09-11-2025

4015CMD303021250014 MD

PHYSICS

1) The circuit diagram shown here corresponds to the logic gate, is-

(1) NOR
(2) AND
(3) OR
(4) NAND

2) Total energy of an electron in an atom in its orbit is –1.51 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies
are, respectively.

(1) –3.02 eV, 1.51 eV

(2) 3.02 eV, –1.51 eV
(3) –1.51 eV, –3.02 eV
(4) 1.51 eV – 3.02 eV

3)

In photoelectric effect on changing target material, the graph in adjoining diagrams shows :

(1) different intercepts but same slope

(2) same intercepts but different slopes
(3) same intercepts and same slope
(4) both the intercepts and slopes different

4) Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom correspond to increasing values of energy i.e. EA < EB < EC.
If λ1, λ2, λ3 are the wavelengths of radiation corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A
respectively, which of the following relation is correct ?
(1) λ3 = λ1 + λ2
(2) λ3 = λ1λ2/(λ1 + λ2)
(3) λ1 + λ2 + λ3 = 0
(4)

5) A p-type semiconductor is :–

(1) positively charged

(2) negatively charged
(3) uncharged
(4) uncharged at 0 K but charged at higher temperatures

6)

A zener diode having breakdown voltage equal to 10V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in
figure. The current flowing through the diode is :

(1) 10 mA
(2) 5 mA
(3) 15 mA
(4) 20 mA

7) The energy of radiation emitted by LED is :-

(1) greater than the band gap of the semiconductor used

(2) always less the band gap of the semiconductor used
(3) always equal to the band gap of the semiconductor used
(4) equal to or less than the band gap of the semiconductor used

8) For the given circuit shown in fig, to act as full wave rectifier :– a.c. input should be connected
across ........... and ........... the d.c. output would appear across ........... and ...........

(1) A, C, B, D
(2) B, D, A, C
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) C, A, D, B

9) A full wave rectifier circuit along with the input and output voltage is shown in the figure then

output due to diode D2 is :-

(1) A, C
(2) B, D
(3) B, C
(4) A, D

10) A ultra violet light bulb, emitting 400 nm and infrared bulb emitting 700 nm wavelength
radiation, each are rated at 130 W. Then the ratio of the number of photons emitted per second by
the UV & IR sources :-

(1) 0.57
(2) 1.75
(3) 28
(4) 0.04

11) If the binding energy per nucleon in and nuclei are 5.70 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively,
then in the reaction :
p+
energy of proton must be-

(1) 28.24 MeV

(2) 17.28 MeV
(3) 1.46 MeV
(4) 16.58 MeV

12) The work function of a surface of a photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The wavelength of the
incident radiation for which the stopping potential is 5V lies in the :-

(1) Infrared region

(2) X-ray region
(3) Ultraviolet region
(4) Visible region

13)
The stable nucleus which has a radius half of Zn64 is -

(1) Ca40
(2) S16
(3) Na21
(4) Be8

14) Digital circuits can be made by repetitive use of-

(1) OR gate
(2) AND gate
(3) NOT gate
(4) NAND gate

15) The donor atom electrons have an energy level

(1) Slightly below the conduction band

(2) Slightly above the conduction band
(3) Slightly below the valence band
(4) Slightly above the valence band

16) When a metal is irradiated by monochromatic light, the maximum kinetic energy of
the photo–electrons is 1.2 eV. If frequency of the light is increased 50% then maximum kinetic
energy of photo–electron is 3.6 eV. Evaluate the work function of the metal.:-

(1) 3.6 eV
(2) 5.8 eV
(3) 9.7 eV
(4) None of these

17) The potential energy of a particle of mass m is given by the de-Broglie

wavelengths of the particle, when 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 and x > 1 are λ1 and λ2 respectively. If the total energy

0
of particle is 2E , the ratio will be :-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3)

(4)

18) A photodiode is made from a semiconductor with band gap of 2.8 eV. Which of the following
wavelength it can detect.

(1) 9500 Å
(2) 8200 Å
(3) 5800 Å
(4) 4000 Å

19) An electron moves along circular path of radius 'r' in uniform transverse magnetic field 'B'
then de-Broglie wave length associated with it –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit
shown in figure. The current through the zener diode is :-

(1) 5 mA
(2) 10 mA
(3) 15 mA
(4) 20 mA

21) In a nuclear fusion reaction, if the energy is released then :

(1) BEproducts = BEreactants

(2) BEreactants > BEproducts
(3) BEproducts > BEreactants
(4) Mass of product > Mass of reactant

22) In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B
as :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
23) The radius of electron in a H-atom changes from 2.12 Å to 4.77 Å. The H-atom has :-

(1) Absorbed a photon of energy 1.51 eV

(2) Absorbed a photon of energy 1.89 eV
(3) Emitted a photon of energy 10.2 eV
(4) Emitted a photon of energy 1.04 eV

24) The figure shows two NAND gates followed by a NOR gate. The system is equivalent to the

following logic gate :-

(1) OR
(2) AND
(3) NAND
(4) None of these

25) An electron is moving around the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The
coulomb force F between the two is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) In a semiconductor diode the barrier potential offers opposition to only :-

(1) Majority carrier in both regions

(2) Minority carrier in both regions
(3) Free electrons in the n-region
(4) Holes in the p-region

27) Find shortest wave length in Paschen series :-

(1) 8208 Å
(2) 975 Å
(3) 3648 Å
(4) 4560 Å

28) Match List-I with List-II.

 List-I List-II (Wave
(Series) number in cm–1)

A. Balmer series I.

B. Lyman series II.

Brackett
C. III.
series

D. Pfund series IV.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

29) The logic circuit shown in figure has the input wave forms A and B as shown. The correct output

wave form is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

30) If e– and alpha(α) particle are accelarted by same potential difference then ratio of their kinetic
energy :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

31) What will be conductivity of pure silicon crystal at 300 K temperature. If electron hole pairs per
cm3 is 1.072 × 1010 at this temperature, µe = 1350 cm2/volt-s and µh = 480 cm2/volt-s :

(1) 3.14 × 10–6 mho/cm

(2) 3 × 106 mho/cm
(3) 10–6 mho/cm
(4) 106 mho/cm
32) The kinetic energy of an electron gets tripled, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it
becomes how many time :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 3

33) Radiations of same frequency are incident on three different metals A, B and C and

obtained graph is shown : Correct relationship between their work

functions is :

(1) ϕA > ϕB > ϕC

(2) ϕA < ϕB < ϕC
(3) ϕB > ϕC > ϕA
(4) ϕA = ϕB = ϕC

34) An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths
associated with them is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) For nuclear reaction :

235
92U + 0n1 → 56Ba144 + ..........+3 0n1

89
(1) 26Kr
89
(2) 36Kr
90
(3) 26Sr
89
(4) 38Sr
36) Out of following spectral series of hydrogen spectrum, the one which lies wholly in the
ultraviolet region is-

(1) Balmer series

(2) Brackett series
(3) Paschen series
(4) Lyman series

37) What is the point where the graph touches the x-axis indicate ?

