (VFD) in agricultural a) Variable Frequency Drive (VFD)
machinery?
b) Step-up transformer
a) To regulate temperature
c) Diode
b) To convert AC to DC
d) Resistor
c) To control the speed of electric motors
Answer: a) Variable Frequency Drive (VFD)
d) To store electrical energy
Answer: c) To control the speed of electric motors
Engineering Chemistry
47. What type of material is typically used in the
construction of electric motor windings?
a) Aluminum 1. What is the pH value of pure water at 25°C?

b) Copper a) 7

c) Steel b) 5

d) Iron c) 4
Answer: b) Copper d) 8

48. What is the purpose of a battery in Answer: a) 7

agricultural equipment?

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 Agriculture Engineering 84
2. Which of the following is a chemical compound c) Hydrogen
used as a fertilizer in agriculture?
d) Carbon
a) H2SO4
Answer: b) Nitrogen
b) NH3
7. Which chemical is commonly used as a
c) NaCl pesticide in agriculture?
d) CH4 a) Sodium bicarbonate
Answer: b) NH3 b) DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane)
3. What is the main constituent of natural gas? c) Glucose
a) Carbon dioxide d) Sodium chloride
b) Methane Answer: b) DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane)
c) Nitrogen 8. What is the common use of sulfuric acid in
agriculture?
d) Oxygen
a) As a pesticide
Answer: b) Methane
b) To adjust the pH of the soil
4. Which of the following chemicals is primarily
used in the formulation of pesticides? c) For irrigation
a) Sodium hydroxide d) As a growth regulator
b) Chlorine Answer: b) To adjust the pH of the soil
c) Carbon tetrachloride 9. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
d) Organophosphates a) Oxygen
Answer: d) Organophosphates b) Carbon dioxide
5. What is the main purpose of nitrogen c) Nitrogen
fertilizers in agriculture?
d) Argon
a) To increase soil acidity
Answer: b) Carbon dioxide
b) To promote root development
10. What is the chemical formula of ammonia?
c) To enhance plant growth by providing nitrogen
a) NH3
d) To improve soil texture
b) NH4
Answer: c) To enhance plant growth by providing
nitrogen c) N2H4

6. Which of the following is a primary element d) H2N2

found in fertilizers?
Answer: a) NH3
a) Oxygen
11. Which of the following acids is commonly used
b) Nitrogen in the agriculture industry to increase soil
acidity?

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 85 Agriculture Engineering
a) Acetic acid Answer: b) High concentration of hydroxide ions
b) Nitric acid 16. Which is the main source of sulfur in soil for
plants?
c) Sulfuric acid
a) Organic matter
d) Hydrochloric acid
b) Atmospheric nitrogen
Answer: c) Sulfuric acid
c) Potassium sulfate
12. What is the primary use of phosphoric acid in
fertilizers? d) Sulfur dioxide from industrial sources
a) To increase the nitrogen content Answer: a) Organic matter
b) To provide phosphorus to plants 17. What is the role of calcium in plants?
c) To improve the pH of the soil a) Photosynthesis
d) To regulate soil moisture b) Water retention
Answer: b) To provide phosphorus to plants c) Strengthening plant cell walls
13. Which of the following is a natural source of d) Nitrogen fixation
potassium in agriculture?
Answer: c) Strengthening plant cell walls
a) Potassium chloride
18. Which of the following elements is essential
b) Calcium carbonate for the formation of chlorophyll in plants?
c) Sodium sulfate a) Calcium
d) Phosphoric rock b) Magnesium
Answer: a) Potassium chloride c) Potassium
14. What is the process of converting nitrogen d) Iron
gas to ammonia called?
Answer: b) Magnesium
a) Nitrogen fixation
19. What is the chemical formula of water?
b) Nitrogen denitrification
a) H2O2
c) Ammonification
b) H2O
d) Ammonium nitrate formation
c) HO2
Answer: a) Nitrogen fixation
d) OH2
15. Which of the following is a property of
alkaline soils? Answer: b) H2O

a) High concentration of hydrogen ions 20. What is the common use of lime (CaO) in
agriculture?
b) High concentration of hydroxide ions
a) As a pesticide
c) High concentration of nitrogen
b) To increase soil acidity
d) High concentration of phosphorus

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 Agriculture Engineering 86
c) To provide calcium and reduce acidity in soil Answer: a) The movement of chemicals into deeper
layers of soil
d) As a growth regulator
25. Which of the following compounds is
Answer: c) To provide calcium and reduce acidity commonly used as a herbicide?
in soil
a) Sodium chloride
21. Which of the following is an example of an
organic fertilizer? b) Glyphosate
a) Ammonium nitrate c) Chlorine
b) Urea d) Methane
c) Compost Answer: b) Glyphosate
d) Superphosphate 26. Which of the following is an example of an
inorganic fertilizer?
Answer: c) Compost
a) Peat moss
22. Which of the following is a chemical used for
irrigation water treatment? b) Compost
a) Calcium carbonate c) Urea
b) Potassium chloride d) Animal manure
c) Sodium hypochlorite Answer: c) Urea
d) Copper sulfate 27. Which of the following elements is responsible
for the formation of plant proteins?
Answer: c) Sodium hypochlorite
a) Nitrogen
23. Which of the following metals is used in the
production of insecticides and fungicides? b) Calcium
a) Copper c) Phosphorus
b) Lead d) Iron
c) Zinc Answer: a) Nitrogen
d) Magnesium 28. Which chemical compound is commonly used
in the preparation of pesticides?
Answer: a) Copper
a) Sodium bicarbonate
24. What does the term “chemical leaching”
refer to in agricultural soils? b) Sodium chloride
a) The movement of chemicals into deeper layers of c) Malathion
soil
d) Glucose
b) The process of adding fertilizers to soil
Answer: c) Malathion
c) The evaporation of chemicals from the soil
surface 29. What is the chemical process in which a metal
reacts with oxygen to form a metal oxide?
d) The decomposition of organic matter in soil

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a) Oxidation Answer: d) Sodium polyacrylate
b) Reduction 34. Which of the following is the most important
element in chlorophyll?
c) Neutralization
a) Nitrogen
d) Sublimation
b) Magnesium
Answer: a) Oxidation
c) Potassium
30. What is the main effect of adding nitrogen to
soil? d) Calcium
a) It promotes root development Answer: b) Magnesium
b) It enhances photosynthesis and growth 35. What is the main function of potassium in
plants?
c) It increases soil acidity
a) To form chlorophyll
d) It reduces the pH level of the soil
b) To promote root growth
Answer: b) It enhances photosynthesis and growth
c) To increase disease resistance
31. What is the role of iron in plants?
d) To regulate water balance
a) It helps in the formation of chlorophyll
Answer: d) To regulate water balance
b) It aids in nitrogen fixation
36. What is the role of sulfur in plants?
c) It is involved in water retention
a) It is a part of the amino acids and proteins
d) It helps in root growth
b) It increases the soil pH
Answer: a) It helps in the formation of chlorophyll
c) It promotes chlorophyll production
32. Which of the following fertilizers is a source
of phosphorus? d) It helps in the uptake of phosphorus
a) Superphosphate Answer: a) It is a part of the amino acids and
proteins
b) Urea
37. Which of the following chemicals is used in
c) Ammonium nitrate agriculture to control pests and weeds?
d) Potassium chloride a) Urea
Answer: a) Superphosphate b) DDT
33. Which chemical is commonly used to increase c) Sodium chloride
the water-holding capacity of soil?
d) Calcium carbonate
a) Sodium chloride
Answer: b) DDT
b) Potassium chloride
38. What is the purpose of using a buffer solution
c) Gypsum in agricultural water systems?
d) Sodium polyacrylate a) To stabilize pH levels

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 Agriculture Engineering 88
b) To increase water hardness d) Sulfur
c) To purify the water Answer: b) Lime
d) To decrease salinity 43. What is the chemical formula of potassium
nitrate, a commonly used fertilizer?
Answer: a) To stabilize pH levels
a) KNO3
39. Which of the following elements is most
commonly deficient in soils and requires b) KCl
fertilization?
c) NaCl
a) Nitrogen
d) Ca(NO3)2
b) Chlorine
Answer: a) KNO3
c) Iron
44. What is the major chemical component of a
d) Magnesium plant’s cell wall?
Answer: a) Nitrogen a) Starch
40. Which of the following methods is used to b) Cellulose
remove salt from saline soils?
c) Pectin
a) Lime application
d) Protein
b) Irrigation with fresh water
Answer: b) Cellulose
c) Use of phosphatic fertilizers
45. Which of the following is a property of acids
d) Use of organic matter used in agriculture?
Answer: b) Irrigation with fresh water a) They lower the pH of the soil
41. What does the term “hydroponics” refer to in b) They increase soil pH
agriculture?
c) They are always toxic to plants
a) Growing plants in nutrient-rich water without
soil d) They cause soil erosion
b) Growing plants in alkaline soil Answer: a) They lower the pH of the soil
c) Using chemicals to fertilize the soil 46. Which of the following metals is toxic to
plants in high concentrations?
d) Using natural fertilizers for plant growth
a) Zinc b) Copper
Answer: a) Growing plants in nutrient-rich water
without soil c) Iron
42. Which chemical compound is used to d) Calcium
neutralize acidic soils?
Answer: b) Copper
a) Gypsum
47. What is the chemical formula of ammonium
b) Lime sulfate, a common fertilizer?

c) Potash a) NH4NO3

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 89 Agriculture Engineering
b) (NH4)2SO4 d) To make water less dense
c) K2SO4 Answer: b) To remove harmful contaminants from
water
d) NaNO3
2. Which of the following is a common method for
Answer: b) (NH4)2SO4 water purification in agriculture?
48. Which of the following chemicals is used in a) Reverse osmosis
the preservation of fruits and vegetables?
b) Filtration
a) Formaldehyde
c) Chlorination
b) Ethylene
d) All of the above
c) Sodium bicarbonate
Answer: d) All of the above
d) Ascorbic acid
3. What is the main cause of corrosion in metallic
Answer: b) Ethylene pipes used in water distribution systems?
49. What is the role of zinc in plants? a) High pressure
a) It aids in photosynthesis b) Oxygen and water
b) It helps in the formation of proteins c) Low temperature
c) It regulates water uptake d) Low pH
d) It is involved in the synthesis of chlorophyll Answer: b) Oxygen and water
Answer: b) It helps in the formation of proteins 4. Which of the following is used to reduce
corrosion in water pipes?
50. Which of the following elements is most
critical for the formation of the plant cell a) Painting the pipes
membrane?
b) Using corrosion inhibitors
a) Phosphorus b) Potassium
c) Increasing water temperature
c) Nitrogen d) Calcium
d) Using acidic water
Answer: a) Phosphorus
Answer: b) Using corrosion inhibitors
Water Technology and the 5. What is the primary treatment used to remove
Science of Corrosion suspended solids from water?
a) Sedimentation
b) Chlorination
1. What is the primary purpose of water
treatment in agricultural systems? c) Distillation
a) To increase the temperature of water d) Filtration
b) To remove harmful contaminants from water Answer: a) Sedimentation
c) To increase the salinity of water

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6. Which of the following is an example of a b) Decreased water quality
physical water treatment method?
c) Increased flow rate
a) Chlorination
d) Improved water pressure
b) Filtration
Answer: b) Decreased water quality
c) Coagulation
11. Which of the following is a common corrosion
d) Softening inhibitor used in water systems?
Answer: b) Filtration a) Sodium chloride
7. What type of corrosion occurs when water b) Sodium bicarbonate
with a low pH reacts with metal surfaces?
c) Phosphates
a) Galvanic corrosion
d) Sulfuric acid
b) Uniform corrosion
Answer: c) Phosphates
c) Pitting corrosion
12. What is the primary goal of desalination in
d) Acidic corrosion water treatment?
Answer: d) Acidic corrosion a) To increase water hardness
8. Which of the following metals is most resistant b) To remove dissolved salts from seawater
to corrosion in water?
c) To increase water salinity
a) Iron
d) To lower the pH of water
b) Aluminum
Answer: b) To remove dissolved salts from
c) Copper seawater
d) Stainless steel 13. Which of the following is a primary
contaminant found in agricultural runoff water?
Answer: d) Stainless steel
a) Carbon dioxide
9. What is the term for the process of adding
chemicals to water to remove unwanted b) Nitrogen compounds
substances?
c) Hydrogen gas
a) Filtration
d) Oxygen
b) Coagulation
Answer: b) Nitrogen compounds
c) Chlorination
14. What is the role of electrolysis in water
d) Distillation treatment?
Answer: b) Coagulation a) To remove suspended solids
10. What is the effect of corrosion on water b) To disinfect water
distribution pipes?
c) To break down contaminants using electric
a) Increased efficiency current

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d) To filter particles from water 19. Which of the following is commonly used to
remove hardness from water?
Answer: c) To break down contaminants using
electric current a) Chlorine
15. Which of the following is the best way to b) Lime
prevent corrosion of metal pipes in acidic soil?
c) Sodium bicarbonate
a) Increase the flow rate of water
d) Potassium chloride
b) Use materials resistant to acid corrosion
Answer: b) Lime
c) Lower the pH of the water
20. What is the term for the process by which
d) Use copper pipes exclusively water from the soil and vegetation is transferred
into the atmosphere?
Answer: b) Use materials resistant to acid
corrosion a) Precipitation
16. Which of the following methods is used to b) Infiltration
remove dissolved gases from water in water
treatment? c) Evaporation

a) Filtration d) Transpiration

b) Degassing Answer: d) Transpiration

c) Coagulation 21. Which of the following is a major advantage

of using stainless steel for water pipes?
d) Chlorination
a) It is cheaper
Answer: b) Degassing
b) It resists corrosion better than other metals
17. What is the process of neutralizing the pH of
water to prevent corrosion called? c) It is more flexible

a) pH balancing d) It is a better conductor of heat

b) Alkalization Answer: b) It resists corrosion better than other
metals
c) Acidification
22. What is the typical pH range of water that is
d) pH adjustment considered neutral?
Answer: a) pH balancing a) 0-2
18. Which of the following is the primary cause of b) 5-7
pitting corrosion in water pipelines?
c) 7
a) High oxygen concentration
d) 8-10
b) High temperature
Answer: c) 7
c) Low pH and chloride ions
23. What is the process of removing suspended
d) High pressure and colloidal particles from water by adding
chemicals called?
Answer: c) Low pH and chloride ions

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 Agriculture Engineering 92
a) Distillation d) Aluminum
b) Coagulation Answer: b) Zinc
c) Reverse osmosis 28. What is the process of removing salts from
seawater to make it suitable for irrigation and
d) Sedimentation drinking?
Answer: b) Coagulation a) Filtration
24. Which of the following is a factor that can b) Distillation
accelerate the rate of corrosion in water
systems? c) Reverse osmosis
a) High temperature d) Coagulation
b) Low pressure Answer: c) Reverse osmosis
c) Low oxygen concentration 29. What type of corrosion is typically caused by
the contact between two different metals in
d) High pH water systems?
Answer: a) High temperature a) Galvanic corrosion
25. What is the main purpose of adding chlorine b) Uniform corrosion
to water?
c) Pitting corrosion
a) To adjust pH
d) Stress corrosion
b) To remove suspended solids
Answer: a) Galvanic corrosion
c) To disinfect and kill pathogens
30. What is the role of magnesium in preventing
d) To remove dissolved salts corrosion?
Answer: c) To disinfect and kill pathogens a) It increases the oxygen content in water
26. What is the major source of corrosion in b) It acts as a sacrificial anode
agricultural irrigation systems?
c) It increases the acidity of water
a) Saltwater
d) It neutralizes the pH of water
b) Oxygen and moisture
Answer: b) It acts as a sacrificial anode
c) Acidic chemicals
31. Which of the following is a method of water
d) High pressure purification used in rural areas with limited
access to clean water?
Answer: b) Oxygen and moisture
a) Reverse osmosis
27. Which of the following is a common material
used to coat pipes to prevent corrosion? b) Chlorination
a) Copper c) Solar disinfection
b) Zinc d) Ozonation
c) Plastic Answer: c) Solar disinfection

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32. What is the process of mixing water with air b) Calcium carbonate
to reduce dissolved gases called?
c) Sodium hydroxide
a) Coagulation
d) Sodium bicarbonate
b) Degassing
Answer: a) Sodium chloride
c) Filtration
37. Which type of corrosion occurs when a metal
d) Reverse osmosis surface reacts with chloride ions, creating
localized damage?
Answer: b) Degassing
a) Pitting corrosion
33. What is the primary role of filtration in water
treatment? b) Uniform corrosion
a) To remove dissolved gases c) Stress corrosion
b) To remove suspended particles d) Galvanic corrosion
c) To remove dissolved salts Answer: a) Pitting corrosion
d) To add chlorine for disinfection 38. What is the function of a sacrificial anode in
preventing corrosion?
Answer: b) To remove suspended particles
a) It decreases the pH of the water
34. What is the term for the material used to
coat metal surfaces to protect them from b) It acts as a coating to prevent rust
corrosion?
c) It corrodes in place of the metal structure
a) Catalyst
d) It increases the conductivity of the water
b) Electrode
Answer: c) It corrodes in place of the metal
c) Coating structure
d) Electrolyte 39. Which of the following water treatments is
most effective in removing microbial
Answer: c) Coating contaminants?
35. What is the effect of hard water on a) Chlorination
agricultural irrigation systems?
b) Filtration
a) It reduces the efficiency of water flow
c) Reverse osmosis
b) It increases the efficiency of water flow
d) Sedimentation
c) It makes the water more alkaline
Answer: a) Chlorination
d) It decreases the soil’s nutrient content
40. What is a common corrosion-resistant
Answer: a) It reduces the efficiency of water flow material used for constructing water tanks?
36. Which of the following chemicals is often a) Iron
used in water softening processes?
b) Stainless steel
a) Sodium chloride
c) Aluminum

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 Agriculture Engineering 94
d) Copper 45. What is the effect of high oxygen
concentration in water on metallic surfaces?
Answer: b) Stainless steel
a) It promotes corrosion
41. Which of the following is an example of a
physical method of water treatment? b) It reduces corrosion
a) Coagulation c) It prevents scaling
b) Sedimentation d) It neutralizes the pH
c) Chlorination Answer: a) It promotes corrosion
d) Flocculation 46. What is the process of removing excess salts
from water called?
Answer: b) Sedimentation
a) Filtration
42. Which type of corrosion occurs under a
coating, often due to trapped moisture or b) Reverse osmosis
contaminants?
c) Sedimentation
a) Pitting corrosion
d) Distillation
b) Filiform corrosion
Answer: b) Reverse osmosis
c) Uniform corrosion
47. What type of water treatment method uses a
d) Galvanic corrosion membrane to separate contaminants?
Answer: b) Filiform corrosion a) Sedimentation
43. What is the role of a water softener in b) Filtration
agricultural irrigation systems?
c) Reverse osmosis
a) To decrease water salinity
d) Coagulation
b) To remove dissolved salts
Answer: c) Reverse osmosis
c) To remove suspended solids
48. Which of the following factors accelerates
d) To increase water pressure corrosion in agricultural water systems?
Answer: b) To remove dissolved salts a) Low pH and high temperature
44. Which of the following is used to test the b) High pH and low temperature
hardness of water?
c) Low oxygen concentration
a) pH meter
d) Low water flow rate
b) Titration with EDTA
Answer: a) Low pH and high temperature
c) Osmometer
49. Which of the following is a method of
d) Electrochemical cell protecting metal pipes from corrosion in
agricultural water systems?
Answer: b) Titration with EDTA
a) Coating with zinc

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b) Using sacrificial anodes 3. What is the main property of polymers that
makes them suitable for agricultural
c) Increasing water flow rate applications?
d) Both a and b a) High density
Answer: d) Both a and b b) Flexibility and lightness
50. Which of the following is the primary cause of c) Brittleness
corrosion in water systems?
d) High electrical conductivity
a) Oxygen
Answer: b) Flexibility and lightness
b) Sulfur dioxide
4. Which of the following is an example of a
c) Nitrogen oxides thermosetting polymer?
d) Water temperature a) Polystyrene
Answer: a) Oxygen b) Epoxy resin
c) Polyethylene

Engineering Materials, Polymers, d) Polypropylene

and Nanochemistry Answer: b) Epoxy resin

5. Which of the following materials is commonly
used for making food packaging in agricultural
1. What is the primary function of engineering engineering?
materials in agricultural machinery? a) Rubber
a) To increase weight b) Plastic (Polyethylene)
b) To provide durability and strength c) Wood
c) To enhance the aesthetic appeal d) Glass
d) To reduce cost Answer: b) Plastic (Polyethylene)
Answer: b) To provide durability and strength 6. What type of bond is formed between atoms in
2. Which material is commonly used for making polymers?
agricultural equipment parts that require high a) Ionic bonds
strength and low weight?
b) Covalent bonds
a) Steel
c) Metallic bonds
b) Aluminum
d) Hydrogen bonds
c) Copper
Answer: b) Covalent bonds
d) Wood
7. What is the primary advantage of using
Answer: b) Aluminum nanomaterials in agricultural applications?
a) High cost

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b) Increased strength and functionality c) Lead oxide
c) Limited availability d) Silicon dioxide
d) High thermal conductivity Answer: a) Carbon nanotubes
Answer: b) Increased strength and functionality 12. What is the primary reason for using metal
alloys in agricultural machinery?
8. What is the main purpose of using composite
materials in agricultural engineering? a) They are lightweight
a) To improve aesthetic appeal b) They provide increased resistance to wear and
corrosion
b) To reduce material weight while maintaining
strength c) They are transparent
c) To make them biodegradable d) They are biodegradable
d) To increase the cost of production Answer: b) They provide increased resistance to
wear and corrosion
Answer: b) To reduce material weight while
maintaining strength 13. Which polymer is widely used for making
irrigation pipes in agriculture?
9. Which of the following is a characteristic of
thermoplastics? a) Polyethylene
a) They can be molded multiple times upon heating b) Nylon
b) They harden permanently when heated c) Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
c) They are non-conductive d) Polycarbonate
d) They do not undergo any chemical changes Answer: a) Polyethylene
Answer: a) They can be molded multiple times 14. Which of the following is a characteristic
upon heating property of ceramics used in agricultural
applications?
10. Which of the following is an example of a
biodegradable polymer used in agricultural a) High electrical conductivity
products?
b) High brittleness and hardness
a) Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
c) Flexibility and ductility
b) Polystyrene
d) Good thermal insulation
c) Polylactic acid (PLA)
Answer: b) High brittleness and hardness
d) Polyethylene
15. Which of the following materials is considered
Answer: c) Polylactic acid (PLA) a nanomaterial?
11. Which of the following nanomaterials is a) Copper wire
commonly used to enhance the performance of
agricultural sensors? b) Carbon nanotube

a) Carbon nanotubes c) Polystyrene

b) Polystyrene d) Glass

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Answer: b) Carbon nanotube 20. Which of the following is a use of
nanotechnology in agriculture?
16. What is the major advantage of using
nanotechnology in crop protection? a) Improved water filtration systems
a) Reduced cost of pesticides b) Increasing the weight of crops
b) Enhanced delivery and efficacy of agrochemicals c) Making crops more acidic
c) Increased environmental pollution d) Reducing the nutritional value of crops
d) Decreased plant growth Answer: a) Improved water filtration systems
Answer: b) Enhanced delivery and efficacy of 21. Which type of polymer is used for the
agrochemicals production of agricultural film wraps?
17. Which material is used for making a) Thermosetting polymer
biodegradable mulch films in agriculture?
b) Thermoplastic polymer
a) Polyethylene
c) Polymeric composite
b) Polyvinyl chloride
d) Elastomer
c) Biodegradable plastics (PLA, PHA)
Answer: b) Thermoplastic polymer
d) Aluminum
22. Which material is widely used for the
Answer: c) Biodegradable plastics (PLA, PHA) construction of irrigation pumps and pipes due to
its resistance to corrosion?
18. What is the main benefit of using smart
polymers in agricultural engineering? a) Steel
a) High electrical conductivity b) Aluminum
b) Ability to change shape in response to external c) PVC (Polyvinyl chloride)
stimuli
d) Copper
c) Increased strength in high temperatures
Answer: c) PVC (Polyvinyl chloride)
d) Resistance to corrosion
23. In what way do nanomaterials improve the
Answer: b) Ability to change shape in response to performance of agricultural machinery?
external stimuli
a) By making them less durable
19. Which of the following is a property of
elastomers (rubber)? b) By enhancing their strength and reducing weight

a) Brittle at low temperatures c) By making them harder to repair

b) Highly elastic and flexible d) By increasing their energy consumption

c) Hard and rigid Answer: b) By enhancing their strength and

reducing weight
d) Inflammable
24. What is the main challenge associated with
Answer: b) Highly elastic and flexible using polymer materials in agricultural
machinery?

