06-07-2025

1501CMD303021250005 MD

PART -1 PHYSICS

1)

find magnetic field at point “P” due to two long current carrying wire:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A wire loop formed by two semicircular wire of radii R1 and R2 carries a current I as shown in

figure. The magnetic induction at the centre is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A long straight wire of a circular cross-section (radius a) carries a steady current I and the
current I is uniformly distributed across this cross-section. Which one of the following plots
represents the variation of magnitude of magnetic field B with distance r from the centre of the wire
?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Three wires are carrying same current i in given direction. Four loops enclosing the wires in
different manners are shown. The direction of is shown in the figure :

List-I List-II

(P) Along closed Loop-1 (1)

 (Q) Along closed Loop-2 (2)

(R) Along closed Loop-3 (3)

(S) Along closed Loop-4 (4)

(1) P→2;Q→1;R→2;S→1
(2) P→1;Q→2;R→1;S→2
(3) P→1;Q→2;R→1;S→2
(4) P→4;Q→4;R→3;S→3

5) The magnetic field in a certain region of space is given by = 8.35 × 10–2 T. A proton is shot
into the field with velocity = (2 × 105 + 4 × 105 ) m/s. The proton follows a helical path in the
field. The distance moved by proton in the x-direction during the period of one revolution in the yz-
plane will be
(Mass of proton = 1.67 × 10–27 kg)

(1) 0.053 m
(2) 0.136 m
(3) 0.157 m
(4) 0.236 m

6) A proton accelerated by a potential difference 500 KV moves through a transverse magnetic field
of 0.51 T as shown in figure. The angle θ through which the proton deviates from the initial direction

of its motion is :-

(1) 15°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

7) A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two points
C and P (in V). (Take:

(1) 3 × 105
(2) 1 × 105
(3) Zero
(4) 0.5 × 105

8)

An electron of mass Me, initially at rest, moves through a certain distance in a uniform electric field
in time t1 proton of mass Mp also initially at rest, takes time t2, to move through an equal distance in

this uniform electric field. Neglecting the effect of gravity the ratio , is nearly equal to

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) 1836

9)

Some equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. The electric field strength is

(1) 100 V/m along x-axis

(2) 100 V/m along y-axis
(3) 400 V/m at an angle 120° with x-axis

(4)
V/m an angle 120° with x-axis
10) Find out magnetic field at point 'O' for the following current distributions.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Find out magnetic field at point 'O' for the following current distributions.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) An electron and a proton having equal momentum enter in a uniform magnetic field normal to
the lines of force. If the radii of curvature of circular paths be re and rp respectively, then :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A charged particle moves in a gravity free space without change in velocity. Which of the
following is not possible in that space?

(1) E = 0, B = 0
(2) E ≠ 0, B = 0
(3) E = 0, B ≠ 0
(4) E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0

14) As shown in figure, on bringing a charge Q from point A to B and from B to C, the work done are
2 joules and -3 joules respectively. The work done in bringing the charge from C to A will be

(1) -1 joule
(2) 1 joule
(3) 2 joules
(4) 5 joules

15) Assertion (A) : Equal amount of positive and negative charges are distributed uniformly on two
halves of a thin circular ring as shown in figure. The resultant electric field at the centre O of the
ring is along OC.

Reason (R) : It is so because the net potential at O is not zero.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A).
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is NOT the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is also false.

16) A particle of mass m and charge –q is projected from the origin with a horizontal speed v into an
electric field of intensity E directed downward. Choose the wrong statement. Neglect gravity.
(1) The kinetic energy after a displacement y is qEy.

(2)
The horizontal and vertical components of acceleration are ax = 0,
The equation of trajectory is
(3)

(4) The horizontal and vertical displacements x and y after a time t are x = vt and
respectively.

17) Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R.
Assertion A : If an electric dipole of dipole moment 30×10–5 cm is enclosed by a closed surface, the
net flux coming out of the surface will be zero.
Reason R : Electric dipole consists of two equal and opposite charges.
In the light above, statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) Bothe A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) A is true but R is false
(3) Both A and R true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is false but R is true

18) The following figure shows, an uncharged sphere of metal is kept in between two charged plates.
The lines of force look like which of the following?

(1) D
(2) C
(3) B
(4) A

19) Concentric metallic shells of radii R and 3R are shown. Charge on the outer shell is q, find
charge on inner shell, after closing the switch (before closing the switch, inner shell is neutral) :-
(1) + q
(2) - q

(3)

(4)

20) 4 charges are kept at the corners of a square taken in order. Which of the
following relation is true at the centre of the square?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of the square. The relation
between Q and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is

(1) Q = –q
(2)
(3) Q = q
(4)

22) A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential is :

(1) maximum at B.
(2) maximum at C.
(3) same at all the three points A, B and C.
(4) maximum at A.

23)

5 balls numbered 1 to 5 are suspended using separate threads. Pairs (1, 2), (2, 4) and (4, 1) show
electrostatic attraction, while pair (2, 3) and (4, 5) represent repulsion. What can be said about ball
1?
(1) It must be positively charged
(2) It must be neutral
(3) It must be made of metal
(4) It must be negatively charged

24) Three identical large metal plates are placed in parallel, induced charge on surface A and B are

respectively :-

(1) +Q, +2Q

(2) 0, +2Q
(3) +2Q, +2Q
(4) +2Q, +Q

25) In a region, the electric potential is

V = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz in volt .
The electric force experienced by 2C point charge, kept at a point (0, 0, 0) m is -

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 30 N
(4) Zero

26) The potential difference across 8 ohm resistance is 48 volt as shown in the figure. The value of

potential difference across X and Y points will be

(1) 160 volt

(2) 128 volt
(3) 80 volt
(4) 62 volt

27) A milli-ammeter of range 10 mA and resistance 9 Ω are joined in a circuit as shown in the figure.
The meter gives full scale deflection, when current in the main circuit is I, and A and D are used as
terminals. The value of I is

(1) 1.09 A
(2) 10.9 A
(3) zero
(4) 0.109 A

28) Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic
conductor. Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match
Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Drift Velocity (P)

(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) neAvd

(C) Relaxation Period (R)

(D) Current (S)

(E) Mobility (T)

(1) A-R, B-T, C-P, D-Q, E-S

(2) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q, E-T
(3) A-R, B-P, C-T, D-Q, E-S
(4) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P, E-T

29) A wire has a non-uniform cross-sectional area as shown in figure. A steady current i flows
through it. Which one of the following statement is correct?

(1) The drift speed of electron is constant.

(2) The drift speed increases on moving from A to B.
(3) The drift speed decreases on moving from A to B.
(4) The drift speed varies randomly.
30) The galvanometer has no deflection and the length of wire AB is 350 cm. then AC equals to :

(1) 150 cm.

(2) 200 cm.
(3) 210 cm.
(4) 280 cm.

31) The range of a galvanometer of resistance G ohm is V volt. The resistance required to be
connected in series with it, in order to convert it into voltmeter of range nV volt will be........

(1)

(2) nG
(3) (n-1)G

(4)

32) In the given circuit the cells have zero internal resistance. The currents (in Amperes) passing

through resistance R1, and R2 respectively, are:

(1) 2,2
(2) 0,1
(3) 1,2
(4) 0.5,0

33) In the part of a circuit shown in figure, the potential different (VG – VH) between points G and H

will be:-
(1) 0V
(2) 15V
(3) 7V
(4) 3V

34) In an electrical circuit drawn below the amount of charge stored in the capacitor is ___μC.

(1) 10
(2) 30
(3) 60
(4) 120

35) A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential V. The flux of the electric field through a
closed surface enclosing the positive plate of the capacitor is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

36) If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other,
then
A. the charge stored in it, increases.
B. the energy stored in it, decreases.
C. its capacitance increases.
D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.
E. the product of charge and voltage increases.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B and E only

(2) A, C and E only
(3) B, D and E only
(4) A, B and C only

37) Two conducting large plates P1 & P2 are placed parallel to each other at very small separation 'd'.
The plate area of either face of plate is A. A charge +2Q is given to plate P1 & –Q to the plate P2
(neglect ends effects). If plate P1 & P2 are now connected by conducting wire, then total amount of
heat produced is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

38) A fully charged capacitors has a capacitance C. It is discharged through a small coil of resistance
wire embedded in a thermally insulated block of specific heat capacity s and mass m. If the
temperature of the block is raised by ΔT, the potential difference V across the capacitance is >

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The diagram shows two capacitors with capacitance and breakdown voltages as mentioned.
What should be the maximum value of the external emf source such that no capacitor undergoes

breaks down?

