09-11-2025

8101CMD303021250011 MD

PHYSICS

1) In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates
sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 × 1010 Hz and amplitude 48 Vm–1. Then the amplitude of oscillating
magnetic field is : (Speed of light in free space = 3 × 108 m s–1)

(1) 1.6 × 10–8 T

(2) 1.6 × 10–7 T
(3) 1.6 × 10–6 T
(4) 1.6 × 10–9 T

2) The magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is given by By = 3 × 10–7 sin(103 x + 6.28 x 1012 t),
where x in meter and t in second. The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave is :

(1) 6.28 cm
(2) 3.14 cm
(3) 0.63 cm
(4) 0.32 cm

3) A 100Ω resistance and a capacitor of 100Ω reactance are connected in series across a 220 V
source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the peak value of the displacement current is : -

(1)
(2) 2.2A
(3) 11A
(4) 4.4A

4) An electromagnetic wave is propagating along Y-axis. Then

(1) Oscillating electric field is along X-axis and oscillating magnetic field is along Y-axis
(2) Oscillating electric field is along Z-axis and oscillating magnetic field is along X-axis
Both oscillating electric and magnetic fields are along Y-axis. but phase difference between
(3)
them is 90º
(4) Both oscillating electric and magnetic fields are mutually perpendicular in arbitrary direction

5) If two plane mirrors are kept at 60° to each other and a body is placed at the middle, then total
number of images formed is :

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 3
6) A man moves towards a plane mirror with a velocity v in a direction making an angle θ with the
normal to the mirror. The magnitude of velocity of the image relative to man normal to the mirror
will be :-

(1) 2V
(2) 2V cosθ
(3) 2Vsinθ

(4)

7) Following figure shows the multiple reflection of a light ray along a glass corridor where the walls
are either parallel or perpendicular to one another. If the angle of incidence at point P is 30°, what
are the angles of reflection of the light ray at points Q, R, S and T respectively :-

(1) 30°, 30°, 30°, 30°

(2) 30°, 60°, 30°, 60°
(3) 30°, 60°, 60°, 30°
(4) 60°, 60°, 60°, 60°

8) The focal length of a concave mirror is f and the distance from the object to the principle focus is
x. The ratio of the size of the image to the size of the object is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Assertion (A) : Speed of light is independent of its colour only in vacuum.

Reason (R) : Red colour light travels slower than violet colour light in glass.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

10) In the given figure an observer in air (n = 1) sees the bottom of a beaker filled with water (n =
4/3) upto a height of 40 cm. What will be the depth felt by this observer.

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm

11) Two plane mirrors. A and B are aligned parallel to each other, as shown in the figure. A light ray
is incident at an angle of 30° at a point just inside one end of A. The plane of incidence coincides
with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times the ray undergoes reflections before it

emerges out is:-

(1) 28
(2) 30
(3) 31
(4) 34

12)

Radius of the glass sphere is 10 cm and CO = 4 cm. Find apparent depth of sphere.

(1) 4 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 7 cm

13)

What is the size of image :-

(1) 4 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) 10 cm

14) The stopping potential as a function of frequency of incident radiation is plotted for two different
surfaces A and B. The graphs show that the work function of A is

(1) Greater than that of B

(2) Smaller than that of B
(3) Same as that of B
(4) No comparison can be done from given graphs

15) Energy levels A,B and C of a certain atom correspond to increasing values of energy i.e.
EA < EB < EC . If λ1 ,λ2 and λ3 are wave lengths of radiations corresponding to transitions C to B, B
to A and C to A respetively, which of the following relations is correct :–

(1) λ3 = λ1 + λ2

(2)
λ3 =
(3) λ1 + λ2 + λ3 = 0
(4)

16) The figure shows a plot of photo current versus anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for
three different radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of same frequency having same intensity
(2) curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities
(3) curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of same frequency but of different intensities
(4) curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities

17) A radioactive nucleus decay as follows :-

X X1 X2 X3 X4,
if the atomic number and the mass number of X are 72 and 180 then the mass number and atomic
number of X4 are :-

(1) 172, 70
(2) 171, 69
(3) 172, 69
(4) 172, 68

18) An electron of stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level.
The velocity that the atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be :
(m is the mass of the atom, R, Rydberg constant and h Planck's constant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Alpha particles are fired at a nucleus. Which of the paths shown in figure is not possible ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20)

The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1 and E2 respectively. Two atoms of X are fused to give
one atom of Y and an energy Q is released. Then

(1) Q = 2E1 – E2
(2) Q = E2 – 2E1
(3) Q = 2E1 + E2
(4) Q = 2E2 + E1

21)
The above is a plot of binding energy per nucleon Eb, against the nuclear mass M; A, B, C, D, E, F
correspond to different nuclei. Consider four reactions :-
(i) A + B → C + ε
(ii) C → A + B + ε
(iii) D + E → F + ε
(iv) F → D + E + ε where ε is the energy released ? In which reactions is ε positive ?

(1) (ii) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iii)

22) The binding energies per Nucleon for a deutron and an α-particle are x1 and x2 respectively.
What will be the energy Q released in the reaction :-

(1) 4(x1 + x2)

(2) 4(x2 – x1)
(3) 2(x1 + x2)
(4) 2(x2 – x1)

23) The kinetic energy of most energetic electrons emitted from a metallic surface is doubled when
the wavelength of the incident radiation is changed from 400 nm to 310 nm the work-function of the
metal is :

(1) 0.9 eV
(2) 1.7 eV
(3) 2.2 eV
(4) 3.1 eV

24) Assertion(A): Energy is released when heavy nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo
fusion.
Reason(R): For heavy nuclei, binding energy per nucleon increases with increasing Z while for light
nucle it decreases with increasing Z.

(1) A both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) Ais true but R is false
(4) Ais false and R is true

25) Which of the following parameters is the same for all hydrogen-like atoms and ions in their
ground states?

(1) Radius of the orbit

(2) Speed of the electron
(3) Energy of the atom
(4) Orbital angular momentum of the electron

26) In the Bohr model of hydrogen atom, let PE represent potential energy and TE represent total
energy. In going from a lower to a higher orbit:

(1) PE decreases, TE increases

(2) PE increases, TE increases
(3) PE decreases, TE decreases
(4) PE increases, TE decreases

27) The total energy of an electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. The potential
energy of an electron in the ground state of Li2+ ion will be

(1) 122.4 eV
(2) -122.4 eV
(3) 244.8 eV
(4) -244.8 eV

28) The work function for sodium surface is 2.0 eV and that for aluminium surface is 4.2 eV. The two
metals are illuminated with appropriate radiations so as to cause photoemission. Then

(1) The threshold frequency for sodium will be less than that for aluminium
(2) The threshold frequency of sodium will be more than that of aluminium
(3) Both sodium and aluminium will have the same threshold frequency
(4) None of the above

29) An electron makes a transition from orbit n = 4 to the orbit n = 2 of a hydrogen atom. The wave
number of the emitted radiations (R = Rydberg's constant) will be

(1) 16/3 R
(2) 2R/16
(3) 3R/16
(4) 4R/16

30) Ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths of a proton and a deutron, accelerated through same potential
difference from rest, will be :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3)
(4)

31) If M (A ;Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus , proton and neutron respectively in
2
units of u (1u = 931.5 MeV/c ) and BE represents its binding energy in MeV, then :-

(1) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn – BE

2
(2) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn + BE/c
2
(3) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn – BE /c
(4) M (A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z) Mn + BE

32) When light of maximum wavelength 300 nm (nanometer) falls on a photoelectric emitter,
photoelectrons are liberated. For another emitter, however light of 600 nm wavelength is sufficient
for creating photoemission. What is the ratio of the work functions of the two emitters :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

33) A photon collides with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground state inelastically. Energy of the
colliding photon is 10.2 eV. After a time interval of the order of micro second another photon collides
with same hydrogen atom inelastically with an energy of 15 eV. What will be observed by the
detector. :-

(1) 2 photon of energy 10.2 eV

(2) 2 photon of energy 1.4 eV
(3) One photon of energy 10.2 eV and an electron of energy 1.4 eV
(4) One photon of energy 10.2 eV and another photon of 1.4 eV

34) When green light is incident on the surface of metal, it emits photo-electrons but there is no
such emission with yellow colour light. Which one of the colour can produce emission of photo-
electrons ?