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a) High cost c) Glass
b) Low resistance to temperature d) Paper
c) Lack of strength Answer: b) Steel alloys
d) Degradation under UV exposure 29. What is the main application of biodegradable
polymers in agriculture?
Answer: d) Degradation under UV exposure
a) To construct long-lasting machinery
25. Which of the following polymers is used in
food packaging to provide a barrier to moisture? b) To produce disposable mulch films and
packaging
a) Nylon
c) To create non-biodegradable water systems
b) Polyethylene
d) To make concrete foundations
c) Polypropylene
Answer: b) To produce disposable mulch films and
d) Polyvinylidene chloride (PVDC) packaging
Answer: d) Polyvinylidene chloride (PVDC) 30. Which of the following is a common
nanomaterial used in crop protection?
26. Which nanomaterial is used in precision
agriculture to create better sensors for soil a) Silver nanoparticles
analysis?
b) Polyethylene glycol
a) Graphene
c) Styrene
b) Lead
d) Graphene oxide
c) Gold nanoparticles
Answer: a) Silver nanoparticles
d) Aluminum oxide
31. Which of the following is true about
Answer: a) Graphene thermosetting polymers?
27. What is the purpose of adding fillers to a) They can be re-molded when heated
polymer materials used in agricultural
equipment? b) They harden irreversibly upon heating
a) To decrease cost and improve strength c) They are always flexible
b) To increase the flexibility of the polymer d) They are easy to recycle
c) To enhance the aesthetic appeal of the material Answer: b) They harden irreversibly upon heating
d) To improve its biodegradability 32. Which material is used in the construction of
high-performance coatings for agricultural
Answer: a) To decrease cost and improve strength machinery?
28. Which material is commonly used to create a) Polystyrene
durable agricultural tools such as plows and
hoes? b) Nylon
a) Aluminum c) Epoxy resins
b) Steel alloys d) Cotton

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Answer: c) Epoxy resins 37. Which of the following polymers is used in the
construction of seed coatings?
33. What is the role of nano-encapsulation in
agricultural engineering? a) Polyethylene
a) To enhance crop growth b) Polypropylene
b) To improve the delivery of agrochemicals c) Polylactic acid (PLA)
c) To reduce the amount of sunlight needed for d) Polyvinyl chloride
photosynthesis
Answer: c) Polylactic acid (PLA)
d) To increase soil erosion
38. What is the primary benefit of using
Answer: b) To improve the delivery of nanocellulose in agriculture?
agrochemicals
a) Increased pest resistance in crops
34. What is the process of cross-linking in
polymers? b) Improved soil texture
a) Breaking the polymer chains into smaller c) Enhanced crop growth
segments
d) Biodegradable and lightweight material for
b) Connecting polymer chains to form a network packaging

c) Making the polymer more elastic Answer: d) Biodegradable and lightweight material
for packaging
d) Removing contaminants from the polymer
39. Which of the following is a characteristic of
Answer: b) Connecting polymer chains to form a nanomaterials used in agriculture?
network
a) Low surface area
35. Which of the following materials is commonly
used in the construction of agricultural silos? b) High reactivity due to small particle size
a) Steel c) High weight
b) Glass d) Low strength

c) Plastic Answer: b) High reactivity due to small particle

size
d) Wood
40. Which of the following is an application of
Answer: a) Steel nanotechnology in food preservation?
36. Which polymer is used for the production of a) Improving the taste of food
agricultural twine and netting?
b) Reducing food shelf life
a) Polyethylene
c) Enhancing packaging material properties
b) Polypropylene
d) Increasing the water content in food
c) Nylon
Answer: c) Enhancing packaging material
d) Polycarbonate properties
Answer: b) Polypropylene 41. What is the most common polymer used in the
agricultural industry for pipes and fittings?

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a) PVC (Polyvinyl chloride) c) High wear resistance and hardness
b) PET (Polyethylene terephthalate) d) High thermal conductivity
c) Polystyrene Answer: c) High wear resistance and hardness
d) Polyurethane 46. What is the advantage of using
nanocomposites in agriculture?
Answer: a) PVC (Polyvinyl chloride)
a) Reduced strength
42. Which of the following materials is used for
making flexible agricultural hoses? b) Decreased durability
a) Rubber c) Enhanced material properties such as strength and
flexibility
b) Steel
d) Reduced cost of production
c) Glass
Answer: c) Enhanced material properties such as
d) Wood strength and flexibility
Answer: a) Rubber 47. Which polymer is commonly used for making
agricultural films that prevent water
43. Which nanomaterial is used to enhance the evaporation?
performance of agricultural sensors for
monitoring soil moisture? a) Polyethylene
a) Carbon nanotubes b) Polypropylene
b) Graphene oxide c) Nylon
c) Silver nanoparticles d) Teflon
d) Lead oxide Answer: a) Polyethylene
Answer: b) Graphene oxide 48. What is the process of reducing the size of
materials to the nanoscale for agricultural
44. Which material is often used to construct applications?
farm machinery that requires a combination of
strength and lightness? a) Doping
a) Iron b) Nanostructuring
b) Aluminum alloys c) Polymerization
c) Copper alloys d) Crystallization
d) Plastic Answer: b) Nanostructuring
Answer: b) Aluminum alloys 49. Which of the following materials is best for
the construction of agricultural equipment
45. Which of the following is a characteristic of exposed to high temperatures?
engineering ceramics used in agricultural
machinery? a) Stainless steel
a) High elasticity b) Plastic
b) High electrical conductivity c) Aluminum

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d) Wood a) Logistics management
Answer: a) Stainless steel b) Supply chain management
50. What is the main characteristic of c) Market research
biodegradable polymers used in agriculture?
d) Procurement and distribution
a) They do not decompose in the environment
Answer: d) Procurement and distribution
b) They are not recyclable
4. Which of the following is an example of a
c) They degrade over time and reduce production management activity in agribusiness?
environmental impact
a) Deciding the price of a product
d) They are made from petroleum-based resources
b) Managing the financial operations
Answer: c) They degrade over time and reduce
environmental impact c) Choosing which crops to grow
d) Advertising agricultural products
Agribusiness Management Answer: c) Choosing which crops to grow
5. Which of the following financial statements is
crucial for assessing the financial performance of
1. What is the primary goal of agribusiness an agribusiness?
management?
a) Income statement
a) To focus on marketing agricultural products
b) Weather report
b) To manage the overall production of agriculture
c) Crop yield forecast
c) To maximize profits through efficient use of
resources d) Environmental impact assessment

d) To support agricultural research and Answer: a) Income statement

development
6. What is the term for the act of analyzing the
Answer: c) To maximize profits through efficient cost and potential benefits of farming decisions?
use of resources
a) Financial analysis
2. Which of the following is a key component of
agribusiness management? b) Cost-benefit analysis

a) Marketing strategies c) Crop rotation planning

b) Crop cultivation techniques d) Marketing segmentation

c) Soil fertility management Answer: b) Cost-benefit analysis

d) Genetic engineering 7. Which of the following is an essential factor in

agribusiness marketing management?
Answer: a) Marketing strategies
a) Demand estimation
3. What is the term for the process of purchasing
and selling agricultural goods and services in b) Soil health analysis
agribusiness?
c) Climate adaptation

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 Agriculture Engineering 102
d) Irrigation system design Answer: c) Seasonal fluctuations and perishable
products
Answer: a) Demand estimation
12. What is a common challenge faced by
8. What is the function of supply chain agribusiness managers in managing supply
management in agribusiness? chains?
a) To manage the distribution of crops a) Consistent demand for products
b) To analyze agricultural labor markets b) Timely and efficient distribution of products
c) To control the financial health of the company c) Lack of government policies
d) To ensure efficient production and delivery of d) Excessive use of technology
agricultural products
Answer: b) Timely and efficient distribution of
Answer: d) To ensure efficient production and products
delivery of agricultural products
13. What is the term for a business that operates
9. Which of the following is the primary role of in both agriculture and other industries?
an agribusiness manager?
a) Agribusiness
a) To oversee crop yield forecasting
b) Diversified agribusiness
b) To manage financial risks and opportunities
c) Farm cooperative
c) To monitor environmental factors
d) Agricultural monopoly
d) To conduct scientific research
Answer: b) Diversified agribusiness
Answer: b) To manage financial risks and
opportunities 14. Which financial metric is most commonly used
to assess the profitability of an agribusiness?
10. Which pricing strategy is commonly used in
agribusiness to increase market share? a) Gross profit margin
a) Premium pricing b) Market share
b) Penetration pricing c) Return on assets
c) Skimming pricing d) Operational efficiency
d) Psychological pricing Answer: c) Return on assets
Answer: b) Penetration pricing 15. What is the primary goal of an agribusiness
marketing plan?
11. Which of the following is a key characteristic
of agribusiness markets? a) To diversify the product range
a) High production cost and high profitability b) To analyze competitors
b) Price stability and low risk c) To increase product awareness and sales
c) Seasonal fluctuations and perishable products d) To forecast labor costs
d) Technological advancements and low Answer: c) To increase product awareness and
competition sales

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 103 Agriculture Engineering
16. Which of the following is a direct example of Answer: a) The increasing efficiency as a company
vertical integration in agribusiness? produces more goods
a) A farmer selling crops directly to consumers 20. Which of the following is an example of a
public sector agribusiness?
b) A company expanding its operations into food
processing a) A private farming corporation
c) A retail store opening a warehouse b) A state-owned agricultural research institute
d) A crop producer investing in agricultural c) A multinational agribusiness conglomerate
research
d) A local cooperative society
Answer: b) A company expanding its operations
into food processing Answer: b) A state-owned agricultural research
institute
17. Which type of insurance is most relevant to
agribusinesses? 21. What is the role of an agribusiness
cooperative?
a) Crop insurance
a) To provide financial loans to farmers
b) Property damage insurance
b) To manage the distribution of agricultural
c) Health insurance products
d) Travel insurance c) To facilitate joint marketing and resource-sharing
among farmers
Answer: a) Crop insurance
d) To oversee government regulations in farming
18. Which of the following is an example of
horizontal integration in agribusiness? Answer: c) To facilitate joint marketing and
resource-sharing among farmers
a) A grain mill merging with a seed company
22. Which of the following is NOT a factor that
b) A farm purchasing additional land for crop affects the profitability of agribusinesses?
production
a) Availability of water resources
c) A farm investing in a cold storage facility
b) Seasonality of the crop
d) A food processor expanding into a retail market
c) Level of government subsidies
Answer: a) A grain mill merging with a seed
company d) Social media presence
19. What does the term “economies of scale” Answer: d) Social media presence
refer to in agribusiness?
23. What is the main purpose of market research
a) The increasing efficiency as a company produces in agribusiness management?
more goods
a) To forecast crop yields
b) The financial risk associated with market demand
fluctuations b) To analyze competitors’ financial reports

c) The investment in environmental sustainability c) To understand consumer demand and preferences

d) The diversification of agricultural products d) To plan for land acquisition

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 Agriculture Engineering 104
Answer: c) To understand consumer demand and c) Agribusiness does not require a marketing
preferences strategy
24. Which of the following is a critical factor in d) Agribusiness focuses only on local markets
managing an agribusiness effectively?
Answer: a) Agribusiness involves industrial-scale
a) High cost of labor production and commercial activities
b) Government subsidies 28. Which of the following is a key component of
supply chain management in agribusiness?
c) Effective risk management and resource
allocation a) Minimizing employee wages
d) Overproduction of crops b) Ensuring timely delivery of goods from producer
to consumer
Answer: c) Effective risk management and resource
allocation c) Reducing the number of farm workers
25. Which of the following best describes the d) Limiting the variety of crops grown
concept of ‘demand forecasting’ in agribusiness
management? Answer: b) Ensuring timely delivery of goods from
producer to consumer
a) Predicting the future supply of agricultural
products 29. What is one of the primary concerns when it
comes to sustainability in agribusiness?
b) Estimating the future demand for agricultural
products a) Maximizing profits without considering
environmental impact
c) Planning the agricultural budget for the coming
season b) Managing resources efficiently while minimizing
environmental harm
d) Calculating the costs of transportation for crops
c) Focusing only on increasing production output
Answer: b) Estimating the future demand for
agricultural products d) Reducing the variety of crops produced

26. Which of the following is a financial tool Answer: b) Managing resources efficiently while
commonly used to assess the risk of an minimizing environmental harm
agribusiness investment?
30. What is a common challenge faced by
a) SWOT analysis agribusinesses in developing countries?

b) Net present value (NPV) a) Limited access to advanced technology

c) Environmental impact assessment b) Over-abundant crop yields
d) Porter’s Five Forces c) Too much government support

Answer: b) Net present value (NPV) d) Lack of consumer interest in local products

27. What is the key difference between Answer: a) Limited access to advanced technology
agribusiness and traditional farming?
31. What is the significance of financial
a) Agribusiness involves industrial-scale forecasting in agribusiness management?
production and commercial activities
a) It helps in predicting weather patterns
b) Agribusiness focuses on traditional farming
techniques

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b) It provides insights into future financial needs a) The business has high competition from other
and challenges firms
c) It increases crop yields b) The business controls the entire market for a
specific agricultural product
d) It determines the level of government intervention
c) The business only produces organic products
Answer: b) It provides insights into future financial
needs and challenges d) The business focuses solely on small-scale
farming
32. Which of the following is NOT a typical
responsibility of an agribusiness manager? Answer: b) The business controls the entire market
for a specific agricultural product
a) Deciding on crop diversification strategies
36. What is the term for a pricing strategy where
b) Managing the agribusiness finances a company sets a high price to attract customers
willing to pay a premium?
c) Conducting scientific research in soil biology
a) Skimming pricing
d) Overseeing the marketing and distribution of
products b) Penetration pricing
Answer: c) Conducting scientific research in soil c) Psychological pricing
biology
d) Cost-based pricing
33. What is the purpose of crop diversification in
agribusiness? Answer: a) Skimming pricing
a) To increase production of a single crop 37. Which financial tool helps agribusinesses
track their profitability and costs over time?
b) To reduce financial risks associated with crop
failure a) Balance sheet b) Income statement
c) To standardize crop varieties c) Cash flow statement
d) To increase the cost of inputs d) Market analysis report
Answer: b) To reduce financial risks associated Answer: b) Income statement
with crop failure
38. Which of the following is a challenge in
34. Which of the following strategies would be managing a seasonal business like agribusiness?
best for an agribusiness looking to expand its
market reach? a) Consistent cash flow throughout the year

a) Increasing the price of the product b) Predicting market demand during the off-season

b) Focusing on local markets only c) Lack of consumer interest

c) Entering into international markets d) Maintaining constant crop yield levels

d) Reducing the variety of products offered Answer: b) Predicting market demand during the
off-season
Answer: c) Entering into international markets
39. Which market structure best describes
35. Which of the following is a characteristic of a agribusinesses with multiple firms competing in
monopolistic agribusiness? the market but selling differentiated products?
a) Perfect competition b) Monopoly

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c) Oligopoly d) The amount of water used for irrigation
d) Monopolistic competition Answer: a) The process of increasing the value of a
product through processing or packaging
Answer: d) Monopolistic competition
44. What is the term for the process of using
40. What is the primary goal of a farm agricultural products in non-food applications,
cooperative in agribusiness? such as biofuels or bioplastics?
a) To ensure fair wages for all employees a) Agricultural diversification
b) To increase the bargaining power of farmers for b) Value addition
better pricing
c) Vertical integration
c) To minimize the variety of crops grown
d) Market segmentation
d) To focus on large-scale agricultural production
only Answer: b) Value addition
Answer: b) To increase the bargaining power of 45. Which of the following is a key objective of
farmers for better pricing strategic planning in agribusiness?
41. Which of the following is a method used to a) To predict the weather
assess the potential profitability of an
agribusiness investment? b) To improve employee relations
a) SWOT analysis b) Market survey c) To develop long-term goals and strategies for
growth
c) Payback period
d) To reduce production costs
d) Environmental risk analysis
Answer: c) To develop long-term goals and
Answer: c) Payback period strategies for growth
42. What is the role of agricultural extension 46. What is the term for the process of making
services in agribusiness management? decisions regarding the mix of agricultural
products to produce?
a) To provide scientific knowledge and resources
to farmers a) Resource allocation
b) To market and sell agricultural products b) Market segmentation
c) To regulate agricultural prices c) Crop planning
d) To offer financial assistance to agribusinesses d) Supply chain management
Answer: a) To provide scientific knowledge and Answer: c) Crop planning
resources to farmers
47. Which of the following is an example of
43. What does the term ‘value-added’ refer to in direct-to-consumer marketing in agribusiness?
agribusiness?
a) Selling products to grocery stores
a) The process of increasing the value of a product
through processing or packaging b) Establishing a farm-to-table restaurant

b) The amount of land required for farming c) Contract farming with large companies

c) The cost of growing a crop d) Exporting products internationally

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Answer: b) Establishing a farm-to-table restaurant Basic Concepts and Principles of Statics
48. What is a major challenge in financing 1. What is the primary focus of statics in
agribusinesses? engineering mechanics?
a) Low demand for agricultural products a) The study of objects in motion
b) High seasonality and fluctuating income b) The study of forces and their effects on
stationary bodies
c) Lack of government subsidies
c) The study of energy transfer
d) Lack of trained workforce
d) The study of temperature changes in bodies
Answer: b) High seasonality and fluctuating income
Answer: b) The study of forces and their effects
49. Which of the following is a benefit of on stationary bodies
adopting sustainable practices in agribusiness?
2. Which of the following is a fundamental
a) Increased use of pesticides concept in statics?
b) Increased profitability in the short term a) Work and energy
c) Long-term environmental and financial stability b) Newton’s laws of motion
d) Reduced market share c) Equilibrium of forces
Answer: c) Long-term environmental and financial d) Torque and rotational motion
stability
Answer: c) Equilibrium of forces
50. What is the purpose of risk management in
agribusiness? 3. The resultant of two forces acting at an
angle to each other can be determined
a) To eliminate competition using:
b) To ensure maximum profits at all times a) Pythagoras theorem
c) To minimize financial loss and mitigate risks b) Trigonometric identities
d) To prevent market expansion c) The parallelogram law of forces
Answer: c) To minimize financial loss and mitigate d) Hooke’s Law
risks
Answer: c) The parallelogram law of forces
Basic Concepts and Principles of 4. In a system in static equilibrium, the sum
Statics, Equilibrium of Rigid of all forces and the sum of all moments
must be:
Bodies, Properties of Surfaces a) Equal to zero
and Solids, Friction, and b) Positive
Dynamics c) Negative
d) Greater than zero
Answer: a) Equal to zero

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Agriculture Engineering 108
5. What does the term “force vector” refer 9. The law that states “For a body in
to in statics? equilibrium, the sum of the moments about
any point is zero” is known as:
a) The direction in which a body moves
a) Law of Inertia
b) A scalar quantity representing force
magnitude b) Principle of Virtual Work
c) A vector that represents the magnitude and c) Varignon’s Theorem
direction of force
d) Newton’s Third Law
d) A moment arm
Answer: c) Varignon’s Theorem
Answer: c) A vector that represents the
magnitude and direction of force 10. When a force is applied at a point in a
rigid body, it can cause:
6. Which of the following is true about a
couple in statics? a) Only linear motion
a) A couple produces no moment. b) Only rotational motion
b) A couple produces a moment of zero value. c) Both linear and rotational motion

c) A couple produces a rotational effect without d) No motion

a resultant force.
Answer: c) Both linear and rotational motion
d) A couple has both a force and a moment
component.
Answer: c) A couple produces a rotational Equilibrium of Rigid Bodies
effect without a resultant force. 11. The condition for static equilibrium of a
7. The force system in which forces are rigid body is:
applied at a single point is called: a) The sum of forces in any direction is equal to
a) Concentric system the mass of the body.

b) Non-concentric system b) The sum of forces and moments acting on the

body is zero.
c) Concurrent system
c) The sum of forces and acceleration is zero.
d) Non-concurrent system
d) The body must be at rest.
Answer: c) Concurrent system
Answer: b) The sum of forces and moments
8. A beam subjected to loads will have a acting on the body is zero.
moment of force, which is a result of:
12. In two-dimensional static equilibrium, how
a) Applied force and distance from the pivot many independent equations are
required?
b) The weight of the beam
a) One
c) The rigidity of the material
b) Two
d) The thermal expansion of the material
c) Three
Answer: a) Applied force and distance from the
pivot d) Four

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Answer: b) Two 17. A rigid body in equilibrium cannot
experience:
13. If two forces act on a body, for
equilibrium to occur, the forces must be: a) Translational motion
a) Equal in magnitude and opposite in direction b) Rotational motion
b) Equal in magnitude and parallel c) Both translational and rotational motion
c) Non-parallel and equal in magnitude d) None of the above
d) Acting along the same line of action Answer: c) Both translational and rotational
motion
Answer: a) Equal in magnitude and opposite in
direction 18. What is the difference between a free
body diagram and a system diagram?
14. The moment of a force about a point is
calculated as: a) A free body diagram represents forces on a
specific body; a system diagram represents
a) Force × Distance from the pivot point interactions of bodies.
b) Distance × Distance from the point b) A free body diagram shows moments; a
system diagram shows only forces.
c) Force × Area of the body
c) Both are the same.
d) Area × Perpendicular distance
d) A system diagram shows only forces acting
Answer: a) Force × Distance from the pivot on a body.
point
Answer: a) A free body diagram represents
15. Which of the following is a necessary forces on a specific body; a system diagram
condition for the equilibrium of a body? represents interactions of bodies.
a) Equal magnitude of forces only 19. The concept of the center of mass is
important in the analysis of:
b) A balanced system of forces and moments
c) Zero velocity of the body a) Dynamic equilibrium
b) Static equilibrium
d) Zero temperature
Answer: b) A balanced system of forces and c) Momentum transfer
moments d) Energy transfer
16. The moment of inertia for a rotating rigid Answer: b) Static equilibrium
body depends on:
20. A rigid body subjected to multiple forces
a) The applied force is in equilibrium when:
b) The mass distribution and the axis of rotation a) The vector sum of the forces equals zero.
c) The size of the body only b) The net force equals the mass of the body.
d) The temperature of the body c) The net torque equals zero.
Answer: b) The mass distribution and the axis d) Both (a) and (c) are true.
of rotation
Answer: d) Both (a) and (c) are true.