(1) 2.5 kV
(2) 10/3 kV
(3) 3 kV
(4) 1 kV

40) The Charge on 2µF capacitor during steady state is :-

(1) 18 µC
(2) 21.6 µC
(3) 10 µC
(4) 11.8 µC

41) Two dielectric slabs having dielectric constant 'K1' and 'K2' of thickness and are inserted
between the plates as shown in figure. The net capacitance between A and B is: (∈0 is permittivity of

free space)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Five conducting plates 1,2,3,4 & 5 are fixed parallel to and equidistant from each other as shown
in figure if 'd' is distance between two successive plates and A is area of either face of each plate.
Then find net capacitance of system :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43)

Two spherical conductors A and B of radius a and b (b > a) are placed in air concentrically. B is
given a charge + Q coulombs and A is grounded. The equivalent capacitance of these is :

(1) 0
4π∈
(2) 4π∈0 (a + b)
(3) 4π∈0b

(4) 0
4π∈

44) The expression for the capacity of the capacitor formed by compound dielectric placed between

the plates of a parallel plate capacitor as shown in figure, will be (area of plate =A):-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Assertion (A):– The electrostatic force between the plates of an isolated charged capacitor
increases when dielectric is filled in the space between plates.
Reason (R):– Due to polarization net electric field inside the dielectric increases.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

PART -2 CHEMISTRY

1) Select the correct order of BP and MP respectively.

(1) A > C > B and C > A > B respectively

(2) B > A > C and C > A > B respectively
(3) A > B > C and B > C > A respectively
(4) B > C > A and B > C > A respectively

2) Among the bromides I-III gives below, the order of reactivity SN1 reaction is :- (I) (II)

(III)

(1) III > I > II

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > III > I
(4) II > I > III

3) major product
major product is :

(1)

(2) 4 - chloroacetophenone
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) 2- chloroacetophenone

4)
What is the structure of B :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Which is not correct about nitration ?

(1) is an attacking electrophile

(2) In general, nitration is monosubstitution process
(3) In nitrating mix, HNO3 acts as acid, & H2SO4 acts as base
(4) In nitrating mix HNO3 acts as base & H2SO4 acts as an acid

6) Which is correct about Wurtz reaction ? (a) It can proceed through free radical mechanism
(b) Alkanes having even no. of C-atom can be prepared
(c) Sodium in Ammonia is used
(d) Sodium in dry ether is used

(1) c, d
(2) a, b, d
(3) b,c
(4) a, b, c, d

7) For alkane
Which is incorrect ?

(1) A is ethane
(2) (A) is formed at anode
(3) CO2 evolves at cathode
(4) pH increases during the process

8) Which of the following alkenes on ozonolysis give a mixture of ketones only?

(a) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(b)
(c)

(d)

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) b and d
(4) c and d

9) In the following series of chemical reaction. Identify Z :

C3H7OH X Y Z

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3–C ≡ CH

10) Among the following compounds which can be dehydrated very easily is -

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2OH

(2)

(3)

(4)

11)
A will be
 H2O/
(1)

(i) [Link] (ii) H2O2/

(2)

(3) (i) Hg(OCOCH3)2.H2O (ii) NaBH4

(4) All are possible

12) Meso product, product will be in meso-form if the reagent is :-

⊕
(1) m CPBA, H2O/H
⊕
(2) Dry Ag2 O/H2O/H
⊕
(3) CH3COOOH/H2O/H
(4) Baeyer's reagent

13) Match the following :-

(a) (p) Kolbe's electrolysis

(b) CH3–COOK (q) Nitration

(c) (r) Wurtz reaction

CH3–Br

(d) (s) Friedal-craft alkylation

(1) a–p, b–q, c–r, d–s

(2) a–q, b–r, c–p, d–s
(3) a–q, b–p, c–s, d–r
(4) a–q, b–p, c–r, d–s

14) How many mole of H2 gas is consumed during the above

catalytic hydrogenation to obtained saturated compound?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

15) Which of the following reaction is incorrect?

(1)

(2)

(CH3)2CuLi + CH3CH2—Br
(3)

(4)
CH3—CH2—I CH3—CH3

16) Major product :

Major product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
17)
what is the product (P) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH4

18) In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markovnikov’s rule, to give a
product 1-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane. The possible alkene is:

(1)

(2)

(3) (1) and (2)

(4)

19) In the following sequence of reactions the compound A is,

A B C CH3CHO + HCHO

(1) Ethylene
(2) Acetic acid
(3) Propene
(4) 1-Butene
20) The incorrect statement regarding ethyne is

(1) The C—C bonds in ethyne is shorter than that in ethene

(2) Both carbons are sp hybridised
(3) Ethyne is linear
(4) The carbon-carbon bonds in ethyne is weaker than that in ethene

21)
Above reaction is known as :

(1) Wurtz reaction

(2) Wurtz fittig reaction
(3) Fittig reaction
(4) Kolbe electrolysis

22)
Product A and B are respectively

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Match list I with list II and then select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :-

List-I List-II

(A) Na/Dry Ethers (p) Decarboxylation

 (B) Zn–Hg/HCl (q) Clemmenson

(C) O3/Zn/H2O (r) Wurtz reaction

(D) NaOH/CaO (s) Ozonolysis

(1) A-r B-q C-p D-s
(2) A-r B-q C-s D-p
(3) A-p B-q C-r D-s
(4) A-s B-q C-r D-p

24) Which among the following is benzylic halide?

(1) C6H5–CH2–X
(2) C6H5–X
(3) C6H5–CH=CH–X
(4) C6H5–CH2– CH2–X

25) Which is most reactive chlorine :-

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) All equal reactive

26) Correct order of leaving tendency of group in SN2 reaction is :-

(1) I⊖ > Br⊖ > Cl⊖ > F⊖

(2) Br⊖ > Cl⊖ > F⊖ > I⊖
(3) Cl⊖ > Br⊖ > F⊖ > I⊖
(4) I⊖ > Br⊖ > F⊖ > Cl⊖

27) Which of the following is minimum reactive towards SN2 reaction?

(1) CH3—CH2—Cl

(2)

(3)
(4)

28) The given compound

is an example of _____.

(1) Aryl halide

(2) Allylic halide
(3) Vinylic halide
(4) Benzylic halide

29) Match the column-I and column-II and select the correct answer :

Column-I Column-II

(a) (p) E1

(b) (q) SN1

(c) (r) SN2

(d) (s) E2

(1) (a-s); (b-r); (c-p); (d-q)

(2) (a-r); (b-s); (c-q); (d-p)
(3) (a-r); (b-s); (c-p); (d-q)
(4) (a-q); (b-p); (c-r); (d-s)

30) Arrange following anions in order of their leaving group tendency :

(1) III > I > II > IV

(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) II > I > III > IV
31) Identify the major products A and B respectively in the following reactions of phenol.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A and B are (respectively)

(1)

(2)
(3) CH2=CH2, CH2=CH2
(4) CH2=CH2,

33)
Select the correct statement :-

(1) A is 2° alcohol
(2) B is 3° alcohol
(3) C is 1° alcohol
(4) A and C are 3° alcohol

34)
Value of X is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Match list-I and list-II

List-I(Reaction) List-II(Substrate used)

a Etard reaction i Benzoyl chloride
b Reimer-Tiemann reaction ii Phenol
c Rosenmund's reaction iii Toluene
d Stephen's reaction iv Acetonitrile
Choose the correct answer from the option given below
(1) a- i , b- ii , c- iii , d- iv
(2) a- iii , b- ii , c- iv , d- i
(3) a- iii , b- ii , c- i , d- iv
(4) a- i , b- ii , c- iv , d- iii

36)
This reaction would follow which of the following pathway predominantly ?

(1) SN1
(2) SN2
(3) E1
(4) E2

37) Compare the rate of α - β elimination :-

(1) 3 > 1 > 2 > 4
(2) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4
(3) 3 > 2 > 4 > 1
(4) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

38) In the following pairs of halogen compounds, which would undergoes SN2 reaction faster ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Order of nucleophilicity in polar protic solvent

(1) IΘ > BrΘ > ClΘ > FΘ

(2) FΘ > ClΘ > BrΘ > IΘ
(3) IΘ > ClΘ > BrΘ > FΘ
(4) FΘ > IΘ > BrΘ > ClΘ

40) In SN2 reactions, the correct order of reactivity for the following compounds :
CH3Cl, CH3CH2Cl, (CH3)2CHCl and (CH3)3CCl is

(1) CH3Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)3CCl

(2) CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl
(3) CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl
(4) (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)3CCl

41) Which one of the following is the least reactive towards SN2 reaction?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Example of Vinylic halide is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The major product obtained in the following reaction is :

(1) (±)C6H5―CH(Ot-Bu)CH2C6H5
(2) C6H5―CH=CH―C6H5
(3) (+)C6H5―CH(Ot-Bu)CH2C6H5
(4) (–)C6H5―CH(Ot-Bu)CH2C6H5

44) Major product of the given reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45)
Major product :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

PART -3 BIOLOGY

1) In the following representation A and B is - Pneumococcus S Strain → injected into Mice → A

Pneumococcus R Strain → injected into Mice → B

A → Mice die
(1)
B → Mice live
A → Mice die
(2)
B → Mice die
A → Mice live
(3)
B → Mice live
A → Mice live
(4)
B → Mice die

2) The molecule represented is ?