(1) break down voltage

(2) Open circuit voltage
(3) short circuit voltage
(4) Knee voltage

38) When light source of intensity I, incident on a metal plate of work function 2 eV, then e– will be
emitted. Now intensity becomes 2I then work function will be :-

(1) 4 eV
(2) 0.25 eV
(3) 2 eV
(4) 0.5eV

39) Which one of the following statements about photon is incorrect :-

(1) Photon's rest mass is zero

(2) Momentum of photon is hν/c
(3) Photon's energy is hν
(4) Photons exert no pressure

40) The momentum of a photon is 3.3 × 10–29 kg-m/sec. Its frequency will be :-

(1) 3 × 103 Hz
(2) 6 × 103 Hz
(3) 7.5 × 1012 Hz
(4) 1.5 × 1013 Hz

41) An electron of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘e’ initially at rest gets accelerated by a constant electric
field E. The rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at time t; ignoring relativistic
effect is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) If E and λ represent the energy and wavelength respectively of an electron. Then the graph
between log λ and log E will have

(1) Positive slope

(2) Negative slope
(3) Zero slope
(4) Infinite slope

43) Assertion :- If a stationary nucleus emits an α-particle, the de Broglie wavelengths of the
daughter nucleus and the α-particle are equal.
Reason :- The magnitude of the linear momenta of the daughter nucleus and the α-particle are the
same.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

44) If the velocity of a moving particle is reduced to half, then percentage change in its wavelength
will be

(1) 100% decrease

(2) 100% increase
(3) 50% decrease
(4) 50% increase

45) The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit is related to the radius R of the
orbit as-

(1) nλ = πR

(2)
nλ = πR
(3) nλ = 2πR
(4) nλ = 4πR

CHEMISTRY

1) Statement-I : The value of enthalpy of atomisation is generally maximum at about the middle of
each series.
Statement-II : There is one unpaired electron per d-orbital and this results in stronger interatomic
interaction.

(1) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True, Statement-II is a correct explanation for Statement-I.
Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True, Statement-II is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is False.
(4) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is True.

2) In Na2[Fe(CN)5NO], sodium nitroprusside :-

(1) Oxidation state of Fe is +2

(2) It has NO+ as ligand
(3) Both are correct
(4) None is correct

3) Match column I & II & select correct relation :-

Column-I Column-II

Estimation of
(A) (i) Cis-Platin
hardness of water

(B) Detection of nickel (ii) EDTA–4

(C) Electro plating (iii) DMG

–
(D) Treatment of cancer (iv) [Ag(CN)2]
(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

4) Cr2+ and Mn2+ respectively are -

(1) Reductant and oxidant

(2) Both reductant
(3) Both oxidant
(4) Oxidant and reductant

5) Which of the following molecule is planar due to back bonding ?

(1) NCl3
(2) PF3
(3) BF3
(4) N(SiH3)3
6) Correct IUPAC name of [Ni(en)Br2(PPh3)2] is

(1) Dibromidoethyleneditriphenylnickle (II)

Dibromidobis(ethylenediamine)
(2)
bis(triphenylphosphine) nickle (II)
Dibromidoethylenediaminebis
(3)
(triphenylphosphine) nickel (II)
(4) Dibromoethylenebromidophosphinenickle (II)

7) Which of the following is not incorrect ?

–2
(1) [NiCl4(NH3)2] → geometrical isomerism
(2) [Pt (NH3)2Cl2] → Fac-mer isomerism
(3) CoCl3.6H2O → Hydrate isomerism possible
(4) 1 & 3 both

8) Which of the following statement not incorrect.

(1) Cromyl chloride test not applicable for KCl, CaCl2, CsCl
(2) KMnO4 give Mn2O7 and O2 in thermal decomposition
(3) Zn, Cd, Hg show one or more than one typical metallic structure.
(4) and CrO42– show tetrahedral geometry and form pπ-dπ bond

9) Assertion (A) : Aqueous solution of Mohr's salt exhibits the test for NH4+, Fe+2 and SO4–2 ions.
Reason (R) : Mohr's salt is a double salt.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

10) Which complex shows highest crystal field stabilisation energy :-

–2
(1) [CoF4]
+2
(2) [Co(H2O)4]
–2
(3) [CoCl4]
+3
(4) [Co(NH3)6]

11) In Brown ring complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 oxidation state of Fe is :-

(1) +1
(2) +2
(3) +3
(4) +6
12) Which of following complex does not show geometrical isomerism :

(1) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
+3
(2) [Co(en)3]
(3) [Co(en)2Cl2]
(4) [Pt(NH3)(H2O)Cl2]

13) Correct statement about CrO4–2 is

(1) Yellow colour is due to d-d transition

(2) All pi bonds are of dπ-pπ
(3) Paramagnetic
(4) Unstable in basic medium

14)

Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Test/reagent) (Radical identified)

A. Lake Test I.

B. Nessler's Reagent II. Fe3+

C. Potassium thiocyanate III. Al3+

D. Brown Ring Test IV.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

15) When K2Cr2O7 react with H2O2 in acidic medium the product will be :-

+3
(1) Cr , O2
+3
(2) Cr , H2O
+6
(3) H2O, Cr
–2
(4) CrO4 , O2

16) Assertion : Many trivalent lanthanoid ions are coloured both in solid state and in aqueous
solution.
Reason : Colour of these ions is due to the presence of unpaired electrons in f-orbitals.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) Which complex is most stable ?