(1) Orange
(2) Red
(3) Indigo
(4) None of the above

35) The light rays having photons of energy 4.2 eV are falling on a metal surface having a work
function of 2.2 eV. The stopping potential of the surface is :

(1) 2 eV
(2) 2 V
(3) 1.1 V
(4) 6.4 V
36) A radioactive nucleus undergoes spontaneous decay in the sequence
where Z is the atomic number of element X. The possible decay particles
in the sequence are :

(1) α, β–, β+
(2) α, β+, β–
(3) β+, α, β–
(4) β–, α, β+

37)
Find the value of current i :-

(1) 0.4 mA
(2) 4 mA
(3) Zero
(4) 40 mA

38) A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentration of acceptor atoms is ~1021 atoms/m3. Given
that the intrinsic concentration of electron hole pairs is ~1019/m3, the concentration of electrons in
the specimen is :-

(1) 1017/m3
(2) 1015/m3
(3) 104/m3
(4) 102/m3

39) Ge and Si diodes conduct at 0.3 V and 0.7 V respectively. In the following figure if Ge diode

connection is reversed, the value of V changes by

(1) 0.2 V
(2) 0.4 V
(3) 0.6 V
(4) 0.8 V

40) Solar cell always used in :-

(1) Forward bias

(2) Reverse bias
(3) unbiased
(4) FB & RB both

41) Make a truth table corresponding to the circuit shown in figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A 2V battery is connected across the point A and B as shown in the figure given below. Assuming
that the resistance of each diode is zero in forward bias and infinity in reserve bias, the current

supplied by the battery when its positive terminal is connected to A is :-

(1) 0.2 A
(2) 0.4 A
(3) Zero
(4) 0.1 A

43) In extrinsic semiconductors,

(1) the conduction band and valence band overlap.

(2) the gap between conduction band and valence band is more than 16 eV.
(3) the gap between conduction band and valence band is near about 1 eV.
(4) the gap between conduction band and valence band will be 100 eV and more.

44) There is a gate with two inputs A and B, and one output Y. Using the input and output

waveforms, identify the gate :-

(1) NAND
(2) NOR
(3) OR
(4) AND

45)

Carbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have four valence electrons each. Their valence and
conduction bands are separated by energy band gaps represented by (Eg)C , (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge
respectively. Which one of the following relationships is true in their case :–

(1) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge

(2) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si
(3) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si
(4) (Eg)C < (Eg)Si

CHEMISTRY

1) To form osazone from glucose, how many mole of phenyl hydrazine is used

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 1
2) CH3–C≡N C is:-

(1) CH3–CH2–OH
(2) CH3–COOH
(3) CH3–CHO
(4) CH3–CH2–CH3

3) Which of the following compound produces an optically active product with LiAlH4 ?

(1) CH3 – CHO

(2)

(3)

(4)

4)
The products (A) and (B) are:

(A) , (B)
(1)

(2)
(A) , (B)

(A) , (B)
(3)

(4)
(A) , (B)

5) Match the statements given in Column-I and Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(a) (p) LiAlH4

 Zn-Hg/ conc.
(b) (q)
HCl

(c) (r) DIBAL-H

(d) (s) CH3MgBr

(1) a → p; b → q; c → r; d → s
(2) a → q; b → s; c → p; d → r
(3) a → p; b → q; c → s; d → r
(4) a → r; b → s; c → q; d → p

6) product.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

7) Which of the following compound don't gives + ve fehling solution test :

(1) Benzaldehyde
(2) Acetaldehyde
(3) Hemiacetal
(4) Both (2) and (3)

8) CH3CHO and CH3COCH3 can not be distinguished by :-

(1) Fehling solution

(2) Grignard reagent
(3) Schiff's reagent
(4) Tollen's reagent
9) Which of the following cannot be used to convert RCHO into RCH2OH?

(1) H2/Pd
(2) LiAlH4
(3) NaBH4
(4) Reaction with RMgX followed by hydrolysis

10) Rochelle salt is

(1) Sodium potassium tartarate

(2) Ammonical silver nitrate
(3) Ammonical silver nitrate
(4) None of these

11)
Product (B) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which of the following compound can decolourise bromine water ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

13) 0.2 g of an organic compound on Kjeldahl’s analysis gave ammonia. This evolved ammonia
can neutralize 20 cm3 of 0.1 N H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is:

(1) 14
(2) 20
(3) 70
(4) 24

14) Which of the following will give aldol condensation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) CH3—COOH P, compound P can show :-

(1) Aldol condensation reaction

(2) Cannizzaro's reaction
(3) Reducing property with Tollen's reagent
(4) All

16) When chlorine reacts with carboxylic acid in the presence of red P then α-chloro carboxylic acid
will be formed, this reaction is known as :

(1) Hunsdicker reaction

(2) Hell-Volhard - zelinsky reaction
(3) Friedel - crafts reaction
(4) Rosenmund reduction

17) P should be :- P (Major),

(1) R–CH2–OH
(2) R–CH2–NH2

(3)

(4) None of these

18)

Which of the following compound will reduces by both LiAlH4, as well as NaBH4

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(5)

(1) 1, 3, 4
(2) 1, 5, 3
(3) 3, 5
(4) 4, 5, 2

19) An organic compound react with aq. HNO2 to produce an oily nitrosoamine. The compound is :-

(1) CH3–NH2
(2) CH3CH2 NH2
(3) CH3CH2NHCH2CH3

(4)

20) Which of the following compound will not give Carbylamine Reaction ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) CH3 – C ≡ CH X Y, Y is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The Corey-House alkane synthesis is carried out by treating an alkyl halide with

(1) Lithium metal

(2) Copper metal
Lithium metal followed by reaction with cuprous iodide and then treating the product with
(3)
an alkyl halide
(4) Cuprous iodide followed by reaction with alkyl halide

24) Correct reactivity order for EAR of following compounds is

(1) IV > I > II > III

(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) II > III > I > IV
(4) II > III > IV > I

25)
The compound X is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) Both (1) & (2)

26) Which is correct about Wurtz reaction ?

(a) It can proceed through free radical mechanism
(b) Alkanes having even no. of C-atom can be prepared
(c) Sodium in Ammonia is used
(d) Sodium in dry ether is used

(1) c, d
(2) a, b, d
(3) b, c
(4) a, b, c, d

27) Match the column

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) Wurtz-Fitting Reaction

RCOONa R–R

(B) (Q) Kolbe’s Electrolysis

R–CH2–COONa R–CH3

(C) (R) Decarboxylation

R–X + R1–X R–R1

(D) (S) Wurtz Reaction

R–X + Ph–X
(1) A(Q), B(R), C(S), D(P)
(2) A(R), B(Q), C(P), D(S)
(3) A(P), B(S), C(R), D(Q)
(4) A(Q), B(R), C(P), D(S)

28) Rate of decarboxylation is maximum in?

(1)
(2) CH2 = CH — COOH
(3) CH3 – COOH
(4) CH3 – CH2- COOH

29) Which of the following reaction is incorrect?

(1)
(2)

(CH3)2CuLi + CH3CH2—Br
(3)

(4)
CH3—CH2—I CH3—CH3

30) Which one of the following amines can not be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis ?

(1) Ethylamine
(2) Ethyl methylamine
(3) Isopropylamine
(4) n-Propylamine

31) Which of the following compound does not react with Hinsberg reagent.

(1)

(2) CH3—NH—CH3
(3) C2H5—NH2

(4)

32) Assertion: Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction is for formation of primary amines.

Reason: Primary amines are more basic than secondary amines.

(1) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

Both assertion and reason are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct statements and reason is correct explanation of assertion.

33)
Structure of (A) is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) CH3–CH2–NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH → A

Product (A) is :-

(1) CH3–CH2–C ≡ N
(2) CH3–CH2–N C
(3) CH3 – N C
(4) CH3 – C ≡ N

35) Which of the following reaction DOES NOT involve Hoffmann Bromamide degradation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Match the matrix :

(A) Rosenmund reduction (I) SnCl2 + HCl

(B) Etard reaction (II) H2 & Pd-BaSO4

(C) Stephen reaction (III) CrO2Cl2 /CS2 and H3O⊕

(1) A→II; B→III; C→I
(2) A→I; B→II; C→III
(3) A→III; B→I; C→II
(4) A→I; B→III; C→II

37) Assertion : Carbylamine reaction involves the reaction between 1° amine and chloroform in
basic medium.
Reason : In carbylamine reaction, –NH2 group is converted into –CN group.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

38) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Aniline does not undergo Friedel- Crafts alkylation reaction Statement-II : Aniline
cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is true.

39) Which one of the following tests can be used to identify primary amino group in a given organic
compound

(1) Iodoform test

(2) Victor Meyer's test
(3) Carbylamine reaction
(4) Libermann's reaction

40) Which of following is insoluble in alkali?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) All of these

41) The helical structure of protein is stabilised by :-

(1) Depeptide bond

(2) Hydrogen bond
(3) Ether bond
(4) Ester bond

42) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Starch is polymer of α-glucose

(2) Lactose is composed of β-D-galactose only
(3) Glycogen is known as animal starch
(4) Cellulose is composed of β-D-glucose

43) For Denaturation of protein which statement is not correct ?