(1) Uridine and it is a pyrimidine

(2) Uridylic acid and it is a nucleoside
(3) Uridine and it is a nucleoside
(4) Uridylic acid and it is a nucleotide

3) Which one of the following is the main enzyme of DNA replication :-

(1) DNA-polymerase I
(2) DNA polymerase III
(3) RNA polymerase I
(4) RNA polymerase III

4) Heterocyclic nitrogen base and Phosphoester bond in DNA and RNA are present at :-

(1) C2' and C5' position of sugar molecule

(2) C5' and C2' position of sugar molecule
(3) C5' and C1' position of sugar molecule
(4) C1' and C5' position of sugar molecule

5)

One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence the code is
(1) Ambiguous and non-specific
(2) Unambiguous and specific
(3) Ambiguous and specific
(4) Unambiguous and non-specific

6) tRNA has the function of :-

(1) Transcription
(2) Adapter for attaching amino acids over mRNA template
(3) Transferring information to mRNA
(4) Carry genetic code to cytoplasm

7) If both strands of DNA in a given segment of DNA are transcribed then the two RNA molecules
formed must be :-

(1) Parallel and identical.

(2) Anti parallel and complementary.
(3) Parallel and complementary.
(4) Anti-parallel and identical.

8) rRNA that catalyse the formation of peptide bond in eukaryotes is synthesised by

(1) RNA Polymerase I

(2) RNA Polymerase II
(3) RNA Polymerase-III
(4) RNA -Polymerase

9) During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called :-

(1) Receptor
(2) Regulator
(3) Promoter
(4) Enhancer

10) DNA synthesis on leading and laging strands follow a direction of :-

(1) 5' – 3' and 3' – 5'

(2) 3' – 5' and 5' – 3'
(3) 5' – 3' on both strand
(4) 3' – 5' on both strand

11) Consider the following four statements A, B, C and D and select the right option for two correct
statement :-
Statements :-
(A) RNA was first genetic material
(B) 5-methyl uracil is found in RNA
 (C) DNA polymerase-III does not require RNA primer for the synthesis of DNA strand
(D) RNA primer is formed during the process
of DNA replication
The correct statements are :-

(1) (A) and (B)

(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (A) and (D)
(4) (A) and (C)

12)
(A) Histone octamer is made up of 5 types of histone protein
(B) A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix
(C) Histones are organised to form a unit of eight molecules called as histone octamer
(D) The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to
form a structure called nucleosome.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

13) The following features occur during protein synthesis:

(i) Movement of m-RNA from the nucleus
into the cytoplasm, where it binds to the
ribosomes
(ii) Formation of amino acyl t-RNA complex
(iii) Transcription of specific segments of DNA
into m-RNA molecules in the nucleus
(iv) Binding of N-terminal amino acid,
methionine t-RNA to the 'P' site of the
ribosome. The t-RNA anticodon "pairs with AUG on m-RNA"
(v) Formation of peptide bond between first
and second amino acids at the 'A' site
(vi) Release of the completed polypeptide
chain from ribosomes
(vii) Migration of dipeptide to form a tripeptide
and then a polypeptide
 The correct order of events is

(1) (iii) – (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (v) – (vi) – (vii)

(2) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (v) – (vi) – (vii)
(3) (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv) – (v) – (vi) – (vii)
(4) (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv) – (v) – (vii) – (vi)

14) A DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis of all the following except :

(1) t-RNA molecule

(2) m-RNA molecule
(3) another DNA strand
(4) protein synthesis

15) Which of the following codon has dual functions ?

(1) UUU
(2) UGA
(3) AUG
(4) UGG

16) Sequence of N-base in one strand of DNA is :-

3' – TAC CAC TCC ATG ATT – 5'
then how many phosphate molecules will be present in this dsDNA segment ?

(1) 30
(2) 6
(3) 15
(4) 8

17) A molecule that can act as genetic material must not have following properties :-

(1) It should be chemically and structurally highly reactive.

(2) It should be able to generate its replica.
(3) It should provide the scope for slow changes.
(4) It should be structurally more stable.

18)

No. of Nucleotide
Organism
and Base Pair

(i) ϕ × 174 A 4.6 × 106 bp

(ii) Lambda bacteriophage B 3.3 × 109 bp

(iii) [Link] C 5386 Nucleotide

(iv) Human D 48502 bp

Following match is correct
(1) i = D, ii = C, iii = B, iv = A
(2) i = B, ii = D, iii = A, iv = B
(3) i = A, ii = D, iii = C, iv = B
(4) i = C, ii = D, iii = A, iv = B

19) What is the major hallmark of double helix model of DNA given by Watson and Crick ?

(1) Base pairing between two strands

(2) Presence of phosphodiester bond
(3) Acidic nature of DNA
(4) Presence of pentose sugar

20) In the given diagram identify A, B and C :-

A B C

(1) 15
N15N 14
N15N 14
N14N

(2) 15
N15N 14
N14N 14
N14N

(3) 15
N15N 14
N15N 14
N15N

(4) 14
N15N 15
N15N 14
N14N
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) In lac operon of E·coil, an operator gene combines with:-

(1) Inducer gene to switch 'on' the transcription of structural gene.

(2) Regulatory gene to switch 'on' the transcription of structural gene
(3) Repressor protein to switch 'on' the transcription of structural gene.
(4) Repressor protein to switch 'off' the transcription of structural gene.

22) In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of :

(1) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation

(2) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(3) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(4) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
23) Which is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome as well as DNA finger printing ?

(1) Polymorphism in DNA sequence

(2) Single nucleotide polymorphism
(3) Polymorphism in hnRNA sequence
(4) Polymorphism in RNA sequence

24) Ten [Link] cells with 15N - dsDNA are incubated in medium containing 14N nucleotide. After 60
minutes, how many [Link] cells will have DNA totally free from 15N ?

(1) 40 cells
(2) 60 cells
(3) 80 cells
(4) 20 cells

25) During replication, lagging strand is formed on one of the DNA template :-
How many option are correct related to this
(A) Formation of okazaki fragments.
(B) Direction of fragment formation 5'→ 3'
(C) It is opposite to helix opening.
(D) Need ligase to join.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) All

26) From the given table which one of the following option is true for m-RNA, t-RNA and r-RNA :-

m-RNA t-RNA r-RNA

Largest Act as an
(1) Highly stable
RNA enzyme

Adapter Largest Single

(2)
RNA NA stranded

Have massage
Adapter Play
(3) for protein
NA biocatalytic
synthesis

Soluble Highly Double

(4)
RNA stable stranded
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Which one of the following is not a step of DNA Finger printing?
(1) Southern Blotting
(2) Autoradiography
(3) Electroporation
(4) Hybridization

28) Which of the following RNA polymerase enzyme catalyses the formation of precursor of mRNA
(–hnRNA):-

(1) DNA ligase

(2) RNA polymerase II
(3) RNA polymerase I
(4) DNA polymerase

29)

Match the column :-

A B

Peptide bond
(A) rRNA (i)
formation

Codon
(B) tRNA (ii)
identification

(C) SnRNA (iii) Splicing

Genetic
(D) mRNA (iv)
information

Option :
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

30) How many statements are correct :-

(a) VNTR belong to class of a minisatellite.
(b) Satellite DNA do not code for proteins.
(c) DNA from every cell or tissue from an individual show different degree of polymorphism.
(d) 99.9 percent DNA of all humans are same

(1) All statements

(2) Only one statement
(3) 2 statements
(4) 3 statements

31) Which of the following kind of bacteria is considered to be most abundant in nature ?

(1) Chemosynthetic autotroph

(2) Heterotrophic
(3) Photosynthetic
(4) Nitrogen fixing

32) In bacteria, antibiotic resistant genes are present on :-

(1) Plastids
(2) Mesosomes
(3) Chromatophore
(4) Plasmid

33) By observing the figure answer the following questions :-

(A) Identify the figure
(B) Identify the parts labelled a, b and c

A B

a-Pellicle
Dividing
1 b-Cell membrane
Euglena
c-DNA

a-DNA
Dividing
2 b-Cell membrane
bacterial cell
c-Cell wall

a-DNA
3 Paramoecium b-Cell membrane
c-Glycocalyx

a-Mesosome
4 Mycoplasma b-Cell membrane
c-Cell wall
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34)

Which of followings have Protein rich layer called pellicle which makes their body flexible instead of
cell wall?