Where kd = Dissociation constant

– –16
(1) [Cu(CN)2] ; Kd = 1 × 10
–4 –37
(2) [Fe(CN)6] ; Kd = 1 × 10
–3 –44
(3) [Fe(CN)6] ; Kd = 1 × 10
– –20
(4) [Ag(CN)2] ; Kd = 1 × 10

18) What is electronic arrangement of metal atom/ion in octahedral complex with d4 configuration, if
Δ0 < pairing energy.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Which of following has highest paramagnetism :-

+3
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]
+3
(2) [Fe(H2O)6]
+2
(3) [Cu(H2O)6]
+2
(4) [Zn(H2O)6]

20) Assertion (A) : The metal carbon bond in metal carbonyls possesses both and character
Reason (R) : The ligand to metal bond is a bond and metal to ligand bond is a bond.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

21) The incorrect statement regarding 15th group hydrides (EH3). [E = N, P, As, Sb, Bi]

(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 : Thermal stability
(2) N–H > P–H > As–H > Sb–H > Bi–H : E–H : bond dissociation enthalpy
(3) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 : Reducing character
(4) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 >BiH3 : Basicity

22)
In above reversible reaction, x and y will be :-
(1) 6,6
(2) 8,8
(3) 6,8
(4) 8,6

23) Which of the following combination with Fe(II) ion to form a brown complex?

(1) N2O
(2) NO
(3) N2O3
(4) N2O4

24) Which of the following 3d series metal has positive value of E°(M2+/M) ?

(1) Zn
(2) Cu
(3) Mn
(4) Cr

25) Correct order of oxidising nature is:

(1) CrO3 > MoO3 > WO3

(2) MoO3 > CrO3 > WO3
(3) WO3 > CrO3 > MoO3
(4) CrO3 > WO3 > MoO3

26) The strongest CO bond is present in

+
(1) [Cr(CO)6]
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
–
(3) [V(CO)6]
(4) all have equal strength

27) Coordination compounds have great importance in biological systems. In this context which of
the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Chlorophyll is a green pigment in plants and contains calcium

(2) Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood and contains iron
(3) Cyanocobalamin is B12 and contains cobalt
(4) Carboxypeptidase-A is an enzyme and contains zinc

28) Select the correct M–C, Bond Strength?

– –2
(1) [Ni(CO)4] > [Co(CO)4] > [Fe(CO)4]
– –2
(2) [Ni(CO)4] < [Co(CO)4] < [Fe(CO)4]
 – –2
(3) [Ni(CO)4] < [Co(CO)4] = [Fe(CO)4]
– –2
(4) [Ni(CO)4] = [Co(CO)4] = [Fe(CO)4]

29) can be correct order of :-

(1) Reducing power

(2) Oxidising power
(3) Basic nature
(4) All of the above

30)

Which one of the following ions exhibits d–d transition and paramagnetism as well ?

2–
(1) CrO4
2–
(2) Cr2O7
–
(3) MnO4
2–
(4) MnO4

31) Cobalt (III) chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia. Which of the following
will not give test of chloride ions with silver nitrate at 25°C?

(1) CoCl3·4NH3
(2) CoCl3·5NH3
(3) CoCl3·6NH3
(4) CoCl3·3NH3

32) The melting point of Mn is lower than Fe due to -

(1) Strong metallic bond due to d10 configuration

(2) Weak metallic bond due to d5 configuration
(3) Weak metallic bond due to d7 configuration
(4) None

33) Which of the following is an outer orbital complex :-

2+
(1) [Ni(NH3)6]
4–
(2) [Mn(CN)6]
3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6]
4–
(4) [Fe(CN)6]

34) Which of the following species is not expected to be ligand :-

(1) NO
+
(2) NH4
(3) NH2CH2CH2NH2
(4) CO

35) In octahedral complex central metal ion is Fe+3. In presence of strong field ligand it shows
paramagnetic character due to presence of :-

(1) 5 unpaired e–
(2) 3 unpaired e–
(3) 2 unpaired e–
(4) 1 unpaired e–

36) Statement-I : Zero and negative oxidation state of d-block metal ion are not possible in their
complex compound.
Statement-II : Low oxidation state of metal ions are found when a complex compound has ligands
capable of π-acceptor character in addition to σ-bonding.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both correct.

(2) Statement-I and statement-II both incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

37) Select the correct statement :-

–2
(1) Cr2O7 turns yellow in basic medium
(2) Ce+4 and Tb+4 are oxidising agents
(3) In neutral medium KMnO4 oxidises KI in to KIO3
(4) All are correct

38) Which of the following chlorides produce chromyl chloride vapour when heated with conc. H2SO4
and K2Cr2O7 :-

(1) NaCl
(2) AgCl
(3) Hg2Cl2
(4) PbCl4

39) The correct IUPAC name for the compound [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] is

(1) Diamminesilver(II)dicyanidoargentate(II)
(2) Diamminesilver(I)dicyanidoargentate(II)
(3) Diamminesilver(II)dicyanidoargentate(I)
(4) Diamminesilver(I)dicyanidoargentate(I)

40) Which of following is incorrect matching :

–2
(1) [Ni(CN)4] - diamagnetic
 +3
(2) [Co(NH3)6] - inner orbital complex
–2
(3) [Pt(CN)4] - square planer
(4) [Ni(CO)4] - paramagnetic

41) Select the correct order for the wavelength of absorption for the given complexes -

3– 3+ 3+ 3–
(1) [CrCl6] > [Cr(H2O)6] > [Cr(NH3)6] > [Cr(CN)6]
3– 3– 3+ 3+
(2) [Cr(CN)6] = [CrCl6] = [Cr(NH3)6] = [Cr(H2O)6]
3– 3+ 3+ 3–
(3) [Cr(CN)6] > [Cr(NH3)6] > [Cr(H2O)6] > [CrCl6]
3– 3+ 3– 3+
(4) [Cr(CN)6] > [Cr(H2O)6] > [CrCl6] [Cr(NH3)6]

42) A pair of ions having similar magnetic moment is :-

(1) Ti+3, V+3

(2) Cr+3, Mn+2
(3) Mn+2, Fe+3
(4) Fe+2, Mn+2

43) Which complex compound have maximum value of Δ0 :-

3–
(1) [Co(CN)6]
3–
(2) [Co(C2O4)3]
3+
(3) [Co(H2O)6]
3+
(4) [Co(NH3)6]

44) Consider the following statements :-

(A) For nitrogen family tendency to exhibit –3 oxidation state decreases down the group.
(B) For nitrogen all oxidation states from +1 to +4 tends to disproportionate in basic solution.
(C) Maximum covalency of nitrogen is 5.
(D) BiH3 is the strongest reducing agent amongst hydrides of 15th group.
Correct statements are :-

(1) A & B only

(2) B & C only
(3) C & D only
(4) A & D only

45) Assertion (A) :- titrations in presence of HCl are unsatisfactory.