(1) Denaturation occurs by change in pH and temperature

(2) Denaturation leads to loss of primary structure of protein
(3) Denaturation leads loss of secondary and tertiary structure of protein
(4) Denaturation does not lead to change in sequence of amino acids in protein

44) Which of the following is non reducing sugar :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Structure of glycogen is similar to :-

(1) Amylose
(2) Amylopectin
(3) Cellulose
(4) Glucose

BIOLOGY

1) The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is :-

(1) 10 billion tons

(2) 170 billion tons
(3) 55 billion tons
(4) 1 billion tons

2) Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem ?

(1) Energy flow

(2) Decomposition
(3) Productivity
(4) Stratification

3) In aquatic ecosystem major conduit for energy conduction is :-

(1) DFC
(2) Parasitic food chain
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) GFC

4) Assertion : Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process.

Reason : Low temperature and anaerobiosis favours decomposition.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

5) Select the incorrect statement regarding 'humus' :-

(1) It is a dark coloured amorphous substance

(2) It is highly resistant to microbial action
(3) It undergoes decomposition at an extremely fast rate
(4) It is colloidal in nature

6) Limitation of ecological pyramids is/are :-

(1) It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
(2) It assumes a simple food chain, it does not accommodate a food web.
(3) Saprophytes are not given any place.
(4) All of the above

7) Choose the incorrect statement about decomposition :

Decomposers breakdown complex organic matter into simple organic and inorganic substances
(1)
like CO2, water & nutrients.
(2) Detritus is the raw material for decomposition.
Fragmentation, leaching & catabolism all three processes operate in successive manner not
(3)
simultaneously.
(4) Presence of lignin, chitin, shows slow decomposition.

8) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

Accumulation of
dark coloured
(A) (i) Fragmentation
amorphous substance
during decomposition

(B) Water soluble nutrients go down into the soil horizon (ii) Humification

(C) Release of inorganic nutrients by microbial activity (iii) Mineralization

(D) Break down detritus into smaller particles (iv) Leaching

Options:
A B C D

(1) ii iii iv i

(2) ii iv iii i

(3) i iii iv ii

(4) iv i ii iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one
of the following statements is correct?

(1) There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity
(2) Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity
(3) Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity
(4) Gross primary productivity and net primary productivity are one and same
10) In a biotic community, the primary consumers are :

(1) Detritivores
(2) Herbivores
(3) Carnivores
(4) Omnivores

11) Which of the following option correctly represent functions of an ecosystem ? (A) Energy flow
(B) Decomposition
(C) Productivity (D) Nutrient cycling

(1) A and D
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

12) The figure shows an ecological pyramid. What must be correct for this pyramid ?

(1) It is a pyramid of number in aquatic ecosystem.

(2) It is pyramid of number in grassland.
(3) It is a pyramid of biomass in grassland.
It is a pyramid of biomass in a pond where small standing crop of phytoplanktons support large
(4)
standing crop of zooplanktons.

13) In the above figure what will be the energy available at primary carnivore level ?

(1) 10000 J
(2) 1000 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 10 J

14) Plant capture only _____ of the PAR and this amount of energy sustains the entire living world

(1) 50 – 60%
(2) 40 – 80%
(3) 2 – 10%
(4) 20 – 40%

15) The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants
during photosynthesis depends on :-
(a) Plant species inhabiting a particular area
(b) Availability of nutrients
(c) Photosynthetic capacity of plant

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

16) Assertion : Ecological diversity of India is more than Norway.

Reason : India has more ecosystem diversity than Norway.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17)

Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Biodiversity hot Accelerated habitat High biodiversity

(i)
spot loss regions

Last refuges for a

Khasi & Jaintia Hills in
(ii) Sacred grove large number of rare
Meghalaya
& threatened species

Plants are taken out

(iii) Botanical garden Off site conservation from natural habitat
for protection
(1) Only (i)
(2) Only (ii)
(3) Only (i) & (ii)
(4) (i), (ii) & (iii)

18) Match the following with reference to bird species.

(a) Colombia (i) 105

(b) New York (ii) 1400

(c) Greenland (iii) 1200

(d) India (iv) 56

(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
(2) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

19) The main cause for the extinction of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the Lake Victoria in
East Africa was :-

(1) Over-exploitation
(2) Co-extinction
(3) Alien-species invasion
(4) Habitat fragmentation

20) The given figure shows global biodiversity of proportionate number of species of major taxa of

vertebrates. Identify A,B, C and D correctly :-

A-Mammals ; B – Birds ; C – Reptiles ;

(1)
D – Amphibians
A-Amphibians ; B – Reptiles ; C – Birds;
(2)
D – Mammals
A-Mammals ; B – Reptiles ; C – Birds ;
(3)
D – Amphibians
A-Fishes ; B – Mammals ; C – Birds ;
(4)
D – Reptiles

21) The graph given below represents the species area relationships identify A and B

(1) A S = Cz Az ; B LogS = logC + Z logA

(2) A S = CAz ; B logS = logC + Z logA
(3) A S = C/Az ; B logS = Z logA
(4) A z
S = C /A ; Bz
logS = logC2+Z logA

22) (i) Sacred groves

(ii) Hot spots
(iii) National park
(iv) Wild life safari park
(v) Seed bank
(vi) Biosphere reserve
(a) i, ii, iii, vi are the example of in-situ conservation
(b) iv, v are the example of ex-situ conservation
(c) ii, iv, v are the example of ex-situ conservation
(d) i, ii, iii, iv, vi are the exampre of in-situ conservation
Choose the correct option :-

(1) a, b is correct
(2) a, c is correct
(3) c, d is correct
(4) a, d is correct

23) Assertion: India is one of the 12 mega diversity countries of the world.
Reason: India has only 2.4 per cent of world's land area, but its share of the global species diversity
is an impressive 8.1 per cent.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

24) According to David Tilman's long-term ecosystem experiments, plots with more species tend to
show:

(1) More year-to-year variation in total biomass

(2) Less year-to-year variation in total biomass
(3) No change in resistance to alien species invasions
(4) Increased disturbances

25) Variaton shown by medicinal plant Rauwolfia Vomitoria is :

(1) Species diversity

(2) Genetic diversity
(3) Ecosystem diversity
(4) Both (1) and (3)

26) Regression coefficient for very large area is generally

(1) Between 1 to 2
(2) 1 to 1.2
(3) Between 0.1 to 0.2
(4) 0.6 to 1.2

27) Read the following statements carefully and mark the correct option given below :
Statement-I : Rivet popper hypothesis proposed by Paul Ehrlich.
Statement-II : Species-area relationship first time described by Alexander Von Humbolt.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct

(2) Statement-I and statement-II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement-I is correct
(4) Only Statement-II is correct

28) The convention on biological diversity held in Rio de Jenerio in 1992 is known as :

(1) CITES Convention

(2) The Earth Summit
(3) G-16 Summit
(4) MAB Programme

29) State true (T) or false (F) for the following statements and choose the correct option.
A. The IUCN Red list (2004) documents the extinction of 784 species.
B. Amphibians appear to be more vulnerable to extinction.

(1) A-T B-F

(2) A-F B-T
(3) A-T B-T
(4) A-F B-F

30) In rivet popper hypothesis key species are represented by

(1) Rivets
(2) Rivets on the wings
(3) Entire airplane
(4) Wings of the airplane

31) Arrange the following steps of DNA replication in the correct sequence.
(a) Formation of replication fork.
(b) DNA polymerase binding.
(c) Unwinding of DNA double helix.
(d) Joining of discontinuously synthesized fragments.
(e) Synthesis of leading and lagging strands.

(1) a, b, e, c, d
(2) c, b, e, a, d
(3) c, a, b, e, d
(4) a, c, e, d, b

32) Meselson and Stahl could distinguish between heavy DNA and normal DNA by _______________,
during their experiment.

(1) Sucrose density gradient centrifugation

(2) NaCl density gradient centrifugation
(3) MgCl2 density gradient centrifugation
(4) CsCl density gradient centrifugation

33) In Eukaryotes, which of the following mechanisms is not correct in terms of regulation of
gene expression?

(1) Transcription
(2) Splicing
(3) Transport of mRNA from cytoplasm to nucleus
(4) Translation

34) Find out the correct match

(a) RNA Polymerase-I (i) 28 S rRNA

(b) RNA Polymerase-II (ii) 5.8 S rRNA

(c) RNA Polymerase-III (iii) tRNA

(iv) hn RNA

(v) 18 S rRNA

(vi) Sn RNA

(vii) 5 S rRNA

a b c

(1) i, ii, v, vii iv, vii iii, vi

(2) i, ii, vii iv, vi, vii iii, v

(3) i, ii, v iv iii, vi, vii

(4) v, vii, ii i, iv, vii iii, vi

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) The degeneracy of the genetic code means:

(1) One codon codes for multiple amino acids

(2) Multiple codons code for the same amino acid
(3) Codons overlap
(4) Code is different for different organisms

36) Statement I: The genetic code is overlapping.