(1) Slime moulds

(2) Desmids
(3) Euglena
(4) All

35)

Which is not true for the heterocyst of Nostoc:-

(1) Non green

(2) Site of nitrogen fixation
(3) Thick walled
(4) Photosynthetic ability

36) Select the correct statement for bacteria :-

(1) Main genetic material of bacteria is called plasmid

(2) Cell wall is selectively permeable
(3) Pili do not play any role in motility
(4) Inclusion bodies are surrounded by membrane

37)

Mycoplasma are organisms that :

(A) Completely lack a cell wall
(B) Smallest living cell known
(C) Pathogenic in animals only
(D) Can survive without oxygen
(E) Pathogenic in plants only

(1) A, B, E correct
(2) D, E correct
(3) A, D, B incorrect
(4) C, E incorrect

38) Deuteromycetes are known as fungi imperfect because :-

(1) Their zygote undergoes meroblastic and holoblastic cleavage

(2) Only asexual stages are known
(3) They have aseptate mycelium
(4) They are autotrophic

39) Assertion : Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are member of kingdom protista.

Reason : Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are single cell eukaryotic organism.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.
40) Consider the following statements. Which of the following statements are related to universal
rules of nomenclature ?
(a) Biological names are generally in Latin.
(b) The first word in a biological name represents the generic name while the second component
denotes the specific epithet.
(c) Both the words in a biological name, when printed, are separately underlined, to indicate their
latin origin.
(d) Generic name starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet starts with a small letter.

(1) Only b, c & d

(2) Only c & d
(3) Only a, c & d
(4) Only a, b & d

41) Study the following table which shows different organisms with their taxonomic categories :-

Common
Family Order Class Phylum/Division
name

Man Hominidae Primata Mammalia A

Housefly Muscidae Diptera B Arthropoda

Mango C Sapindales Dicotyledonae Angiospermae

Wheat Poaceae Poales D Angiospermae

Select the correct option for A, B, C and D
A–Chordata, B–Insecta,
(1)
C–Anacardiaceae, D–Monocotyledonae
A–Animalia, B–Mammalia,
(2)
C–Anacardiaceae, D–Dicotyledonae
A–Chordata, B–Mammalia,
(3)
C–Polygonaceae, D–Monocotyledonae
A–Non-chordata, B–Insecta,
(4)
C–Anacardiaceae, D–Dicotyledonae

42) Read the following w.r.t. numerical taxonomy :

(i) Involves usage of computers
(ii) It is based on all observable characters of organisms
(iii) Number and codes are assigned to all the characters, and the data then processed
(iv) Each character is given equal importance
(v) Hundreds of character can be considered at the same time
How many of above statements are correct ?

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Five
(4) Four

43) Correct statements regarding Taxonomic Categories

I. Species is the lowest category
II. All categories together constitute the taxonomic hierarchy
III. These categories are distinct biological entities and are not merely morphological aggregates
IV. Lower the taxa, more are the characters that the members within the taxa share

(1) I,II,III,IV
(2) I, II, IV only
(3) II, III, IV
(4) III, IV only

44) How many of the following are taxa ?

Cats, Mammals, Wheat, Dog, Leaves, Fruit, Seed, Solanum.

(1) Nine
(2) Seven
(3) Six
(4) Five

45)

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Viroids lack a protein coat

(2) Viruses are obligate parasites
(3) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat
(4) Prions consists of abnormally folded proteins

46) A typical fat molecule is made up of three molecule of ---A--- with one molecule of ---B---. The
linkage is called ---C---.

A B C

(1) Glycerol Fatty acid Ester

(2) Fatty acid Glycerol Glycosidic

(3) Fatty acid Glycerol Ester

(4) Fatty acid Glycerol Peptide bond

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) Match the column I with column II and choose correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Inulin (i) Hormone

(b) Curcumin (ii) Homopolysaccharide

 (c) Collagen (iii) Protein

(d) IAA (iv) Drug

(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv

48)

Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

(1) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(2) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.

49)
In the above diagrammatic representation of a portion of glycogen, glycosidic bonds represented by
A, B and C are :-

A B C
(1) α-1'-4'' α-1'-4'' β-1'-4''
(2) β-1'-6'' β-1'-4'' β-1'-4''
(3) α-1'-6'' α-1'-4'' α-1'-4''
(4) α-1'-4'' α-1'-6'' α-1'-4'
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

50)

Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made up of :-

(1) branched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(2) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 6 glycosidic bond
branched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain and 1, 6
(3)
glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(4) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 4 glycosidic bond

51) Match the following columns:

Column-I Column-II

(I) Pigments (a) Vinblastin, Curcumin

(II) Alkaloids (b) Abrin, Ricin

(III) Toxins (c) Carotenoids, Anthocyanins

(IV) Drugs (d) Morphine, Codeine

(1) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
(2) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d
(3) I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
(4) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d

52) Set of coenzymes that are nucleotides of vitamin niacin is

(1) NAD, NADP

(2) FMN, FAD
(3) ATP, ADP
(4) ATP, FAD

53) A : Sucrose provides negative result in presence of Benedict’s solution.

R : Sucrose is formed by formation of glycosidic bond between glucose and fructose.

(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

54) Identify the term ‘ash’ in terms of living tissue sample analysis from the statements given below.

(1) Organic compounds oxidised to gaseous form (CO2 and water vapour) after burning of the tissue
 The material left after burning the tissue, which contains inorganic elements such as
(2)
calcium, magnesium, etc
(3) Compounds removed in the form of gases
(4) Compounds which may be soluble in intracellular fluid

55) A : Starch treated with iodine gives blue-black colour.

R : Starch forms helical secondary structures and starch can hold to iodine molecules in the helical
portion.

(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

56) Which of the following structures represents Uridine?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

57) In a nucleotide, phosphate group is linked to A by B bond. Choose the option

which correctly fill the blanks
 A B

(1) Adenine Ester

(2) Sugar Ether

(3) Nitrogen base Glycosidic

(4) Sugar Ester

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58) Find out the incorrect option for given structure

(1) It forms zwitterionic form on changing pH

(2) It is a basic component of all cell membranes
(3) It has phosphorous and a phosphorylated organic compound
(4) It has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic portions

59) Choose the incorrect statement with respect to polysaccharides.

(1) Inulin is a heteropolysaccharide

(2) Cellulose given no colour with iodine solution
(3) Starch gives blue colour and glycogen gives red colour with iodine solution
(4) Inulin is a homopolymer of fructose

60) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Lecithin, is a type of complex lipid found in cell membranes.
Statement II: In living organisms, heterocyclic rings are found in a number of carbon compounds,
including nitrogen bases such as adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil, and thymine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

61) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Oils have lower melting points than fats and hence remain as oil in winters.
Statement II: Phospholipids are lipids that contain phosphorous and a phosphorylated organic
compound.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

62) Which of the following represents the structure of Ribose ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

63) The chemical and physical properties of amino acids are essentially of the

(1) Amino group

(2) Carboxyl group
(3) The R-group
(4) All of the above

64) Which of the following group of amino acids are aromatic in nature?

(1) Tyrosine, phenylalanine, valine

(2) Tyrosine, tryptophan, glutamic acid
(3) Glutamic acid, lysine, valine
(4) Tyrosine, tryptophan, phenylalanine
65) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The sequence of amino acids in a protein, which includes the first, second, and so on, is
known as the primary structure of a protein.
Statement II: In the primary structure of a protein, the first amino acid is called the C-terminal
amino acid and the last amino acid is called the N-terminal amino acid.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

66) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : The positional information in a protein-which is the first amino acid, which is second,
and so on is called the secondary structure of a protein.
Statement-II : Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for the many biological activities of
proteins.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(4) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false

67)
The correct names of above amino acids are :-

AA1 AA2 AA3

(1) Glycine Serine Alanine
(2) Alanine Glycine Serine
(3) Serine Glycine Alanine
(4) Serine Alanine Glycine
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
68) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(1) a-Primary structure, b-Secondary structure

(2) a-Secondary structure, b-Primary structure
(3) a-Secondary structure, b-Tertiary structure
(4) a-Tertiary structure, b-Quaternary structure

69) Primary structure of a protein relates to

(1) α-helical folding of a polypeptide

(2) Association of two polypeptides
(3) The sequence of amino acids
(4) β-pleated sheet folding of a polypeptide

70) In the primary structure of protein

(1) Left end represents → 1st amino acid (C-terminal amino acid)
(2) Right end represents → Last amino acid (N terminal amino acid)
(3) Left end represents → 1st amino acid (N-terminal amino acid)
(4) Right end represents → 1st amino acid (C-terminal amino acid)

71) Choose incorrect statement for pathogen.