Reason (R) :- HCl oxidised into Cl2.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true & (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R)) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
 BIOLOGY

1) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

Pre-reproductive individuals =
A. Logistic growth I.
Reproductive individual

B. Exponential growth II.

C. Expanding age pyramid III.

Pre-reproductive individuals >

D. Stable age pyramid IV.
reproductive individuals
(1) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
(2) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(3) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
(4) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I

2) Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India ?

(1) Mango
(2) Groundnut
(3) Rice
(4) Maize

3) How many of the following are causes of biodiversity losses :-

(a) Habitat loss
(b) Over exploitation
(c) Alien species invasion
(d) Co-Evolution

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

4) Characteristic of an individual may be all, except:-

(1) Birth
(2) Death
(3) Sex ratio
(4) Age

5) Who is known as the father of Indian ecology ?

(1) Prof. R. D. Misra
(2) Warming
(3) Reiter
(4) E. P. Odum

6) Identify the correct combination :

(a) (b) (c)

(1) Sea anemone Clown fish Commensalism

(2) Whale Barnacles Mutualism

(3) Fig tree Wasp Commensalism

(4) Cuckoo Crow Mutualism

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Ecology at the organismic level is essentially physiological ecology which tries to understand that
how :-

(1) Ecosystems interact among themselves.

(2) Different population interact and comprise a community.
Different organisms adapt to their environment in terms of not only survival but also
(3)
reproduction
(4) Different ecosystem forms a biome.

8) Which of the following is not a favourable factor for increasing the rate of decomposition ?

(1) Oxygen richness of soil.

(2) Detritus rich in lignin
(3) Warm environment
(4) High soil moisture

9) Highest net primary productivity can be observed at :

(1) Lake
(2) Ocean
(3) Tropical rain forest
(4) Coral Reef

10) On high altitude, The body compensates low oxygen availability by increasing RBCs production.
............ the binding capacity of hemoglobin and ........... breathing rate. Fill the above blank spaces :-

(1) Increasing, decreasing

(2) Increasing, Increasing
(3) Decreasing, Increasing
(4) Decreasing, decreasing

11) India, accounts for _____% of global diversity ?

(1) 2.4%
(2) 8.1%
(3) 4.2%
(4) 1.8%

12) The mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time is called :

(1) Standing state

(2) Net primary productivity
(3) Standing crop
(4) Gross primary productivity

13) Earth has undergone how many mass extinction ?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

14) Choose the correct match :-

(a) Co-evolution - Endoparasite & Host
(b) Mutualism - Relation of algae & fungi
(c) Sexual deceit - shown by Opuntia plant
(d) Human & roundworm – Parasitism
Option :

(1) Only a & b

(2) Only b & c
(3) Only c & d
(4) a, b & d

15) Match the following given symbols with interactions:-

(a) + / + (i) Predation

(b) – / – (ii) Commensalism

(c) + / – (iii) Competition

(d) + / 0 (iv) Mutualism

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

16) Tiger census in forest areas is often based on

(1) Actual counting of them

(2) Pug marks and Fecal pellets
(3) hunted prey by them
(4) Giving physical mark on their body

17) Consider the following four statements and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only
(a) In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC (Grazing food chain) is the major conduit for energy flow.
(b) Plants capture only 2-10 percent of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains the entire
living world.
(c) The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately 270 billion tons (dry
weight) of organic matter.
(d) Sunlight can reach upto 500 m in the aquatic ecosystem.

(1) (a), (b), (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) (b), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (c), (d)

18) Which of the following is an in-situ conservation method ?

(1) National park

(2) Tissue culture
(3) Zoological park
(4) Botanical garden

19) Logistic growth and exponential growth formula are respectively :-

(1)
= rN ; = rN

(2)
= rN ; = rN

(3)
= rN ; = rN

(4)
= rN ; = rN

20) "On the earth much greater number and kinds of living organisms are present. The number of
species estimated to be present on earth is 6-7 million". All this refers to :-

(1) Taxonomy
(2) Plant diversity
(3) Plant taxonomy
(4) Biodiversity

21) Which of the following statement(s) are incorrect?

(A) A given species may occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem
(B) Pyramid of energy is always upright
(C) Catabolism is a non-enzymatic process
(D) Primary producers are herbivores

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

22) If in a pond, there are 48 fishes last year and through reproduction 10 new fishes are added
taking the current population to 58. What will be the birth rate per fish per year :

(1) 0.172
(2) 0.827
(3) 0.208
(4) 4.8

23) Natality refers to :

(1) Death rate

(2) Birth rate
(3) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(4) Number of individuals entering a habitat

24) Decomposition of detritus is favoured by all the given below factor except :-

(1) Anaerobiosis
(2) Warm and moist habitat
(3) Detritus rich in nitrogen and sugar
(4) Detritus rich in reserve carbohydrates

25) Maximum diversity among living organisms is found in :-

(1) Desert area

(2) Tropical rain forest
(3) Temparate forest
(4) Decidous forest

26) Match List-I with List-II w.r.t. Nt = N0ert.

 List-I List-II

A. N0 I. Base of natural logarithms

Intrinsic rate of
B. Nt II.
natural increase

C. r III. Initial population density

Population density
D. e IV.
after time t.
(1) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(2) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
(3) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
(4) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I

27) Which one of the following is not included under in situ conservation ?

(1) National park

(2) Wild life sanctuary
(3) Cryopreservation
(4) Biosphere reserve

28) Which statement is incorrect ?

(1) Trophic level represent functional level not a species as such

(2) A same species may occupy more than one trophic level in same ecosystem at same time
(3) In most ecosystem, pyramids of number, energy and biomass are upright
(4) Energy at higher trophic level is more as compared to lower levels as they are physically strong

29)

Which of the following is the raw material for decomposition :-

(1) Duff
(2) Humus
(3) Detritus
(4) All of the above

30) Read the following statements :-

(a) Proto-cooperation is also known as non obligatory
(b) Human lice is an example of ectoparasite
(c) Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful due to chemical
(d) Mutualism is obligatory relationship
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Which statement is/are correct ?

