STD : 10th SUBJECT : HISTORY MARKS: 80

2nd PRELIM EXAMINATION 2023 TIME : 2hr

DATE :06/02/24 Model Answer

PART-I (30 Marks)

(Attempt all questions from this part)
Question 1 [16]
Choose the correct option.
(i) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the Lok Sabha?
a) The members of the Lok Sabha are elected for five years.
b) The Lok Sabha can be dissolved before the completion of its term
c) The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a couple of years during an emergency.
d) Seats in the Lok Sabha are allotted to the states based on their population
(ii) Who is empowered to promulgate an Ordinance at a time when the Parliament is not in session?
a) The Lok Sabha
b) The President
c) The Prime Minister
d) The Speaker
(iii) Who among the following does NOT participate in the election of the President?
a) Elected members of the Lok Sabha
b) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
c) Elected members of the Legislative Council
d) Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies
(iv) The passing of which Motion results in the resignation of the entire government?
a) Privilege Motion
b) No-Confidence Motion
c) Censure Motion
d) Adjournment Motion
(v) Which of the following writs is issued against unlawful detention?
a) Mandamus
b) Prohibition
c) Quo-warranto
d) Habeas Corpus

(vi) Which of the following facts is NOT correct with regard to the qualification of the judge of the High
Court?
a) He should be a citizen of India.
b) He should not be over 62 years of age.
c) He should have held a judicial office in India for at least five years.
d) He should have been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years.
(vii) Who announced that Bahadur Shah Zafar and his family will not be able to reside in the Red Fort?
a) Lord Canning
b) Lord Dalhousie
c) Lord Wellington
d) Lord Harding
(viii) Which is one of the negative aspects of the Non-Cooperation Movement?
a) Removal of untouchability
b) Boycott of law courts by lawyers
c) Hindu-Muslim Unity
d) Prohibition of intoxicating drinks
(ix)
Session of INC in 1885 Bombay
Session of INC in 1886 ?
a) Calcutta
b) Madras
c) Pune
d) Delhi
(x) Two newspapers by Bal Gangadhar Tilak were and .
a) ‘Kesari’ and ‘Statesman’
b) Kesari’ and ‘Sakaal’
c) ‘Kesari’ and ‘Prabhaat’
d) ‘Kesari’ and Mahratta’