(1) All parasites are pathogen but all pathogen are not parasite.
(2) Pathogens have to adapt to life within environment of host.
(3) Pathogens cause morphological and functional damage to body.
(4) Disease causing organism is called as pathogen.

72)

________ are not important to maintain good health.

(1) Infection
(2) Genetic diorder
(3) Personal hygiene
(4) (1) & (2) both

73)

Match the column-

 A. Physical barrier 1. Tears

Physiological
B. 2. Skin
barrier

C. Cellular barrier 3. Interferon

Natural
D. cytokine barrier 4.
killer cells
(1) ABCD/1234
(2) ABCD/1243
(3) ABCD/2134
(4) ABCD/2143

74) It was a thought that persons with black bile belonged to hot personality and would have fever
here term black bile means :

(1) Bile Juice

(2) Cough
(3) Gastric Juice
(4) None of these

75)

Lining of stomach and Buccal cavity are included in which type of innate immunity :

(1) Physical
(2) Physiological
(3) Cellular
(4) Cytokine

76)

First encounter with pathogen after vaccination develop which type of immune response :

(1) Amnestic
(2) Anamnestic
(3) Secondary
(4) Both (2) & (3)

77) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mind and mental state can affect our health through the influence on the immune
system via the neural and endocrine systems.
Statement II: Health is defined as the mere absence of disease or physical fitness.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

78) Which antibody is called as secretory antibody

(1) IgE
(2) IgA
(3) IgG
(4) IgM

79) Interferon which protect non infect cells from further viral infection is an example of-

(1) Physical barrier

(2) Physiological barrier
(3) Cellular barrier
(4) Cytokine barrier

80) Assertion : Interferons protect non-infected cells from further viral infection.
Reason : Interferons are the proteins secreted by virus infected cells.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

81) Mark the correct match with regards to innate immunity.

(1) Physical barriers = Interferons

(2) Cytokine barriers = Skin, mucosa
(3) Cellular barriers = PMNL-neutrophils
(4) Physiological barriers = Epithelium lining

82) Vaccine is included in :-

(1) Natural passive acquired immunity

(2) Natural active acquired immunity
(3) Artificial active acquired immunity
(4) Artificial passive acquired immunity

83) Which of the following are the properties of acquired immunity ?

(1) Specificity
(2) Diversity
(3) Immunological memory
(4) All of the above

84) According to enzyme substrate complex theory:

Enzyme + Substrate A → B → E + P.
In the following reaction A and B is:

(1) A → EP, B → ES
(2) A → ES, B → EP
(3) A → EP, B → EP
(4) A → EP, B → EI

85) The enzyme which catalyses the hydrolysis of bonds like ester, ether peptide, glycosidic etc.
belong to -

(1) Oxido-reductase
(2) Hydrolase
(3) Lylases
(4) Transferase

86) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The difference in average energy content of the substrate (S) from that of the transition
state is called 'activation energy'.
Statement II: Enzymes increase the activation energy required for the transition of the substrate (S)
to the product (P).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

87) Which of the following statements is true regarding the role of co-factors in enzymatic reactions?

(1) Co-factors are permanently associated with the apoenzyme and are not involved in catalysis.
Co-factors, such as metal ions, do not form coordination bonds with the substrate during
(2)
catalysis.
Co-factors are organic compounds whose association with the apoenzyme is transient and occur
(3)
during catalysis.
(4) The absence of co-factors does not affect the catalytic activity of enzymes.

88) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: During the state where substrate is bound to the enzyme active site, the substrate's
structure remains unchanged.
Statement II: The pathway of substrate transformation into the product(s) must go through what is
known as the transition state structure.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

89) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The substrate must bind to the enzyme at its 'active site' for the conversion of the
substrate (S) into a product (P).
Statement II: The formation of an 'ES' complex is not necessary for the enzymatic reaction to occur.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

90) Match the column-I with column-II.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

PART -1 PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 4 1 3 2 3 2 3 1 2 4 2 2 3 1 1 2 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 2 2 2 1 4 2 3 1 3 4 3 3 3 2 2 2 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 4 1 4

PART -2 CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 3 3 3 2 3 4 4 3 3 4 4 2 3 1 4 3 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 2 1 3 1 3 2 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 2 2 4 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 2 3 3

PART -3 BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 2 4 2 2 2 1 3 3 3 3 4 4 3 1 1 4 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 1 2 4 3 3 2 1 4 2 4 2 3 4 3 4 2 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 1 4 3 3 1 4 4 4 3 1 2 2 1 4 4 1 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 4 4 1 1 2 3 3 3 1 4 4 4 1 4 4 2 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 4 2 2 1 3 4 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PART -1 PHYSICS

1)

BP =

2)

3) Magnetic field due to a long current carrying wire, at r (i. e., )

For

4) loop = 1

loop = 2

loop = 3

loop = 4

5)

Time period =

Distance along x = pitch

=
= 0.157 m

6)

when r > d then

sinθ =
θ = 30°

7) ΔV = VC – VP = 0

8)

9)

10) (a) Due to wire (1) and (2) magnetic field at 'O' is in same direction so

B1 = (sin 0° + sin 90°) = = B2

Magnetic field due to circular arc :-

B3 = ⊗
So net magnetic field at point 'O' :-
B0 = (B1 + B2 + B3)⊗

B0 =
 ⊗

11) (b) Point 'O' is located on the extended axis of straight parts (4) and (6), so B4 = B6 = 0
Magnitude and direction of magnetic field at 'O' due to wire (1) and (3) is same so

B1 = (sin0° + sin90°) = =B3⨀

Due to circular arc (2) and (5) magnetic field at 'O' circular arc (2) and (5) is same so :-

B2 = = B5 ⨀
so resultant magnetic field at 'O' :-
B0 = B1 + B3 + B2 + B5

12)

13)
FE = qE [FE provide acceleration to the choose particle.]

14) 1. Asking About:

We need to find the work done in bringing a charge Q from point C to point A.
2. Concept:
In electrostatics, the work done in moving a charge between two points in a conservative field
is path-independent and depends only on the initial and final points. ·For a dosed path, the
total work done is zero. 3. Formula:
Solving for : 4. Calculation/ Explanation:

A. Given: WA →B = 2 Joules

WA →B = −3 Joules Plugging into the formula:

5. Final Answer:
The work done in bringing the charge from C to A is 1 joule.
Correct Option: 2. 1 joule
15) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.

16)

ux = v, uy = 0, ax = 0, ay =
(1) By work energy theorem

qEy = K2 – K1 ⇒ K2 =

(2) x = uxt ⇒ t =

y = uyt + ayt2 ⇒ y = ayt2 ...(1)

y= = ...(2)

17) Given,
Dipole moment,

An electric dipole consists of two equal and opposite charges.

∴ Net charge enclosed by a closed is zero.
Using Gauss law

18) The electric lines of force never Intersect the conductor. They are perpendicular and
slightly curved near the surface of conductor.

19)

For inner shell v=0 ⇒ ⇒ qin =

20) At center, E = 0 as well as V = 0.

21)
Q = –q

22) In the direction of potential decreases.

VB > VC > VA.

23)

Assume, 1 ball has any type of charge.

1 and 2 must have different charges, 2 and 4 must have different charges.
It means 1 and 4 must have same charges but electrostatics attraction is also present in (1, 4)
which is impossible.

24)

Electric field between A & B

E= =

E=–

25) = – [(6 – 8y) + (8 – 8x – 8 + 6z) + (– 8x – 8 + 6z) + (6y ]

At (0, 0, 0), =–

⇒E= and F = qE = 20 N/C

26) V6 = 48 V

i6 = =8A
Vxy = i (Rxy) = (8) (3 + 10 + 6 + 1) = 160 V

27)
I2 × 1 = 10 × 10–3 (9.9)
I2 = 0.099
I = 10 × 10–3 + 0.099
I = 0.001 + 0.099
I = 0.109 A
28) (A)
(B) J = σE = E/ρ ⇒ ρ = E/J

(C)

(D) i = neAvd

(E) Mobility =

29) For a conductor of non-uniform cross-section

30)
AC + CB = 350 cm

31)

V = igG
nV = ig (R+G) nigG = ig (R + G)
R + G = nG
R = G (n – 1)

32)
Assume VF = 0
VE = VF = 0
Current in R2 is zero
VA – VD = 10V

A from A to D.
33)
From KVL G→A→B→H
VG – 8 + 3 – 4 + 2 = VH
VG – VH = 7 volt

34)
In steady state there will be no current in branch of capacitor, so no voltage drop across R2 =
5Ω
I2 = 0

I3R3 = Vc
Vc = 1 × 6 = 6 volt
qc = CVc = 10 × 6 = 60 μC

35) From the Gauss's law

36)

Battery connected so V = constant

Now d↓ ⇒ C
A : Q = CV ∝ C ⇒ Q

B: U= CV2 ∝ C ⇒ U

C: C= ⇒C

D: ⇒C
E : (Q) (V) ∝ C ⇒ QV
Therefore statements A, C and E are correct.