(a) Ecology is a science which studies the interaction among organisms and between the organisms
with its physical (abiotic) environment.
(b) Ecology is a science which studies the interaction between physical factors (abiotic) environment
only.
(c) Ecology is a science which studies the interaction between the organism with its biotic
environment only
(d) Ecology is a science which studies the interaction between organisms and its biotic and physical
(abiotic) environment.

(1) Only d are correct

(2) Only a are correct
(3) a and d are correct
(4) a, b, c, d are correct

32) Assertion :- The logistic growth is more realistic than exponential growth.
Reason :- Resources for growth for most populations are finite and become limiting sooner or later.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

33) Which of the given age pyramid reflects an increasing human population :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A pyramid with pre-reproductive individuals being more than reproductive individuals, the
population is said to be __a__ with __b__ age pyramid :-

(1) a - Declining, b - Urn shaped

(2) a - Expanding, b - Triangular
(3) a - Stable, b - Bell shaped
(4) a - Expanding, b - Bell shaped

35) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I (Population List-II (During a given period

attributes) in the population)

The number individuals

(A) Natality (i)
who left the habitat

(B) Mortality (ii) The number of births

The number of individuals

(C) Emigration (iii)
who came into habitat

(D) Immigration (iv) The number of deaths

Option :-
(1) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iii
(2) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
(3) A–i, B–iv, C–ii, D–iii
(4) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii, D–i

36)

Match the table I, II and III.

I II III

Tertiary Fourth trophic Birds, fishes,

1 a i
consumer level wolf

Third trophic
Secondary
2 b level (primary ii Man, Lion
consumer
carnivore)

Secondary First trophic Phytoplankton,

3 c iii
Producer level (plants) grass, tree

Second Zooplankton,
Primary
4 d trophic level iv grass hopper
producer
(herbivore) and cow

(1) 1-a-ii, 2-b-iii, 3-d-iv, 4-c-i

(2) 1-a-i, 2-b-ii, 3-c-iii, 4-d-iv
(3) 1-b-i, 2-a-ii, 3-d-iv, 4-c-iii
(4) 1-a-ii, 2-b-i, 3-d-iv, 4-c-iii

37) The two basic processes which contribute to a increase in population density are :
(1) mortality and immigration
(2) natality and immigration
(3) mortality and emigration
(4) natality and emigration

38) The soil of tropical rain forests is poor in nutrients due to :-

(1) Slow rate of decomposition

(2) high rate of leaching
(3) high rate of absorption
(4) low amount of detritus falling on soil

39) Ecology explains us :-

(1) How organisms, while remaining as an individual interact with other organisms.
(2) How organism, interact with physical environment.
As a group how organisms behave like organised population, community, ecosystem or even as
(3)
the whole biosphere.
(4) All of these

40) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.
Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle
in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options. given
below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

41) Co-evolution can be seen in which type of interaction?

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Both 1 and 3

42) Which of the following is considered as hot-spot of biodiversity in India ?

(1) Eastern Ghats

(2) Aravalli Hills
(3) Western Ghats
(4) Indo-Gangetic Plain
43) The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to :-

(1) Increased number of predatory birds

(2) Over exploitation
(3) Non-availability of the food
(4) Disease in pigeon

44) In a growing population of a country :

(1) Pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals

(2) Reproductive individuals are less than the post- reproductive individuals
(3) Reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number
(4) Pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals

45) Source of energy in deep sea water is :-

(1) Sunlight
(2) Hydro power
(3) Energy obtained from chemicals
(4) Fossils

46) 'Trichoderma' which are used as biological control agent for different plant disease is :-

(1) Virus
(2) Free living fungus
(3) Free living Bacteria
(4) Symbiotic Bacteria

47) Which of the following bacteria was associated with discovery of penicillin ?

(1) Propionibacterium
(2) Trichoderma
(3) Streptococcus
(4) Staphylococcus

48) Which one is not a biofertilizer ?

(1) Nostoc
(2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Agrobacterium
(4) Rhizobium

49) Which of the following pair is examples of bio fertilisers ?

(1) Rhizobium and Aphids

(2) Rhizobium and Anabaena
(3) Ladybird and Baculovirus
(4) Azotobacter and Ladybird beetle

50) Which of the following statement regarding baculoviruses as bio-control agent is/are correct ?
(a) Baculoviruses are pathogen that attack insect and other arthopods
(b) They do harm plants, mammals, birds, fish and other non-target insects
(c) Most of these biocontrol agents belong to the genus nucleopolyhedrovirus
(d) Baculovirus are helpful in Integrated Pest Managment (IPM) programme in which beneficial
insects are conserved.
Choose the correct option:-

(1) a, b, and d
(2) a and b
(3) a, c and d
(4) All of these

51) The bottled fruit juices bought from the market are clearer as compared to those made at
home. This is because the bottled juices are clarified by the use of:

(1) Pectinases
(2) Proteases
(3) Streptokinase
(4) Both (1) and (2)

52)

Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Curd production (i) LAB

(b) Ethanol production (ii) Monascus purpureus

(c) Immunosuppressive agent (iii) Yeast

(d) Statins (iv) Cyclosporin A

(1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

53) Biogas consists of

(1) Carbon monooxide, methane and hydrogen

(2) Carbon dioxide, methane and hydrogen
(3) Carbon monooxide, ethane and hydrogen
(4) Carbon dioxide, ethane and hydrogen
54) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Cyclosporin-A (i) Monascus perpureus

(b) Statins (ii) Clostridium butylicum

(c) Butyric acid (iii) Streptococcus

(d) Steptokinase (iv) Trichoderma polysporum

(1) a - (i), b - (iv), c - (iii), d - (ii)
(2) a - (iv), b - (i), c - (ii), d - (iii)
(3) a - (i), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (iii)
(4) a - (iv), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (ii)

55) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Dragonflies (i) Attack insects and Arthropods

(b) Baculovirus (ii) Biogas production

(c) Glomus (iii) Get rid of mosquitos

(d) Methanogens (iv) Absorb phosphorus from soil

(1) a - (iii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (ii)
(2) a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(3) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i)
(4) a - (i), b - (iii), c - (iv), d - (ii)

56) Assertion : Statins produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus have been commercialised as
blood cholesterol lowering agents
Reason : Statins acts by non-competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of
cholesterol
Choose the correct option regarding above statement –

(1) A and R correct, R is correct explanation of A

(2) A and R correct, R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R incorrect

57) Which one of the following is not a feature of biological control agent baculoviruses

(1) Species specific

(2) Narrow spectrum insecticidal
(3) Broad spectrum insecticidal
(4) No negative impacts on non targeted insects.