Statement II: The genetic code is universal.
Statement III: Each codon codes for only one amino acid.
(1) Only II and III are correct
(2) Only I and III are correct
(3) Only I is correct
(4) All statements are correct

37) Select the correct option w.r.t. following schematic structure of a transcription unit.

(1) A–represents template strand

(2) B–is the coding strand
(3) C–shows the regulatory sequence
(4) D–shows the transcription start site

38) Statement-I : Introns are removed from the primary mRNA transcript during RNA splicing.
Statement-II : Splicing occurs in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Both statements are false.
(3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

39) A m-RNA also has some additional sequences that are not translated called UTR. The function of
UTR is :-

(1) Charging of t-RNA

(2) Formation of peptide bond
(3) Helps in efficient translation
(4) Helps in translocation

40) During protein translation, which molecule carries the amino acids to the ribosome for assembly
into a polypeptide chain ?

(1) t-RNA
(2) m-RNA
(3) r-RNA
(4) Sn-RNA

41) Match the following and select correct option :-

Column - I Column - II
 Enzyme for reverse DNA dependent RNA
(a) (i)
transcription polymerase

DNA dependent
(b) Enzyme for replication (ii)
DNA polymerase

RNA dependent DNA

(c) Enzyme for transcription (iiii)
polymerase

Enzyme for synthesis of RNA in

Polynucleotide
(d) a template independent (iv)
phosphorylase
manner

(1) a - (iii), b - (ii), c - (i), d - (iv)

(2) a - (iv), b - (ii), c - (i), d - (iii)
(3) a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv)
(4) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)

42) According to George Gamow's proposition, how many nucleotides make up the genetic code
required to code for all 20 amino acids?

(1) One nucleotide

(2) Two nucleotides
(3) Three nucleotides
(4) Four nucleotides

43) The DNA – dependent RNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation in which direction?

(1) 5' to 5'

(2) 5' to 3'
(3) 3' to 5'
(4) 3' to 3'

44) Rho-factor in the process of transcription in bacteria is also known as:

(1) Initiation factor

(2) Elongation factor
(3) Termination factor
(4) Vital factor

45) Which of the following functions RNA carry out in the living organisms?

(1) Adapter molecule

(2) Messenger
(3) Catalyst
(4) All of the above

46) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist worked on which island ?

(1) Srilanka
(2) Galapagos
(3) South America
(4) Malay Archipelago

47) Flipper of penguin and flipper of dolphins are example of :-

(1) Homologous organ

(2) Analogous organ
(3) Atavistic organ
(4) Vestigial organ

48) Which prehistoric ancestor of man had a cranial capacity between 650-800 cc, and who probably
did not eat meat ?

(1) Homo erectus

(2) Cromagnon man
(3) Homo habilis
(4) Neanderthal man

49)

During evolution which organism deposits and convert in to present days coal :-

(1) Angiosperms
(2) Dicotyledons
(3) Bryophyte
(4) Pteridophytes

50) The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like adult human skull than adult chimpanzee skull. What

will you conclude from above statement:- (1) Human is direct ancestor of
chimpanzee.
(2) Chimpanzee and human share common ancestor.
(3) Chimpanzee is closest to human among modern day apes.
(4) Chimpanzee is connecting link between ape and human.
(1) 2 and 4 correct
(2) 1 and 3 correct
(3) 1, 2 and 3 incorrect
(4) 2 and 3 correct

51) Which cannot be explain by Darwinim :-

(1) Natural selection

(2) Struggle
(3) Survival of fittest
(4) Arrival of fittest

52) Discovered fire, probably ate meat, 900 cc cranial capacity, prognathous jaws.
Above features are true for :-

(1) Homo habilis

(2) Handy man
(3) Homo erectus
(4) Neanderthal man

53) Devonian period is golden age of :-

(1) Fishes
(2) Amphibia
(3) Reptiles
(4) Mammals

54) Effect of industrialisation on moth is an example of :

(1) Natural selection

(2) Artificial selection
(3) Mutation
(4) Gene migration

55) When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated geographical
area (representing different habitats), one can call this

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Both 2 and 3

56) Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity ?

(1) Dryopithecus
(2) Homo habilis
(3) Australopithecus
(4) Homo erectus

57) The correct sequence of periods in the history of earth is :

(1) Silurian → Permian → Jurassic → Triassic

(2) Carboniferous → Triassic → Cretaceous → Tertiary
(3) Quaternary → Triassic → Permian → Jurassic
(4) Cretaceous → Tertiary → Quaternary → Permian

58) The _____ with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 10000-40000
year back :-

(1) Cromagnon man

(2) Heidelberg
(3) Neanderthal man
(4) Modern man

59) Hugo de Vries, based on his work on ________ , brought forth the idea of mutations.

(1) Pisum sativum

(2) Lathyrus odoratus
(3) Evening primrose
(4) Lathyrus sativus

60) Match the columns :

Column-I Column-II

Theory of special
(a) Lamarck (i)
creation

Use and disuse

(b) Darwin (ii)
of organs

Father
(c) (iii) Origin of life
saurez

(d) Oparin (iv) Natural selection

(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

61) The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell /explant is called -

(1) Totipotency
(2) Explant
(3) Somaclonal variation
(4) Somatic hybridisation

62) Suitable explant for raising virus free plant is/are :-

(1) Apical meristem only

(2) Axillary meristem only
(3) Both apical and axillary meristem
(4) Root meristem only

63) Read the following statement :-

(A) Homo erectus evolved about 1.5 mya
(B) Ramapithecus was more ape-like while Dryopithecus was more human like
(C) Homo habilis probably eat meat
(D) Cranial capacity of cromagnon man is 1650 cc.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

64) In which type of natural selection, more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both
ends of the distribution curve ?

(1) Balancing selection

(2) Stabilising selection
(3) Directional selection
(4) Disruptive selection

65) Which one of the following are analogous structures ?

(1) Wings of butterfly and birds

(2) Blood proteins of human and Ape
(3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita
(4) Forelimb of mammals

66) Match the following :-

Column-A Column-B
(A) Earth is about 4000 years old (i) Spontaneous generation
(B) Life came from outer space (ii) Biogenesis
Life came out of decaying & rotting matter
(C) (iii) Special creation
like straw, mud etc.
(D) New life comes from pre-existing life (iv) Panspermia
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

67) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt & get selected by nature.
Evolution is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance mutation in
(2)
organism.
(3) Life appeared 4 Billion years after the formation of earth.
Total genes and their alleles in a population remains constant, according to Hardy Weinberg
(4)
principle.

68) Which of the following evolved into first amphibians and are ancestors of modern day frogs and
salamenders.

(1) Sauropsids
(2) Synapsids
(3) Lobefin
(4) Therapsids

69) According to Hugo devries variations which take part in evolution are :-

(1) Random and directionless

(2) Random and directional
(3) Small and directional
(4) Small and directionless

70) The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point
and literally radiating to other area of geography (habitats). This phenomenon is called as

(1) Homology
(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Analogy

71) Which scientist disapproved the "Good Humor Hypothesis" ?

(1) Hippocrates
(2) Indian Ayurvedic System of Medicine
(3) William Harvey
(4) (1) and (2)

72) Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) T-cells help the B-cells to produce antibody

(2) T-helper cells themselves produce antibodies and also stimulate B-cells to produce the same.
(3) Health is affected by genetic factors, life style, balanced diet and vaccination
(4) Gambusia is used to control diseases like malaria, elephantiasis and dengue.
73) Which is the "Allergic antibody" ?

(1) IgE
(2) IgA
(3) IgD
(4) IgM

74)

Choose the parasite of large intestine of humans whose mechanical carrier are houseflies

(1) E. histolytica
(2) E. coli
(3) W. bancrofti
(4) P. falciparum

75) Match the following :-

Column I Column II

(A) Common cold (i) Dry & Scaly lesions

(B) Typhoid (ii) Haemophilus influenzae

Stool with mucous & blood

(C) Pneumonia (iii)
clots

(D) Malaria (iv) Rhino virus

(E) Ringworm (v) Salmonella typhi

(F) Amoebiasis (vi) Haemozoin

(1) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii
(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iv, E–iii, F–v
(3) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–iii, F–i
(4) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–i, E–vi, F–iii

76) How many of the following is/are not correct about pneumonia?
(a) It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae
(b) Infects the alveoli of the lungs
(c) Symptoms of pneumonia include fever, chills, cough and headache.
(d) In severe cases the lips and finger nails may turn pinkish

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) All are correct

77) Microenvironment for development and maturation of T-lymphocytes is provided by

(1) Only thymus
(2) Only bone marrow
(3) Both thymus and bone marrow
(4) Thymus and spleen

78) Anamnestic response is -

(1) Feeble
(2) Low intensified
(3) Highly intensified
(4) primary response

79) Identify A, B and C.