37)

38)

39)

Rated charge on capacitors

Q3C = 3C × 1000 = 3000C
Q2C = 2C × 2000 = 4000C
as they are connected in series so we provide lesser charge which is – 3000c

Q = 3000C

Vnet = 2.5 KV

40) During steady state 4Ω can be remove d.

Q=
41)

As C1 and C2 are in series

42)

43)

44)

45) Problem Explanation :

Check the correctness of the assertion and reason related to electrostatic force and electric
field in a charged capacitor with a dielectric.

Concept :
For an isolated charged capacitor, inserting a dielectric reduces the electric field due to
polarization. Since the electrostatic force plates is directly proportional to the electric field,
the force also decreases.
 Formula :

and
Where E0 is the initial electric field and E is the reduced electric field after adding the
dielectric.

Calculation in Minimum Steps :

Electrostatic Force : Decreases because E decreases after inserting the dielectric.
Electric Field : Net electric field decreases, not increases, due to polarization.

Final Answer : Option 4 – Both (A) and (R) are false.

PART -2 CHEMISTRY

46) B.P Nearly same.

M.P→ para → high

47) Rate of SN1 ∝ stable of carbocation.

48)

Question Explanation:
The question asks to identify the major product(s) formed when chlorobenzene reacts with
acetyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3.

Concept :
Friedel-Crafts Acylation, Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution, Directive Influence of
Substituents, Deactivating Groups, Steric Effects.

Solution :
The reaction is a Friedel-Crafts Acylation. Chlorobenzene reacts with acetyl chloride
(CH3COCl) and AlCl3 (Lewis acid catalyst) to introduce an acetyl group (–COCH3) onto the
benzene ring via electrophilic aromatic substitution.

A. Chlorobenzene (–Cl group): ortho/para director.

B. Product Formation:
A. The acetyl group will be directed to the ortho and para positions relative to the chlorine
atom.
B. Para-chloroacetophenone is generally the major product due to less steric hindrance
compared to the ortho isomer.
C. Ortho-chloroacetophenone will also be formed, but typically in a lesser amount.
The correct option is option 3 - The major product is 4-chloroacetophenone (p-
chloroacetophenone), formed due to ortho/para direction by the -Cl group with para
substitution being sterically favored.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Both (1) and (2)

4 - chloroacetophenone

49) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation: We have to find out structure of produce of given reaction.

Concept:

50) Asking About :- In correct statement regarding Nitration of Benzene

Concept :- Electrophilic substitution reaction (ESR)
Soln / Explanation :- In Nitration of Benzene, Benzene is treated with a mixture of conc.
HNO3 + conc. H2SO4 (Nitrating mixture) & 'H' of Benzene is substituted by – NO2 group and
hence Nitro benzene is obtained.
-Nitrating mixture is used to generate electrophile –NO2 in which conc. HNO3 behave as Base
and conc. H2SO4 as Acid.
- generation of electrophile :-

51) Asking About :- Correct statement about Wurtz reaction

Concept :- Wurtz reaction
Soln / Explanation :- When Alkyl halide is treated with sodium metal is presence of dry ether
then alkane with double the number of carbon atom of that of alkyl halide is formed and
reaction is called as Wurtz reaction.
- Reaction proceeds via free radical mechanism
- Here symmetrical alkane or alkane with even number of carbon atoms is formed.

- 2 R-x +2Na R-R + 2 Nax.

52)

CO2 evolves at anode not cathode.

53) Asking About :- Alkene which only give ketone on ozonolysis.

Concept :- Reductive ozonolysis of Alknes.
Soln / Explanation :-

(a)

(b)
(c)

(d)

54)

55)

Dehydration of alcohol ∝ stability of carbocation

56)

–CCl3, –NO2,
m-directing m-directing
(I) (II)

–CHO, –O–
m-directing O/p- directing
(III) (IV)

57)
meso compound.

58)
(a) (q) Nitration

(b) CH3–COOK (p) Kolbe's electrolysis

(c) (r) Wurtz reaction

CH3–Br

(d) (s) Friedal-craft alkylation

59) 4 pie band are present

60) Product is propane

61)

62)

63)

64) CH3—CH=CH2 CH3—CH(Br)—CH3 CH3—CH=CH2

CH3CHO + HCHO

65)

The carbon-carbon bonds in ethyne is stronger than that in ethene.

(H–C≡C–H) Ethyne is linear and carbon atoms are sp-hybridised.
66) ⇒ Fittig Reaction

67)

68) (A) Na/Dry Ethers → Wurtz reaction

(B) Zn–Hg/HCl → Clemmenson
(C) O3/Zn/H2O → Ozonolysis
(D) NaOH/CaO → Decarboxylation

69) (Benzyl group) When M is replace with x it is Benzylic halide

70)
⇒ (a) & (b) chlorine are in Resonance so can't be removed easily whereas (c) chlorine is
removed easily and carbocation formed is highly stable due to resonance.
⇒ ∴ (c) chlorine is most reactive.

71)

I⊖ > Br⊖ > Cl⊖ > F⊖

72) 3° Alkyl halide is minimum reactive towards SN2 reaction.

73)

74) As per the table

75)

Leaving group tendency order ⇒ I– > Br– > Cl– > F–

Large sized I– can easily accomodate –ve charge so it is a good leaving group. While small sized
F– cannot easily accomodate –ve charge due to greater interelectronic repulsion. So F– is a
poor leaving group.

76)

77)

78)
Option-(3) → C is 1° alcohol (True)
79)

80)

81)
The reaction would follow SN2 mechanism.

82)

Being the better leaving ability of , R–I has better rate than R–Br for β –elimination.

∴ Rate of β –elimination :

Also, the general order of alkyl halide for β –elimination is : 3°R–X > 2°R–X > 1°R–X

83)

84) Order of nucleophilicity in polar protic solvent :

Reason : Due to solvation, the solvated is bulkiest hence, nucleophilicity is minimum, but
for , due to large size and low electron density, solvation is minimum and nucleophilicity is
maximum.

85)

Steric hindrance around the carbon atom having Cl will slow down the SN2 reaction, hence
lesser the hindrance, faster will be the reaction. So, the order of reactivity is
 CH3Cl > (CH3)CH2—Cl > (CH3)2CH—Cl > (CH3)3CCl

86) Rate of SN2 reaction .

87) In Vinylic halide halogen atom bonds with carbon atom of C = C bond.

88) t-BuOK is a bulky strong base and it undergoes dehydrohalogenation reaction more readily
at higher temperature to form alkene. The reaction is proceeds via E2-mechanism.

89)

90)

PART -3 BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 84

92)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 81

93)

Explanation :-Asking about main enzyme of DNA replication

Concept :- DNA replication
 Solution :- DNA polyonerase -III is the main enzyme of DNA replication.
Answer :- (2)

94) NCERT XI Pg # 80

95) Solution:
The correct answer is:
2. Unambiguous and specific
Explanation: The genetic code is unambiguous, meaning that each codon codes for only one
specific amino acid, and it is specific, meaning that each codon corresponds to one and only
one amino acid or a stop signal in protein synthesis. Therefore, the code is precise and non-
overlapping.

96) NCERT Pg.# 114

97) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 107

98) NCERT XII Pg. 110, 111

99) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 108

100)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 91

101) Explaining the Question:

Asking about 2 correct statements from given statements-

Concept:
Nuclic acid / DNA replication

Solution:
Statement A and D are correct because-

A. A = RNA was first genetic material (because contain ribose sugar)

B. D = RNA primer is formed just before activity of DNA polymerase-III during replication of
DNA - True

Option B and C are incorrect because-

B methyl uracil = Thymine - Absent in RNA
Final Answer:
Option (3)

102) Explanation:
Statement A is incorrect because a histone octamer is composed of two copies each of four
types of histone proteins (H2A, H2B, H3, and H4), totaling eight molecules, not five types.
 Statements B, C, and D accurately describe the structure and properties of a nucleosome.

Answer: 3. Three.

103) Explaining the Question:

Asking about correct order of events of protein synthesis.