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 Agriculture Engineering 110
Properties of Surfaces and Solids b) Does not return to its original shape
21. The moment of inertia for a circular area c) Fractures or breaks immediately
is:
d) Exhibits plastic flow without returning to
a) I = πrt /4 shape
b) I = πr²h Answer: a) Returns to its original shape after
the load is removed
c) I = S!mr²
26. Shear stress in a material is caused by:
d) I = ½mr²
a) Normal force
Answer: a) I = πrt /4
b) Rotational force
22. Which of the following is a property of a
material that resists changes in shape? c) Forces parallel to the surface
a) Plasticity d) Forces acting perpendicularly to the surface
b) Ductility Answer: c) Forces parallel to the surface
c) Rigidity 27. In a three-dimensional state of stress, the
term “principal stress” refers to:
d) Flexibility
a) The maximum shear stress
Answer: c) Rigidity
b) The minimum normal stress
23. The density of a solid material is defined
as: c) The maximum normal stress
a) Mass per unit area d) The average stress in all directions
b) Mass per unit volume Answer: c) The maximum normal stress
c) Volume per unit mass 28. The strain in a material is the:
d) Force per unit mass a) Stress divided by the material’s modulus of
elasticity
Answer: b) Mass per unit volume
b) Change in the length divided by the original
24. What does Young’s Modulus measure? length
a) The amount of deformation under stress c) Force divided by the area
b) The rigidity of a material d) Energy stored in the material
c) The strength of a material under shear Answer: b) Change in the length divided by the
original length
d) The ability of a material to resist fracture
29. Which of the following is a property of a
Answer: b) The rigidity of a material material that allows it to absorb and store
energy when stretched or compressed?
25. When a material undergoes elastic
deformation, it: a) Elasticity
a) Returns to its original shape after the load is b) Hardness
removed

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c) Malleability c) The velocity of the object
d) Brittleness d) The temperature of the surfaces
Answer: a) Elasticity Answer: c) The velocity of the object
30. The Poisson’s ratio of a material 34. The maximum value of static friction
describes the ratio of: occurs when:
a) Lateral strain to longitudinal strain a) The body is in motion
b) Stress to strain b) The applied force is less than the maximum
static friction
c) Internal force to deformation
c) The applied force exceeds the maximum
d) Shear stress to shear strain static friction
Answer: a) Lateral strain to longitudinal strain d) The body is at rest but the force is applied at
the threshold
sFriction
Answer: d) The body is at rest but the force is
31. The coefficient of friction is: applied at the threshold
a) A ratio of the normal force to the weight of 35. In the case of sliding friction, the
the object frictional force:
b) The ratio of the applied force to the normal a) Increases with speed
force
b) Is independent of the area of contact
c) The ratio of frictional force to the velocity of
the body c) Decreases with speed
d) The ratio of normal force to the contact area d) Depends on the texture of the surfaces
Answer: b) The ratio of the applied force to the Answer: b) Is independent of the area of contact
normal force
36. Which of the following is true about the
32. Which type of friction exists between two angle of repose?
surfaces in relative motion?
a) It is the angle at which the frictional force is
a) Static friction zero
b) Rolling friction b) It is the maximum angle at which an object
will slide on a surface without moving
c) Kinetic friction
c) It is the angle at which the sliding friction is
d) Viscous friction at its minimum
Answer: c) Kinetic friction d) It is always greater than the coefficient of
33. Which of the following factors does NOT friction
affect the magnitude of friction between Answer: b) It is the maximum angle at which an
two surfaces? object will slide on a surface without
moving
a) The normal force
37. Rolling friction is:
b) The roughness of the surfaces
a) Higher than sliding friction

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b) Lower than sliding friction c) Dynamics
c) Independent of the radius of the rolling object d) Thermodynamics
d) Always zero Answer: c) Dynamics
Answer: b) Lower than sliding friction 42. Which of the following quantities is a
measure of the rotational inertia of a
38. Which of the following is an example of body?
static friction?
a) Mass
a) Sliding a book across a table
b) Moment of inertia
b) A car accelerating on a flat road
c) Force
c) A train moving on the tracks
d) Torque
d) Pushing a parked car
Answer: b) Moment of inertia
Answer: d) Pushing a parked car
43. The rate of change of momentum of a
39. In a mechanical system, friction is useful body is:
for:
a) Force
a) Reducing the efficiency of the system
b) Mass
b) Ensuring that motion occurs smoothly
c) Speed
c) Preventing motion in some cases
d) Energy
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Force
Answer: c) Preventing motion in some cases
44. Newton’s second law of motion states that
40. The force of friction depends on: the acceleration of an object is:
a) The mass of the object a) Directly proportional to the applied force and
inversely proportional to the object’s mass
b) The contact area and the nature of the
materials in contact b) Inversely proportional to the applied force
and directly proportional to the object’s
c) The temperature of the object mass
d) The velocity of the object c) Inversely proportional to the velocity of the
object
Answer: b) The contact area and the nature of
the materials in contact d) Directly proportional to the object’s mass and
velocity

Dynamics Answer: a) Directly proportional to the applied

force and inversely proportional to the
41. The study of forces and motion of bodies object’s mass
is called:
45. In dynamics, the term “centripetal force”
a) Statics refers to:

b) Kinematics a) The force that pushes a body away from the

center of rotation

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b) The force that keeps an object moving in a c) Impulse is the product of force and time
circular path
d) Momentum is the product of mass and
c) The force that opposes motion in a fluid velocity
d) The force that resists rotation of a body Answer: b) Impulse is the change in momentum
Answer: b) The force that keeps an object 50. The angular velocity of a body is defined
moving in a circular path as:
Dynamics (Continued) a) The rate of change of its displacement
46. When a body moves in a circular path b) The rate of change of its linear velocity
with constant speed, it has:
c) The rate of change of its angular position
a) Zero velocity
d) The rate of change of its force
b) Zero acceleration
Answer: c) The rate of change of its angular
c) Centripetal acceleration position
d) No force acting on it 51. The work done by a force is equal to:
Answer: c) Centripetal acceleration a) The product of force and velocity
47. The linear momentum of an object is b) The product of force and displacement in the
defined as: direction of the force
a) Mass × Velocity c) The product of mass and acceleration
b) Force × Time d) The product of mass and velocity
c) Mass × Acceleration Answer: b) The product of force and
displacement in the direction of the force
d) Mass × Displacement
52. Kinetic energy of a body is given by the
Answer: a) Mass × Velocity formula:
48. In the context of rotational dynamics, a) K=12mv2K = \frac{1}{2}mv^2K=21 mv2
torque is the rotational equivalent of:
b) K=mvK = mvK=mv
a) Force
c) K=12m2v2K = \frac{1}{2}m^2v^2K=21
b) Velocity m2v2
c) Mass d) K=mv2K = mv^2K=mv2
d) Momentum Answer: a) K=12mv2K =
\frac{1}{2}mv^2K=21 mv2
Answer: a) Force
53. In rotational motion, the rotational
49. In dynamics, the impulse-momentum equivalent of mass is: a) Moment of inertia
theorem states that:
b) Torque
a) Impulse is the change in velocity
c) Angular momentum
b) Impulse is the change in momentum
d) Angular velocity

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Answer: a) Moment of inertia 58. A body is said to be in uniform motion if:
54. The work-energy principle states that: a) Its speed is constant
a) The energy of a system remains constant b) Its velocity is constant
b) The net work done on a system is equal to its c) Its acceleration is constant
change in kinetic energy
d) Its momentum is constant
c) Work is inversely proportional to
displacement Answer: b) Its velocity is constant
d) The total energy of a system is constant 59. Which of the following is an example of a
non-conservative force?
Answer: b) The net work done on a system is
equal to its change in kinetic energy a) Gravitational force
55. What is the condition for a body to b) Elastic spring force
experience uniform circular motion?
c) Frictional force
a) The acceleration is zero
d) Electrostatic force
b) The velocity is constant but the direction of
motion changes Answer: c) Frictional force

c) The speed of the body increases continuously 60. The principle of conservation of
mechanical energy states that:
d) The net force acting on the body is zero
a) Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only
Answer: b) The velocity is constant but the transformed
direction of motion changes
b) The total energy of a system always increases
56. The relationship between force and
acceleration in Newton’s second law of c) Energy decreases with increasing velocity
motion is:
d) The kinetic energy of a system is always
a) Inversely proportional constant

b) Directly proportional Answer: a) Energy cannot be created or

destroyed, only transformed
c) Dependent on the displacement
d) Independent of the mass of the body
Properties of Materials (Continued)
Answer: b) Directly proportional
61. The Young’s Modulus of a material is a
57. The moment of inertia for a point mass is measure of:
calculated as:
a) Its ability to return to the original shape after
a) I=mr2I = m r^2I=mr2 deformation
b) I=mrI = m rI=mr b) Its resistance to shear deformation
c) I=m2r2I = m^2 r^2I=m2r2 c) Its stiffness or resistance to elastic
deformation
d) I=m/r2I = m / r^2I=m/r2
d) Its ability to deform plastically
Answer: a) I=mr2I = m r^2I=mr2

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Answer: c) Its stiffness or resistance to elastic b) Radians per second
deformation
c) Meters per second
62. The principle of virtual work is used in
statics to: d) Kilograms

a) Calculate the deformation in a material Answer: b) Radians per second

b) Determine the work done by a system 67. The law of conservation of angular
momentum states that:
c) Analyze the equilibrium of forces in a system
a) The total angular momentum of a system
d) Calculate the strain in a system remains constant if no external torque acts
on the system
Answer: c) Analyze the equilibrium of forces in
a system b) Angular momentum is proportional to
velocity
63. Which of the following materials is most
likely to experience elastic deformation? c) The angular velocity of a rotating body is
constant
a) Rubber
d) The angular acceleration is always zero
b) Steel
Answer: a) The total angular momentum of a
c) Concrete system remains constant if no external torque
acts on the system
d) Clay
68. In a rotating system, the torque is
Answer: b) Steel proportional to:
64. A body in motion has: a) The applied force
a) Zero acceleration b) The radius of rotation
b) Zero velocity c) The square of the radius
c) Kinetic energy d) Both a) and b)
d) Zero momentum Answer: d) Both a) and b)
Answer: c) Kinetic energy 69. When a force is applied to a rotating
object, it causes:
65. The force required to maintain an object
in uniform circular motion is called: a) A change in the object’s mass
a) Gravitational force b) A change in the object’s speed
b) Normal force c) A change in the object’s moment of inertia
c) Centripetal force d) A change in the object’s angular acceleration
d) Frictional force Answer: d) A change in the object’s angular
Answer: c) Centripetal force acceleration

66. What is the unit of angular velocity? 70. The center of mass of an object is:
a) The point where all the weight of the object
a) Radians
is considered to act

119
 Agriculture Engineering 116
b) The point where the object is balanced d) Work and energy are unrelated
c) The center of the object’s geometry Answer: a) Work is the transfer of energy
d) All of the above 75. When an object is in motion, the total
mechanical energy of the object is the
Answer: d) All of the above sum of: a) Potential energy and temperature
b) Kinetic energy and potential energy
Work-Energy and Impulse-Momentum c) Force and displacement
71. Work done by a force is defined as: a) d) Work and energy
Force times distance traveled in the
direction of the force Answer: b) Kinetic energy and potential energy
b) Force times displacement perpendicular to 76. The kinetic energy of an object depends
the force on: a) The speed of the object only
c) The rate of force application b) The velocity and mass of the object
d) The time during which the force is applied c) The temperature of the object
Answer: a) Force times distance traveled in the d) The acceleration of the object
direction of the force
Answer: b) The velocity and mass of the object
72. Which of the following is the correct
formula for impulse? a) Impulse = Force × 77. Which of the following is an example of an
Time elastic collision? a) A car hitting a wall and
bouncing back without any deformation
b) Impulse = Mass × Velocity
b) A car colliding with another and sticking
c) Impulse = Mass × Acceleration together
d) Impulse = Energy × Time c) A ball hitting the ground and losing speed
Answer: a) Impulse = Force × Time d) A rocket launching into space
73. The principle of impulse-momentum is Answer: a) A car hitting a wall and bouncing
used to calculate: a) The change in velocity back without any deformation
of a body due to an applied force
78. A system is said to be “isolated” if: a) No
b) The work done by a force external force acts on the system
c) The energy stored in a system b) It is in thermal equilibrium
d) The rotational inertia of an object c) It is not affected by gravity
Answer: a) The change in velocity of a body d) It moves in a uniform direction
due to an applied force
Answer: a) No external force acts on the system
74. The relationship between work and
energy is: a) Work is the transfer of energy 79. The power delivered by a force is defined
as: a) Work done divided by time
b) Work is independent of energy
b) Force times velocity
c) Work results in the loss of energy
c) Energy consumed divided by time

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d) Both a) and b) c) Force applied to a material
Answer: d) Both a) and b) d) Energy required to stretch a material
80. Which of the following statements is true Answer: b) Ratio of change in length to the
regarding momentum? original length
a) Momentum is conserved in all types of 84. Which of the following is true about
collisions stress-strain behavior?
b) Momentum is not conserved in elastic a) Stress is directly proportional to strain within
collisions the elastic limit
c) Momentum is only conserved in inelastic b) Strain is proportional to force applied
collisions
c) Stress remains constant after the yield point
d) Momentum is always proportional to mass
d) Strain is zero after the material reaches the
Answer: a) Momentum is conserved in all types yield point
of collisions
Answer: a) Stress is directly proportional to
Continuum Mechanics strain within the elastic limit
81. The shear modulus of a material is a 85. In a material, the tensile stress is defined
measure of: as:
a) Its ability to resist deformation under shear a) Force per unit volume
stress
b) Force per unit area in the direction of the
b) Its resistance to compression applied force
c) Its resistance to tension c) Force per unit length
d) Its elastic limit d) Force per unit area in the perpendicular
direction
Answer: a) Its ability to resist deformation
under shear stress Answer: b) Force per unit area in the direction
of the applied force
82. Which of the following is NOT a type of
deformation in materials? Properties of Materials (Continued)
a) Plastic deformation 86. The strain energy in a material is defined
as:
b) Elastic deformation
a) The energy required to break the material
c) Thermal deformation
b) The energy stored due to deformation
d) Volume deformation
c) The energy dissipated in the form of heat
Answer: c) Thermal deformation
d) The energy required to compress the material
83. Strain in a material is the:
Answer: b) The energy stored due to
a) Internal force per unit area deformation
b) Ratio of change in length to the original 87. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is the
length ratio of:

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Agriculture Engineering 118
a) Lateral strain to longitudinal strain 91. The elastic limit of a material is:
b) Longitudinal strain to lateral strain a) The maximum stress a material can withstand
without breaking
c) Lateral stress to longitudinal stress
b) The point beyond which permanent
d) Longitudinal stress to lateral stress deformation occurs
Answer: a) Lateral strain to longitudinal strain c) The stress at which the material begins to
fracture
88. In which of the following scenarios does
plastic deformation occur? d) The stress required to cause elastic
deformation
a) When the material returns to its original
shape after unloading Answer: b) The point beyond which permanent
deformation occurs
b) When the material stretches but eventually
returns to its original shape 92. A beam subjected to a bending moment
will:
c) When the material is permanently deformed
after a load is applied and removed a) Experience shear stress only
d) When the material fractures under stress b) Deform by changing its length
Answer: c) When the material is permanently c) Experience both shear and bending stresses
deformed after a load is applied and
removed d) Be in equilibrium
89. The stiffness of a material is directly Answer: c) Experience both shear and bending
related to: stresses
a) Its tensile strength 93. In a cantilever beam, the maximum
bending moment occurs at:
b) Its modulus of elasticity
a) The free end
c) Its thermal conductivity
b) The fixed end
d) Its density
c) Mid-point of the beam
Answer: b) Its modulus of elasticity
d) At a point where the beam is loaded
90. In engineering mechanics, the term
“plastic region” refers to: Answer: b) The fixed end
a) The region where a material experiences 94. In the analysis of stresses in materials,
elastic deformation what does the term “normal stress” refer
to?
b) The region where a material experiences
both elastic and plastic deformation a) Stress perpendicular to the surface of the
material
c) The region where a material experiences
irreversible deformation b) Stress parallel to the surface of the material
d) The region where a material fractures c) Stress resulting from shearing forces
Answer: c) The region where a material d) Stress due to thermal expansion
experiences irreversible deformation

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 119 Agriculture Engineering
Answer: a) Stress perpendicular to the surface d) The pressure at different points in the fluid
of the material
Answer: b) The type of fluid flow (laminar or
95. The factor of safety is the ratio of: turbulent)
a) Yield stress to working stress 99. The Bernoulli’s equation for fluid flow is a
statement of:
b) Ultimate stress to yield stress
a) Conservation of mass
c) Working stress to yield stress
b) Conservation of momentum
d) Working stress to ultimate stress
c) Conservation of energy
Answer: a) Yield stress to working stress
d) Conservation of heat
96. In the case of shear deformation, the
stress applied is: Answer: c) Conservation of energy
a) Parallel to the surface of the material 100. In fluid statics, the pressure at a
point in a fluid is:
b) Perpendicular to the surface of the material
a) The same in all directions
c) Always uniform across the material
b) Zero at the surface
d) Independent of the material’s properties
c) Maximum at the free surface of the fluid
Answer: a) Parallel to the surface of the
material d) Dependent on the velocity of the fluid at that
point
Answer: a) The same in all directions
Fluid Mechanics and Dynamics
97. In a fluid flowing through a pipe, the
velocity profile of the flow is:
a) Uniform across the entire cross-section of the
pipe
b) Zero at the center and maximum at the walls
c) Maximum at the center and decreases
towards the walls
d) Uniform at all points in the pipe
Answer: c) Maximum at the center and
decreases towards the walls
98. The Reynolds number is used to
determine:
a) The velocity of the fluid
b) The type of fluid flow (laminar or turbulent)
c) The temperature of the fluid

123
 IISGNII

Buy Chandresh Agrawal’s Books Online

At

[Link]

eBooks Available Immediately With

Free Sample Pages For
Competitive Exams
Visit [Link] author?id=Chandresh+Agrawal
Or Scan Following Code.

124
 This Book Contains
Subject Knowledge/
Professional Knowledge
Papers & Practice Sets
Based On Various
Competitive Exams With
Answers

Dive Into Spirituality-Listen

YouTube Podcasts For Free
(@prabhubhaktisansthanofficial)
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125
 IISGNII

PERFORMANCE EVALUATION
Practice Set/Paper Correct Answers Total No. Of Questions Percentage Of
Marks

Paper 1

Paper 2

Paper 3

Paper 4

Paper 5

Paper 6

Paper 7

Paper 8

Paper 9

Paper 10

Paper 11

A Grade 85 % -100 % ,

B Grade 70% -84.99 % ,

C Grade 55% -69.99%

D Grade 40 % -54.55%

126
 IISGNII
Chandresh Agrawal’s
9 Golden Principles of Success
1. Build Your physical strength and strictly say no to all
addictions.
2. Build your mental strength. This can be done by reading
good books, Pranayam etc.
3. Build your spiritual strength. This can be done by reading
religious and spiritual books, attending discourses,
Meditation etc.
4. Work hard, work intelligently and work with full enthusiasm
& with ethics.
5. Try to excel in your chosen field. Learn intricacies of the
profession.
6. Follow basic ethics of human life like honesty, commitment
to your relationships, good character and so on.
7. Serve your parents and elders. The blessings of parents
help you in sailing through your tough times of life.
8. Spend time and money for weaker sections of the society
like old age persons, orphanages, poor people, disabled
persons. Spare some time for birds, animals and aquatic
animals. Give some time to plants and trees also.
9. Believe in Shrimad Bhagwat Geeta’s Karm Yoga principle.
Make full efforts without any Aasakti and remain sum in
Siddhi / Asiddhi i.e. remain cool and calm whether you get
or you don’t get success in the last. See what were the
mistakes made by you and next time make those
corrections and again start your journey. You are bound to
get success in your next endeavour if you follow all above
principles.

127
 BON
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY

Name of the post Agriculture Engineer, Gujarat Agriculture Service, Class-2 , Agriculture, Farmers
Welfare and Co-Operation Department
Advertisement No. 144/2024-25
Preliminary Test Held On 13-09-2025
Que. No 001-300
Publish Date 22-09-2025
Last Date to Send Suggestion (s) 25-09-2025
THE LINK FOR ONLINE OBJECTION SYSTEM WILL START FROM 23-09-2025; 10:00 AM ONWARDS

Instructions / સ ૂચના
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections shall not be considered: -
(1) Candidates have to pay fees of Rs.100/- for each objection. The fees can be paid from the link given herewith.

(2) The Candidate will be able to submit objection only after payment of the fees. The generation of the receipt will only be
considered as final submission.
(3) The Candidate must retain the receipt of the payment of the fees. The fees, once paid, will not be refunded under any
circumstances.
(4) All the objections should be submitted through ONLINE OBJECTION SUBMISSION SYSTEM only. Physical or
submission through any other means will not be considered.
(5) All objections are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper published with provisional answer key,
published herewith on the website / online objection submission system. Objections should be sent referring to the
Question No. & options of the Master Question Paper. Objections regarding question nos. and options other than
provisional answer key (Master Question Paper) shall not be considered.
(6) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the responses given by him in his
answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if responses given in the answer sheet /response sheet and
submitted objections are differed.
(7) Supportive document to the objection must be uploaded, without which objection will not be considered.

ઉમેદવારે નીચેની સ ૂચનાઓન ું પાલન કરવાની તકેદારી રાખવી, અન્યથા વાુંધા-સ ૂચન અંગે કરે લ રજૂઆતો ધ્યાને લેવાશે નહીં

(1) ઉમેદવારે દરે ક વાાંધા દીઠ રૂપિયા ૧૦૦/-ફી ભરવાની રહેશે. જે ફી આ સાથે આિેલ લીંક ઉિરથી ભરી શકાશે.

(2) ફી ભયાા બાદ જ વાાંધો સબમીટ થઈ શક્શે. ફી ભયાાની આખરી િહોંચ જ આખરી સબમીશન ગણાશે.

(3) ફી ભયાા ની િહોંચ ઉમેદવારે સાચવી રાખવાની રહેશે. એક વાર ભરે લ ફી કોઈ િણ િરરસ્થથપિમાાં િરિ આિવામાાં આવશે નરહ.

(4) વાાંધા ફક્િ ઓનલાઈન ઓબ્જેકશન સબમીશન સીસ્ટમ દ્વારા જ સબમીટ કરવાના રહેશે. રૂબરૂ, ટિાલ અથવા ઈ-મેઈલ કે અન્ય કોઈ રીિે
આયોગને મોકલવામાાં આવેલ વાાંધા ધ્યાને લેવામાાં આવશે નહીં, જેની ખાસ નોંધ લેવી.

(5) ઉમેદવારે િોિાને િરીક્ષામાાં મળે લ પ્રશ્નપુસ્થિકામાાં છિાયેલ પ્રશ્નક્રમાાંક મુજબ વાાંધા-સ ૂચનો રજૂ ન કરિાાં, િમામ વાાંધા-સ ૂચનો વેબસાઈટ િર
પ્રપસધ્ધ થયેલ પ્રોપવઝનલ આન્સર કી (માથટર પ્રશ્નિત્ર) ના પ્રશ્નક્રમાાંક મુજબ અને િે સાંદભામાાં રજૂ કરવા. માથટર પ્રશ્નિત્રમાાં પનરદિ ષ્ટ પ્રશ્ન અને
પવકલ્િ પસવાયના વાાંધા ધ્યાને લેવામાાં આવશે નહીં.

(6) ઉમેદવારે પ્રશ્નના પવકલ્િ િર વાાંધો રજૂ કરે લ છે અને પવકલ્િ રૂિે જે જવાબ સ ૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવારે િોિાની ઉત્તરવહીમાાં આિેલ હોવો
જોઈએ. ઉમેદવારે સ ૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉત્તરવહીનો જવાબ ભભન્ન હશે િો ઉમેદવારે રજૂ કરે લ વાાંધા ધ્યાને લેવાશે નહીં.

(7) વાાંધા માટે સાંદભા જોડવો આવશ્યક છે , જેના પવના વાાંધો ધ્યાને લેવામાાં આવશે નહીં.

Website link for online objection submission system: [Link]

128
M

101. According to Indian Standard Specifications, a grey cast iron designated by 'FG 200'
means that_____.
(A) Carbon content is 2%
(B) Maximum compressive strength is 200 N/mm2
(C) Minimum tensile strength is 200 N/mm2
(D) Maximum shear strength is 200 N/mm2

102. Thermoplastic materials are those materials which________.

(A) Are formed into shape under heat and pressure and results in a permanently hard
product
(B) Do not become hard with the application of heat and pressure and no chemical change
occurs
(C) Are flexible and can withstand considerable wear under suitable conditions
(D) Are used as a friction lining for clutches and brakes

103. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is called _______.
(A) Lower critical temperature
(B) Upper critical temperature
(C) Eutectic temperature
(D) Recrystallisation temperature

104. Which of the following is not a physical property of agricultural materials?

(A) Bulk Density (B) Porosity
(C) Viscosity (D) Size

105. For longitudinal joint in boilers, the type of joint used is ______.
(A) Lap joint with one ring overlapping the other
(B) Butt joint with single cover plate
(C) Butt joint with double cover plates
(D) Lap joint with two rings overlapping the other

106. A double fillet welded joint with parallel fillet weld of length ‘l’ and leg ‘s’ is subjected to a
tensile force ‘P’. Assuming uniform stress distribution, the shear stress in the weld is given
by ________.