(xi) Establishing national schools and colleges in India as an alternative to government schools and colleges
was one of the programmes of which of the following movements/events?
a) Non-Cooperation movement
b) Bardoli Satyagraha
c) Civil Disobedience Movement
d) Quit India Movement
(xii) In 1943, S.C. Bose set up the Provisional Government of Free India in which of the following countries?
a) Myanmar
b) Sri Lanka
c) Maldives
d) Singapore
(xiii) Which institution was entrusted with the work of demarketing the exact boundary
between India and Pakistan at the time of independence?
a) Constitutional Assemblies of India and Pakistan
b) The Boundary Commission
c) The Hunter Commission
d) The British judiciary
(xiv) The immediate cause of the Second World War was .
a) The Treaty of Versailles
b) Japanese invasion of Manchuria
c) The formation of the Berlin-Rome-Tokyo Axis
d) The invasion of Poland by Hitler
(xv) Identify the person in the picture.
a) Nawab Salimullah
b) Aga khan
c) Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan
d) Muhammad Jinnah
(xvi) The number of Judges of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) is _ .
a) 15
b) 16
c) 17
d) 18
Question 2 [14]
(i) Define interpellation.
Answer: Question Hour is a time in the Parliament when a member of a House asks questions from the
government on matters of public interest. This right of the members to ask questions from the government
is known as interpellation.
(ii) Discuss any two discretionary functions of the President.
Answer: Two discretionary functions of the President:
(a) The President can appoint the Prime Minister when there is a hung Parliament, i.e., where no single
party gets a majority in the Lok Sabha.
(b) When the ruling party loses the majority in the Lok Sabha, the President may or may not dissolve the
House on the recommendations of the Prime Minister. The former may ask the leader of the other party
to prove their majority on the floor of the House.
(iii) What was the importance of the Purna Swaraj resolution?
Answer: The Purna Swaraj resolution—proclaimed on January 26, 1930, later to be celebrated as
independent India's Republic Day—called for “complete freedom from the British”. Two main objectives of
the Indian National Army were as follows:
(a) To organise a provisional government of Free India to mobilise all the forces effectively
(b) Total mobilisation of Indian manpower and money for a total war.
(iv) State any two provisions of the Rowlatt Act passed by the government in 1919.
Answer: Two provisions of the Rowlatt Act passed by the government in 1919 were:
(a) The government could arrest any person without a warrant
(b) Suspension on the Right of Habeas Corpus
(v) State any two provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 that were to decide the fate of the
Princely States.
Answer: Two provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 which were to decide the fate of princely
states:
(a) The princely states were to become independent of the British rule.
(b) The princely states would be free to join either India or Pakistan or may choose to remain independent.
(vi) Why was the Simon Commission rejected by the Congress?
Answer: The Simon Commission was headed by John Simon. It was formed to study the constitutional
reforms in the country. It consisted of 7 members. It was opposed because it did not have a single Indian
member. Almost all the political parties boycotted it. There were mass protests, hartals and black flag
demonstrations all over the country.
(vii) Mention two objectives of the League of Nations.
Answer: Two objectives of the League of Nations:
(a) To preserve peace and security in the world
(b) To settle international conflicts peacefully.
PART II (50 Marks)
SECTION A
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)
Question 3
The Indian Parliament has a wide-ranging power. In this context answer the following questions:
a) Explain three ways in which the Legislature exercises control over the Executive. [3]
Answer: The Legislature exercise control over the Executive in the following ways:
(a) The Parliament exercises control over the Executive by posing questions to ministers related to public
opinion during Question Hour. By asking questions, members can draw the attention of the House and
people towards unjust policies of the government.
(b) The Parliament can pass a motion of No-Confidence against the government. If such a motion is passed,
then the government has to resign.
(c) Adjournment motions can be passed on certain occasions when a mishap takes place such as railway
accidents, killing of people during riots etc. Through this motion, the Parliament draws the attention of
the people towards acts of omission and commission.
b) Why the Lok Sabha is considered more powerful than the Rajya Sabha? [3]
Answer: The Lok Sabha is considered more powerful than the Rajya Sabha in the following ways:
(a) A motion of No-Confidence can be moved and passed only in the Lok Sabha. If it is passed, the
government has to resign.
(b) Money bills can only be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
(c) In case of a deadlock over an ordinary bill, the will of the Lok Sabha prevails as its numerical strength
is double that of the Rajya Sabha.
c) Explain any four Legislative powers of the Union Parliament. [4]
Answer: Four Legislative powers of the Union Parliament:
(a) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha make laws on the Union List on important subjects such as foreign
policy and defence. It also makes laws on the subjects listed in the Concurrent List.
(b) The Parliament passes the Union budget which consists of the total income and expenditures of a
financial year.
(c) The Parliament can impeach the President on the charges of grave misconduct, violation of the
Constitution etc. If the charges against the President are passed by a two-thirds majority of both Houses,
the President may be removed from his office.
(d) The Parliament can amend the Constitution. The amendments should be passed by each House with
two- thirds majority.
Question 4
The framers of our Constitution adopted the Parliamentary and the Cabinet form of Government. With
reference to this, answer the following questions:
a) Explain three powers of the Prime Minister. [3]
Answer: The powers of the Prime Minister:
(a) The Prime Minister is the leader of the Cabinet. He presides over the meetings and the proceedings of
the Cabinet.
(b) The Constitution gives the Prime Minister the liberty to choose his Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State
and Deputy Ministers and appoint them. He also allocates them various portfolios.
(c) The Prime Minister presides over Cabinet meetings and decides their agenda. After listening to the
views of the numerous Cabinet Ministers in such meetings, he also determines the future course of
action for the concerned Ministries.
b) What is meant by the collective and Individual Responsibility of the members of the Cabinet? [3]
Answer:
(a) Every minister is responsible to the Prime Minister and holds office at his pleasure.
(b) He has to answer all questions asked by the Members of Parliament related to their department.
(c) All ministers are individually responsible to the President and hold office at the pleasure of the
President.
(d) Every minister is responsible for any wrong policy formulated by him/her and the breach of secrecy.
(e) In the past, several ministers have owned mistakes committed by his/her department and have
resigned from their posts. This is known as the Individual Responsibility.
(f) The Council of Ministers, as a single body, has a responsibility towards the Lok Sabha for the
Government’s general conduct of affairs.
(g) If any minister loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, all the ministers of the government collectively
have to resign from the office. This is known as Collective Responsibility.
c) Mention any four legislative powers of the Cabinet. [4]
Answer: Four legislative powers of the Cabinet:
(a) The cabinet minister scans and introduces bills in the Parliament. More than 95% of the bills are
initiated by the Cabinet.
(b) The Cabinet is instrumental in planning and amending the Constitution.
(c) All the policy decisions regarding the country like the finance policy and the defence policy are
formulated by the Cabinet with the consent of the Prime Minister.
(d) The Annual Budget is prepared by the finance minister, no changes in the budget can be made without
the wishes of the Cabinet.