58) Assertion : Some free living bacteria can enrich the nitrogen content of the soil.
Reason : Azospirillum and Azotobacter can fix the atmospheric nitrogen while free living in the soil.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

59) Assertion : The BOD of effluent during secondary treatment is reduce significantly
Reason : Constant agitation and pumping of air will lead to vigorous growth of aerobic microbes
lead to formation of flock.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

60) Select the correct statement regarding sewage and its treatment

(1) Sedimentation is preceded by sequential filtration

(2) BOD of waste water is inversely proportional to its pollution potential
(3) Secondary treatment is a physico chemical process
(4) Biological treatment is performed on primary effluent

61) Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plant :

(1) Rhizobium
(2) Anabena
(3) Frankia
(4) Glomus

62) Statement - 1 : In paddy fields cyanobacteria serve as an important biofertilizer.

Statement - 2 : Blue green algae also add organic matter to the soil and increase its fertility.

(1) Both statement are correct.

(2) Statement 1 correct statement 2 incorrect
(3) Statement 1 incorrect statement 2 correct
(4) Both statement wrong

63) Statement - 1 : Methanogen are present in Rumen of cattle.

Statement - 2 : The excreta [dung of cattle] commonly called gobar is rich in these methanogen.

(1) Both statement are correct.

(2) Statement 1 correct statement 2 incorrect.
(3) Both statement are wrong.
(4) Statement 2 correct statement 1 wrong.

64) The symbiotic association of fungi with plants is known as ______ which is formed by many
members of the fungal genus ______

(1) Mycorrhiza; Glomus

(2) Mycorrhiza; Penicillium
(3) Lichen; Glomus
(4) Lichen; Rhizocarpon

65) Technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to the efforts of

(1) IARI
(2) KVIC
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) ICAR

66) State True (T) or False (F) for the following statements?
(a) Anaerobic digestion of activated sludge produces biogas inside the sludge digester.
(b) Rhizobium is used as a biofertilizer for raising production of soyabean crop.
(c) Organic farming uses only naturally produced inputs like compost.

(1) a = T, b = F, c = T
(2) a = T, b = T, c = T
(3) a = F, b = T, c = T
(4) a = F, b = T, c = F

67) Which of the following method can be termed as vectorless approach to introduce foreign DNA
into host cells :-
(A) Microinjection
(B) Biolistics
(C) Retro virus

(1) A only
(2) A & C both
(3) C only
(4) A & B both

68) If DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of enzyme galactosidase, which of the following
will occur in case of non-recombinants:-

(1) Insertional inactivation

(2) Colonies do not produce any colour
(3) Chromogenic substrate gives blue colour
(4) Inactivation of enzyme galactosidase

69) Two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in [Link] were isolated.
One was methylase and other was restriction endonuclease. What is the significance of methylase ?
 Protection of host DNA from the action of restriction endonuclease by adding methyl group to
(1)
one or two bases usually with in the sequence recognised by restriction enzyme
(2) Able to ligate the two cohesive ends of DNA molecule
Able to remove the methyl group and hence, prevent the action of restriction endonuclease on
(3)
host DNA
(4) Able to cut the DNA of bacteriophage at specific sites

70) Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut by EcoRI ?

5' CACGTA 3'

(1)
3' CTCAGT 5'
5' CGTTCG 3'
(2)
3' ATGGTA 5'
5' GATATG 3'
(3)
3' CTACTA 5'
5' GAATTC 3'
(4)
3' CTTAAG 5'

71) Recombinant DNA is forced to enter the host cells by incubating the cells with rDNA first :-

(1) On ice followed by heat shock and then again on ice

(2) At low temperature followed by heat shock and then on ice
(3) In ethidium bromide followed by calcium salts
(4) Into chilled ethanol followed by ice and then into CaCl2

72) Biolistics procedure involves :

(1) Making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce desired gene
(2) Purification of saline water with the help of a membrane system
(3) Opening of stomatal pore during night by artificial light
(4) Plant cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold / tungsten coated with DNA

73) Read the following sentences.

(a) In elution the separated bands of DNA are cut out from agarose gel and extracted from the gel
piece
(b) [Link] cloning vector pBR-322 has several restriction sites, an ori, antibiotic resistance genes and
rop.
(c) The downstream processing and quality control testing vary from product to product.
(d) Competent bacterial cells take up the plasmid.

(1) All are incorrect

(2) Except d, all are correct
(3) Only d is correct
(4) All are correct

74) Read the following statements for PCR :-

(a) Polymerase chain reaction was developed by Kary Mullis
(b) The DNA polymerase used in PCR is thermostable
(c) The denaturation of DNA is carried out at 94–98°C
(d) The primers used in PCR are oligonucleotides and primer annealing occurs at 90°C
How many of above statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

75) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Bacillus thuringiensis forms cry protein crystals during a particular phase of their growth.
(2) The proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and cryIIAb control corn borer.
(3) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.
(4) The choice of cry genes depends upon the crop and the targeted pest.

76) Which of the following is not true for GM plants?

(1) Made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat)
(2) Increased reliance on chemical pesticides.
(3) Helped to reduce post harvest losses.
(4) Enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g., golden rice i.e., vitamin 'A' enriched rice.

77) What is not true about Bt toxin ?

(1) The inactive protoxin get converted in to active form in the insect gut.
(2) Bt protein exists as inactive toxin in the Bacillus
The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its
(3)
multiplication
(4) It is produced by some strains of bacillus thuringinesis

78) Which one of the following techniques does not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease
for its early treatment ?