Concept:
Translation

Solution:
The correct order of Translation or protein synthesis-

A. (iii) - Transcription
B. (i) - m-RNA to cytoplasm
C. (ii) - t-RNA charging
D. (iv) - Initiation of polypeptide
E. (v) Peptide bond formation
F. (vii) - Elongation
G. (vi) - Termination

Final Answer:
Option (4) (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv) – (v) – (vii) – (vi)

104) Explaining the Question:

Asking about molecule that can't synthesize by DNA directly.

Concept:
Replication / Transcription

Solution:

Process of protein synthesis not directly related with DNA, it directly related with m-RNA.
While other options are directly related with DNA.
So correct answer is protein synthesis in which DNA not directly involve.

Final Answer:
Option (4) protein synthesis

105) Correct Answer: Option 3: AUG

Solution with Explanation:
AUG has dual functions:
1. Start Codon → It initiates protein synthesis by coding for Methionine (Met).
2. Methionine Codon → It also codes for Methionine within the polypeptide chain.

106) NCERT Pg. # 98

107) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103, Para # 2

108)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 96, Para # 3

109)

The correct answer is:

1. Base pairing between two strands
Photosystem I (PSI) is not involved in water splitting; that function is carried out by
Photosystem II (PSII).

110) NCERT(XII) Pg. # 105

111) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 117

112)

Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to separate DNA fragments based on their size. To
visualize these separated DNA bands, a staining agent is used, which binds to the DNA and
can be seen under specific types of light or radiation.
Correct Answer: 3. Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
Explanation: Ethidium bromide is a common dye used in gel electrophoresis to stain DNA. It
intercalates between the bases of DNA strands and fluoresces when exposed to ultraviolet
(UV) radiation. This fluorescence allows researchers to visualize the DNA bands in the gel.

113)

Genetic mapping of the human genome and DNA fingerprinting rely on identifying unique
variations in the DNA sequence that distinguish individuals. These variations provide a basis
for mapping genes 3159767 and creating genetic profiles.
Correct Answer: 1. Polymorphism in DNA sequence
Explanation: Polymorphism refers to the presence of multiple forms or variations in the
DNA sequence among individuals. The most commonly used types of DNA polymorphisms for
genetic mapping and fingerprinting are single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) , short
tandem repeats (STRs) AND variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs . These variations
help scientists identify specific genes and create unique DNA profiles for individuals.

114)
 This question involves the Meselson-Stahl experiment on DNA replication, demonstrating
that DNA replication is semiconservative.
Key Points:
1. Initial DNA Composition: The original 10 E. coli cells have double-stranded DNA entirely
labeled with 15N (heavy isotope).
2. Replication in 14N Medium: Each round of DNA replication occurs every 20 minutes.
After replication:

A. The parent strand (15N) pairs with a new strand (14N), forming hybrid DNA.
B. New DNA strands are made only with 14N nucleotides.

3. Time = 60 minutes: Three generations of replication occur:

A. After the 1st generation (20 min): 20 hybrid DNA molecules.

B. After the 2nd generation (40 min): 20 hybrid and 20 fully 14N molecules.
C. After the 3rd generation (60 min): 20 hybrid and 60 fully 14N molecules.
D. After the 3rd generation (60 min): totally free from N 15 is 60 cell

So correct answer is option (2) 60 cell

115)

Explanation:
The lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously as Okazaki fragments (A), each formed in
the 5' to 3' direction (B), with the overall synthesis occurring opposite to the direction of helix
unwinding (C). These fragments are subsequently joined together by DNA ligase (D).

Correct Answer: 4. All

116) The correct answer is 3: Have message for protein synthesis, Adapter RNA, Play
biocatalytic.
Explanation:
Here is a breakdown of the characteristics for each type of RNA:

A. m-RNA (messenger RNA):

B. Has message for protein synthesis: mRNA carries the genetic information from DNA to the
ribosome for protein synthesis.
C. Single-stranded: mRNA is single-stranded and conveys the code for a specific protein.
D. t-RNA (transfer RNA):
E. Adapter RNA: tRNA acts as an adapter during protein synthesis by bringing the appropriate
amino acids to the ribosome, matching its anticodon to the mRNA codon.
F. Single-stranded: tRNA is typically single-stranded but folds into a specific shape.
G. r-RNA (ribosomal RNA):
H. Play biocatalytic role: rRNA is a key component of ribosomes, where protein synthesis
occurs, and plays a biocatalytic role in forming peptide bonds during translation.
I. Not necessarily a message carrier like mRNA but is vital for protein synthesis within the
ribosome.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Option 1: The descriptions are incorrect. mRNA is not highly stable, and rRNA is not the
largest RNA nor does it act as an enzyme.
B. Option 2: rRNA does not act as an adapter and is not single-stranded.
 C. Option 4: rRNA is not double-stranded, and mRNA is not highly stable.

Thus, Option 3 correctly describes the roles of mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA in protein synthesis.

117)

Ncert Pg No: 107- 115

118) NCERT Pg. No. 95

119)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 114, 115, 111

120)

NCERT-XII Pg#105

121) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 19

122) NCERT XI pg.# 28

123)

NEW NCERT XI Pg. # 14

124)

NCERT Pg # 21

125)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which statement about the heterocyst of Nostoc
is incorrect. It provides several characteristics, and you need to identify the one that does not
apply to heterocysts.

Underlying Concept: Heterocysts are specialized cells found in some filamentous

cyanobacteria like Nostoc. They are involved in nitrogen fixation, have thick walls to protect
the nitrogenase enzyme from oxygen, and are non-green because they lack pigments for
photosynthesis. Understanding the structure and function of heterocysts is essential to answer
the question.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that heterocysts are specialized for nitrogen fixation and avoid
oxygen interference by not performing photosynthesis.
Common Mistakes: A common mistake is assuming heterocysts are photosynthetic just like
other cells of Nostoc, but they actually lack photosynthetic ability to protect nitrogenase.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Non-green, site of nitrogen fixation, and thick walled
are true characteristics of heterocysts. However, 'Photosynthetic ability' is incorrect because
heterocysts do not carry out photosynthesis.

126) NCERT XI, Page # 128, 129

127) NCERT, Page # 20

128) NCERT – XI, Pg. # 24

129)

NCERT-XI, Page # 18, 20

130)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 07

131) NCERT XI(E)/(H) Page No. # 11, Table-1.1

132)

NCERT [Link]. 30

133) NCERT Pg no - 8, 9, 10 & 11

Pg no - 8, Para - 13 - 3rd & 4th lines
Pg no - 9, Para - 1.3.1
Pg no - 10 & 11 Para - 1.3.4, 1.3.7

134)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 5

135) Module 1 Pg. # 35

136)

Correct Answer: (3) Fatty acid, Glycerol, Ester

A typical fat molecule (triglyceride) consists of:
Three molecules of fatty acids (A)
 One molecule of glycerol (B)
Ester bonds (C) connecting them

137)

he correct matches are:

(a) Inulin - (ii) Homopolysaccharide
(b) Curcumin - (iv) Drug
(c) Collagen - (iii) Protein
(d) IAA (i) Hormone
There fore, the correct answer is 1

138)

Option 4 is correct.

An exothermic reaction with energy A in the presence of an enzyme (where the enzyme lowers
the activation energy) and energy B in the absence of an enzyme (where the activation energy
is higher) aligns perfectly with how enzymes affect the reaction mechanism in an exothermic
process.

139) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 148 fig. 9.2

140)

NCERT XI, Pg # 148

141)

Concept

A. Pigments: Substances that impart color.

B. Alkaloids: Nitrogen-containing organic compounds with physiological effects.
C. Toxins: Poisonous substances produced by living organisms.
D. Drugs: Substances used to treat or prevent disease.

Explanation

A. (I) Pigments: Carotenoids and anthocyanins are well-known plant pigments. So, I matches
with (c).
B. (II) Alkaloids: Morphine and codeine are alkaloids derived from the opium poppy. So, II
matches with (d).
C. (III) Toxins: Abrin and ricin are potent toxins produced by plants. So, III matches with (b).
D. (IV) Drugs: Vinblastin and curcumin are used as drugs, vinblastin for cancer treatment and
curcumin for its anti-inflammatory properties. So, IV matches with (a).

Final Answer
Therefore, the correct option is 3. I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a.
 142) NCERT Page No. 108

143) Explanation:

✔ Assertion (A): Sucrose provides a negative result in the presence of Benedict’s solution.
(True)
Benedict’s test detects reducing sugars (sugars with a free aldehyde or ketone group).
Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar because it lacks a free aldehyde (-CHO) or ketone (-CO)
group due to its glycosidic bond.
Since sucrose does not reduce Benedict’s reagent, it gives a negative result (no color
change).