A → Cannabinoids, B → Cocaine,
(1)
C → Morphine
(2) A → LSD, B → Cocaine, C → Heroine
(3) A → Cocaine, B → LSD, C → Morphine
A → Cocaine, B → Cannabinoids,
(4)
C → LSD

80) Select the correct match w.r.t. type of antibody and its function listed.

Provides passive immunity to

(1) IgA
foetus

Provides active immunity to

(2) IgG
foetus

Can cross placenta to provide

(3) IgE
immunity

Number rises dramatically on

(4) IgG subsequent exposure to antigen
in secondary response
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Appearance of dry, scaly lesions with itching on various parts of the body are the symptoms of
______.
(1) Elephantiasis
(2) Ringworm
(3) Ascariasis
(4) Amoebiasis

82) The figure below shows steps A, B & C of replication of retrovirus. Select the option giving

correct identification

(1) B–Incorporation of viral DNA into host genome with intregase enzyme
(2) C–Production of new viral DNA by infected cell
(3) A–Replication of viral RNA by protease enzyme
(4) C–Viral RNA replication by reverse transcriptase enzyme

83) Which of following are the cells of cellular barrier of innate immunity ?

(1) PMNL
(2) Monocyte
(3) B-Lymphocyte
(4) Both (1) & (2)

84) Fatality of cancer increases with increase in grade of ?

(1) Metastasis
(2) Contact inhibition
(3) Local tissue invasion
(4) Both (1) and (3)

85) The best HLA (human leukocyte antigen) match for transplants in order of preference is-

(1) sibling > twin > parent > unrelated donor.

(2) twin > unrelated donor > parent > sibling.
(3) twin > sibling > parent > unrelated donor.
(4) sibling > parent > twin > unrelated donor.
86) Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT scanning and MRI are very useful to detect -

(1) autoimmune disorders.

(2) disease caused by viral infection.
(3) disease caused by bacterial infection.
(4) disease caused by an uncontrolled division of abnormal cells of internal organs.

87) Sporozoites of the malarial parasite are found in -

(1) salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito.

(2) saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito.
(3) red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria.
(4) spleen of infected humans.

88) Assertion: Virus-infected cells secrete proteins known as interferons.

Reason: Interferons protect the non-infected cells from bacterial infection.
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

89) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Malaria – Plasmodium

(2) Plague – Yersinia pestis
(3) Tuberculosis – Trichuris trichura
(4) Sleeping sickness – Trypanosoma gambiense

90) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

A. Cocaine I. Effective sedative in surgery

B. Heroin II. Cannabis sativa

C. Morphine III. Erythroxylum

D. Marijuana IV. Papaver somniferum

Choose the correct answer from the option given below.
(1) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
(2) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
(3) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
(4) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 3 3 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 3 3 4 2 4 1 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 1 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 4 3 2 3 1 2 4 1 4 4 1 4 1 2 2 3 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 3 2 2 2 1 1 3 2 4 3 3 2 3 1 3 1 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 2 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 4 3 3 4 3 2 3 2 4 4 3 3 4 1 4 4 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 1 2 2 4 1 2 3 2 3 4 3 3 2 1 4 3 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 2 3 4 4 2 3 4 4 4 3 1 1 1 1 2 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 2 4 1 2 3 3 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 3 3 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 4 4 3 4 2 3 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Problem Explanation : Calculate the amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field in a plane
electromagnetic wave.
Concept : Relationship between electric and magnetic Field Amplitudes in an
electromagnetic.
Formula :
B0 = E0/c
where E0 = amplitudes of the electric field
B0 = amplitude of the magnetic field
c = speed of light in free space
Calculation :
Given : E0 = 48 V/m, c = 3 × 108 m/s.
Using the formula : B0 = E0/c
B0 = 48 V/m / (3 × 108 m/s)
B0 = 16 × 10–8 T
B0 = 1.6 × 10–7 T
Answer option : (2)

2)

Given, By = 3 × 10–7 sin (103 x + 6.28 × 1012 t)

Comparing with the general equation
By = B0 sin (kx + ωt), we get

k = 103 ⇒
⇒ Wavelength of electromagnetic wave

3)

4) Question Explain:
Field directions in EM wave along Y-axis.

Concept Based:
E.B, and propagation direction are mutually perpendicular.

Formula:
Calculation:
If propagation is along Y, E and B must be along X and Z (or vice versa). Option 2 shows E
along Z and B along X, which is perpendicular and gives propagation along Y,

Final Answer:
Oscillating field is along Z-axis and oscillating magnetic field is along X-axis.

Correct Option : 2

5) = 6 (even)
number of images = 6 – 1 = 5

6)
The magnitude of velocity of image relative to ma normal to mirror will be →2vcosθ

7) Question Explaining :
To find out the angles of reflection at Q, R, S and T respectively in multiple reflections as per
given ray diagram.

Concept :
Multiple reflection in multiple mirrors.

Formula :

Angle of incident Q
Angle of reflection (r)

Visual-aid :

Solution : By given ray diagram its cleared the at Q, R, S and T angle of incident by image
property and by laws of reflection are 30º, 60º, 60º, 30º.
Final Answer : option (3)

8) Explanation:

To find the ratio of

Concept:
This concept based on magnification by concave mirror.

Solution:

Hence,
Correct option: (2)

9) Speed of light is independent of its colour only in vacuum.

As wavelength of red colour (λ1) is higher than wavelength of blue colour (λ2)

For light travelling from medium 1 to medium 2,

where, ν1 and ν2 are velocities.
So, red colour light travels faster than violet colour light in glass.
Therefore, Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

10)
AD = 30 cm

11)

Question Asking About:

To find maximum number of reflections for light roy before it emerges oct.

Key Concept:
low of reflection, geometry.
Formula
incidence ongle = reflection ongle
visual oid →
Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

→ 30 reflection.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

12)

v = – 5cm

13) =

– =

= + =
v = – 90 cm

m= =

hi = 4 × ×
= 8 cm
14) Asking about : work function : Composison between two surface.
Concept : Einstein PEE. Equation.
Formula : hf = ϕ + eVλ

Sol./Explanation :
y = mx – c
As per given graph value of C is groater in B. So work function of A is smoller than B.

15)

EC – EB = ...(1)

EB – EA = ...(2)

EC – EA = ...(3)
on add equation (1) and (2)

EC – EA = hc

= hc ⇒ λ3 =

16)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

In this question we have to tell the correct statement requiring the graph given
between photo current and anode potential

Key Concept:
The energy of the incident photon is E = nv
Hence frequency determines the energy of incident photons.
This energy is inspired to the photons line surface to cause photoelectrons which in
turn causes photocurrent. Also the stopping potential can be written as
eVs = hθ (∵ E = eVs)
where Vs → shopping potential
⇒ Causes a and b represent incident radiation of the same frequency but different
intensity her.
⇒ From the graph the regarding potential is equal of curves a and b inter their
frequency is base.
⇒ Also their photocurrent are different thereforce they hence different intensities.

Formula:
E = hv = eVs
Conclusion:

Hence, option (3) is correct.

17)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

If the atomic number and the mass number of X are 72 and 180 then the mass number and
atomic number of X4 after health the dragon as given 1m:

Key Concept:
In ∝-decay
The mass number or atomic mass decreases by four and its atomic number by two.
In β-decay
The mass number or atomic mass stays the same but the atomic number increase by 1
In γ-decay
Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves
They are pure energy they have no mass or atomic number.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
The radioactive nucleus decays as follows:

Step-1

Step-2

Step-3

Step-4

So after succussive emission of radioactive radiation the mass number and atomic number will
he 172 and 69 respectively.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.
18) Energy of photon =

Momentum of photon =
= Momentum of atom

Velocity of atom = where m = mass of atom.

19) 1. Explanation:
Alpha particles experience electrostatic repulsion from the positively charged nucleus, leading
to deflection. A direct hit is nearly impossible due to repulsive forces.
2. Concept:
Deflection of electron due to electrostatic repulsion.
3. Formula:

Coulomb Force:
where q1 and q2 are the charges, and r is the separation distance.
4. Calculation :
Path 3 suggests the α-particle moves straight through the nucleus without deviation, which is
impossible due to strong repulsion.
Answer : Option 3.