P
(A) (B)
2sl
2P
(C) (D)
sl

24 | [BON] [Contd.
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 M

107. The parallel fillet welded joint is designed for _______.

(A) Tensile strength
(B) Compressive strength
(C) Bending strength
(D) Shear strength

108. The fluid whose viscosity increases with continued shear stress is called as ______.
(A) Thixotropic
(B) Rheopectic fluid
(C) Dilatant fluid
(D) Pseudoplastic fluid

109. According to the Central Motor Vehicle Rules (1989), which of the following statements
regarding an Agricultural Tractor is correct?
(A) It is considered as a transport vehicle.
(B) It is defined as a 2-wheel drive machine for agricultural purposes.
(C) It is a non-transport vehicle designed for field operations and hauling agricultural
materials.
(D) It is categorized under construction equipment vehicles

110. What is the maximum speed permitted for a power tiller coupled to a trailer under the
Central Motor Vehicle Rules?
(A) 12 km/h (B) 20 km/h
(C) 22 km/h (D) 25 km/h

111. 
The relation between the pitch of the chain (p) and pitch circle diameter of the
sprocket (D) is given by ________

(A) p = D sin (B) p = D sin

(C) p = D sin (D) p = D sin

112. The width of the pulley should be ________.

(A) Equal to the width of belt
(B) Less than the width of belt
(C) Greater than the width of belt
(D) Two times the width of belt

[BON] P.T.O.] | 25
130
M

113. In helical gears, the distance between similar faces of adjacent teeth along a helix on the
pitch cylinders normal to the teeth is called ________.
(A) Normal pitch
(B) Axial pitch
(C) Diametral pitch
(D) Module

114. The face angle of a bevel gear is equal to _______.

(A) Pitch angle – addendum angle
(B) Pitch angle + addendum angle
(C) Pitch angle – dedendum angle
(D) Pitch angle + dedendum angle

115. Which of the following statements is wrong for a connecting rod?

(A) The connecting rod will be equally strong in buckling about X-axis, if Ixx = 4 Iyy

(B) If Ixx > 4Iyy, then the buckling will occur about Y-axis

(C) If Ixx < 4Iyy, then the buckling will occur about X-axis
(D) The most suitable section for the connecting rod is T-section

116. For diesel engines, the recommended Cetane number differs by engine type. Which of the
following is correct?
(A) High speed diesel engine – 30; Medium speed – 40-42; Large slow speed – 45-50
(B) High speed diesel engine – 45-50; Medium speed – 40-42; Large slow speed – 30
(C) High speed diesel engine – 40-42; Medium speed – 30; Large slow speed – 50-55
(D) High speed diesel engine – 50-55; Medium speed – 45-50; Large slow speed – 35-40

117. The hammer mills are operated at high speeds usually in the range of _____ .
(A) 1500 to 4000 RPM
(B) 1000 to 2000 RPM
(C) 500 to 1500 RPM
(D) 4000 to 6000 RPM

26 | [BON] [Contd.
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 M

118. Which is the performance indicator for harvesting machinery?

(A) Field efficiency
(B) Plant population
(C) Cutter blade angle
(D) Pulverization index

119. A tractor operating in a field uses a diesel fuel with Cetane number 48 and Sulfur content 0.5%.
During emission testing, the tractor shows increased knocking and higher particulate
matter (PM). Which of the following best explains the result?
(A) Cetane number is too high, leading to premature ignition and higher PM
(B) Sulfur content is excessive, causing corrosive compounds and particulate matter
(C) Cetane number is acceptable, but low volatility causes incomplete burning
(D) Both Cetane and Sulfur values are within the standard limits, so other engine defects
must be the cause.

120. ________is used to determine the belt or brake power of an engine.

(A) Prony brake dynamometer
(B) Electrical dynamometer
(C) Drawbar dynamometer
(D) Hydraulic dynamometer

121. If a tractor operator accidentally reverses battery polarity while charging, which of the
following is most likely to happen?
(A) Water electrolysis produces excess oxygen at negative plates
(B) Battery chemical action is reversed, destroying active materials
(C) Acid concentration increases abnormally, raising specific gravity
(D) It only reduces charging efficiency, but does not cause any damage

122. How many hectares per day of 10 hours can be cut combined with 4 meter cutter bar,
when it is running at 4 km/hr?
(A) 16 ha (B) 40 ha
(C) 10 ha (D) 160 ha

[BON] P.T.O.] | 27
132
M

123. A tractor shows excessive fuel consumption in field conditions. The engine and injectors
are in proper condition, and valve clearance is already adjusted. Which field-related
factor is most responsible?
(A) Use of thicker grade oil
(B) Wheel slip is more
(C) Incorrect oil in sump
(D) Loose fan belt

124. A turbine pump is running, but no water is being delivered. Which of the following is the
most probable cause?
(A) Pump speed is too low
(B) Pump is not primed
(C) Suction pipe has a small air leak
(D) Packing is too tight

125. The mass rainfall curve is drawn as a plot of______.

(A) Accumulated rainfall intensity Vs time
(B) Rainfall intensity Vs time
(C) Rainfall volume Vs time
(D) Accumulated rainfall depth Vs time in a chronological order

126. What is the correct formula used to determine the nominal width (W) of a seed drill
during calibration?
m
(A) W = (B) W = m + s
s
s
(C) W = m × s (D) W =
m
127. The special arrangement of gears to permit one of the rear wheels of the tractor to rotate
slower or faster than the other is _______.
(A) Torque converter
(B) Differential
(C) Hydraulic control system
(D) Three point linkage

128. Which treatment in drip irrigation is performed to inhibit the growth of organisms like
algae and bacteria?
(A) Sulphur (B) Chlorine
(C) Potassium (D) Phosphorus

28 | [BON] [Contd.
133
 M

129. If ‘A’ is the quantity of total threshed grain received at all outlets, G is the quantity of
clean grain obtained at the main grain outlet and C is the quantity of clean grain obtained
at all outlets per unit time, then cleaning efficiency of thresher is defined as_______.
G C
(A) × 100 (B) × 100
A G
G C
(C) × 100 (D) × 100
C A
130. During calibration of a seed cum fertilizer drill, a 1 meter sticky belt is used to ensure
uniformity in seed and fertilizer discharge. If the seed metering mechanism is run for a
time ‘t’ at speed ‘N’ RPM and the total seed collected on the belt is 200 grams, then which
of the following is the correct method to determine the seed rate per hectare (in kg/ha),
assuming drill width is 1.5 m and ground wheel diameter is 0.5 m ?
200 × 10000 200 × 10000
(A) (B)
π × 0.5 × N × t × 1.5 N × t × 1.5

200 × N × t × 1.5 200× π × 0.5 × N × t

(C) (D)
10000 10000 × 1.5

131. During threshing, a farmer notices excessive grain breakage and low threshing efficiency,
based on the standard trouble shooting practices and installation guidelines. Which of the
following is the most appropriate corrective action?
(A) Increase concave clearance & reduce drum speed
(B) Tighten all belts & increase blower speed
(C) Decrease concave clearance & reduce feed rate
(D) Increase drum speed & reduce blower speed

132. Turbocharger helps in increasing the engine efficiency by ______.

(A) Utilizes the waste power of the exhaust of an engine
(B) Reducing exhaust pressure
(C) Cooling combustion chamber
(D) Reducing engine size

133. Most of the indigenous tractors are fitted with _____ gear box.
(A) Sliding mesh
(B) Constant mesh
(C) Synchronous mesh
(D) Transmission mesh

[BON] P.T.O.] | 29
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M

134. Wind is one of the limiting factor for ____________ irrigation.

(A) Drip (B) Sprinkler
(C) Basin (D) Border

135. Which of the following is not a function of lubricating oil?

(A) Cooling of radiator
(B) Cleaning of engine parts
(C) Reducing friction
(D) Sealing piston rings

136. Which of the following is a property of diesel oil that affects combustion quality?
(A) Viscosity index
(B) Cetane number
(C) Flash point
(D) Specific gravity

137. Firing interval for a two-stroke engine is determined by the formula

360° 180°
(A) (B)
No. of cylinders No. of cylinders
720°
(C) (D) 90° × No. of cylinders
No. of cylinders
138. Which type of governor is most suitable for the engines with widely varying load?
(A) Mechanical governor
(B) Pneumatic governor
(C) Hydraulic governor
(D) Centrifugal governor

139. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes intrinsic permeability from
hydraulic conductivity of soil?
(A) Intrinsic permeability depends on both soil and water properties, while hydraulic
conductivity depends only on soil structure
(B) 
Intrinsic permeability is a property of the soil medium itself, while hydraulic
conductivity also depends on the properties of the fluid
(C) 
Intrinsic permeability is expressed in cm/hr, while hydraulic conductivity is
dimensionless
(D) 
Both intrinsic permeability and hydraulic conductivity mean the same and are
interchangeable

30 | [BON] [Contd.
135
 M

140. Ballasting in tractor is required to ______.

(A) Improve traction
(B) Reduce noise
(C) Increase steering ease
(D) Cool the transmission

141. The field test for tractors includes ______.

(A) Valve timing
(B) Actual load testing under field conditions
(C) Oil level check
(D) Headlight alignment

142. The factors which influence the design of an air screen grain cleaner are classified into
material factors, machine and operational factors. Which of the following are not the
machine and operational factors?
(A) Feeding mechanism
(B) Size of screen surface
(C) Shape of the opening
(D) Stickiness and abrasiveness

143. Which of the following site conditions makes sprinkler irrigation most suitable compared
to surface irrigation?
(A) Heavy clay soils with low infiltration rate
(B) Flat lands with deep soil profile
(C) Steep and undulating topography with porous soils
(D) Rice fields with standing water requirement

144. In general, the major component of water requirement of crop is the _______.
(A) Pre-sowing irrigation
(B) Evapotranspiration
(C) Leaching requirement
(D) Deep percolation from crop root zone

145. 
If a combine harvester’s concave clearance is too wide, then what is the likely effect?
(A) Grain will be threshed completely
(B) Crop won’t thresh completely
(C) More grain will break
(D) Less power will be consumed

[BON] P.T.O.] | 31
136
M

146. A farmer in a region with wetland paddy fields, low capital and small landholding is
looking for a suitable mechanization option. Considering operational suitability, purchase
and repair cost and field conditions, which option is most appropriate and why?
(A) Tractor, because it supports hydraulic implements and long-distance transport
(B) Tractor, due to its higher comfort and less vibration
(C) Power tiller, due to its better wetland performance and lower initial and repair cost
(D) Power tiller, due to its high weight and four-wheel traction in muddy fields

147. During a 30‑min test, nozzle discharge measured by tubing into a container totals 420 L, but
catch‑cans collect 375 L over the same area/time. What best explains the 45 L difference?
(A) Infiltration into the soil during the test
(B) Evaporation and wind drift losses during sprinkling
(C) Gauge calibration error only
(D) Pressure gauge hysteresis

148. What does the Fire Point of diesel fuel indicate, and at what approximate temperature it
is generally observed?
(A) Minimum temperature at which diesel starts vaporizing; 60°C
(B) Temperature at which fuel emits vapor that ignites momentarily; 130°C
(C) Temperature at which fuel continues to burn after ignition for at least 5 seconds;
130°C
(D) Maximum safe storage temperature of diesel fuel; 100°C

149. During routine inspection of a mechanical internal expanding brake system on a tractor,
it is observed that braking becomes inconsistent and ineffective over time. Suggest which
of the following is the correct sequence of checks and adjustments recommended before
replacing the parts?
(A) Check fluid level → adjust master cylinder → replace linings
(B) Inspect wear-on shoes → check spring tension → lubricate pedal joints → adjust cam
(C) Tighten the brake pedal → bleed hydraulic line → replace return spring
(D) Adjust brake pedal height → rotate drum → check tire pressure → replace oil seals

32 | [BON] [Contd.
137
 M

150. A diesel engine is showing the following symptoms:

Starting is difficult in cold conditions, white exhaust smoke appears intermittently and
the engine knocks at idle speed.
What is the most likely combination of causes, and what is the correct set of remedies on
above symptoms?
(A) Fuel injection timing is incorrect, air cleaner is clogged; remedy- clean air filter, adjust
injection timing
(B) Valve clearance is too small, nozzle is defective; remedy-replace nozzle, adjust valve
clearance
(C) Improper fuel quality, incorrect valve clearance; remedy-change fuel, check and reset
clearance
(D) Cold starting aid defective, compression pressure low; remedy-check heater plugs,
overhaul cylinder head

151. A technician checks the electrolyte in a tractor battery using a hydrometer and finds a
specific gravity of 1.175 at 27°C. According to the battery maintenance table, what is the
state of charge of the battery, and what action should be taken?
(A) 100 % charged — battery is ready for use
(B) 50 % charged — recharge the battery
(C) 75 % charged — use only for light duty
(D) Below 25 % charged — discard the battery

152. What is the main function of a governor in a tractor diesel engine fuel system?
(A) To increase the engine compression at higher speeds
(B) To maintain a constant engine speed by controlling fuel delivery
(C) To control the air-fuel ratio for complete combustion
(D) To regulate fuel injection pressure in each cylinder

153. When applied to the reduction in size of globules of immiscible liquids (for example oil
globules in water), size reduction is more frequently referred to as ______.
(A) Homogenization
(B) Emulsification
(C) Pasteurization
(D) Both (A) and (B)

[BON] P.T.O.] | 33
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M

154. During a sprinkler test, it was observed that water started moving over the soil surface
before being absorbed, even though the nozzles were operated at manufacturer-
recommended pressure. The most likely cause is ______.
(A) Low wind velocity during operation
(B) Spacing between laterals was too small
(C) Application rate exceeding soil infiltration rate
(D) Catch cans were placed at lower elevation than crop canopy

155. In estimating crop evapotranspiration using empirical methods such as Blaney-Criddle,
Thornthwaite and Hargreaves, which of the following statements is most accurate?
(A) These methods are primarily suitable for daily calculations
(B) These methods are calibrated for hourly variations in ET
(C) These methods are generally applied for 10 day and monthly estimates
(D) These methods are only valid for seasonal totals

156. 
Remote sensing is crucial in agriculture for automated crop stress detection by
combining __________.
(A) Visual photo interpretation only
(B) GIS overlay of soil maps only
(C) Spectral indices (NDVI) + machine learning + VRT
(D) Manual ground surveys every season

157. What is the main function of reaper machinery?

(A) Harvesting cereal crops at ground level
(B) Binding crops into bundles
(C) Transporting harvested crops
(D) Removing chaff from grains

158. If grain is observed to be going along with the straw in thresher output, what should be
adjusted first?
(A) Increase concave clearance
(B) Reduce sieve slope
(C) Decrease blower speed
(D) Reduce cylinder speed

34 | [BON] [Contd.
139
 M

159. A farmer uses a rotary duster in a 2-hectare field. After several operations, dust output
reduces drastically. What will be the most probable technical cause?
(A) Faulty mixing ratio of pesticide
(B) Ruptured delivery pipe
(C) Clogging of the holes in the wire gauge
(D) Improper pressure in tank

160. Ultra low volume (ULV) sprayers typically apply pesticide at the rate of _______
(A) More than 150 L/ha
(B) 10-150 L/ha
(C) 1-10 L/ha
(D) Less than 1 L/ha

161. Sphericity of an agricultural particle is defined as ______.

(A) Ratio of the largest intercept of the particle to the smallest intercept
(B) Ratio of the diameter of a sphere having the same volume as the particle to the diameter
of the smallest circumscribing sphere
(C) Ratio of the projected area to the area of smallest circumscribing circle
(D) Ratio of radius of curvature at the sharpest corner to the mean radius of the particle

162. What is a typical application of a capacitor-start, single-phase motor in agriculture?

(A) Tractors
(B) Solar dryers
(C) Small centrifugal water pumps
(D) Wind turbines

163. The specific heat of wet agricultural grain above 8 % moisture content is given by _____.
(A) Product of specific heat of dry matter and water
(B) Sum of specific heat of dry matter and water, independent of moisture content
(C) Weighted sum of specific heat of bone dry material and water, based on moisture
content
(D) Equal to 1 kcal/kg°C irrespective of moisture

164. 
In subsurface drainage, the pipe drains are installed underground at depths
into _________.
(A) 1 m to 3 m (B) 3 m to 5 m
(C) above 5 m (D) upto 1 m

[BON] P.T.O.] | 35
140
M

165. Sodium Adsorption Ratio (SAR) is given by _________.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

166. __________ is the removal of soluble salts from the soil by passage of water through it.
(A) Seepage (B) Infiltration
(C) Leaching (D) Percolation

167. The most hazardous element in the irrigation water in relation to crop growth and
production is __________.
(A) Potassium (B) Calcium
(C) Sodium (D) Magnesium

168. _________ is a circular cutting age provided at the bottom of the steining for sinking of
open well.
(A) Well Curb (B) Well Cap
(C) Well Lining (D) Well Collar

169. Tensiometer installed in soils measures __________.

(A) Osmotic section of soil moisture
(B) Soil moisture content
(C) Capillary potential of the soil
(D) Drying rate

170. In deep litter poultry housing, a floor area usually provided is______ sq.m per bird.
(A) 0.26 sq. m (B) 0.36 sq.m
(C) 0.85 sq. m (D) 0.75 sq. m

171. _____ is a renewable and sustainable fuel produced through the anaerobic digestion of
organic materials in the absence of oxygen.
(A) Ethane gas (B) Propane gas
(C) Biogas (D) Butane gas

36 | [BON] [Contd.
141
 M

172. The basic formula for calculating discharge through a weir is ________.
(A) Q = CLHm (B) Q = CLH1/2m
(C) Q = CLH0.5m (D) Q = CLH2m

173. The relation between duty and delta is given by ________.

b d
(A) D = 8.6 (B) D = 8.6
d b
b d
(C) D = 6.8 (D) D = 6.8
d b
174. 
Suppose a centrifugal compressor is used instead of a reciprocating compressor in
a refrigeration system of capacity 500 tons. Which of the following statements is most
logical?
(A) The system will require more space but smoother operation compared to reciprocating
compressor
(B) The system will require less space but will be prone to high vibration levels
(C) The system will reduce the COP because centrifugal compressors cannot handle large
tonnage
(D) The choice of the compressor type does not affect the operation of the system

175. The Water Distribution Efficiency is given by ___________.

(A) Ed = 100 (B) Ed = 100

(C) Ed = 100 (D) Ed = 100

176. Centrifugal compressors suitable for large tonnage ( > 300 tons), provide air at 35°C
(dry bulb) and 25°C (wet bulb) is used for drying. Which of the following statements is
most correct?
(A) Relative humidity of the air is high, drying rate will be more
(B) Relative humidity of the air is low, drying rate will be more
(C) Relative humidity is high, drying rate will be less
(D) Relative humidity is low, drying rate will be less

177. In sprinkler irrigation, the Uniformity Coefficient is given by _________.

x x
(A) Cu = 100 (1.0 – ) (B) Cu = 100 (1.0 – m/n)
m
x x
(C) Cu = 100 (1.0 – n ) (D) Cu = 100 (1.0 – m n )

[BON] P.T.O.] | 37
142
M

178. In sprinkler irrigation method, it is recommended that the total pressure, when practicable
should not be more than _____ of the total pressure.
(A) 40 % (B) 30 %
(C) 10 % (D) 20 %
179. Darcy equation for determining discharge through pipeline is given by _______.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

180. 
Which of the following is an advantage of microwave and radiofrequency heating
compared to conventional hot air drying?
(A) High heat damage on the food surface
(B) Food surface overheats while interior remains cold
(C) Heating is rapid and uniform without combustion by-products
(D) Metals absorb microwave energy and aid in uniform heating

181. Why is CAS/MAS (Controlled or Modified Atmosphere Storage) is not universally used
for all crops?
(A) It requires too much refrigeration power
(B) It causes fruits to lose weight rapidly
(C) Different crops require different gas compositions, making combined storage difficult
(D) High humidity reduces freshness of stored crops

182. Which of the following best represents the physical meaning of the Nusselt number (Nu)?
(A) Ratio of conduction resistance to convection resistance
(B) Ratio of convective to conductive heat transfer across a fluid layer
(C) Ratio of surface area to thermal conductivity
(D) Ratio of Reynolds number to Prandtl number

183. Rating curve for stream discharge are the relationships between the _____
(A) Velocity and depth of flow
(B) Discharge and velocity of flow
(C) Discharge and stage of flow
(D) Discharge and depth of flow

38 | [BON] [Contd.
143
 M

184. A 4-h storm hydrograph has a 6 cm volume of direct runoff. The 4-h unit hydrograph for
this storm can be obtained by dividing the ordinate of the storm hydrograph by _____
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 4 (D) 6

185. 
_____ is a thermo-chemical process that converts organic material into syngas or
synthesis gas.
(A) Biomass gasification
(B) Hydrogasification
(C) Plasma gasification
(D) Ultra gasification

186. The Ryves formula is used for the determination of _____.

(A) Periodic runoff
(B) Peak discharge
(C) Monthly runoff
(D) Daily runoff

187. The USLE is primarily recommended for the calculation of soil erosion from _____
(A) Large watersheds as per storm basis
(B) Small watershed on yearly basis
(C) Small watershed as per storm basis
(D) Sediment flow in rivers and not in soil erosion

188. Depending on the amount and distribution of rainfall, watershed characteristics, runoff
coefficient and crop water requirement, the Water Harvesting ratio (WHr) varies
from _______
(A) 2:5 to 10:40 (B) 1:5 to 1:40
(C) 1:2 to 1:6 (D) 1:10 to 1:50

189. LUCC-VIII lands are recommended for _____

(A) Grassland farming
(B) Horticultural plantation
(C) Wildlife conservation
(D) Cultivation with conservation treatment

[BON] P.T.O.] | 39
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M

190. As the air flow rate increases in a packed bed, a stage is reached when the bed begins to
expand by about 10% in volume. This stage is called the ______
(A) Critical stage
(B) Threshold stage
(C) Quiescent stage
(D) Slugging stage

191. When blending ethanol with gasoline to use as an alternate liquid fuel, which factor
primarily influences the extent to which ethanol can replace gasoline without causing
major modifications in the engine?
(A) The difference in auto-ignition temperature between ethanol and gasoline
(B) The difference in latent heat of vaporization between ethanol and gasoline
(C) The difference in octane number between ethanol and gasoline
(D) The difference in boiling range between ethanol and gasoline

192. ______ is also known as Rill erosion.