✔ Reason (R): Sucrose is formed by the formation of a glycosidic bond between glucose and
fructose. (True)
Sucrose is a disaccharide made of glucose (α-D-glucose) and fructose (β-D-fructose) linked
by an α(1→2)β glycosidic bond.
This bond prevents both glucose and fructose from acting as reducing sugars.
However, the reason does not fully explain the assertion.
The negative Benedict’s test result is not simply because sucrose is formed by glycosidic
bonding,
but because this specific bond prevents the sugar from having a free aldehyde or ketone
group.
Final Answer:
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

144) Ncert Page 143.

After burning the dry tissue, all the organic compounds are oxidised to gaseous form (CO2 and
water vapour) and are removed. The material left which contains inorganic elements (e.g.
calcium, magnesium, etc) is termed ‘ash’.

145)

Concept:

A. Iodine binds to the helical structure of starch, causing the blue-black color reaction. This
is due to the iodine fitting inside the helical coils of starch molecules, forming a complex.

Explanation:

A. Both the assertion and the reason are true. The reason correctly explains why starch forms the
blue-black color when treated with iodine.

Answer is option (1) : Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion

146)

Concept:
 A. Uridine is a nucleoside, not a nucleotide.

B. It consists of:
➤ Uracil (a pyrimidine base)
➤ Ribose sugar (with –OH at 2' and 3' positions)

C. No phosphate group (that would make it UMP, uridine monophosphate)

Explanation: A single-ring base (uracil)

A. Connected to ribose (5-carbon sugar with hydroxyl groups at 2' and 3')

B. No phosphate group present

This helps distinguish it from UMP (a nucleotide) and other nucleosides like cytidine
(which has cytosine instead of uracil)

Final Answer: Option (4).

147) [NCERT Pg. 144]

148)

Concept
Key characteristics of phospholipids:

A. Do not form zwitterions like amino acids do under pH changes

Explanation

A. Option 1: Incorrect – Zwitterions are characteristic of amino acids, not phospholipids.

Final Answer : Option 1: It forms zwitterionic form on changing pH

149)

Ncert Page 148.

150) Statement I: Correct. Lecithin is indeed an example of a lipid found in cell membranes,
and neural tissues do contain lipids with more complex structures.
Statement II: Correct. Living organisms have a variety of carbon compounds that include
heterocyclic rings, such as the nitrogen bases adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil, and thymine.

151) Statement I: Correct. Oils have lower melting points than fats, which is why they remain
in liquid form during winters, such as gingelly oil.
Statement II: Correct. Phospholipids are a class of lipids that incorporate phosphate groups,
which typically include a phosphorylated organic compound, making them distinct from other
lipid types.

152)

Concept:

A. Ribose is a pentose sugar (5-carbon sugar)

B. It exists commonly in furanose (5-membered ring) form in nucleic acids

C. Its molecular formula is C₅H₁₀O₅

D. It has hydroxyl (–OH) groups on the 2', 3', and 5' carbons in the ribose ring

Explanation:

A. A 5-carbon sugar

B. In RNA, ribose has –OH groups on both the 2' and 3' carbons

C. If the sugar lacks an –OH at 2', it's deoxyribose, not ribose

Final Answer: Option (2).

153) NCERT Page No. 106

154) Question Explanation: Aeromatic Amino acids

Concept : This question is based on Amino acids.
Solution :
Tyrosine,
tryptophan,
phenylalanine
Final Answer : option (4)

155) Statement I: Correct. The sequence of amino acids in a protein, which includes the order
of the amino acids from first to last, is indeed known as the primary structure of a protein.
Statement II: Incorrect. In the primary structure of a protein, the first amino acid is called the
N-terminal amino acid and the last amino acid is called the C-terminal amino acid, not the
other way around.
 156) NCERT-XII, Pg. # (E)-149,150, (H)-149,150

157) NCERT Pg # 145, Fig.-9.1

158) Explanation :

A. Secondary Structure: Is often shown as alpha-helices or beta-pleated sheets.

B. Tertiary Structure: Depicts the overall 3D folding of a single polypeptide chain.

Final Answer (Assuming 'a' is folded and 'b' is linear):

The correct answer is 3. a-Secondary structure, b-tertiary structure.

159) Correct Answer option 3. The sequence of amino acids Explanation/Solution : The
primary structure is simply the linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain,
held together by peptide bonds. It does not involve any folding or interactions.

160) Concept

A. The primary structure is written from N-terminal (amino end) to C-terminal (carboxyl end).
B. The first amino acid is at the N-terminal (left end), and the last amino acid is at the C-terminal
(right end).

Explanation :
The sequence starts from the N-terminal on the left and ends at the C-terminal on the right
Final Ans.
Left end represents → 1st amino acid (N-terminal amino acid)

161) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 146

162)

NCERT XII_Page 146 (E)

163)

NCERT XII Page # 150-151

164)

NCERT XII, Pg # 145

165)

NCERT XII, Pg # 150

 166)

NCERT XII, Pg # 151

167) Statement I: Correct. The text indicates that the mind and mental state can indeed affect
our health by influencing the immune system through the neural and endocrine systems.
Statement II: Incorrect. Health is not simply defined as the absence of disease or physical
fitness; it is a broader concept that includes genetic factors, lifestyle, and other aspects of
well-being.

168) Allen module.

169) NCERT Page No. 151

170) NCERT-XII, Pg#151 (E), Para-8.2.1

NCERT-XII, Pg#162 (H), Para-8.2.1

171) Explanation : This is a multiple-choice question about innate immunity. Let's break
down the components of innate immunity and evaluate the options: Evaluating the Options:

A. Physical barriers = Interferons : Incorrect. Interferons are cytokines (chemical barriers), not
physical barriers.
B. Cytokine barriers = Skin, mucosa: Incorrect. Skin and mucosa are physical barriers, not
cytokine barriers.
C. Cellular barriers = PMNL-neutrophils: Correct. PMNL stands for polymorphonuclear
leukocytes, which is another term for neutrophils. Neutrophils are a major type of phagocytic
cell and are part of the cellular barriers of innate immunity.
D. Physiological barriers = Epithelium lining: Incorrect. Epithelium lining (like skin and mucosa)
is a physical barrier, not a physiological barrier.

Therefore, the correct match with regards to innate immunity is: (3) : Cellular barriers =
PMNL-neutrophils

172)

Question Explanation :
Identify the type of immunity vaccine provides.

Concept :
This question is based on Acquired Immunity.

Solution :
The correct answer is option 2.

Vaccine introduces antigen (killed/attenuated pathogen) to stimulate the immune system to

produce antibodies and memory cells.

It is artificially introduced and activates the body’s own immune [Link] vaccines are
included in artificial active acquired immunity.
Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Artificial active acquired immunity.

173)

Problem Statement: Asking About:

Property of acquired immunity-

Concept:

Solution/Explanation:

It has (i) Specificity

(ii) Diversity

(iv) & Discrimination

Immunological memory

174)

175) NCERT Pg. No.158

176) Statement I: Correct. The difference in average energy content of the substrate (S) from
that of the transition state is indeed called 'activation energy'. It represents the energy barrier
that must be overcome for a reaction to proceed.
Statement II: Incorrect. Enzymes actually lower the activation energy required for the
transition of the substrate (S) to the product (P), making the reaction more likely to occur, not
increase it.

177) Co-factors are non-protein chemical compounds that are transiently associated with the
apoenzyme during the course of catalysis. They are essential for the enzyme's catalytic activity
as they may serve as co-factors in different enzyme-catalyzed reactions and are often derived
from vitamins, such as NAD which contains niacin. Metal ions can also act as co-factors and
are crucial for the activity of certain enzymes, such as zinc in carboxypeptidase. The catalytic
activity of an enzyme is lost when the co-factor is removed, highlighting their importance in
enzymatic reactions.

178) Statement I: Incorrect. When a substrate is bound to the enzyme's active site, it forms a
transition state structure where the substrate's structure is transformed, not unchanged.
Statement II: Correct. The transformation of the substrate into the product(s) involves the
formation of a transition state structure, which is a necessary step in the catalytic process.

179) Statement I: Correct. The substrate must indeed bind to the enzyme at its 'active site' to
be converted into a product, which is a fundamental concept in enzymatic reactions.
Statement II: Incorrect. The formation of an 'ES' complex, where 'E' stands for enzyme and 'S'
for substrate, is an obligatory step in the enzymatic reaction process, as it is necessary for the
substrate to be converted into the product.

180)

The Correct option is 2.

(a) Cofactor : Non protein Constituents
(b) Apoenzyme: Protein portion of enzyme
(c) Prosthetic group: Tightly bound to the apoenzyme
(d) Coenzyme: Serve as cofactors in a number of different enzyme catalysed reactions.