20) Q = (B.E.)f – (B.E.)i

21) A + B → C + ε (fusion)
F → D + E + ε (fission)

22)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to find the energy released (Q) when two deuteron
nuclei combine to form an alpha particle. Given the binding energies per nucleon for a
deuteron (x₁) and an alpha particle (x₂), we are to express Q in terms of these values.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves nuclear binding energy and energy release
during nuclear fusion. The binding energy per nucleon indicates how tightly nucleons are held
together in a nucleus. When nuclei fuse, the difference in total binding energies between
reactants and products determines the energy released (Q).

Relevant Formulas: Total binding energy = (binding energy per nucleon) × (number of
nucleons)

Energy released,
Variables: - : binding energy per nucleon for deuteron (2 nucleons) - : binding energy per
nucleon for alpha particle (4 nucleons) - : energy released

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Total binding energy of two deuterons = 2 nucleons × x₁

per nucleon × 2 deuterons = 4x₁. 2. Total binding energy of one alpha particle = 4
nucleons × x₂ per nucleon = 4x₂. 3. Energy released is the difference:

Tips and Tricks: Focus on total binding energies rather than individual nucleons. Multiplying
the binding energy per nucleon by the mass number gives total binding energy for that
nucleus.

Common Mistakes: 1. Forgetting to multiply the binding energy per nucleon by the number
of nucleons. 2. Using the difference in binding energies per nucleon directly instead of total
energies. 3. Confusing the order of subtraction when calculating Q (products minus reactants).

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options involving sums (like 4(x₁ + x₂) or 2(x₁ +
xâ‚‚)) ignore that energy is released due to the difference in binding energies, not their sum.
Options with incorrect coefficients come from miscounting nucleons or reaction participants.

eV–Å – ϕ
0
23) Kmax =

Kmax = ..(1)

2Kmax = ..(2)
2(3.1–ϕ0 ) = 4 – ϕ0 ⇒ ϕ0 = 2.2 eV

24) We know that energy is released when heavy nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo
fusion. Therefore statement (1) is correct. The second statement is false because for heavy
nuclei the binding energy per nucleon decreases with increasing Z and for light nuclei,
B.E/nucleon increases with increasing Z.

25) The orbital angular momentum of electron is independent of mass of orbiting particle &
mass of nuclei.

26)
PE increases, TE increases

27)
So, ,
Potential energy of electron in the ground state of Li2+ ion
.
28) As work function , where v0 is the threshold frequency.
Greater the work function, greater is the threshold frequency. Therefore, the threshold
frequency of sodium will be lesser than that for aluminium.

29)

30)

31)

0
32) Work function = ; where λ is threshold wavelength.

33) Due to 10.2 eV photon one photon of energy 10.2 eV will be detected.
Due to 15 eV photon the electron will come out of the atom with energy (15 - 13.6) = 1.4 eV

34) Wave length of green light is threshold wavelength. Hence for emission of electron,
wavelength of incident light < wavelength of green light.

35)

KE = hν – ϕ
eV0 = hn – ϕ
eV0 = 4.2 eV – 2.2 eV
⇒ V0 = 2 Volts

36)
β+ decreases atomic number by 1
α decreases atomic number by 2
β– increases atomic number by 1
37)

38)

39) Consider the case when Ge and Si diode are connected as shown in the given figure.
Equivalent voltage drop across the combination Ge and Si diode = 0.3 V

⇒ Current i = = 2.34 mA
∴ Out put voltage V0 = Ri = 5 kΩ × 2.34 mA = 11.7 V
Now consider the case when diode connection are reversed. In this case voltage drop across
the diodes combination = 0.7 V

⇒ Current i = = 2.26 mA
V0 = iR = 2.26 mA × 5 kΩ = 11.3 V
Hence change in the value of V0 = 11.7 -11.3 = 0.4 V

40) Solar cell is always unbiased

41) Switch S1 Switch S2 Bulb A B C

On Off On 1 0 1
Off On On 0 1 1
Off Off Off 0 0 0
On On On 1 1 1

42) Since diode in upper branch is forward biased and in lower branch is reversed biased. So

current through circuit i = ; here rd = diode resistance is forward biasing = 0 ⇒ i=

= 0.2 A.

43) 1. Explanation of the Question:

In extrinsic semiconductors, impurities are added to modify the electrical properties. We need
to determine the typical band gap between the conduction and valence bands in such
materials.

2. Concept: extrinsic semiconductors

[Link]:
In extrinsic semiconductors, the band gap is modified by doping, typically leading to a gap of
about 1 eV.

Analysis of Options:
1. Option 1:
- The conduction and valence bands do not overlap in semiconductors. There is always a band
 gap separating them.
2. Option 2:
- The band gap in semiconductors is generally much smaller than 16 eV . It's typically around
0.1 eV to 2 eV .
3. Option 3:
- In silicon (a common extrinsic semiconductor), the band gap is around 1 eV . Other
semiconductors like germanium also have a similar gap.
4. Option 4:
- A 100 eV band gap would be too large for a semiconductor and would not allow conduction at
typical conditions.

4. Correct Answer
(3) The gap between conduction band and valence band is near about 1 eV .

44)

A= 0 0 1 1
B= 0 1 0 1
Y= 0 0 0
∵Y=
So, it is NOR gate

45)
So, (Eg)C > (Eg)Si > (Eg)Ge

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)
48)

49) NaBH4 is a weak reducing reagent. So it reduces only carbonyl group while reduction of
–COOH group does not happen and it remains unaffected.

LiAlH4 is strong reducing reagent; so it can reduce both and –COOH groups.

50)

a → q (Clemmenson reduction)
b → s (NAR)
c → p (reduction by LiAlH4)
d → r (specific reduction of ester)

51) Question Explanation :

We have to find product of given reaction.

Concept:
This question is based on reduction of carbonyl compounds (aldehydes/ketones) using NaBH4.

NaBH4 is chemo selective reagent which selectively reduces aldehyde, ketone and acyl halide
into corresponding alcohol.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct

52) Question Explanation :

Question ask which of the following gives.

Concept :
This question is based on Fehling's Test.

Formula : Fehling's test is used to detect the presence of aldehydes (except aromatic
aldehydes like benzaldehyde) and alpha-hydroxy ketones.
Benzaldehyde (C6H5CHO) is an aromatic aldehyde and does not give a positive Fehling's test.
Acetaldehyde CH3CHO is an aliphatic aldehyde and gives a positive Fehling's test (red
precipitate of Cu2O).
Hemiacetal (e.g., R-CH(OH)–OR') can be oxidized to aldehydes or ketones, and if it can form an
aldehyde in solution, it may give a positive test.
Hence,
Option (1) is correct

53) → They can’t be distinguished by Grignard reagent.

54) Asking : We have to find out the reagent which can not used to convert RCHO into
RCH2OH (1° alcohol).
Concept :

Ans. option (4)

55) Explain Question – Identify the chemical compound known as Rochelle salt .

Concept – This question based on POC of carbonyl compound.

Solution –
Rochelle salt is the common name for sodium potassium tartrate. It is a double salt of Tartaric
Acid with sodium and [Link] is used as Fehling solution.

Final Answer – Option (1)

56)

57) Alkene and alkyne can give test of unsaturation where phenol give electrophilic aromatic
substitution

58) 1. Asking About: %of 'N' organic compound.

2. Concept: Kjeldahl method.
3. Soln/Explanation: Mass of compound = 0.2g
2NH3 + H2SO4 → (NH4)2SO4
20cm3, 0.1N
Molarity of H2SO4= = = 0.05 = M
Volume of H2SO4 = consumed = M × V = 0.05 × 20 = 1mmol.
m mole of NH3 = 2 × mmol of H2SO4
= 2 × 1 = 2 mmol

m mole of 'N' = m mole of NH3 = 2 m mol =

Mass of 'N' = moles × Molar mass =

% of N = = 14%

59) Explaination: Question asks that which of the following will give aldol condensation
reaction ?
Concept: Aldol condensation reaction
Solution: Carbonyl compounds having α – H give aldol condensation reaction in presence of
dil. Alkali.

(1) No. α–H

Not give reaction

(2) No. α–H

Not give reaction

(3) No. α–H

Not give reaction

(4) Have α–H

Give reaction.

Therefore will give aldol condensation reaction.

Final Answer: Option (4)

60)
Explaining the Question :- Identify the product P and determine which reactions it can
undergoes.
Concept:- This question is based on Acid base reaction, Dry distillation of calcium salt.
Solution :-

Product P is Acetone and it have α-H, so it can show aldol condensation reaction.
Final Answer :- (1)

61) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page-375

62)

63)

FACT

64) CH3CH2 – NH – CH2CH3

[Nitrosoamine]

65)

Explain Question:
Identify which of the given compound will not give Carbylamine Reaction.
Concept:
This question is based on Carbylamine Reaction.
Solution:
1° amine (Ar/R–NH 2 ) will undergo carbylamine reaction.
2° and 3° amine will not undergo the carbylamine reaction.