(A) Micro erosion
(B) Path erosion
(C) Micro channel erosion
(D) Gully erosion

193. ______ is printed on the consumer packs for laser reading at retail checkout .
(A) Universal Print Code
(B) Universal Product Code
(C) Batch Number
(D) All of the above

194. The difference between desorption and adsorption curves is known as ______ .
(A) Equilibrium moisture content
(B) Psychrometry
(C) Hysteresis
(D) None of the above

195. Mathematically, vacuum pressure is equal to _____

(A) Absolute pressure plus Atmospheric pressure
(B) Atmospheric pressure minus Absolute pressure
(C) Gauge pressure plus Absolute pressure
(D) Absolute pressure

40 | [BON] [Contd.
145
 M

196. Which of the following locations would be most inappropriate for placing a septic tank in
a farmstead?
(A) 35 meters downhill from a well with good percolating soil
(B) 12 meters downhill from a well, where groundwater is high
(C) 25 meters from residence in a well-drained, elevated site
(D) 15 meters from residence on a gentle slope with no flooding issues

197. A farmer plans to build a stanchion barn for milch cows in a hilly area with limited space
and frequent rains. Which of the following layouts would be most logical for effective
supervision, manure management, and protection from the weather?
(A) Face-in type with open sheds and external manure alley
(B) Face-out type with enclosed walls and central drive
(C) Loose housing system with paved open court and drain outside
(D) Face-in type without any central drive and side entry only

198. Moisture migration in stored food grains occurs owing to the changes in ______.
(A) Air flow (B) Pressure
(C) Light (D) Temperature

199. Which of the following features makes the Bukhari type grain storage structure effective
in rat prevention?
(A) Elevated conical roof with thatching material
(B) Use of wooden planks for all walls
(C) Sealing of openings with wood and mud
(D) Use of rat-proofing cones on the supporting pillars

200. The function of grass waterway is to______.

(A) Check the soil erosion
(B) Act as an outlet for terrace area
(C) Deliver the runoff
(D) Stabilize the swampy land

201. Which multimedia component is least important for the real-time field monitoring in
precision agriculture?
(A) Audio sensors
(B) Video feed
(C) Static images
(D) Real-time data logging

[BON] P.T.O.] | 41
146
M

202. What is the main purpose of aeration in water treatment?

(A) To reduce water hardness
(B) To remove suspended solids
(C) To remove taste and odour-causing substances
(D) To disinfect water from microorganisms

203. The Bond’s Work Index (Wi) is defined as______.

(A) The energy required to reduce a feed size such that 100% passes through 100 µm
screen
(B) The gross energy in kWh per tonne needed to reduce a very large feed to such a size
that 80% passes through 100µm screen
(C) The constant depending on only machine speed
(D) The power per hour needed to reduce wheat to flour size

204. If the magnesium content in a water sample is 100 mg/l and sulphate is 200 mg/l, then is
the water acceptable based on the BIS standards?
(A) Yes, because sulphate is below 250 mg/l and magnesium is below 125 mg/l
(B) No, because magnesium is above 30 mg/l
(C) Yes, because magnesium and sulphate balance each other
(D) No, because sulphate is above the permissible limit of 100 mg/l

205. Which of the following is the primary reason for why no internal stresses are developed
between steel and concrete in reinforced concrete during temperature fluctuations?
(A) Concrete has lower thermal conductivity than steel
(B) Concrete prevents oxidation of steel
(C) Both have similar coefficients of linear expansion
(D) Steel is coated to resist expansion

206. 
Which of the following is most likely to affect all three critical stages of concrete
performance; hydration, bond strength, and chemical reactivity?
(A) Clean quartz gravel
(B) Shingles from riverbeds
(C) Organic matter in fine aggregates
(D) Lime-rich Kankar stone

42 | [BON] [Contd.
147
 M

207. In a fluidised bed dryer, seeds with a density of 1200 kg/m3 are dried using hot air of
density 1.2 kg/m3. If the particle size is reduced by half while keeping air velocity constant,
then what is the most likely effect on fluidisation?
(A) Fluidisation becomes easier because drag force increases with smaller particles
(B) Fluidisation becomes difficult because weight per particle decreases
(C) Fluidisation remains unaffected because bed porosity dominates over particle size
(D) Slugging occurs due to reduced particle Reynolds number

208. What is the typical crushing strength range of a good quality building brick?
(A) 20 – 30 kg/cm2
(B) 35 – 50 kg/cm2
(C) 56 – 70 kg/cm2
(D) 75 – 90 kg/cm2

209. A farmer covers a greenhouse with two layers of polythene and notices reduced plant
growth. What is the most logical explanation?
(A) Increased insulation retains too much heat
(B) Decreased light transmission limits photosynthesis
(C) Humidity gets too high and inhibits transpiration
(D) Plants receive more UV radiation

210. According to Rittinger’s law, the energy required for size reduction is proportional
to ______.
(A) Volume of the material
(B) New surface area generated
(C) Log of feed/product size ratio
(D) Weight of the material

211. The most desirable soil structure for agriculture is __________.

(A) Granular (B) Single grain
(C) Massive (D) Compound

212. What is the main advantage of a lean-to design greenhouse?

(A) It requires additional heating system
(B) It minimizes sunlight exposure
(C) It shares a wall with an existing building, saving construction cost
(D) It is more suitable for hot and arid climates

[BON] P.T.O.] | 43
148
M

213. The unit of intensive permeability is ________.

(A) m2 (B) m3
(C) m–2 (D) m–3

214. Two ground products A and B have fineness modulus (FM) values of 3.5 and 2.5 respectively.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Has finer average particle size than B
(B) Has finer average particle size than A
(C) Both have equal average particle size
(D) FM does not relate to particle fineness

215. For elongated grains like paddy, which screen arrangement generally provides better
cleaning?
(A) Round hole top screen + round hole bottom screen
(B) Slotted top screen + slotted bottom screen
(C) Round hole top screen + slotted bottom screen
(D) Slotted top screen + round hole bottom screen

216. In a centrifugal discharge bucket elevator, efficient discharge of grains is primarily
achieved by________.
(A) Positive bucket tilting
(B) Centrifugal force acting at the pulley’s periphery
(C) Pressure difference between top and bottom pulleys
(D) Friction between belt and bucket walls

217. In a Zener diode voltage regulator, if the load resistance decreases, what happens to the
Zener current (Iz)?
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant
(D) Becomes zero

44 | [BON] [Contd.
149
 M

218. Rice bran obtained from a modern rubber roll type rice mill is preferred for oil extraction
because
(A) It contains maximum polish and endosperm
(B) It contains negligible husk contamination
(C) It has naturally low free fatty acid (FFA) content
(D) It contains higher tocopherol content

219. In microprocessor-based control systems for irrigation, what is primarily used to monitor
soil moisture?
(A) Thermistor
(B) Photodiode
(C) Capacitive sensor
(D) Strain gauge

220. Why is the psychrometric chart considered an essential tool in agricultural product
drying?
(A) It represents only the chemical composition of air
(B) It graphically relates thermal and physical properties of moist air
(C) It provides equations for centrifugal force in air flow
(D) It shows the molecular weight ratios of gas mixtures

221. If a raindrop of mass 0.001kg reaches its terminal velocity of 8m/s, then the kinetic energy
imparted to the soil surface by that drop is approximately_______.
(A) 0.032 J
(B) 0.004 J
(C) 0.5 J
(D) 0.08 J

222. The Wien Bridge Oscillator is best suited for generating which type of waveform?
(A) Square wave
(B) Sawtooth wave
(C) Sine wave
(D) Triangular wave

223. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with the annual rainfall region of India?
(A) Very high rainfall → Punjab plains and Western Rajasthan
(B) Moderate rainfall → Karnataka plateau and Western Deccan
(C) Low rainfall → Meghalaya and West Coast
(D) High rainfall → Ladakh plateau and Kutch

[BON] P.T.O.] | 45
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M

224. Which part of the microprocessor architecture performs arithmetic and logic operations?
(A) Control Unit
(B) Memory Unit
(C) ALU
(D) Register

225. The regular type cement sets within 10 hours and develops its full strength in __________
days if properly cured.
(A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 25 (D) 30

226. One of the key assumptions in the Unit Hydrograph Theory is______.
(A) Runoff is independent of rainfall intensity
(B) Rainfall of equal depth but different duration produces identical hydrographs
(C) Direct runoff hydrographs are linearly proportional to the rainfall excess
(D) Baseflow contribution is always zero

227. Bench terraces are constructed on land surface with ______.

(A) Mild slope
(B) Zero percent slope
(C) Steep slope
(D) Grassland

228. The diameter of tube-wells for irrigation and water supply ranges from _______.
(A) 45 to 50 cm
(B) 50 to 55 cm
(C) 15 to 45 cm
(D) 55 to 60 cm

229. The volume of water released or stored for unit surface area of the aquifer for per unit
change in the component of head normal to that surface is called ________.
(A) Specific storage
(B) Specific yield
(C) Specific retension
(D) None of the above

46 | [BON] [Contd.
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230. A family-type biogas plant of 2 m3 capacity has an energy conversion efficiency of 60%.
If 1 m3 biogas = 4700 kcal, then what is the useful energy obtained per day?
(A) 5640 kcal
(B) 7520 kcal
(C) (5640 × 2) kcal
(D) (4700 × 2 × 0.60) kcal

231. A farmer owns 50 ha of net cultivated area. In one year, he grows Wheat on 40 ha in rabi,
Rice on 35 ha in kharif, Vegetables on 10 ha as a third [Link] is the cropping intensity
of his farm?
(A) 160.5 % (B) 150 %
(C) 170.5 % (D) 180 %

232. Which of the following is the correct consequence of Betz’s limit in wind energy conversion?
(A) Maximum efficiency of a wind turbine is 100%
(B) Maximum extractable power from wind is 75%
(C) Only 59.3% of the wind power can be extracted
(D) Wind turbines convert entire wind energy into electricity

233. Which index is preferred to detect spatially variable crop water stress in precision
agriculture?
(A) NDVI (B) VCI
(C) EVI (D) SAVI

234. Which of the following statements about biomass gasifiers used for IC engines is correct?
(A) Gasifiers operate efficiently only with hardwood biomass
(B) Producer gas from gasification contains primarily methane
(C) Dual-fuel engines can operate with up to 85% substitution of diesel with producer gas
(D) Gasification does not require a purification system before use in engines

235. Which design factor does not directly contribute to the improved thermal efficiency in
improved cookstoves?
(A) Reduced surface-to-volume ratio
(B) Insulated combustion chamber
(C) Enhanced air turbulence and flow control
(D) Higher moisture content of biomass fuel

[BON] P.T.O.] | 47
152
M

236. Which type of electric motor is most suited for the variable speed operations such as feed
mixing or variable irrigation pumps?
(A) Synchronous motor
(B) DC shunt motor
(C) Three-phase induction motor
(D) Stepper motor

237. Which of the following factors is most critical in determining the energy output of a solar
photovoltaic system in rural farms?
(A) Altitude of location
(B) Angle of inclination with respect to latitude
(C) Soil moisture content
(D) Length of wire from module to load

238. Which multimedia component is least important for real-time field monitoring in precision
agriculture?
(A) Audio sensors
(B) Video feed
(C) Static images
(D) Real-time data logging

239. _________ is a renewable, biodegradable fuel manufactured domestically from vegetable

oils, animal fats or recycled restaurant grease.
(A) Diesel (B) Petrol
(C) Bio-alcohol (D) Biodiesel

240. Generally cow is fed about ________ silage per 100 kg body weight per day.
(A) 3 kg (B) 5 kg
(C) 7 kg (D) 10 kg

241. Which motor property is most essential for operating a centrifugal irrigation pump under
varying head conditions?
(A) Constant torque
(B) High starting torque
(C) Speed regulation
(D) Variable frequency control

48 | [BON] [Contd.
153
 M

242. Which electric motor is best suited for the frequent start-stop operations in seed cleaning
machines?
(A) Synchronous motor
(B) Universal motor
(C) DC series motor
(D) Capacitor-start induction motor

243. Which of the following parameters is least significant in determining the calorific value
of biogas?
(A) Methane content
(B) Hydrogen sulfide level
(C) Moisture in digested slurry
(D) Carbon dioxide content

244. 
Which component in a stand-alone PV system regulates battery charging to avoid
overcharging?
(A) Inverter
(B) MPPT controller
(C) Charge controller
(D) Circuit breaker

245. 
What is the major drawback of using a synchronous motor in rural agricultural
applications?
(A) High noise
(B) Low speed
(C) Requires external excitation and synchronization
(D) Excessive heating

246. For a dairy shed in Northern India, which orientation provides optimal animal comfort
year-round, balancing solar heat in winter and shading in summer?
(A) East–West
(B) North–South
(C) Northeast–Southwest
(D) South–North

[BON] P.T.O.] | 49
154
M

247. In robotic weeders, weed detection is usually performed by_______.

(A) Ultrasonic detectors
(B) Manual spotters
(C) Image processing with AI
(D) Temperature sensors

248. In a loose housing barn system, if floor space per cow is reduced below 6.5 m², then what
is the likely effect on health and productivity?
(A) Reduced feed intake
(B) Increased mastitis risk
(C) Increased aggression
(D) All of the above

249. Bernoulli’s theorem assumes which of the following conditions must be met throughout
the streamline?
(A) Flow is uniform, steady and compressible
(B) Flow is steady, incompressible and non-viscous
(C) Flow is irrotational, compressible and turbulent
(D) Flow has friction losses included

250. A diffuser is one of the components of ___________.

(A) Rotary pump
(B) Piston pump
(C) Hydraulic ram
(D) Centrifugal pump

251. In a hydroponic system, nutrient film technique (NFT) provides which of the following
advantages?
(A) High nutrient buffering
(B) No oxygenation required
(C) Easy root access to oxygen and nutrients
(D) Reduced temperature fluctuation

252. An AI-powered drone uses multispectral imaging to estimate crop nitrogen levels. Which
spectral band combination is most commonly used in vegetation indices like NDVI?
(A) Red and Blue
(B) Red and Near-Infrared
(C) Blue and Green
(D) Green and Red

50 | [BON] [Contd.
155
 M

253. A greenhouse is equipped with a CO2 enrichment system, maintaining 1000 ppm CO2 for
4 hours daily. What is the major expected outcome?
(A) Reduced stomatal conductance
(B) Delayed flowering
(C) Increased photosynthetic rate
(D) Reduced transpiration efficiency

254. Which of the following practices would result in maximum site-specific efficiency in
variable-rate fertilizer application?
(A) Manual broadcasting of fertilizer
(B) Tractor-mounted centrifugal spreader
(C) GPS enabled variable rate applicator
(D) Aerial spraying using fixed-wing aircraft

255. Which of the following would most affect NDVI readings in a multi-cropping system?
(A) Leaf area index
(B) Soil temperature
(C) Wind speed
(D) Root depth

256. Which type of erosion initiates due to the concentrated surface runoff forming narrow
channels that can be removed by tillage?
(A) Gully erosion
(B) Sheet erosion
(C) Rill erosion
(D) Splash erosion

257. Which of the following statements is logically correct regarding the adoption of automation
in small-scale farms in India?
(A) Full automation is cost-effective due to small plot size
(B) Manual labor is always better than automation
(C) Semi-automation with modular machines is more feasible
(D) AI-based solutions are too advanced for small farms

[BON] P.T.O.] | 51
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M

258. Which type of protected cultivation system would be most effective in a high-altitude area
with cold winds and high solar radiation?
(A) Low tunnel
(B) Shade net house
(C) Naturally ventilated greenhouse
(D) Polycarbonate covered greenhouse

259. A variable-rate sprayer adjusts nozzle flow based on crop canopy density detected by
sensors. What is the most suitable sensor type?
(A) Tensiometer
(B) Infrared canopy sensor
(C) Barometric sensor
(D) Pitot tube sensor

260. A farmer wants to reduce water usage in sugarcane cultivation while maintaining yield.
Which of the following is most appropriate?
(A) Overhead sprinkler irrigation
(B) Drip irrigation with fertigation
(C) Manual basin irrigation
(D) Furrow irrigation during noon

261. When designing a rectifier for maximum Transformer Utilization Factor (TUF) with
limited component redundancy, which topology achieves this optimally?
(A) Center-tapped fullwave rectifier
(B) Halfwave rectifier with shunt capacitor
(C) Bridge rectifier with full secondary utilization
(D) Zener-based clamping rectifier

262. In microprocessor-based control systems for irrigation, what is primarily used to monitor
soil moisture?
(A) Thermistor
(B) Photodiode
(C) Capacitive sensor
(D) Strain gauge

52 | [BON] [Contd.
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263. 
In supercritical fluid extraction (SFE), the most commonly used supercritical fluid
is ______
(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Methane

264. The maximum shear stress τmax for a soil mass is equal to ______.
(A) (σ1 – σ3)/2 (B) (σ1 × σ3)/2
(C) (σ1+ σ3)/2 (D) (σ3 + σ1)/2

265. Which of the following is NOT a typical transducer in agricultural instrumentation?

(A) LVDT (B) Thermistor
(C) LED (D) Piezosensor

266. An algorithm step checks soil moisture and triggers irrigation if below threshold. Which
flowchart symbol handles this logic?
(A) Rectangle (B) Parallelogram
(C) Diamond (D) Circle

267. A bin whose relative dimensions are such that the plane of rupture meets the grain surface
before it strikes the opposite side is
(A) Shallow bin (B) Deep bin
(C) Hopper bin (D) Storage bin

268. The removal of water from a substance by direct sublimation from the frozen state to the
vapour state is known as ______
(A) Evaporation
(B) Freeze drying
(C) Spray drying
(D) Dehydration

269. Which sensor is commonly used for measuring flow in agricultural irrigation channels?
(A) Thermistor
(B) LVDT
(C) Turbine flow meter
(D) Piezoelectric transducer

[BON] P.T.O.] | 53
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M

270. Which of the following holds instructions and data that is currently being used by
the CPU?
(A) Hard disk (B) RAM
(C) ROM (D) Cache only

271. ______ is an important heat process in the preparation of vegetables and fruits before
dehydration and canning/packaging.
(A) Blanching
(B) Sterilization
(C) Homogenization
(D) Evaporation

272. 
While designing a farmstead on undulating terrain with risk of surface runoff
contamination, what is the minimum safe distance the septic tank should be from the
water supply, assuming standard slope?
(A) 20 m (B) 25 m
(C) 30 m  (D) 35 m

273. 
The theoretical conveyance capacity of the screw conveyor can be given by the
equation _______.
(A) Q = 47.2 (D2 – d2) × p × n
(B) Q = 47.2 (D – d) × p × n
(C) Q = 45.2 (D2 + d2) × p × n
(D) Q = 3.14 × D × d × p × n

274. ________ represents water transmitting capability of the entire thickness of confined and
semi-confined aquifers.
(A) Hydraulic conductivity
(B) Transmissibility
(C) Transmissivity
(D) Specific yield

275. 
In arid zones where electricity is costly and unavailable, which greenhouse type is
most viable?
(A) Active (B) Passive
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

54 | [BON] [Contd.
159
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276. The ______ is very efficient device for the vertical conveyance of bulk grains.
(A) Belt conveyor
(B) Bucket elevator
(C) Screw conveyor
(D) Pneumatic conveyor

277. 
A ______ is an electrochemical device that converts chemical energy from a fuel
(like hydrogen) and an oxidizing agent (like oxygen) into electricity, with water and heat
as byproducts.
(A) Fuel cell
(B) Battery cell
(C) Natural cell
(D) Common cell

278. The major objective/s of the tempering-degerming method of dry milling is/are ______.
(A) To remove essentially all germs and hull so that endosperm contains as low fat and
fibre as possible.
(B) To recover a maximum amount of the endosperm as large clean grits without any
dark speck
(C) To recover a maximum amount of germ as large and pure particles.
(D) All of these

279. For optimal air circulation and solar interception in humid tropical climates, which
greenhouse shape is ideal?
(A) Sawtooth
(B) Quonset
(C) A-frame
(D) Gothic

280. A livestock building requires a ventilation rate of 10 m3/min per animal. A farmer installs
a fan that provides 600 m3/hr. How many animals can be properly ventilated?
(A) 60 (B) 10
(C) 1  (D) 6

[BON] P.T.O.] | 55
160
M

281. Which of the following types of filter consists of a horizontal cylinder which has the surface
divided into a series of shallow compartments, each covered in filter cloth and connected
to a central vacuum pump?
(A) Rotary vacuum disc filters
(B) Shell and leaf pressure filter
(C) Rotary drum filter
(D) All of these

282. Grain stored at 13% moisture Vs 9% recommended is more likely to experience which
immediate risk?
(A) Fungal growth
(B) Drying loss
(C) Mechanical damage
(D) Loss in protein content

283. Which of the following best explains why rice husk is difficult to use efficiently in
combustion-based bioenergy systems?
(A) Its moisture makes ignition difficult
(B) It has low carbon content
(C) Its silica-cellulose matrix increases slagging tendency at high temperature
(D) It does not flow easily due to fibrous nature

284. If a grain has higher porosity and lower bulk density, then which post-harvest property is
most likely to be adversely affected in a pneumatic conveying system?
(A) Conveyance rate
(B) Separation efficiency
(C) Settling velocity
(D) Thermal conductivity

285. During size reduction using a hammer mill, which parameter, if increased beyond the
optimal limit, will result in lower efficiency and higher energy consumption?
(A) Screen size
(B) Feed rate
(C) Rotor speed
(D) Moisture content

56 | [BON] [Contd.
161
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286. In drying, what does an abrupt change in the slope of drying rate curve typically indicate?
(A) Transition from constant rate to falling rate period
(B) Moisture reaches equilibrium
(C) Product reaches dew point
(D) Psychrometric temperature changes

287. A food product is packed using UHT and aseptic packaging. What is the main reason it
can be stored without refrigeration for months?
(A) Use of vacuum
(B) Low water activity
(C) Elimination of microbial spores
(D) Use of plastic instead of metal

288. In a centrifugal separator, how would changing the angular velocity (RPM) affect particle
separation of two materials of similar size but different densities?
(A) Heavier particles will move further outward
(B) Lighter particles will be retained
(C) Both particles settle at the same location
(D) Particle size affects separation, but not rpm

289. If the wet-bulb depression becomes zero during psychrometric observation, then what
does it imply about ambient air conditions?
(A) Air is saturated
(B) Air is superheated
(C) RH = 0%
(D) Dew point equals dry bulb

290. The continuity equation is represented by _____.

(A) A1V1 = A2V2
(B) ρ1A1 = ρ2A2
(C) ρ1A1V1 = ρ2A2 V2
(D) q1A1V1 = q2A2 V2

[BON] P.T.O.] | 57
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M

291. In cleaning and grading, the effectiveness of separation refers to_____.

(A) The speed at which the material is processed
(B) The degree to which different fractions are correctly separated
(C) The total quantity of product processed per hour
(D) The energy consumed during separation

292. The rate of heat conduction through a unit area of a material per unit thickness per unit
time per unit temperature gradient is called as _____.
(A) Thermal conductivity
(B) Heat flux
(C) Heat capacity
(D) Thermal inertia

293. Which of the following spaced bucket elevator is most commonly used for elevating
the grains?
(A) Centrifugal discharge elevators
(B) Positive-discharge elevators
(C) Marine leg elevators
(D) High-speed elevators

294. Moisture ratio in drying is defined by which of the following formula?

(A) (M – Me) / (Mo – Me )
(B) M / Mo
(C) Me / Mo
(D) (M – Mo) / Me

295. 
According to Bond’s law, work required for grinding a large size feed is directly
proportional to __________ of the surface to volume ratio of product.
(A) Cube root
(B) Square root
(C) Square
(D) Cube

296. Chilling is the unit operation in which the temperature of a food is reduced to ______
(A) – 1°C to 1°C (B) 1°C to 8°C.
(C) – 10°C to 1°C (D) Below 1°C

58 | [BON] [Contd.
163
 M

297. Thermal conductivity of agricultural products depends on ______.

(A) Moisture content
(B) Temperature
(C) Density
(D) All of the above

298. What type of food processing is commonly used with aseptic packaging to extend shelf life
for one year without being chilled?
(A) Pasteurization
(B) Fermentation
(C) Freeze-drying
(D) Ultra Heat Treatment (UHT)

299. Which type of microorganisms grows at temperature below 5°C and can spoil chilled
foods?
(A) Thermophilic
(B) Psychrotrophic
(C) Mesophilic
(D) Halophilic

300. __________ is the rate of heat flow through unit thickness of material per unit area normal
to the direction of heat flow and per unit time for unit temperature difference.
(A) Thermal conductivity
(B) Thermal diffusivity
(C) Electrical conductivity
(D) Internal friction

_______________

[BON] P.T.O.] | 59
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TCSiON CAE
Notations :
[Link] shown in green color and with icon are correct.
[Link] shown in red color and with icon are incorrect.

Question Paper Name : PC22124 AGRICULTURE ENGINEERING AEE 2212

Subject Name : PC22124 AGRICULTURE ENGINEERING AEE2212
Actual Answer Key : Yes
Calculator : None
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Ruler Required? : No
Eraser Required? : No
Scratch Pad Required? : No
Rough Sketch/Notepad Required? : No
Protractor Required? : No
Show Watermark on Console? : Yes
Highlighter : No
Auto Save on Console? Yes
Change Font Color : No
Change Background Color : No
Change Theme : No
Help Button : No
Show Reports : No
Show Progress Bar : No
Is this Group for Examiner? : No
Examiner permission : Cant View
Show Progress Bar? : No

Enable Mark as Answered Mark for Review and Clear Response : Yes
Maximum Instruction Time : 0
Is Section Default? : null

Question Number : 1 Question Id : 630680219260 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of surveying uses Global Positioning System (GPS)?
Options :
1. Photographic Surveying
2. Archaeological Surveying
3. Satellite-based Surveying
4. Plane Table Surveying

Question Number : 2 Question Id : 630680219261 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of surveying is also known as Directional Surveying?
Options :
1. Plane Table Surveying
2. Tacheometric Surveying 165
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3. Chain Surveying
4. Compass Surveying

Question Number : 3 Question Id : 630680219262 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
In which of the following types of surveying is the vertical distance measured?
Options :
1. Levelling
2. Chain Surveying
3. Plane Table Surveying
4. Photographic Surveying

Question Number : 4 Question Id : 630680219263 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
In which of the following angles do contour lines cross valley-lines?
Options :
1. 45°
2. 90°
3. 120°
4. 60°

Question Number : 5 Question Id : 630680219264 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about the sources of errors:

A. Instrumental errors are caused by flaws in the design or setup of surveying tools, as well as movement of the parts
B. Natural errors are brought on by sight, touch, and hearing in humans

Which of the above statements are correct?

Options :
1. Only A
2. Both A and B
3. Only B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 6 Question Id : 630680219265 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about Plane Table Surveying.

A. The alidade may simply have sight vanes attached to both ends, or it may have a telescope.
B. The magnetic meridian's direction is shown on the paper using a trough compass that has two bubble tubes set on a square metal
plate at right angles to one another.
C. To centre the table at a specific station, a plumbing fork with a plumb bob connected to one end is utilised.