Question 5
With reference to the powers and functions of the High Court, explain briefly the meaning and scope of the
following:
a) The High Court as a Court of Record [3]
Answer: The High Court is a court of law as its judgments and orders are preserved as a record to be
referred to by its court in future cases. The law laid down by the High Court is binding on all subordinate
courts. Further, the High Court can punish anyone who commits contempt of its order.
b) Judicial Review [3]
Answer: High Courts like the Supreme Court have the power of judicial review. If any law passed by the
State Legislature violates any term of the Constitution or takes away the fundamental right of a person, the
High Court can declare the law null and void.
c) Its Appellate Jurisdiction [4]
Answer: Appellate jurisdiction of the High Court means that the High Court has the power to hear appeals
against the decisions of the lower courts like the district court in civil and criminal matters. In civil cases,
appeals can be brought before the High Court if they are concerned with the matters of land revenue or if
an injustice is done by the tribunal. In criminal cases, it can hear appeals where the sentence of
imprisonment exceeds seven years, in case of a death sentence and in cases against the state where an order
of acquittal has been passed by a Session Judge.
SECTION B
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)
Question 6

a) Identify the person in the picture above. Mention any two of his reforms. [3]
Answer: The person in the picture is Raja Ram Mohan Roy. Two of his reforms were
(a) He advocated female education and it was largely due to his efforts that the practice of sati was declared
illegal.
(b) He opposed child marriages and the purdah system
b) Explain the Ilbert Bill controversy. [3]
Answer: The Ilbert Bill was passed in 1883 by Lord Ripon. This Bill sought to create political equality by
vesting Indian judges with the power to try European or British citizens residing in India. However, because
of vehement protests by the Europeans, the Bill was withdrawn. This enraged the Indians who began to feel
the need to organising themselves