Carbyl amine
Given reaction
reaction
1

(1° amine)

2
(1° amine)

(1° amine)

4
(2° amine)

2° amine will not give carbylamine reaction.

Final Answer : option (4)

66)
(Oxymercuration demercuration)

67) Markovnikov's rule and followed by Anti-markovnikov's rule.

68)

Theory

69)

Rate of E.A.R. ∝ Stability of carbocation

Stability of carbocation ∝ Number of E.D. Group.

70) Anti markovnikov product

71)

In Wurtz Reaction →
(a) It can proceed through free radical mechanism
(b) Alkanes having even no. of C-atom can be prepared
(d) Sodium in dry ether is used

72)

Match the Reaction with name reaction.

73) Anion stability

74) Product is propane

75) Secondary amines (C2H5—NH—CH3) give in alkali insoluble product with p-toluene
sulphonyl chloride.

76) NCERT Page No. # 394, Amines

77)

Conceptual.

78) In Hoffman degradation one carbon decrease

79)

Explaining the Question : Identify the product (A) formed when ethylamine reacts with
chloroform in the presence of KOH.

Concept: This question is based on corbylamine reaction.

Solution :
CH3–CH2–NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH —→ CH3–CH2–N+ ≡ C– product (A).
The product of given reaction is Ethyl isocyanide
Final Answer : option (2)

80)
⇒ This reaction does not involve hoffmann bromanide degradation.
⇒ Rest all options involve hoffmann bromamide degradation during the reaction of Br2+NaOH
with amide.

81)

NCERT XII Part-II 8.2.2

82) 1. Asking About: Correct statement.

2. Concept: Carbylamine Test.
3. Solution/Explanation
Carbylamine Test is Test only for 1°/primary amine in which 1° Amine is treated with
chloroform (CHCl3) and KOH (Basic medium) then foul smelling compound R-NC (Isocyanide)
is formed.
R-NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH → R-NC
Hence option 3 is correct answer.

83) Statement-I :- Explanation : Aniline forms complex with lewis acid (AlCl3),

So statement-I is correct.
Statement-II :- Explanation : Aryl halide are not good substrate for nucleophilic substitution
reaction so aniline does not give Gabriel synthesis.

84)

→ Carbylamine reaction can be used to identify primary amino group in any given compound
→ Victor Meyer’s is used to detect type of Alcohols.

→ Iodoform test are the test given by aldehyde & ketones in which methyl keto
is present.
 85)
Hence insoluble in Alkali

86) NCERT-XII, Part-II, Page # 415

87) NCERT Pg. # 410/411

88)

Primary structure of proteins remains as such.

89) It is sucrose so non-reducing

90)

Glycogen structure is similar to amylopectin which is highly branched.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT-XII Pg#207

92) NCERT Pg. # 242

93) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 246

94)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 244

95) NCERT-XII, Pg # 244

96)
 NCERT XII, Pg. # 250 (E), 274 (H)

97) NCERT Pg. # 243

98) NCERT XII Page No. # 243

99)

Allen module.

100) Question Explanation : What are the Primary consumers in a biotic community?
Concept : Biotic community.
Solution : In a biotic community, the primary consumers are Herbivores.
Final Answer : Option (2)

101)

The correct answer is 4. A, B, C and D.

A. Explanation: The functions of an ecosystem include:

B. Energy flow (A): The movement of energy through the food chain, starting from producers to
consumers and decomposers.
C. Decomposition (B): The breakdown of dead organic matter by decomposers, recycling
nutrients back into the ecosystem.
D. Productivity (C): The rate at which energy is produced by plants and converted into biomass,
supporting the rest of the ecosystem.
E. Nutrient cycling (D): The cycling of essential nutrients like carbon, nitrogen, and
phosphorus, which is crucial for sustaining life.

Thus, all four options-A, B, C, and D-are correct functions of an ecosystem.

102)

Explain Question: Which statement is correct regarding the given ecological

pyramid.

Concept: Ecological Pyramids.

Solution:

The correct statement is:

It is a pyramid of biomass in a pond where small standing crop of phytoplanktons

 support large standing crop of zooplanktons.

Final answer: 4.

103) Sunlight Energy Input: 1,000,000 J

Energy Available to Producers: 1% of 1,000,000 J = 10,000 J
Energy Available to Primary Consumers: 10% of 10,000 J = 1,000 J
Energy Available to Secondary Consumers(Primary carnivores): 10% of 1,000 J = 100 J
Energy Available to Top Consumers (Trophic Level 4): 10% of 100 J = 10 J

104) NCERT Page No: 245

105) Correct Answer: 4. (a), (b), and (c)

Explanation: The primary productivity (biomass/organic matter produced by plants) depends
on:

A. (a) Plant species inhabiting the area - Different species have different growth rates and
photosynthetic efficiencies.
B. (b) Availability of nutrients - Nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium are
essential for plant growth and productivity.
C. (c) Photosynthetic capacity - Higher chlorophyll content, leaf structure, and light utilization
improve productivity.

106)

Question Explanation: The question asks for Assertion and Reason on ecological diversity.
Concept : Ecological Diversity
Explanation :
The Assertion is true. India is a mega-diverse country with a vast range of ecosystems, from
deserts and rainforests to coral reefs and alpine Himalayas. Norway has far fewer ecosystem
types.
The Reason is also true. The term "ecological diversity" is another name for"ecosystem
diversity." The fact that India has more types of ecosystems is the direct explanation for why
its ecological diversity is greater.
Since both statements are true and the reason correctly explains the assertion, this is the right
choice.
Final answer : Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.

107)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 224,225

108) NCERT Pg # 261

109) The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa led eventually to the
extinction of an ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the
lake. This is an example of all Alien species invasion.

110)

Question Explanation :
This question is asking about identify the major taxa of vertebrates represented by A,B,C and
D in the given pie chart.

Concept :
This question is based on Biodiversity.

Solution:
The correct answer is (3)
A - Mammals
B - Reptiles
C - Birds
D - Amphibians

Final Answer :
Option (3)

111)

Question Explanation :
Question is asks about identify the correct relationship between species richness(s) and Area
(A) based on provided graph.

Concept :
Question is based on species-Area relationship.

Solution :

The correct answer is (2)

A → S = CA2
B → LogS = Log C + Z Log A

Final Answer :
Option (2)

112)
Explaining the Question :-
The question asks for a classification of various conservation methods into in-situ and ex-situ
conservation, based on their nature and the way they conserve biodiversity.
Concept:-
Solution :-
• Sacred groves, Hot spots, National parks, and Biosphere reserves are all in-situ
conservation methods. They focus on conserving biodiversity within natural habitats.
• Wildlife safari park and Seed bank are examples of ex-situ conservation. In ex-situ
conservation, species are conserved outside their natural habitats (in controlled settings like
parks or seed banks).

113) Question Explanation: Identify the relationship between India’s status and biodiversity
share.
Concept: Megadiverse Countries Criteria
Solution: The Assertion that India is a megadiverse country is True (India is one of 17
megadiverse countries, though sometimes the count varies). The Reason states that India has
2.4% of the world's land but an impressive 8.1% of global species diversity, which is also True.
This high species diversity relative to its small land area is precisely the criterion for being
designated a megadiverse country. Thus, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Final Answer: Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion

114) David Tilman's experiments indicated that plots with a greater number of species showed
less variation in total biomass from year to year, suggesting a link between species richness
and stability in terms of productivity.

115) NCERT Pg.#258 (E), 282 (H)

116)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 262

117) NCERT XII Pg # 262

118)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

India is considered a mega-diversity country, and it is home to about 8.1% of the total species
found globally. This includes a wide variety of flora and fauna across its diverse ecosystems.
India is considered a mega-diversity country, and it is home to about 8.1% of the total species
found globally.

Conclusion:

Hence, option (2) is correct.

the Convention on Biological Diversity was adopted during the Earth Summit held in Rio de
Janeiro in 1992. This summit, formally known as the United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED), focused on sustainable development and the
protection of the environment, including biodiversity.

119)

NCERT XII, Page # 221

120) Key species are represented by rivets on the wings because the wings are critical for the
airplane's ability to fly.

121) NCERT Pg no. 90

122)

NCERT XII pg no. 105

123) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm. Ncert pg - 115

124) NCERT XIIth Pg.#110,111

125) Explaining : The genetic code is degenerate since many amino acids have more than one
codon.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

126) Explaining : The genetic code is non-overlapping and universal.

Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

127) NCERT Page No. # 107

128) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 94

129)

The correct answer is:

3. Helps in efficient translation
UTRs (Untranslated Regions) are the regions of mRNA that are not translated into protein but
play crucial roles in the regulation of translation. They are located at both the 5' and 3' ends of
the mRNA. The 5' UTR helps in the initiation of translation, while the 3' UTR can influence the
stability of the mRNA and its translation efficiency. These regions often contain regulatory
sequences that interact with proteins and other molecules to ensure that translation occurs
efficiently and accurately.
130) NCERT Pg. # 88

131) Ncert Pg No. 106, 107, 112

132)

Question Explanation: The question asks how many nucleotides are required in a codon to
code for all 20 amino acids according to Gamow.

Concept: Genetic Code

Solution:
George Gamow proposed that a combination of three nucleotides (triplet code) is necessary,
because 4³ = 64 combinations are enough to code for 20 amino acids.

Final Answer: Option (3)

133) NCERT XII Pg.# 108 (E)

134)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 94

135)

Question Explanation: RNA has multiple roles in cells

Concept: Functions of RNA

Solution:
RNA acts as an adapter (tRNA), messenger (mRNA), and catalyst (ribozymes), performing all
these functions in living organisms.

Final Answer: 4

136) Question Explanation : Alfred Wallace's study location.

Concept : Biogeographical distribution.

Solution : Alfred Russel Wallace worked in the Malay Archipelago. His extensive
fieldwork there led him to independently formulate a theory of evolution similar to Darwin's.
He also observed a sharp divide in the fauna, now known as the Wallace Line.

Final Answer : Option (4) Malay Archepelago

137) Explain Question:

Flipper of penguin and flipper of dolphins are example of
 Concept:
This question is based on Homologous and analogous organs.

Solution:
Flipper of penguins (birds) and dolphins (mammals) serve the same function (swimming) but
have different evolutionary origins and structures. so they are analogous organs.

Final Answer:
Option (2) Analogous organ

138) NCERT XI Pg. # 124

139)

Question Explanation: Identifying the organism that formed coal deposits.

Concept: Paleontology

Solution: Giant ferns, also known as Pteridophytes, were abundant during the Carboniferous
period. Their remains formed the coal deposits seen today.

Final Answer: Pteridophytes

140)

Question Explanation : Interpreting skull resemblances between humans and chimpanzees.

Concept : Human evolution.

Solution : The resemblance between a baby chimpanzee's skull and an adult human's skull
suggests that both humans and chimpanzees share a common ancestor and that chimpanzees
are closely related to humans among modern-day apes.

Final Answer : Option (4) 2 and 3 correct

141) The correct answer is 4. Arrival of fittest.

A. Darwinian theory focuses on the gradual process of evolution through natural selection. It
explains how organisms with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and reproduce,
passing those traits on to their offspring. This leads to the gradual accumulation of favorable
traits over generations.
B. Arrival of fittest implies a sudden appearance of perfectly adapted organisms, which is not
consistent with Darwin's gradualistic view of evolution. Darwin's theory emphasizes that
evolution is a slow and continuous process driven by natural selection.

142)

Question Explanation: Identifying the human ancestor from its features.

Concept: Human evolution
Solution: The features of having a cranial capacity of 900 cc, using fire, eating meat, and
having prognathous jaws are characteristic of Homo erectus (Java man/Peking man).
Final Answer: Homo erectus

143) The correct answer is Option 1 : Fishes

The Devonian period is often referred to as the "Golden Age of Fishes" due to the significant
diversification and evolution of fish during this time.

144)

Question Explanation: Impact of industrialization on moth population.

Concept: Natural Selection

Solution: The effect of industrialization on the moth population is a classic example of natural
selection, specifically industrial melanism. Before pollution, light-colored moths were better
camouflaged and survived. After industrial pollution darkened tree barks, the darker-colored
moths had a survival advantage. This environmental change favored the survival and
reproduction of the darker moths, shifting the population over time.

Final Answer: Natural selection

145) NCERT Pg. No. 132

146) NCERT XIIth Pg.#140,141

147) NCERT XIIth Pg.#138,139

148)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 141, para-7.9

149)

NCERT-XII Pg#119

150) NCERT-Pg # 137

151) NCERT PAGE NO. – 177

152) NCERT Pg. # 178

153) NCERT XII, Pg. # 140, 141

154) NCERT XII, Pg. # 137

155) NCERT XII, Pg. # 115

156) Module-3, Pg # 108, 109

157) NCERT XII Pg. # 127, 132, 134 & 136

158) NCERT-XII Pg. # 122

159) NCERT Pg.# 135

160) NCERT XIIth Pg.#133

161) Explaining the Question :-The question is asking about which scientist disproved the
"Good Humor Hypothesis"?
Concept:- Good Humor Hypothesis and It Disproof
Solution :-The "Good Humor Hypothesis" related to bodily fluids was disproved by William
Harvey, who discovered the circulation of blood, showing the old theory of humors was
incorrect.
Final Answer :- (3) William Harvey

162) Explanation:
T-helper cells do not produce antibodies. They play a key role in stimulating B-cells to produce
antibodies, but they do not produce antibodies themselves.

The incorrect statement is: 2. T-helper cells themselves produce antibodies and also
stimulate B-cells to produce the same.

163)

NCERT-XII, Hint Pg. # 153

164)

NCERT Page no 148

165)

Explain Question: Match each disease with its correct causative agent or characteristic
symptom.

Concept: This Question is based on Protozoan diseases, Viral Diseases, Bacterial Diseases
Explanation :

Common cold (A) → Rhino virus (iv)

Typhoid (B) → Salmonella typhi (v)

Pneumonia (C) → Haemophilus influenzae (ii)

Malaria (D) → Haemozoin (vi)

Ringworm (E) → Dry & Scaly lesions (i)

Amoebiasis (F) → Stool with mucous & blood clots (iii)

This matches with : A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii Final answer: 1

166)

NCERT Pg. No. 147

167)

Question Explanation: Site of T-lymphocyte maturation.

Concept: Lymphoid Organ Function.

Solution: The thymus gland is the primary lymphoid organ where T-lymphocyte precursors,
which originate from the bone marrow, migrate and mature into functional T-cells.

Final Answer: Only thymus.

168)

NCERT Pg. No. 151

169)

Explain Question :

To Identify A, B and C. in given flow chart

Concept : Drugs and alcohol abuse

Explanation :

A: Interferes with dopamine → Cocaine (increases dopamine by inhibiting its reuptake)

B: Causes hallucination → LSD (a hallucinogenic drug)

C: Acts as a painkiller → Morphine (opioid analgesic)

Final answer : 3

170) Explanation:
IgG is the most abundant antibody in the blood and plays a crucial role in the body's immune
response. After the first exposure to an antigen, the body produces IgM initially, and on
subsequent exposure, IgG levels increase significantly in what is called the "secondary
immune response." This makes IgG a key player in long-term immunity and memory.
The correct match with respect to the type of antibody and its function is: (4) IgG:
Number rises dramatically on subsequent exposure to antigen in secondary response

171) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 149 (para-8.1)

172)

Solution/Explanation:

Integrase is the enzyme that facilitates the integration of viral DNA into the host's genome.

The correct answer is Option 1: B - Incorporation of viral DNA into the host genome with an
integrase enzyme.

173)

NCERT-XII, Hint Pg. # 150

174)

NCERT [Link]. 157 - logical

175) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : The best HLA match for transplants in order of preference is: Twin > siblings >
parent > unrelated donor
The human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system is the locus of genes that encode for proteins on
the surface of cells that are responsible for regulation of the immune system in humans. This
group of genes resides on chromosome 6 and encodes cell-surface antigen-presenting proteins
and has many other functions. It is used to match the patient with a donor for bone marrow or
cord transplantation.
Final Answer : (3)

176) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Cancer is a disease caused by an uncontrolled division of abnormal cells in the
body. Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT scanning and MRI are very useful to
detect cancers of internal organs. Computed tomography uses X–rays to generate a three
dimensional image of the internal objects. MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non - ionizing
radiations to accurately detect pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue.
Final Answer : (4)

177) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Life cycle of Plasmodium starts with inoculation of sporozoites (infective stage)
through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Sporozoites are found in saliva of
infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
Final Answer : (2)

178) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called interferons which protect non-infected
cells from further viral infection. Interferons are a group of related low molecular weight
regulatory cytokines produced by certain eukaryotic cells in response to a viral infection.
Besides defending against viruses, they also help to regulate the immune response.
Final Answer : (3)

179) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Final Answer : (3)

180) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XII, Page # 142-143
Final Answer : (-)