Which of the statements are correct?

Options :
1. Only C
2. Only B and C
3. A, B and C
4. Only B
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Question Number : 7 Question Id : 630680219266 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0

Options :
1. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
2. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
3. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
4. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C

Question Number : 8 Question Id : 630680219267 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following pairs about compasses is incorrect?

A. Prismatic Compass: used to align with a target whose bearing needs to be ascertained.
B. Magnetic Compass: It is possible to calculate a line's magnetic bearings.
C. Surveyor Compass: Surveyors typically use this tool to measure vertical angles and to figure out the magnetic bearing of a line of
sight.
Options :
1. Only A
2. Only C
3. Both A and C
4. Only B

Question Number : 9 Question Id : 630680219268 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of fluids does not follow Newton's law of viscosity?
Options :
1. Newtonian Fluid
2. Ideal Plastic Fluid
3. Non-Newtonian Fluid
4. Real Fluid

Question Number : 10 Question Id : 630680219269 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
In which of the types of equilibrium of floating bodies does the Metacentre (M) coincides with the Centre of Gravity (G)?
Options :
1. Neutral Equilibrium
2. Unstable Equilibrium
3. Stable Equilibrium
4. Both Stable and Unstable Equilibrium

Question Number : 11 Question Id : 630680219270 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
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Which of the following flow lines represents the path that is followed by a particle released into the fluid?
Options :
1. Streak Lines
2. Path Lines
3. Time Lines
4. Stream Lines

Question Number : 12 Question Id : 630680219271 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following relations:

A. Total Head = Pressure Head

B. Total Head = Pressure Head + Velocity Head + Datum Head

Which of these relations are described by Bernoulli's Theorem?

Options :
1. Both A and B
2. Only B
3. Neither A nor B
4. Only A

Question Number : 13 Question Id : 630680219272 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following statements about the flow in pipes is correct?

A. Small diameter pipes with high viscosity fluid and slower flow rates exhibit laminar flow.
B. In large diameter pipes with rapid fluid flow, turbulent flow is more likely to develop.
Options :
1. Only B
2. Neither A nor B
3. Both A and B
4. Only A

Question Number : 14 Question Id : 630680219273 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements:

A. An opening provided in a tank's side that extends even above the liquid's free surface is referred to as a "notch."
B. Water flows over an orifice while water passes through a notch or weir.
C. A notch or weir is a barrier placed in a waterway to force the water to flow through it or over it by causing the water level to increase
behind it.

Identify the correct statement/statements.

Options :
1. Both A and B
2. Both A and C
3. Only B
4. A, B and C

Question Number : 15 Question Id : 630680219274 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
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Options :
1. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
2. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
3. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
4. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A

Question Number : 16 Question Id : 630680219275 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following pair/pairs related to the different depths in Open Channel Flow is correct?

A. Critical Depth: depth of water at which flow has minimum total specific energy for a given discharge
B. Supercritical Depth: depth of water which is greater than critical depth
C. Subcritical Depth: depth of water which is smaller than critical depth
Options :
1. Only A
2. A, B and C
3. Both B and C
4. Only C

Question Number : 17 Question Id : 630680219276 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Arrange the following Reynold's numbers in the increasing order of viscous forces:

1, 2, 4, 5

Note: The numbers are in the order of ten million.

Options :
1. 5<2<4<1
2. 1<2<4<5
3. 5<4<2<1
4. 1<4<2<5

Question Number : 18 Question Id : 630680219277 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following Atterberg's Limits is determined using Cone penetration method?
Options :
1. Liquid Limit
2. Shrinkage Limit
3. Plastic Limit
4. Plasticity Index

Question Number : 19 Question Id : 630680219278 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following relations about the quicksand condition is correct?
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Options :
1. Effective Stress = 0
2. Effective Stress > 1
3. Effective Stress < 1
4. Effective Stress = 1

Question Number : 20 Question Id : 630680219279 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following should be the shape of the space formed between two Flow Lines and two Equipotential Lines?
Options :
1. Elliptical
2. Square
3. Triangular
4. Circular

Question Number : 21 Question Id : 630680219280 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following shear tests of soil uses four steel blades at right angles to each other?
Options :
1. Triaxial Shear Test
2. Direct Shear Test
3. Unconfined Compression Test
4. Vane Shear Test

Question Number : 22 Question Id : 630680219281 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is NOT Heavy Compaction Equipment?
Options :
1. Pneumatic Tyred Roller
2. Smooth Wheeled Roller
3. Vibrating Plate Compactor
4. Sheepsfoot Roller

Question Number : 23 Question Id : 630680219282 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following two assumptions about Terzaghi's Theory of Consolidation:

A. Darcy's law is not valid

B. Soil particles and water are incompressible.

Identify the correct assumption/assumptions.

Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 24 Question Id : 630680219283 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
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Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements:

A. The Casagrande method determines the coefficient of consolidation at 50% consolidation

B. The Taylor method determines the coefficient of consolidation value at 90% consolidation
C. The Casagrande's method is also called the square root of time method
D. The Taylor's method is also called the logarithm of time method

Which of the following statements about the methods of determination of coefficient of consolidation is correct?
Options :
1. Both A and B
2. Only C
3. Both A and D
4. All of them

Question Number : 25 Question Id : 630680219284 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0

Options :
1. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
2. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
3. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
4. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B

Question Number : 26 Question Id : 630680219285 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0

Options :
1. Only A and C
2. Only B and C
3. Only C
4. A, B and C

Question Number : 27 Question Id : 630680219286 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following causes is responsible for buckling failure in Columns?
Options :
1. Length of the column is greater when compared with its lateral dimensions
2. Length of the column is smaller when compared with its lateral dimensions
3. Length of the column is unity 171
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4. Length of the column is equal when compared with its lateral dimensions

Question Number : 28 Question Id : 630680219287 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is a type of failure NOT seen in Masonry Dams?
Options :
1. Compression
2. Overturning
3. Sliding
4. Twisting

Question Number : 29 Question Id : 630680219288 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following statements gives the correct description about the Principle of superposition?
Options :
1. Deflection caused by a force can be added to the deflection caused by another force to get the deflection resulting from only one of
the forces being applied.
2. Deflection caused by a force can be multiplied to the deflection caused by another force to get the deflection resulting from both
the forces being applied.
3. Deflection caused by a force can be added to the deflection caused by another force to get the deflection resulting from both the
forces being applied.
4. Deflection caused by a force can be subtracted to the deflection caused by another force to get the deflection resulting from both
the forces being applied.

Question Number : 30 Question Id : 630680219289 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about Columns:

A. When the ratio of the effective length of a column to its least lateral dimension does not exceed 12, it is called short column.
B. When the ratio of the effective length of a column to its least lateral dimension exceeds 12, it is called long column.

Identify the CORRECT statement/statements.

Options :
1. Both A and B
2. Only B
3. Neither A nor B
4. Only A

Question Number : 31 Question Id : 630680219290 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about structures:

A. Structure is generally classified into two categories as Determinate and Indeterminate/Redundant Structures for analysis of structures
to find forces
B. Determinate structures are analysed just by the use of basic equilibrium equations.
C. Redundant or indeterminate structures are not capable of being analysed by mere use of basic equilibrium equations.

Identify the INCORRECT statement/statements.

Options :
1. A and C
2. Only C
3. B and C 172
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4. None of the other options

Question Number : 32 Question Id : 630680219291 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Identify the CORRECT pair:

A. Determinate structure : Simply supported beam

B. Indeterminate structure : Cantilever Beam
Options :
1. Both A and B
2. Only A
3. Only B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 33 Question Id : 630680219292 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Arrange the following deflections in beams in increasing order on the basis of their slopes:

1. 0, 2. 25°, 3. 10°, 4. 30°

Options :
1. 4<2<3<1
2. 1<2<3<4
3. 2<1<3<4
4. 4<3<2<1

Question Number : 34 Question Id : 630680219293 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Arrange the following types of beams in increasing order of the number of reactions they can resist:

1. Fixed,
2. Hinged,
3. Roller
Options :
1. 2<3<1
2. 3<2<1
3. 1<2<3
4. 1<3<2

Question Number : 35 Question Id : 630680219294 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Arrange the method of the analysis of Statically Indeterminate structures in chronological order:

1. Integrating to obtain general solution

2. Write the differential equation
3. Apply boundary and other conditions to evaluate the unknown quantities
Options :
1. 1, 2, 3
2. 3, 2, 1
3. 2, 1, 3
4. 1, 3, 2

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Question Number : 36 Question Id : 630680219295 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following building materials provide the structural framework for larger buildings?
Options :
1. Metal
2. Concrete
3. Brick
4. Wood

Question Number : 37 Question Id : 630680219296 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of estimates gives a rough estimate of the cost of the entire project?
Options :
1. Detailed Estimate
2. Preliminary Estimate
3. Cost Estimate
4. Bid Estimate

Question Number : 38 Question Id : 630680219297 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following classes of bricks can be used for permanent structures?
Options :
1. First class bricks
2. Second class bricks
3. Third class bricks
4. Fourth class bricks

Question Number : 39 Question Id : 630680219298 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following agricultural buildings are used to minimize post-harvest losses?
Options :
1. Silos
2. Cold Storages
3. Poultry Coops
4. Barns

Question Number : 40 Question Id : 630680219299 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about agricultural buildings:

A. Hay and animal feed are essentials on every farm, so hay and feed storage facilities are crucial.
B. Riding arenas can be created on agricultural land since any landowner who grows horses understands how important it is to give
them a regular workout to preserve their health and performance.

The INCORRECT statement/statements are:

Options :
1. Only A
2. Both A and B
3. Neither A nor B 174
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4. Only B

Question Number : 41 Question Id : 630680219300 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about the types of estimates:

A. A quantity estimate is a forecast that contains all the precise quantitative information about the materials needed to finish the project.
B. A bid estimate is created with the assumption that the project will not be awarded.

The INCORRECT statement/statements are:

Options :
1. Only A
2. Both A and B
3. Only B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 42 Question Id : 630680219301 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about building materials:

A. Rocks are the longest lasting building materials available

B. Wood is a product of trees, and sometimes other fibrous plants, used for construction purposes when cut or pressed into lumber and
timber.
C. Portland cement concrete is the most prevalent type of concrete.

The CORRECT statement/statements are:

Options :
1. Only A and B
2. Only C
3. Only A and C
4. A, B and C

Question Number : 43 Question Id : 630680219302 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which type of precipitation is formed at or near the ground when drizzle droplets or raindrops become supercooled as they fall through
a layer of air at a sub-frostpoint temperature?
Options :
1. Hail
2. Glaze
3. Snow
4. Rain

Question Number : 44 Question Id : 630680219303 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
How many type(s) of Lysimeters are available?
Options :
1. Two
2. Four
3. Three
4. Only one

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Question Number : 45 Question Id : 630680219304 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following sizes are categorized as Small watersheds?
Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 46 Question Id : 630680219305 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
How many types of methods are commonly used for Stream Gauging?
Options :
1. 1-2
2. 3-4
3. 5-6
4. 7-8

Question Number : 47 Question Id : 630680219306 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about the types of precipitation:

A. Ice crystals in the form of flakes make up snow.

B. Rain drops are larger than 0.5 mm in size.

The CORRECT statement/statements are:

Options :
1. Both A and B
2. Only B
3. Only A
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 48 Question Id : 630680219307 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about the measurement of Evaporation:

A. USWB Class A Evaporation Pan is made of unpainted GI sheet

B. ISI Standard Pan is made of copper sheet 0.9 mm thick, tinned inside and painted white outside
C. Colorado Sunken Pan is made up of painted GI sheet

Identify the INCORRECT statement/statements.

Options :
1. A, B and C
2. Only A
3. Only C
4. Both B and C
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Question Number : 49 Question Id : 630680219308 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0

Options :
1. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
2. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
3. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
4. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A

Question Number : 50 Question Id : 630680219309 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following sequences of stream orders are arranged from larger to smaller basin sizes?
Options :
1. First Order, Second Order, Third Order, Fourth Order
2. Second Order, Fourth Order, Sixth Order, Eighth Order
3. Twelfth Order, Seventh Order, Fifth Order, Fourth Order
4. First Order, Third Order, Fifth Order, Seventh Order

Question Number : 51 Question Id : 630680219310 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Arrange the following procedural steps for PMP estimation in correct order:

1. Estimation of frequency factor.

2. Determination of uncertainty in frequency factor.
3. Determination of uncertainty in the PMP values.
4. Selection of precipitation data.
5. Computation of PMP.
Options :
1. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
2. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
3. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
4. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3,

Question Number : 52 Question Id : 630680219311 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of springs is formed when the groundwater table rises and intercepts a hillslope?
Options :
1. Gravity Springs
2. Surface Springs
3. Sub-surface Springs
4. Artesian Springs

Question Number : 53 Question Id : 630680219312 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
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Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is NOT a procedure used for development of wells?
Options :
1. Over-pumping
2. Low-velocity water jetting
3. Air surging and pumping
4. Backwashing

Question Number : 54 Question Id : 630680219313 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following factors should NOT be considered in an artificial groundwater recharge technique?
Options :
1. Clogging potential
2. Applicable methods (injection or infiltration)
3. Transmission characteristics of the confining layer
4. Quality of source water available

Question Number : 55 Question Id : 630680219314 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
In which of the following pumps is Compressed air used to move the liquid?
Options :
1. Reciprocating Pumps
2. Centrifugal Pumps
3. Rotary Type Pumps
4. Pneumatic Pumps

Question Number : 56 Question Id : 630680219315 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
A Mixed flow pump is actually a ______ fitted with a mixed flow impeller?
Options :
1. Centrifugal Pump
2. Rotary Type Pump
3. Vertical Turbine Pump
4. Reciprocating Pump

Question Number : 57 Question Id : 630680219316 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of pumps are also named as stormwater, sewage, and septic pumps?
Options :
1. Reciprocating Pumps
2. Centrifugal Pumps
3. Submersible Pumps
4. Gear Pumps

Question Number : 58 Question Id : 630680219317 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about the movement of groundwater:
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A. The direction and speed of groundwater movement is determined by the various characteristics of aquifers and confining layers of
subsurface rocks.
B. Groundwater movement depends on the permeability and porosity of the subsurface rock.

Identify the INCORRECT statements.

Options :
1. Both A and B
2. Only A
3. Neither A nor B
4. Only B

Question Number : 59 Question Id : 630680219318 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0

Options :
1. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
2. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
3. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
4. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A

Question Number : 60 Question Id : 630680219319 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Identify the correct pair about the different types of pumps:

A. Centrifugal Pumps: Flow and pressure are dynamically generated by a rotating mechanism.
B. Vertical Pumps: Compressed air is used to move the liquid in these pumps.
C. Reciprocating Pumps: These pumps displace the liquid either by rotating or by a rotating and orbiting motion.
Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and C
4. Only C

Question Number : 61 Question Id : 630680219320 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Arrange the working principle of a mixed flow pump in correct order:

1. This generates enough force to produce a high flow rate.

2. The impeller rotates while it is seated in the pipe, but the rotational mechanism is essentially diagonal, using centrifugal force to
move the water while accelerating it further with thrust from the impeller’s axial direction.
3. The mixed-flow pump's impeller has a form that falls somewhere between that of a centrifugal pump and that of an axial-flow pump,
therefore it operates by using both centrifugal force and lifting force.
Options :
1. 3, 2, 1
2. 1, 2, 3 179
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3. 2, 1, 3
4. 1, 3, 2

Question Number : 62 Question Id : 630680219321 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following methods for measuring irrigation water is suitable for small streams?
Options :
1. Measuring Structures (Orifices, Weirs and Flumes)
2. Tracer Methods
3. Area – Velocity Method
4. Volumetric Method

Question Number : 63 Question Id : 630680219322 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the consumptive use of water?
Options :
1. Moonlight hours
2. Soil and Topography
3. Wind velocity
4. Irrigation practices and methods of irrigation

Question Number : 64 Question Id : 630680219323 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following relations is correct for estimating the volume of earth work by average method?
Options :
1. Volume = Area * Difference between the average of two sets of levels.
2. Volume = Area * Sum of the average of two sets of levels.
3. Volume = Area + Difference between the average of two sets of levels.
4. Volume = Area / Sum of the average of two sets of levels.

Question Number : 65 Question Id : 630680219324 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0

Options :
1. Crop development
2. Mid-season
3. Initial period
4. Late season

Question Number : 66 Question Id : 630680219325 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following methods for estimation of evapotranspiration is Temperature based?
Options :
1. Pan Evaporation
2. Penman Monteith
3. Priestley-Taylor
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4. Thornthwaite

Question Number : 67 Question Id : 630680219326 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about Basin irrigation:

A. Basin irrigation design is simpler than both furrow or border design since tail water is prevented from the existing field and the
slopes are usually very small or zero.
B. Check basin irrigation is best suited for soils with a moderate to low infiltration rate as well as for gently sloping, uniformly level
terrain.
C. When leaching is necessary to eliminate salts from the soil profile, check basins are helpful.

The CORRECT statements are:

Options :
1. Only A
2. Both B and C
3. Both A and B
4. A, B and C

Question Number : 68 Question Id : 630680219327 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following pairs about Hooghoudt’s and Ernst’s drain spacing equations' applicability:

A. Hooghoudt's Equation: Can be applied for a homogeneous soil profile or for a two-layered soil profile provided that the interface
between the two layers coincides with the drain level
B. Ernst's Equation: Can be applied to any type of two-layered soil profile

The INCORRECT pair is/are:

Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 69 Question Id : 630680219328 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Arrange the following values of pH to increasing alkalinity in soils.

A-7, B-3, C-14, D-5

Options :
1. A<B<C<D
2. B<D<A<C
3. D<C<A<B
4. C<B<D<A

Question Number : 70 Question Id : 630680219329 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following factors does NOT affect the sprinkler system layout?
Options :
1. Topography
2. Field shape
3. Location of the drains 181
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4. Location of the water source

Question Number : 71 Question Id : 630680219330 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Following formula represents the Application rate in Sprinkler Performance Evaluation:

A=KQ/a

Here, 'a' represents which of the following parameters?

Options :
1. Application rate
2. Sprinkler discharge
3. Wetted area of sprinkler
4. Unit constant

Question Number : 72 Question Id : 630680219331 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which type of drip irrigation system use buried plastic tubes, containing embedded emitters located at regular spacings?
Options :
1. Surface drip
2. Sub-surface drip
3. Gravity fed drip
4. Online drip

Question Number : 73 Question Id : 630680219332 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is the diameter of pipes used for installing online emitters?
Options :
1. 100 – 200 mm
2. 12 – 20 mm
3. 1 – 5 mm
4. 30 - 40 mm

Question Number : 74 Question Id : 630680219333 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about the Family drip or ‘gravity fed drip irrigation’ system:

A. It is a low-cost system developed for large family plots.

B. It is suitable for house gardening and peri-urban agriculture.

Identify the CORRECT statement.

Options :
1. Only A
2. Both A and B
3. Neither A nor B
4. Only B

Question Number : 75 Question Id : 630680219334 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
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Read the following statements about the hydraulic design of drip irrigation:

A. Know the operating pressure of emitters.

B. Find out the allowable head loss in lateral and sub main.
C. Find out the lateral and sub main discharge.
D. Find out the diameter and length of the lateral such that the head loss in the lateral is within allowable limits for the given layout. For
this purpose find out the head loss by Hazen William or Darcy-Weisbach formula for different combinations of diameter and length and
select the suitable combination by trial and error method.

Identify the CORRECT statement/statements:

Options :
1. Only D
2. Both A and D
3. A, B and D
4. A, B, C and D

Question Number : 76 Question Id : 630680219335 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of erosion is a conceptual or an idealized form of soil erosion which is very difficult to visualize?
Options :
1. Sheet Erosion
2. Rill Erosion
3. Gully Erosion
4. Raindrop Erosion

Question Number : 77 Question Id : 630680219336 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
The Universal soil loss equation (USLE) is expressed as:

A= R * K * L * S * C * P

Here, the parameter K represents which of the following?

Options :
1. Topographic Factor
2. Soil Erodibility Factor
3. Rainfall Factor
4. Crop Management Factor

Question Number : 78 Question Id : 630680219337 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is the recommended top width for Graded Bunds?
Options :
1. 2 – 5 cm
2. 100 – 150 cm
3. 30 - 90 cm
4. 5 -10 cm

Question Number : 79 Question Id : 630680219338 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of check dams is NOT a Semi-permanent check dam?
Options :
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1. Loose rock dam

2. Netting dam
3. Log check dam
4. Brushwood dams

Question Number : 80 Question Id : 630680219339 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following about Gully erosion:

A. When rills get larger in size and shape due to prolonged occurrence of flow through them and cannot be removed by tillage
operations, these are called gullies.
B. Large gullies and their networks are called ravines.

Identify the correct statement/statements.

Options :
1. Both A and B
2. Only A
3. Only B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 81 Question Id : 630680219340 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0

Options :
1. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
2. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
3. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
4. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

Question Number : 82 Question Id : 630680219341 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0

Options :
1. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
2. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
3. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
4. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A 184
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Question Number : 83 Question Id : 630680219342 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Identify the correct pair/pairs of the mechanics of wind erosion:

A. Initiation of Movement: The soil particles are first detached from their place by the impact and cutting action of wind.
B. Transportation: It occurs when very fine dirt and dust particles are lifted into the atmosphere.
C. Suspension: Suspension are of three distinct types and occur depending upon size of the soil particles.
Options :
1. Only B
2. Both A and C
3. Only A
4. A, B and C

Question Number : 84 Question Id : 630680219343 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Following is the calculation procedure of KE>25 and EI30 Index method:

1. Multiplication of rainfall amounts in each class of intensity to the computed kinetic energy (KE) values.
2. All of the values are added together to get total KE of storm.
3. The kinetic energy obtained so, is again multiplied by the maximum 30-minute rainfall intensity to determine the rainfall erosivity
value.

The correct order for the calculation is:

Options :
1. 1, 3, 2
2. 1, 2, 3
3. 2, 1, 3
4. 3, 2, 1

Question Number : 85 Question Id : 630680219344 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Following are the stages of soil erosion:

1. Transport
2. Detachment
3. Deposition

The chronological order of these three stages are:

Options :
1. 1, 2, 3
2. 2, 1, 3
3. 2, 3, 1
4. 1, 3, 2

Question Number : 86 Question Id : 630680219345 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
For the design of grassed waterways, arrange the type of vegetation covers in the order of increasing flow velocity:

A. Good Quality Cover

B. Excellent Quality Cover
C. Spare Green Cover
Options :
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1. A, B, C
2. B, A, C
3. C, A, B
4. B, C, A

Question Number : 87 Question Id : 630680219346 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of watersheds undergo maximum manipulation for the convenience of human being?
Options :
1. Agricultural
2. Urban
3. Desert
4. Mountainous

Question Number : 88 Question Id : 630680219347 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following factors DO NOT affect watershed management?
Options :
1. Size and shape
2. Topography
3. Longitudes
4. Relief

Question Number : 89 Question Id : 630680219348 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
In the water budget equation P = I + ET + R, 'R' represents:
Options :
1. Rainfall
2. Infiltration
3. Root zone storage
4. Runoff

Question Number : 90 Question Id : 630680219349 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of mulches are used to improve infiltration and storage of rainwater in soils by digging narrow trenches
across the slope?
Options :
1. Vertical mulch
2. Soil mulch
3. Plastic mulch
4. Straw mulch

Question Number : 91 Question Id : 630680219350 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is NOT an objective of watershed management programme?
Options :
1. To mitigate the adverse effects of drought on crops and livestock
2. To encourage restoration of ecological balance 186
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3. To control deforestation
4. To promote economic development of village community

Question Number : 92 Question Id : 630680219351 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about watershed characteristics:

A. Circularity Ratio: The ratio of basin area to the area of a circle having the same perimeter as the basin.
B. Form Factor: The area of the basin divided by the square of axial length of the basin.

Identify the INCORRECT statement/statements:

Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 93 Question Id : 630680219352 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the statements about watershed management and planning:

A. The planning process has no beginning and no certain end.

B. Regardless of how watershed related problems and opportunities are recognized, their articulation becomes one of the first steps in
watershed planning.
C. The next stage in the watershed planning process involves establishing objectives and identifying constraints in developing strategies
to solve the problems or to take advantage of the opportunities.