c) Discuss the role of the press in igniting the feeling of nationalism among Indians. [4]
Answer: The role of the press in igniting the feeling of nationalism among Indians:
(a) Many newspapers and magazines started in the latter half of the nineteenth century.
(b) Some of them were Amrit Bazar Patrika, The Bengali, The Tribune, The Pioneer and The Hindu.
(c) It was through the press that the message of liberty, freedom, equality, home rule and independence
spread among the people.
(d) The newspapers criticised the unjust policies of the British and exposed the true nature of British rule
in India.
(e) It encouraged various communities and groups to organise political movements in the country.
Question 7
With reference to the Indian National Movement, answer the following:
a) Discuss three methods followed by the early nationalists for their struggle. [3]
Answer: Three methods followed by the Early nationalists for their struggle:
(a) The Early nationalists held meetings and gave speeches for pressing their demands.
(b) They criticised the policies of the government through the press.
(c) They followed the three P’s—Petitions, Prayers and Protests. This was done by sending petitions and
request letters to protest against the unjust policies of the government.
b) Who ordered the partition of Bengal? What were the views of the nationalists regarding this event?[3]
Answer: Lord Curzon ordered the partition of Bengal. Although the government said that the province of
Bengal was partitioned for administrative convenience, the nationalists were of the firm opinion that by
partitioning Bengal, the government aimed at creating a rift between the Hindus and the Muslims as East
Bengal was a Muslim majority region and West Bengal was a Hindu majority region.
c) Name any two assertive nationalists. Mention two contributions of any one of them. [4]
Answer: Two assertive nationalists were Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai. Two contributions of
Lala Lajpat Rai are:
(a) He started a monthly magazine Young India to inspire people to join the national movement for
attaining Swaraj.
(b) He contributed immensely to society as a social reformer. He was closely associated with the Arya Samaj
movement. He played a significant role in expanding D. A. V. College at Lahore in 1886. He founded many
orphanages, schools and hospitals. He also founded ‘Servants of the Peoples Society’ for the welfare of
people belonging to lower castes.
Question 8
Gandhi’s era is known as the ‘period of mass movement’ in India. In light of this statement, answer the
following questions:
a) Why was the Khilafat movement launched by Gandhi? [3]
Answer: The Sultan of Turkey was regarded as the ‘Caliph’ or the religious head of the Muslims.
(a) Most of the Muslim sacred places were located within the Turkish Empire.
(b) In the First World War, Britain was fighting against Turkey. This led to a wave of indignation among the
Indian Muslims.
(c) The Muslim population wanted that the Ottoman Caliph should retain his empire, the Caliph should be
left with adequate territories to enable him to defend the Islamic faith and the Arab lands should remain
under the Arabic rule.
(d) To Gandhi, the Khilafat Movement offered him an opportunity to unite the Hindus and the Muslims. It
was because of the above reasons, that the Khilafat movement was launched in India.
b) Mention any three terms of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact. [3]
Answer: Three terms of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
(a) The government agreed to withdraw all ordinances to end prosecutions and to release all political
prisoners except those who were guilty of violence.
(b) The government agreed to allow peaceful picketing of shops selling liquor and foreign clothes.
(c) The Congress on its part agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and participate in the
Second Round Table Conference.
c) Discuss any two causes and two significances of the Quit India Movement. [4]
Answer: Two causes that led to the Quit India Movement:
(a) When the Japanese army began to advance quickly towards the Indian borders, the government sent Sir
Stafford Cripps to India to garner the support of Indians and to break the political deadlock. However,
most of the political parties did not accept the proposals. The failure of the Cripps mission led to the
beginning of the Quit India Movement.
(b) The Japanese army in 1942 had already attacked Burma and was fast approaching towards Assam.
Gandhi felt the presence of the British in India was an invitation to the Japanese troops to invade the
country. Many leaders felt that the British must be forced out of the country. Thus, they launched the
Quit India Movement asking the British government to quit India.
Two significances of the Quit India Movement:
(a) Although the movement was short-lived, the people developed a greater ability to struggle and sacrifice.
It became evident that the British no longer would be able to rule India.
(b) The movement signified the mass uprising of the people. People from every state, class, caste, sex and
creed participated in the movement.
Question 9
a) Discuss three reasons that led to the rise of Nazism in Germany. [3]
Answer: Three reasons that led to the rise of Nazism in Germany:
(a) Germany was defeated in the First World War and was forced to sign the humiliating Treaty of Versailles.
(b) Several harsh terms were imposed on Germany by the victorious nations. Its overseas colonies were
seized by the Allied powers, he had to pay a huge war indemnity of 33 billion dollars, the Rhine area
was demilitarised and many of his mineral territories were captured.
(c) Hitler openly defied the treaty and asked the Germans to support him in building a new powerful
Germany.
b) List any four similarities between the Nazi and the Fascist ideology. [4]
Answer: Four similarities between the Nazi and the Fascist ideology:
(a) Both believed in the existence of a totalitarian state
(b) They oppose democracy and communism
(c) They upheld the concept of one party and one leader
(d) Both believe in aggressive nationalism, imperialism and glorified wars
c) Explain any three results of the Second World War. [3]
Answer: Results of the Second World War:
(a) The Axis powers-Germany, Italy and Japan were defeated in the war. Germany was divided into two
zones-West Germany and East Germany. West Germany was administered by Britain, France and the
USA with its capital at Bonn. It followed capitalism. East Germany was occupied by the Soviet Union
with East Berlin as its capital. It followed socialist ideologies.
(b) The United Nations was formed in 1945 to maintain international peace and security and to prevent the
occurrence of any future wars.
(c) The USA and Soviet Union had fought together during the Second World War. However, by the end of
the war, ideological differences began to appear between both nations. This period of uneasy tension
and political instability is known as the Cold War.
Question 10
a) Mention any three objectives of the UNO. [3]
Answer: Objectives of the UNO:
(a) To maintain international peace and security.
(b) To develop friendly relations among nations.
(c) To achieve international cooperation in resolving international, economic, social, cultural and
humanitarian problems.
b) Discuss any three functions of the International Court of Justice. [3]
Answer: Three functions of the International Court of Justice:
(a) It decides cases when many treaties include the submission of disputes to the Court.
(b) It decides disputes related to the interpretation of international laws. It also decides cases related to the
reparation which is to be made for breaching any international obligations
(c) The Court can give its advisory opinion only when present member nations request the Court to give its
advisory opinion.
c) List any four functions of WHO. [4]
Answer: Four functions of the WHO:
(a) It helps many countries to improve their health systems by improving the quality of services for
individuals and the community.
(b) It provides important drugs and medicines required for medical purposes. WHO has launched
important programmes to immunise children against measles, diphtheria, tetanus, tuberculosis, polio
and whooping cough.
(c) It promotes research studies to cure and prevent diseases.
(d) It works towards providing safe drinking water.
THE END