(1) Serum and Urine analysis

(2) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique
(3) Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA) technique
(4) Recombinant DNA Technology

79) Spooling is :-

(1) Amplification of DNA

(2) Cutting of separated DNA bands from the agarose gel
(3) Transfer of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes
(4) Collection of isolated DNA

80)
Match column-I with column-II, and choose the correct combination from the option given below :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Hind II (i) Recognition sequence

(b) pBR 322 (ii) Restriction enzyme

(c) GAATTC (iii) Antibiotic resistance gene

(d) ampR (iv) Cloning vector

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

81) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.
(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro molecules.
(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of R-DNA technology.
(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used intransfer of R-DNA into the host.
Which two statement are wrong ?

(1) Statements (A) and (B)

(2) Statements (B) and (C)
(3) Statements (C) and (D)
(4) Statements (A) and (C)

82) Which of the following is not the use of transgenic animal ?

(1) Study of normal physiology and development

(2) Testing of vaccine safety
(3) Production of biological products
(4) Molecular diagnosis

83) Select the incorrect match :-

(1) Transgenic mice Polio vaccine

(2) Rosie cow α-lactalbumin gene

(3) Micro propagation Gene therapy

(4) PCR Molecular diagnosis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) The illegal and unlawful development of biomaterials without payment to the inhabitants of their
origin is called :

(1) Biopatent
(2) Biotechnology
(3) Bio-war
(4) Biopiracy

85) During the processing of the prohormone "proinsulin" into the mature "insulin"

(1) C-peptide is added to proinsulin

(2) C-peptide is removed from proinsulin
(3) B-peptide is added to proinsulin
(4) B-peptide is removed from proinsulin

86) Read the following statements :-

(a) In 2000, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the U.S. Patent and
Trademark office.
(b) There are an estimated 200000 varieties of rice in India alone.
(c) First clinical gene therapy was done in 1990 in a 4-year old girl with tyrosinase deficiency.
(d) In 1983, Eli Lily Company prepared DNA sequences corresponding to A, B and C chains of
human insulin.
How many of these are incorrect statements ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

87) Find mismatch :-

(1) Cry I Ac – Ball worms

(2) Cry II Ab – Ball worms
(3) Cry II Ab – Corn borer
(4) Cry I Ab – Corn borer

88)

Probe is a :

(1) A single stranded DNA

(2) A single stranded DNA or RNA
(3) A single stranded RNA
(4) A single stranded protein

89) The technique which is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patient is :-

(1) Serum analysis

(2) Urine analysis
(3) PCR
(4) Widal test

90) Which body of the Government of India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM
organisms for public services?

(1) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

(2) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(3) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation
(4) Bio-safety committee
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 1 2 3 3 4 2 2 1 4 3 4 4 1 1 3 4 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 2 2 4 1 1 2 3 1 1 3 1 1 2 4 2 3 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 2 1 4 3 4 4 4 4 1 2 2 4 3 1 3 3 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 4 4 2 1 2 4 4 4 1 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 1 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 4 3 1 1 3 2 3 3 2 3 2 4 3 2 1 1 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 2 1 2 4 3 4 3 4 3 4 4 2 1 4 2 2 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 2 1 3 2 4 3 2 3 4 1 2 2 1 3 3 1 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 1 1 3 2 4 3 1 4 1 4 4 3 2 2 3 1 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 3 4 2 2 3 2 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Truth table

A B Y=

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 1 0

0 0 1
It is a NOR Gate

2) T.E. = –K.E.

3)

m=

&C= =

4) ⇒

5) Question Explanation: The question asks about the electrical charge of a p-type
semiconductor when it is dopped.

Concept:
This question is based on the electrical neutrality of semiconductors, specifically the charge
balance in doped (extrinsic) semiconductors like p-type.

Solution:
A p-type semiconductor is created by doping a neutral semiconductor. The doping process
maintains overall charge neutrality. Even though "holes" are introduced, they represent the
absence of an electron, not a positive charge themselves. Therefore, the p-type semiconductor
remains uncharged.
Hence, option (3) is correct.

6)

vin > vz hence diode is at B/D

i = 5/200 = 0.025A
iL 10/103 = 10mA
iZ = i–iL = 25–10 = 15mA

7)

equal to or less than the band gap of the semiconductor used

8) Solution/Explanation : Here we will discuss the connection of bridge rectifier.

Concept:
Input ac should be connected to BD and output is PC taken out to terminal AC.

9) डायोड D2 यावती के ऋणामक अद्ध साईकल म काम करे गा

10)

n1 = n2 = power = 130 W
n1, n2 number of photons emitted per second by UV & IR sources

= = 0.57

11) Energy of proton will be

2 × 7.06 × 4 – 7 × 5.70

12) Energy of incident photon = 6.2 + 5 = 11.2 eV

Corresponding wave length λ = = 1107 Å

⇒ UV region

13) given r =

⇒2= ⇒A=8

14) Digital circuits can be made by repetitive use of NAND gate. We get NOT gate from NAND
gate by making two input NAND gates into single input NOT gate as
To get AND gate from NAND gate, we use NAND gate followed by NOT gate obtained from
NAND gate.

To get OR gate from NAND gate, we use two NOT gates obtained from NAND gates and one
NAND gate as shown

15)

Slightly below the conduction band

16) KE = hν – ϕ
⇒ hν – ϕ = 1.2 eV ...(1)
ν' = 1.5 ν,
⇒ 1.5 hν – ϕ = 3.6 eV ...(2)
by equation (1) & (2)
ϕ = 3.6 eV

17) K.E. = 2 E0–E0 = E0 (for 0 ≤ x ≤ 1)

⇒ λ1 =

0
K.E. = 2 E (for x > 1) ⇒ λ2 =

⇒ =

18)
λ < 4428.57Å

19)
p = mv = eBr

20)

5 mA

21) released energy

= (BE. of product ) – (BE of reactant)
if (BE. of product ) > (BE of reactant) then
energy released

22)

23) R = n2a0
2.12 = n12 × 0.53
n1 = 2
4.77 = n22 × 0.53
n2 = 3

E = 13.6 =

24)
Z= = A.B.B.C = A.C = AND gate
= A.B.C = AND gate

25) F =

F=

F=
26)

Majority carrier in both regions

27) Last line of Paschen is for transition from n=∞ to n=3

28)

(A) Balmer series n→2 A → IV

(B) Lyman series n→1 B→I
(C) Brackett series n→4 C → II
(D) Pfund series n→5 D → III

29)
So Ans (3)

30) KE = qΔV

31)

σ = nie [μe + μh]

32) ....(i)
As K.E'. = 3 K.E.