Identify the CORRECT statement/statements:

Options :
1. Only A
2. Both A and B
3. Only C
4. A, B and C

Question Number : 94 Question Id : 630680219353 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0

Options :
1. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
2. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
3. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
4. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

Question Number : 95 Question Id : 630680219354 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0 187
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Which of the following is not used for watershed prioritization?
Options :
1. Contour bunding
2. Soil and land use surveys
3. Sediment observations
4. Remote Sensing methods

Question Number : 96 Question Id : 630680219355 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of rainwater harvesting CANNOT be used in Urban areas?
Options :
1. Recharge Pit
2. Recharge Well
3. Gully Plug
4. Tubewell

Question Number : 97 Question Id : 630680219356 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following components of drop inlet spillways are provided on the conduit pipe and are constructed using concrete
masonry?
Options :
1. Pitching
2. Emergency Spillway
3. Filters
4. Anti-seep Collars

Question Number : 98 Question Id : 630680219357 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following components of a drop spillway acts as a front wall against runoff flow in the drop spillway?
Options :
1. Wing Wall
2. Cut-off Wall
3. Toe Wall
4. Head Wall

Question Number : 99 Question Id : 630680219358 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following components of drop inlet spillway is used if the runoff exceeds the design runoff?
Options :
1. Stone Pitching
2. Emergency Spillway
3. Cradle to the Conduit
4. Filters

Question Number : 100 Question Id : 630680219359 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements:
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A. Percolation ponds are small ponds formed in low lying areas in order to store the excess rainwater and to allow it to percolate
downwards and sideways.
B. Deep ponds are preferred since evaporation of the stored water therein will be less.

Identify the INCORRECT statement/statements.

Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Neither A nor B
4. Both A and B

Question Number : 101 Question Id : 630680219360 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements:

A. There is considerable danger of undermining due to rodents. For which, additional precautions are required.
B. In poorly drained areas, there is problem of seepage.
C. This spillway can also be constructed in combination of check dams and other detention type structures.

Which of the above are the limitations of chute spillways?

Options :
1. Both A and B
2. A, B and C
3. Only A
4. Only B

Question Number : 102 Question Id : 630680219361 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following class of dam is not based on its purpose?
Options :
1. Irrigation dams
2. Gravity dams
3. Power dams
4. Flood control dams

Question Number : 103 Question Id : 630680219362 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is NOT a component of the steering system?
Options :
1. Steering Wheel
2. Steering Shaft
3. Steering Gear
4. Queen Pin

Question Number : 104 Question Id : 630680219363 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following power outlets is provided with PTO shaft in some tractors through which rotary power output can be tapped for
operating stationery machines?
Options :
1. Pulley
2. Three point linkage 189
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3. Hook
4. Drawbar

Question Number : 105 Question Id : 630680219364 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is NOT a type of hitch system for a tractor?
Options :
1. Trailed on its own wheels
2. Semi-mounted on the lower links of the tractor supported by a rear wheel
3. Semi-mounted on the upper links of the tractor
4. Fully mounted on the three-point linkage

Question Number : 106 Question Id : 630680219365 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following tests is not a compulsory test for OECD (Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development) approval?
Options :
1. Engine test
2. Main power take-off test
3. Hydraulic power test
4. Drawbar power test

Question Number : 107 Question Id : 630680219366 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements:

A. Differential unit is a special arrangement of gears to permit one of the rear wheels of the tractor to rotate slower or faster than the
other.
B. Tractor is a self-propelled machine used either for pulling or pushing and stationary work.

Identify the INCORRECT statement/statements.

Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 108 Question Id : 630680219367 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following about the PTO standards of tractors:

A. Power to the PTO shaft comes from the gear box.

B. The counter shaft of the gear box is usually extended out to the rear side to act as the PTO outlet.
C. The power outlet is known as Power Take Off (PTO).

Identify the CORRECT statement/statements.

Options :
1. Both A and B
2. Both B and C
3. Both A and C
4. A, B and C
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Question Number : 109 Question Id : 630680219368 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0

Options :
1. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
2. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
3. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
4. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

Question Number : 110 Question Id : 630680219369 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Identify the CORRECT share of tractor weight in different parts of a tractor:

A. Front axle : 30 percent

B. Rear Axle : 50 percent
Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 111 Question Id : 630680219370 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
As the tractor tyre pressure decreases, the traction ______.
Options :
1. decreases
2. increases
3. doesn’t change
4. becomes zero due to tyre crack

Question Number : 112 Question Id : 630680219371 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Arrange the following statements about the working of a mechanical steering (Ackerman type) in correct sequence:

1. The steering gear changes the direction of motion and increase the turning force applied by driver of the steering wheel in accordance
with gear ratio.
2. When driver turns the steering wheel, motion is transmitted down through the steering tube to the steering gear.
3. The steering tube revolves inside the steering column.
4. The gear rotates the steering arm (pitman arm) which transfers the motion to the steering knuckles through the steering gear
connecting rod, tie-rod and knuckle arms.
Options :
1. 1, 2, 3, 4
2. 4, 3, 2,1
3. 2, 3, 1, 4
4. 2, 1, 4, 3
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Question Number : 113 Question Id : 630680219372 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following sources of farm power is the most important in developing countries?
Options :
1. Human power
2. Animal power
3. Wind power
4. Mechanical power

Question Number : 114 Question Id : 630680219373 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
The Mould Board plough uses which method or action for moving the earth after cutting?
Options :
1. Lifting and Rolling Action
2. Pushing Action
3. Carrying Action
4. Throwing Action

Question Number : 115 Question Id : 630680219374 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is NOT a function of seed drill?
Options :
1. Carrying of seed in hopper
2. Metering the seed
3. Compacting of soil around the seeds by press wheel
4. Placing the seed on the ground surface

Question Number : 116 Question Id : 630680219375 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is NOT a metallic material used for the construction of farm machines?
Options :
1. Iron
2. Steel
3. Teflon
4. Copper

Question Number : 117 Question Id : 630680219376 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements:

A. Centrifugal fertilizer broadcasters are similar to centrifugal seeders in that the material is metered from a hopper and distributed
laterally by one or two horizontally rotating, ribbed disks
B. Aircraft fertilization is most likely to be employed where large areas are involved and/or where it is impractical to do the job with
ground equipment

Identify the INCORRECT statement/statements about fertilizer application equipments.

Options :
1. Both A and B
2. Only A 192
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3. Neither A nor B
4. Only B

Question Number : 118 Question Id : 630680219377 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements:

A. A reaper may be classified as animal-drawn reaper, animal-drawn engine operated reaper, tractor rear mounted PTO operated reaper,
power tiller operated or tractor front mounted vertical conveyer type reapers and tractor mounted reaper binder.
B. A machine called vertical conveyor reaper-cum-windrower can cut the crop and lay it in the form of windrow for easy picking.
C. A front mounted vertical conveyor reaper is the most common reaper, to harvest wheat and paddy crops.

Identify the INCORRECT statement/statements about reapers.

Options :
1. Both A and B
2. A, B and C
3. Only C
4. None of the other options

Question Number : 119 Question Id : 630680219378 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Cotton pickers perform best when cotton plants are of:
Options :
1. Medium size
2. Large size
3. Small size
4. Uniform size

Question Number : 120 Question Id : 630680219379 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of sorting is more accurate than other methods?
Options :
1. Shape sorting
2. Size sorting
3. Weight sorting
4. Colour sorting

Question Number : 121 Question Id : 630680219380 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which types of conveying systems are ideal if sensitive or fragile products are to be moved?
Options :
1. Medium Phase
2. Dense Phase
3. Lean Phase
4. Dilute Phase

Question Number : 122 Question Id : 630680219381 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
193
Which of the following factors does NOT influence the rate of drying?

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Options :
1. Fat content of the food
2. Method of preparation of food
3. Sugar content of the food
4. Amount of food placed in dryer

Question Number : 123 Question Id : 630680219382 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of drying is used for foods which lose their colour when exposed to direct sunlight for drying?
Options :
1. Oven drying
2. Shade drying
3. Solar drying
4. Kiln drying

Question Number : 124 Question Id : 630680219383 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
In which of the following rice milling processes is the husk from rice grains removed?
Options :
1. Cleaning
2. Separation
3. De-husking
4. Polishing

Question Number : 125 Question Id : 630680219384 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about oil extraction:

A. Solvent extraction is capable of removing nearly all of the available oil from oilseed meal.
B. Solvent extraction plant use hexane as a solvent to extract oil from oilseed cake.

Identify the CORRECT statement/statements.

Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 126 Question Id : 630680219385 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about the solvent extraction of oil:

A. Solvent extraction refers to preferential dissolution of oil by contacting oilseeds with a liquid solvent.
B. This is the most inefficient technique to recover oil from oilseeds.
C. The choice of solvent type is based on solubility of oil in the selected solvent, cost and safety.

Identify the CORRECT statement/statements.

Options :
1. Both A and B
2. Both A and C
3. Only A 194
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4. A, B and C

Question Number : 127 Question Id : 630680219386 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Choose the correct pair on extrusion cooking:

A. Extrusion cooking: it has both beneficial and undesirable effects on nutritional value.
B. Starch: Doesn’t have important role in extrusion cooking.

Identify the correct pair/pairs.

Options :
1. Both A and B
2. Only A
3. Only B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 128 Question Id : 630680219387 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Arrange the type of wheat in decreasing order of tempering hours:

1. Durum wheat
2. Soft wheat
3. Hard red winter wheat
4. Hard spring wheat
Options :
1. 4>3>2>1
2. 1>3>2>4
3. 3>4>1>2
4. 1>2>3>4

Question Number : 129 Question Id : 630680219388 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which chemical method of food preservation involves the use of sugar to lower water activity in food?
Options :
1. Canning
2. Pasteurization
3. Osmotic preservation
4. Irradiation

Question Number : 130 Question Id : 630680219389 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following packages are NOT used for packaging ice-creams?
Options :
1. Aluminium foil cartons
2. Vegetable parchment
3. Cylindrical containers
4. Plastic containers

Question Number : 131 Question Id : 630680219390 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0 195
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Which of the following types of milk plants should be situated as close as possible to the consumer area?
Options :
1. Local Milk Plant
2. Product Milk Plant
3. Small Capacity Milk Plant
4. Medium Capacity Milk Plants

Question Number : 132 Question Id : 630680219391 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of drying includes spray drying, tray drying, fluidized bed drying?
Options :
1. Microwave drying
2. Osmotic drying
3. Hot air drying
4. Freeze drying

Question Number : 133 Question Id : 630680219392 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about Nano filtration membranes:

A. A nanofiltration filter has a pore size around 0.001 micron.

B. Nanofiltration removes divalent ions, which make water hard, so nanofiltration is often used to soften hard water.

Identify the INCORRECT statement/statements:

Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 134 Question Id : 630680219393 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Arrange the procedural steps for formation of butter in correct order:

A. Formation of a stable emulsion.

B. Destabilisation and breakdown of the fat and water emulsion.
C. Preparation of the cream.
D. Aggregation and concentration of the fat particles.
Options :
1. C, D, B, A
2. D, B, A, C
3. C, B, D, A
4. D, C, B, A

Question Number : 135 Question Id : 630680219394 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0

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Options :
1. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
2. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
3. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
4. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A

Question Number : 136 Question Id : 630680219395 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following types of renewable energies utilizes the accessible thermal energy from the Earth’s interior?
Options :
1. Hydropower energy
2. Solar energy
3. Geothermal energy
4. Ocean energy

Question Number : 137 Question Id : 630680219396 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is NOT a type of solar dryer?
Options :
1. Natural convection dryer
2. Artificial convection dryer
3. Forced convection dryer
4. Tunnel dryers

Question Number : 138 Question Id : 630680219397 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Wind turbines cannot be installed in which of the following areas?
Options :
1. Coastal area
2. Farm area
3. Hilly area
4. Bird sanctuary

Question Number : 139 Question Id : 630680219398 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which two types of rotors are used on the same shaft of a simple hybrid wind turbine?
Options :
1. Resistance and lift type rotors
2. High speed and low speed rotors
3. Vertical and horizontal axis rotors
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4. Active and passive rotors

Question Number : 140 Question Id : 630680219399 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is the oldest and simplest type of gasifier?
Options :
1. Counter current gasifier
2. Co-current gasifiers
3. Cross-draught gasifier
4. Fluidized bed gasifier

Question Number : 141 Question Id : 630680219400 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about the solar dish collectors:

A. Solar collector that optically reflects and focuses the incident solar energy onto a small receiving area using mirrors or lenses is
called a Solar Dish Collector.
B. The concentration factor of a solar dish collector can be greater than 1,000 suns reaching several thousand degrees Celsius
temperature at the focal point of the receiver.

Identify the CORRECT statement/statements.

Options :
1. Both A and B
2. Only B
3. Only A
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 142 Question Id : 630680219401 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about Photovoltaic cells:

A. The generation of electric current does not happen inside the depletion zone of the PN junction.
B. When a photon of light is absorbed by one of these atoms in the N-Type silicon it will dislodge an electron, creating a free electron
and a hole.

Which of the following statements/statement are/is CORRECT?

Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 143 Question Id : 630680219402 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Read the following statements about wind energy conversion:

A. Wind turbines work on a simple principle: instead of using electricity to make wind, like a fan, wind turbines use wind to make
electricity.
B. Wind turns the propeller-like blades of a turbine around a rotor, which spins a generator, which creates electricity.
C. A wind turbine turns wind energy into electricity using the aerodynamic force from the rotor blades, which work like an airplane
wing or helicopter rotor blade.

Identify the CORRECT statement/statements.

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Options :
1. Only A
2. Both B and C
3. A, B and C
4. Only C

Question Number : 144 Question Id : 630680219403 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0

Options :
1. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
2. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
3. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
4. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B

Question Number : 145 Question Id : 630680219404 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Which of the following is the CORRECT pair for gasifier names?

A. Co-current gasifiers : Downdraught gasifiers

B. Counter current gasifiers : Updraught gasifiers
Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

Question Number : 146 Question Id : 630680219405 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0

Options :
1. 1-(a), 2-(b), 3-(c), 4-(d)
2. 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(d), 4-(c)
3. 1-(d), 2-(c), 3-(b), 4-(a)
4. 1-(c), 2-(d), 3-(a), 4-(b)

Question Number : 147 Question Id : 630680219406 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0 Negative Marks Display Text : 0.0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
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Options :
1. 1-(a), 2-(b), 3-(c), 4-(d)
2. 1-(d), 2-(c), 3-(b), 4-(a)
3. 1-(a), 2-(d), 3-(b), 4-(c)
4. 1-(d), 2-(a), 3-(b), 4-(c)

Question Number : 148 Question Id : 630680219407 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Arrange the following water filtration processes in the decreasing order of filter pore size.

1. Ultra-filtration
2. Micro-filtration
3. Nano-filtration
Options :
1. 2>3>1
2. 2>1>3
3. 3>1>2
4. 1>2>3

Question Number : 149 Question Id : 630680219408 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Arrange the following milk varieties in the increasing order of fat percentage.

1. Low fat milk

2. Skim milk
3. Whole milk
Options :
1. 2<1<3
2. 3<1<2
3. 1<2<3
4. 1<3<2

Question Number : 150 Question Id : 630680219409 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : Yes Is Question Mandatory : No
Calculator : None Response Time : N.A Think Time : N.A Minimum Instruction Time : 0
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0
Chronologically arrange the following stages of water-induced soil erosion.

A. Rill erosion
B. Sheet erosion
C. Gully erosion
D. Splash erosion
Options :
1. B, D, A, C
2. D, B, A, C
3. D, A, B, C
4. D, B, C, A
200
36/36
 AZJ
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Name of The Post Agriculture Engineer, in the Gujarat Agriculture Service, Class-2

Advertisement No 141/2020-21
Preliminary Test Held On 09-09-2021
Que. No. 001-300 (General Studies & Concern Subject)
Publish Date 11-09-2021
Last Date to Send Suggestion (S) 20-09 -2021

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Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections
shall not be considered: -
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PHYSICALLY.
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published on the website.
(3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with
provisional answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website.
Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of the Master
Question Paper.
(4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master
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responses given by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if
responses given in the answer sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed.
(6) Objection for each question shall be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one
question in single sheet shall not be considered & treated as Cancelled.
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(8) Candidate should attach copy of his/her OMR (Answer sheet) with objection/(s).
ઉમેદવાર ે નીચેની સૂચનાઓનું પાલન કરવાની તકે દારી રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા-સૂચન અંગે કર ેલ રજૂ આતો યાને
લેવાશે નહી ં

(1) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા-સૂચનો િનયત કરવામાં આવેલ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કથી રજૂ કરવાના રહેશ.ે
(2) ઉમેદવારે માણે વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત વાંધા-સૂચન પ કના
નમૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.

(3) ઉમેદવારે પોતાને પરી ામાં મળેલ પુિ તકામાં છપાયેલ માંક મુજબ વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ ન કરતા તમામ
વાંધા-સૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર કી (મા ટર પ )ના માંક મુજબ અને તે
સંદભમાં રજૂ કરવા.

(4) મા ટર પ માં િન�દ� ષ્ટ અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા-સૂચન યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહીં.
(5) ઉમેદવારે જે ના િવક પ પર વાંધો રજૂ કરેલ છે અને િવક પ પે જે જવાબ સૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવારે
પોતાની ઉ રવહીમાં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવારે સૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહીનો જવાબ િભ હશે તો
ઉમેદવારે રજૂ કરેલ વાંધા-સૂચન યાનમાં લેવાશે નહીં.
(6) એક માટે એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ ક વાપરવુ.ં એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કમાં એકથી વધારે ોની રજૂઆત
કરેલ હશે તો તે અંગેના વાંધા-સૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહીં.
(7) પર�ક્ષામાં હાજર રહ�લ ઉમેદવાર જ વાંધા - �ુચન ર�ુ કર� શકશે .
(8) ઉમેદવાર� વાંધા-�ુ ચન સાથે પોતાની જવાબવહ�ની નકલ �બડાણ કરવાની રહ�શે.

201
101. In a steam engine, the valve rod is connected to an eccentric by means of a _______.
(A) universal joint (B) cotter joint
(C) flange coupling (D) knuckle joint
102. Two shafts A and B are made of the same material. The diameter of the shaft A is twice as
that of shaft B. The power transmitted by the shaft A will be _______ of shaft B.
(A) twice (B) four times
(C) eight times (D) sixteen times
103. _______ screw thread is adopted for power transmission in either direction.
(A) Acme (B) Square
(C) Buttress (D) Multiple
104. During the operation for calibration of seed drills the slippage is allowed about _______.
(A) 7% (B) 8%
(C) 9% (D) 10%
105. The type of furrow opener recommended for use in hard or trashy ground and wet, sticky
soil is _______.
(A) single disc type (B) Stub runner type
(C) Full of curved runner type (D) Hoe type
106. The size of MB plough is expressed in term of its _______.
(A) Width of cut (B) Depth of cut
(C) Length of share (D) Width of land side
107. Common type of fertilizer metering mechanism is used on animal drawn seed cum fertilizer
drill is _______.
(A) star wheel feed (B) auger
(C) stationary opening (D) edge cell
108. A raised ridge left at the center of the strip of land when ploughing is started from center to
side is called as _______.
(A) Back furrow (B) Head land
(C) Dead furrow (D) Crown
109. The maximum energy that can be stored in a body due to external loading upto the elastic
limit is called _______.
(A) resilience (B) proof resilience
(C) strain energy (D) modulus of resilience
110. Drillability of fertilizer in a machine increases with _______.
(A) Decrease in angle of repose (B) Increase in angle of repose
(C) Decrease in forward speed of drill (D) None of the above
111. In an offset disc harrow the angle between two gangs is _______.
(A) Less than 90° (B) At 90°
(C) Greater than 90° (D) 180°

AZJ-A ] 12 P.T.O.

202
112. To obtain a neat furrow wall, the coulter is usually set outside the land side of the plow about
_______.
(A) 1.2 cm (B) 1.5 cm
(C) 1.75 cm (D) 2.0 cm
113. For better threshing of a crop, the optimum moisture content is _______.
(A) 10-12 % (B) 12-15 %
(C) 15-17 % (D) 17-19 %
114. The reel index value for the combine harvester is _______.
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.2
(C) 1.8 (D) 2.0
115. The type of nozzle used for spraying weedicides is _______.
(A) Flat fan (B) Hollow cone
(C) Solid cone (D) None of the above
116. The award “Machinery of the Year 2021” in India has won by _______.
(A) Shaktiman Square Baler-165 (B) Maschio Virat Rotavator
(C) LEMKEN 2/3 MB plough (D) Maschio SP planter
117. _______ is an indication of soil hardness and is expressed as force per square centimeter
required for a cone to penetrate into soil.
(A) Penetration index (B) Compaction index
(C) Cone index (D) Both (A) and (B)
118 Rotary tillers/Power tillers have _______ power requirements.
(A) Negative (B) Positive
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
119. Prolonged use of tractor in low gear can cause _______.
(A) More fuel consumption (B) Overheating of engine
(C) Excessive smoke from engine (D) Development of less power
120. Flash fire test evaluates the quality of _______.
(A) Petrol (B) Diesel
(C) Lubricating oil (D) All of the above
121. High temperature thermostat with permanent anti-freeze solution fully opens at _______.
(A) 70°c (B) 82°c
(C) 92°c (D) 75°c
122. For 5 HP stationary diesel engine, the tappet clearance valve for exhaust valve is _______
mm.
(A) 25 (B) 2.5
(C) 0.25 (D) 1/25
123. The grade of oil used in tractor engine during summer should be _______.
(A) SAE-30 (B) SAE-40
(C) SAE-60 (D) SAE-90

AZJ-A ] 13 [Contd.

203
124. The pump pressure in hydraulic brakes should be _______.
(A) 20- 40 kg/cm2 (B) 50-75 kg/cm2
(C) 80-100 kg/cm2 (D) 150-200 kg/cm2
125. In planetary final drive system, planetary pinions rotates around _______.
(A) sun gear (B) crown gear
(C) bevel gear (D) timing gear
126. In disc brake system, there are two friction disc and other two are called _______.
(A) rectracting disc (B) actuating disc
(C) wheel cylinder (D) none of the above
127. The fuel pump used in carburetor pump is _______.
(A) gasolene Pump (B) diaphragm type pump
(C) centrifugal pump (D) all of the above
128. Spark arresters are for filtering the burning _______ particles and are attached at/in _______.
(A) Impurity, end of exhaust pipe (B) Carbon, the engine cylinder
(C) Carbon, end of exhaust pipe (D) Impurity, the tip of injection nozzle
129. The centre of gravity of the tractor is located at _______.
(A) 2/3rd of the wheel base (B) 1/3rd of the wheel base
(C) 3/4th of the wheel base (D) None of the above
130. The rocker arm in internal combustion engines are of _______.
(A) first type of levers (B) second type of levers
(C) third type of levers (D) none of the above
131. The crown wheel assembly of tractor differential works as to _______.
(A) Increase speed of rear wheel (B) Reduce speed of rotation
(C) Control PTO speed (D) Control engine speed
132. In fuel system _______ filter is provided to remove water & coarse particles.
(A) Primary (B) Secondary
(C) Sedimentary (D) None of the above
133. The Mahindra and Mahindra Tractors Ltd. launched their first driverless tractor during
_______ year.
(A) 2014 (B) 2016
(C) 2018 (D) 2020
134. Escorts Tractor Limited has tie up with _______ tractor company during December 2018.
(A) Force (B) Kubota
(C) Sonalika (D) Eicher
135. Same Deutz Fahr (SDF) tractor manufacturing unit in India is located at _______.
(A) Noida (B) Ranipet
(C) Faridabad (D) Hoshiarpur
136. _______ law is applicable for flow of water through soil.
(A) Chezy’s (B) Stroke’s
(C) Hook’s (D) Darcy’s

AZJ-A ] 14 P.T.O.

204
137. The readings on hydrometer stem give the density of soil suspension situated at the _______of
bulb at any time
(A) Bottom end (B) Top end
(C) Centre (D) None of the above
138. _______ is the most accurate and standard method used in laboratory for determination of
specific gravity of soil solids.
(A) Pipettes method (B) Rubber balloon method
(C) Density bottle method (D) Flask method
139. An aridity index is defined as _______.
(A) (PET – AET / PET)  100 (B) (PET + AET / PET)  100
(C) PET – AET (D) none of the above
140. Frozen rain drops while falling though air at subfreezing temperature is called as _______.
(A) snow (B) glaze
(C) hail (D) sleet
141. Hyetograph is the plot of
(A) Rainfall intensity vs. time
(B) Cumulative discharge vs. time in chronological order
(C) Accumulated precipitation vs. time in chronological order
(D) Stream flow vs. time in chronological order
142. The period of direct runoff due to a unit storm is called as
(A) Lag time (B) Time base
(C) Tc (D) Time of peak
143. The type of surveying which requires least office work is
(A) tacheomefry (B) trigonometrical levelling
(C) plane table surveying (D) theodolite surveying
144. The adjustment of horizontal cross hair is required particularly when the instrument is used
for
(A) leveling (B) prolonging a straight line
(C) measurement of horizontal angles (D) all of the above
145. The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian at a place is called
(A) azimuth (B) declination
(C) local attraction (D) magnetic bearing
146. For a well-conditioned triangle, no angle should be less than
(A) 20° (B) 30°
(C) 45° (D) 60°
147. _______ shaped gullies are developed where sub soil is resistant to erosion.
(A) U (B) V
(C) J (D) None of the above

AZJ-A ] 15 [Contd.

205
148. Head of the gully works towards _______ of the gully
(A) downstream (B) upstream
(C) bottom (D) sides
149. Convex slopes of land are _______ erosive as compared to concave slopes
(A) less (B) more
(C) equally (D) none of the above
150. A shelterbelt creates effect on wind velocity towards windward side upto a distance of _______.
(A) 5 times the average height of shelterbelt
(B) 5 times the row spacing
(C) 5 times the width of shelterbelt
(D) 5 times the length of field
151. A small watershed is pronounced by _______ which is main contributor to result peak flow.
(A) Over land flow (B) subsurface flow
(C) Base flow (D) stream flow
152. Watershed _______ is caused due to the uncontrolled, unplanned, unscientific land use and
activities of men.
(A) deterioration (B) planning
(C) management (D) development
153. The ratio of basin area to square of basin length is called _______.
(A) ruggedness number (B) geometric number
(C) relief ratio (D) form factor
154. The land capability maps containing technical data related to soil survey helps to _______
(A) Reduced soil hazards (B) Land use planning
(C) Safe use of land (D) None of the above
155. What is the correct chronological order of the following laws enacted for the conservation
and protection of environment?
I. Environment (Protection) Act.
II. Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act.
III. Air (Prevention & Control of pollution) Act.
IV. National Green Tribunal Act.
(A) II-III-I-IV (B) I-II-III-IV
(C) III-II-I-IV (D) IV-III-II-I
156. National Bureau of Soil Survey and Land Use Planning (NBSSLUP) is headquartered at
_______
(A) Hyderabad (B) Delhi
(C) Pune (D) Nagpur
157. In two-dimensional flow, a grid of equipotential and streamlines is called as
(A) Contour network (B) Seepage line
(C) Flow net (D) Monogram

AZJ-A ] 16 P.T.O.

206
158. In case of stable equilibrium of floating body, _______
(A) G should be above M (B) M and G will be at same level
(C) M should be above G (D) None of the above
159. Density is constant in _______ type of fluid flow
(A) Rotational (B) Incompressible
(C) Compressible (D) Turbulent
160. Piezometer is used to measure _______ pressure.
(A) Atmospheric (B) Absolute
(C) Gauge (D) None of the above
61. Bernoulli’s theorem assumes viscosity of fluid _______.
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 1 (D) 3
162. The soil moisture tension at permanent wilting point ranges from _______.
(A) 0-7 atmosphere (B) 0-15 atmosphere
(C) 7-15 atmosphere (D) 7-32 atmosphere
163. Infiltration rate of the soil _______ as time elapses.
(A) Decreases (B) Remain same
(C) Increases (D) Varies
164. Hygroscopic water is held in the soil due to force of _______.
(A) Cohesion (B) Surface tension
(C) Adhesion (D) Capillary
165. _______ is the standard method of estimation of reference evapotranspiration as
recommended by the FAO-56.
(A) Blaney Criddle (B) Pan evaporation
(C) Penman-Monteith (D) Thronthwaite
166. _______ formula is used for calculation of velocity in open channel flow
(A) Rational (B) Darcy-Weisbach
(C) Chezy’s (D) Hazen-William
167. Most economical channel cross section is _______.
(A) Trapezoidal (B) Circular
(C) Semicircular (D) Rectangular
168. Acid treatment of micro irrigation is given to remove _______
(A) Chemical impurity (B) Biological impurity
(C) Crop residue (D) Soil
169. Soils having infiltration rate less than _______ are not suitable for sprinkler irrigation.
(A) 1 cm/hr (B) 4 cm/hr
(C) 0.4 cm/hr (D) 0.1 cm/hr
170. _______ system is used in the protected cultivation for climate control
(A) Drip (B) Micro-sprinkler
(C) Fogging (D) Pop up

AZJ-A ] 17 [Contd.

207
171. Drainage coefficient is the depth of water removed in _______.
(A) 1 hrs period (B) 12 hrs period
(C) 24 hrs period (D) 48 hrs period
172. Electrical conductivity of saline soil is more than _______.
(A) 1 dS/m (B) 4 dS/m
(C) 2 dS/m (D) 3 dS/m
173. Unit of intrinsic permeability is _______.
(A) T2 (B) L2
(C) N2 (D) L3
174. As per the norms given by Working Group, Govt. of India an area is said to be waterlogged,
if water table depth is within _______ m from the land surface.
(A) 2 m (B) 3 m
(C) 2.5 m (D) 4 m
175. The sum of pressure head and gravitational head is called as _______.
(A) Hydraulic head (B) Piezometric head
(C) Phreatic head (D) Static head
176. Water which is out of contact with atmosphere for at least an appreciable time of geologic
period is called _______.
(A) Metamorphic water (B) Juvenile water
(C) Connate water (D) Cosmic water
177. Leakage factor is the property of _______ aquifer.
(A) Confined (B) Semi-confined
(C) Perched (D) Unconfined
178. Formation particle size where 10 percent are finer and 90 percent are coarser _______
(A) D10 (B) D90
(C) D100 (D) D80
179. _______ is the high head high discharge pump.
(A) Propeller Pump (B) Turbine Pump
(C) Mixed flow pump (D) Submersible pump
180. _______ scheme focuses on enhancing water use efficiency through micro irrigation.
(A) MIS (B) PMKSY
(C) NABARD (D) CAPART
181. Agriculture contributes _______ percent in GDP
(A) 18.40 (B) 16.38
(C) 29.30 (D) 22.50
182. Which shape food material is like egg shaped and broad at the stem.
(A) Oblong (B) Conic
(C) Ovate (D) Oblate

AZJ-A ] 18 P.T.O.

208
183. Ideal Plastic behavior is represented by
(A) Newtonian liquid (B) St. Venant body
(C) Hooken body (D) All of the above
184. Air compression pycnometer is used to measure the
(A) Weight (B) Volume
(C) Specific gravity (D) Temperature
185. In psychometric chart the drying process represented by:
(A) Constant entropy line (B) Constant humidity line
(C) Constant pressure line (D) Constant enthalpy line
186. At 100% relative humidity, wet bulb temperature of air is:
(A) More than dew point temperature (B) Less than dew point temperature
(C) Same as dew point temperature (D) None of the above
187. The most effective evaporator type is:
(A) Plate (B) Rising Film
(C) Falling Film (D) Shell and Tube
188. The process of cooling the oil to a low temperature for long time and filtering the solid
material from the oil is called
(A) Deodorization (B) Decolouration
(C) Winterization (D) Bleaching
189. The operating speed of hammer mill should be
(A) 500 to 750 rpm (B) 750 to 1000 rpm
(C) 1000 to 1250 rpm (D) 1400 to 1500 rpm
190. Homogenization of milk must have 90% of fat globules of smaller diameter than:
(A) 1  (B) 2 
(C) 3  (D) 4 
191. A disc type centrifuge has milk inlet at radius Rm, cream outlet at radius R1 and skim milk
outlet at radius R2. In order to have a very high sepration of milk fat globules from milk, the
position of Rm should be
(A) Close to R1 (B) Close to R2
(C) Midway between R1 and R2 (D) None of the above
192. Fruits are blanched before canning at temperature
(A) 70°C (B) 90°C
(C) 80°C (D) 100°C
193. Which gas is used for freezing of foods at – 196°C ?
(A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen
(C) Nitrogen (D) Ozone
194. Ethylene is a natural plant hormone and plays a central role in the initiation of
(A) Ripening (B) Growth
(C) Senescence (D) All of the above

AZJ-A ] 19 [Contd.

209
195. Spoilage of stored food grains due to fungal and mold activity starts generally at following
relative humidity of storage environment when its temperature is in the normal range:
(A) 95% (B) 80%
(C) 65% (D) 50%
196. In modified atmosphere packaging:
(A) CO2 and O2 level increase
(B) CO2 level increase O 2 level decreases
(C) CO2 level decreases O 2 level increase
(D) CO2 and O2 level remain constant
197. Which is one of the best packaging material to inhibit moisture migration from the packaged
products ?
(A) Laminated Foil (B) Steel
(C) CFB (D) HDPE
198. which of the following material is not used for aseptic packaging?
(A) Plastics (B) Stainless steel
(C) Aluminum (D) Glass
199. Which chemical compound is used as sterilizing medium in aseptic packaging of food?
(A) SO2 (B) H2S
(C) H2O2 (D) H2 O
200. IU is equal to
(A) 0.1 g (B) 0.3 g
(C) 0.2 g (D) 0.5 g
201. Those actions to be taken when the monitoring of the CCP induced a loss of control
(A) Corrective action (B) Monitor
(C) Hazard (D) Critical limit
202. Heat transfer from higher temperature to lower temperature takes place _______
(A) according to First law of thermodynamics
(B) according to Second law of thermodynamics
(C) according to Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(D) according to Fourier law
203. Chilling is an example of _______ by convection to the surface of food
(A) unsteady state heat transfer (B) steady state heat transfer
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
204. _______ is a device for transferring heat from a hot stream of fluid to a cold stream
(A) Evaporator (B) Condenser
(C) Heat exchanger (D) Cyclone separator
pvl
205. The term is called _______

(A) Froude number (B) Prandtl number
(C) Reynolds number (D) Nusselt number

AZJ-A ] 20 P.T.O.

210
206. _______ is a unit operation and fundamental physical principle underling it is that heat energy
will be transferred from hotter to colder bodies.
(A) Mass transfer (B) Momentum transfer
(C) Heat transfer (D) None of the above
207. For water, triple point occurs at _______°C temperature and 0.64 kPa pressure
(A) 0.0056 (B) 0.0098
(C) 0.0034 (D) None of the above
208. _______ is defined as heat processing used to inactivate substantially all micro-organisms
and spores, which is present, would be capable of growing in the food under defined storage
conditions.
(A) Chilling (B) Pasteurization
(C) Commercial sterilization (D) None of the above
209. The standard reference temperature of 121.1°C and a relative time (in min) requires to
sterilizer, effectively for any selected organism at 121.1°C is called as _______ of that
organism.
(A) D-value (B) F-value
(C) Z-value (D) None of the above
210. The embossing provided on the plate of the heat exchangers is to create _______ in the
flow.
(A) velocity (B) flow
(C) turbulence (D) None of the above
211. Heat resistant mold present in canned fruits is
(A) Clostridum Botulinum (B) Bysoochlamys fulva
(C) Penicillium notatum (D) Aspergillus niger
212. _______ serves the purpose of increase in the surface transmittance.
(A) rubber (B) steel
(C) cork (D) Fins
213. A _______ of an actual problem can be transformed into a corresponding electrical circuit.
(A) physical circuit (B) thermal circuit
(C) specific heat (D) temperature
214. A _______ is one which transmits part of radiation falling on its surface.
(A) transparent body (B) black body
(C) emissive body (D) green body
215. _______ which is water contained within plant cells of which the grain or kernel is composed.
(A) MC(db) (B) MC(wb)
(C) Adsorbed water (D) Sorpted water
216. _______ is a plot of equilibrium moisture content versus relative humidity at a given
temperature for a material which has been subjected to a wetting environment.
(A) Psychrometric chart (B) Mollier diagram
(C) Sorption Isotherm (D) Drying characteristics

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217. _______ is the ratio of cooling capacity to the gain in enthalpy due to compression.
(A) HUF (B) power requirement
(C) throtlling (D) COP
218. _______ of refrigeration is defined as the cooling capacity equivalent to that provided by ice
melting at the rate of 1 ton/24h at 0°C.
(A) m3/s (B) watt
(C) centipoises (D) ton
219. _______ of milk rises with concentration.
(A) Viscosity (B) Temperature
(C) Vacuum (D) Flowability
220. A reversible adiabatic process is known as _______ process.
(A) isentropic (B) isotropic
(C) isobaric (D) isopestic
221. _______ of the dry matter of the grain or wet material is very small in comparison with the
latent heat of vapourization of moisture removed.
(A) field heat (B) sensible heat
(C) chilling injury (D) co-current heat.
222. Which of the following software can be used for 3D analysis under GIS
(A) Arc Globe (B) TOPAZ
(C) SAGA (D) Arc Into
223. The temperature of sun’s surface is approximately _______.
(A) 300°K (B) 6000°K
(C) l000°K (D) 1°K
224. Which of the following is the GIS software?
(A) SPRING (B) KIDS
(C) BASINS (D) All of the above
225. The first operational remote sensing satellite is _______.
(A) TRIOS (B) NOAA
(C) GMS (D) SPOT
226. The wavelength of near IR is from _______.
(A) 0.72 - 1.30 nm (B) 1.30 - 3.0 nm
(C) 0.38 - 3.0 nm (D) 0.30 - 15.0 nm
227. In remote sensing the sensors are used to detect _______.
(A) EMR (electromagnetic radiation) (B) Sound energy
(C) IR (D) Visible light
228. In electromagnetic spectrum the position of visible light is at _______.
(A) Outer end (right) (B) Left side outer end
(C) Middle (D) 0.20 m distance from the right end

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229. The “ODYSSEY” is the _______.
(A) Modern vector software (B) R.S. vector software
(C) GIS software for Orrisa (India) (D) GIS software for Odessey dance
230. The G.P.S. determines the position of object to the accuracy of about _______.
(A) 30 m (B) 1 m
(C) 10 m (D) 0.50 m
231. The removal of distortions in the amount of electromagnetic energy received by the satellite
is called _______.
(A) Filtration (B) Radiometric correction
(C) Atmospheric correction (D) Image restoration.
232. Gaussian stretch enhances _______ within tails of the histogram.
(A) Colour (B) Density
(C) Contrast (D) Size
233. Raster datasets are represented by _______.
(A) Matrix of cells (B) Lines
(C) Points (D) polygons
234. Thermal IR band has wavelength of _______.
(A) 3 - 5 nm (B) 5 - 7 nm
(C) 1 - 3 nm (D) 15 - 20 nm
235. _______ classification automatically segregate pixels into groups of similar spectral character.
(A) Raster (B) Unsupervised
(C) Supervised (D) Vector
236. Training of the data is performed in the _______ classification.
(A) Raster (B) Unsupervised
(C) Supervised (D) Vector
237. TIN stands for _______.
(A) Traffic Internet Network (B) Triangulated Irregular Network
(C) Temporal Interest Network (D) Temperature Interface Node
238. Converting geographic data either from a hard-copy or a scanned image into vector data by
tracing the features is called _______.
(A) Supervised classification (B) Unsupervised classification
(C) Digitization (D) None of the above
239. GCS stands for _______.
(A) Google coordinate system (B) Geographic coordinate system
(C) Google corporate satellite (D) None of the above
240. CARTOSAT 2 is launched in _______ year
(A) 2010 (B) 2015
(C) 2007 (D) 2001

AZJ-A ] 23 [Contd.

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241. Point feature has _______ dimension
(A) Zero (B) Many
(C) One (D) Infinite
242. Structure for sheltering and restricting the dairy animals is known as _______
(A) Pen barn (B) Milking Parlour
(C) Stanchion barn (D) None of the above
243. Farmstead area usually varies from _______ of the farm area.
(A) 3-5% (B) 10-11%
(C) 20-25% (D) 1-2%
244. Thickness of the barbed wire which is used for fencing is _______
(A) 14 gauge (B) 10 gauge
(C) 18 gauge (D) 20 gauge
245. In wire floored poultry houses, bird takes rest in horizontal place known as _______
(A) Cages (B) Perches
(C) Roosts (D) Nests
246. National Greenhouse Manufacturers Association (NGMA) recommends _______ Pa as
minimum live load for greenhouse design.
(A) 900 Pa (B) 700 Pa
(C) 850 Pa (D) 550 Pa
247. In large mesh woven wire fencing the spacing between vertical wires vary between _______
(A) 7.5-15 cm (B) 10-12.5
(C) 15-30 cm (D) 7.5-22.5
248. Fan and pad type cooling arrangement is suitable for:
(A) Low temperature and low humidity (B) Low temperature and high humidity
(C) High temperature and low humidity (D) High temperature and high humidity
249. In deep litter poultry house floor area required per bird is _______
(A) 0.36 m2 (B) 0.32 m2
(C) 0.4 m2 (D) 0.45 m2
250. Slump test is performed to measure the _______ of the concrete.
(A) Plasticity (B) Elasticity
(C) Compressive strength (D) None of the above
251. Pit silo is constructed in the area where:
(A) Soil is shallow and water table is very low
(B) Soil is deep and water table is high
(C) Soil is deep and water table is very low
(D) None of the above
252. Water required per 100 birds per day is
(A) 50 litres (B) 30 litres
(C) 10 litres (D) 5 litres

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253. Greenhouse which is constructed on hilly terrain called as
(A) Uneven span type (B) Even span type greenhouse
(C) Quonset greenhouse (D) Ridge and furrow type
254. In electric fencing, form safety point of view circuit may be kept on for about _______ of a
second and off _______ of second.
(A) 1/10th , 4/5th (B) ) 4/5th , 1/10th
(C) 1/4th , 1/8th (D) 1/8th , 1/4th
255. Barbed wire fencing is not effective against:
(A) Goat (B) Rabbit
(C) Poultry (D) All of the above
256. _______ type of structure is used for the storage of paddy, maize and sorghum (jowar) in the
rural area of eastern and southern region of India.
(A) Bukhari type (B) Morai type
(C) Kothar type (D) All of the above
257. The capacity of Bukhari type grain storage structures varies from _______
(A) 9 to 35 tonnes (B) 25 to 500 tonnes
(C) 10 to 40 tonnes (D) 3.5 to 18 tonnes
258. A bin in which plane of rupture meets the opposite side before it emerge from the grain is
known as _______
(A) Shallow bin (B) Deep bin
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
259. The length of shed should ordinarily be longer than _______ but should not exceed 36 m.
(A) 9 m (B) 10 m
(C) 11 m (D) 12 m
260. The common size of bricks made in India is _______
(A) 15  15  10 cm (B) 10  20  20 cm
(C) 20  20  10 cm (D) None of the above
261. A common ratio of cement to sand in a mortar is _______
(A) 1: 3 (B) 1: 6
(C) 1: 5 (D) None of the above
262. The direction of rotation of single phase motor can be reversed by reversing _______.
(A) connections of both windings (B) starting winding connections
(C) switch (D) supply connection
263. No-load test on transformer is carried out to determine _______.
(A) copper loss (B) magnetizing current
(C) magnetizing current and no-load loss (D) efficiency of the transformer
3
264. 1 m biogas is generated from _______ of cow dung.
(A) 25 kg (B) 50 kg
3
(C) 25 m (D) 50 m3

AZJ-A ] 25 [Contd.

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265. In a solar panel, the metal used is _______.
(A) Gold (B) Copper
(C) Silver (D) Nickel
266. The unit to measure energy is _______.
(A) kw (B) kwh
(C) KVA (D) Volt
267. In updraft gasifier, the height to diameter ratio is usually kept _______.
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 3
(C) 1 : 1 (D) None of the above
268. If the wind speed decreases by _______%, the power output is reduced by almost 50%.
(A) 20 (B) 50
(C) 30 (D) None of the above
269. Complete break-down of tars is achieved in _______ gasifier.
(A) Downdraft (B) Updraft
(C) Cross draft (D) None of the above
270. In up draft gasifier, fuel and air are moved in _______ direction.
(A) same (B) opposite
(C) cross (D) none of the above
271. Gasification is the _______ conversion process.
(A) biochemical (B) thermochemical
(C) agrochemical (D) none of the above
272. The objective of energy management is _______.
(A) to minimize energy costs (B) to minimize environmental effects
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of the above
273. The engine working on _______ can be converted to operate on biogas fuel.
(A) Four stroke cycle
(B) Two stroke cycle
(C) Both Four stroke and Two stroke cycle
(D) None of the above
274. The pH value for optimum biogas generation is _______.
(A) 6 (B) 9
(C) 5 (D) 7
275. One kg of cattle dung produces _______ of bio-gas.
(A) 0.04 lt (B) 0.04 m3
(C) 0.4 lt (D) 0.4 m3
276. Which of the following is the type of improved cookstove on the basis of shield?
(A) Open fire type stoves (B) Shielded stoves
(C) Closed stoves (D) All of the above

AZJ-A ] 26 P.T.O.

216
277. Which of the following are the examples of improved cookstoves?
(A) Chetak (B) Udairaj
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
278. Which Ministry is mainly responsible for research and development in renewable energy
sources such as wind power, small hydro, biogas and solar power?
(A) Human Resource Development (B) Health and Family Welfare
(C) Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (D) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
279. Which among the following have a large amount of installed grid interactive renewable power
capacity in India?
(A) Small Hydro power (B) Wind power
(C) Solar power (D) Biomass power
280. The world’s first 100% solar powered airport located at _______
(A) Mumbai, Maharashtra (B) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
(C) Cochin, Kerala (D) Bengaluru, Karnataka
281. Bill Gates, Chairman of the Board for Terra Power Company is associated in which of the
following non-renewable resources?
(A) Earth minerals (B) Fossil fuels
(C) Nuclear energy (D) Metal ores
282. The _______ amplifiers are generally used for amplification of extremely low frequency.
(A) RC coupled (B) transformer coupled
(C) direct coupled (D) class C power amplifier
283. In exclusive OR-Gate, the output is _______ only when one of the inputs is high or low.
(A) high (B) low
(C) neutral (D) none of the above
284. The operational amplifier can amplify _______.
(A) AC and Dc signal (B) A.C signal only
(C) D.C. signal only (D) none of the above
285. The Maximum efficiency of Full wave center tapped rectifier is _______.
(A) 81.2% (B) 40.6%
(C) 80.4% (D) 41.2%
286. _______ is the degree of exactness for which instrument is intended to perform.
(A) Accuracy (B) Precision
(C) resolution (D) drift
287. Which of the following is desirable property of an instrument?
(A) linearity (B) drift
(C) static error (D) hysteresis
288. Thermocouple is used to measure _______.
(A) pressure (B) displacement
(C) temperature (D) flow

AZJ-A ] 27 [Contd.

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289. Which of the following is not a signal processing device?
(A) filter (B) rectifier
(C) transducer (D) amplifier
290. Rotameter is used to measure _______.
(A) flow rate (B) level
(C) displacement (D) pressure
291. Capacitive transducers are normally used for _______ measurements.
(A) static (B) dynamic
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) transient
292. Which of the following is elastic type of transducer?
(A) Float (B) Orifice plate
(C) Thermometer (D) Bourdon tube
293. MS-Word is an example of _______.
(A) an operating system (B) a processing device
(C) an application software (D) an input device
294. Ctrl, Shift and Alt are called _______ keys.
(A) modifier (B) function
(C) alphanumeric (D) adjustment
295. Storage capacity of magnetic disc depends on _______.
(A) disk pack in disk surface (B) tracks per inch of surface
(C) bits per inch on tracks (D) all of the above
296. The computer’s processor consists of the following parts: _______.
(A) CPU and main memory (B) Hard disk and floppy drive
(C) Control unit and ALU (D) Operating system and application
297. Where is RAM located?
(A) Mother board (B) Expansion board
(C) External drive (D) None of the above
298. A measuring system consists of _______.
(A) sensors (B) variable conversion elements
(C) signal processing elements (D) all of the above
299. A _______ is a software program used to view Web pages.
(A) site (B) host
(C) link (D) browser
300. Which of the following is a popular programming language for developing multimedia web
pages?
(A) COBOL (B) Java
(C) BASIC (D) Assembler

AZJ-A ] 28

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