∴ λ' = ....(ii)
From (i) and (ii)

33)

eVs = KEmax = E – ϕ ....(1)

from the graph
VA < VB < VC
Because E is same for all metals therefore
ϕA > ϕB > ϕC

34) For electron λe =

for Photon E = pc

35)

By balancing equation

36) Wave length in Lyman series is from 912 × 10–10m to 1216 Å so it is in ultra violet region.

37)

Open circuit voltage

38)

Work function depends on nature of metal it does not change with intensity of light incident on
it.

39)

Photon exerts pressure

(for pure absorption)

or P = (for pure reflection)

40)

= 1.5 × 1013

41) Acceleration produced due to electric field is

a=

Now, v = u + at =
de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is given by

λ=

∴
 42)
ℓnE = ℓnhc – ℓnλ ...(i)
y = mx + c ...(ii)
compare (i) with (ii)

43) Question Explanation:

When a stationary nucleus emits an a-particle, it decays into a daughter nucleus and an a-
particle.

Concept :
This question is based on Conservation of Momentum in Nuclear Decay.

Formula :
The de Broglie wavelength A is given by:

where h is Planck's constant.

Solution : According to the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum before and
after decay must be equal.
Since the initial nucleus is at rest, its initial momentum is zero.
After decay, the daughter nucleus and the a-particle move in opposite directions with equal
and opposite momenta.
Since the momentum magnitudes of the daughter nucleus and the a-particle are the same,
their de Broglie wavelengths will also be equal.
Thus, the reason correctly explains the assertion that the daughter nucleus and the a-particle
have equal de Broglie wavelengths after emission.

Hence,
Option (1) is correct

44)

100% increase

45)

nλ = 2πR

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explanation - This assertion-reason question examines the relationship between enthalpy of

atomization and unpaired d-electrons in transition metals.

Concept - (Enthalpy of atomization & unpaired electron)

Statement-I is true; enthalpy of atomization peaks mid-series.
 Statement-II is also true, as unpaired d-electrons strengthen metallic bonds. Statement-II
correctly explains Statement-I's observation.

Final Answer - Option (1)

47)

Question Explanation:
The question asks about the iron oxidation state and NO ligand form in sodium nitroprusside
(Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]), both of which are correct.
Concept: (Oxidation State & Ligand in Na2[Fe(CN)5NO])
Answer Explanation:
In Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] the complex ion is [Fe(CN)5NO]2–.
The NO ligand exists as NO+. The CN– ligands contribute a –5 charge.
Solving for Fe's oxidation state: x – 5 + 1 = –2, yields +2.
Thus, both Fe's +2 oxidation state and NO+ are correct.

Final Answer: Option (3)

48)

Question Explanation – The question asks to match the correct uses of chemical compounds.
Concept – (Properties of Compounds- EDTA, Dimethylglyoxime, Silver complex & Cis
platin)
i. EDTA is used for estimation of hardness of water.
ii. Dimethyl glyoxime is used for detection and estimation of Nickel.
iii. Silver complex are used for electro plating.
iv. Cis-platin is used for treatment of cancer.

Final Answer : (2)

49) Question Explanation: Identifying the redox nature of Cr2+ and Mn3+ ions in aqueous
solution.
Concept: Redox Tendency and Electronic Configuration Stability.
Solution:

A. Cr2+ (d4): Easily loses an electron to form the stable Cr3+ (d3). Thus, Cr2+ is a Reductant.
B. Mn3+ (d4): Easily gains an electron to form the extremely stable Mn2+ (d5, half-filled). Thus,
Mn3+ is an Oxidant. Final Answer: Reductant and oxidant.

50) Explanation - Question is asking about planar molecule.

Concept - Back - bonding
Solution - N(SiH3)3 Tuisilyl amine has trigonal planar structure due to Back landing.
 ↕

→ Trigonal Planar (planar)

Final Answer - 4

51) NCERT, Pg. # 249

52) [NiCl4 (NH3)2]

[Ma4b2] & (aa) (aa) (bb)
(aa) (ab) (ab)
(c) [Co (H2O)6] Cl3
[Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2. H2O
(Co (H2O)4Cl2) Cl. 2 H2O

53)

Explanation - This question asks to identify the correct statement among given properties of
transition metal compounds and elements.

Concept - (Properties of transition metals)

Chromyl chloride test is applicable to KCl, CaCl₂, CsCl. (Incorrect)

KMnO₄ decomposes to MnO₂, not Mn₂O₇.(Incorrect)

Zn, Cd, Hg typically show one metallic structure.(Incorrect)

MnO₄⁻ and CrO₄²⁻ both have tetrahedral geometry and pπ-dπ bonds.(Correct)

Final Answer - Option (4)

54) Refer : NCERT practical chemistry

Hint : Due to presence of ions.
 55) [+ve charge on central atom ∝ splitting energy]

56)

In Brown ring NO is in NO+ form.

Hence Fe is in Fe+1 oxidation state

57) Shows only optical isomerism

58) Question Explanation: Identifying the correct statement about the chromate ion
(CrO42−​).
Concept: Properties of Chromate Ion.
Solution: A. Incorrect: Yellow colour is due to Ligand to Metal Charge Transfer (LMCT). B.
Correct: The Cr-O double bond involves π-overlap between the filled p-orbitals of oxygen and
the vacant d-orbitals of Cr, known as pπ−dπ bonding. C. Incorrect: Cr+6 (3d0) is diamagnetic.
D. Incorrect: CrO42−​ is stable in basic medium. Final Answer: All pi bonds are of dπ−pπ.
→ CrO42– is yellow coloured due to LMCT.
→ CrO42– is diamagnetic

59)

(A) Lake Test → Al+3

(B) Nessler's Reagent →
(C) Potassium sulphocyanide → Fe+3
(D) Brown ring Test →

60)

61)

Maximum trivalent ions has unpaired e–s so they are coloured.

62) Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : [Kd↓ ⇒ Stability of complex↑]
Final Answer : (3)

63) Δ0 < Pairing energy

Means No pairing ⇒

64)

[Cr(H2O)6]+3 → Cr+3 → 3d3

3 unpaired electron
[Fe(H2O)6] → Fe+3 → 3d5
+3

5 unpaired electron
[Cu(H2O)6] → Cu+2 → 3d9
+2

1 unpaired electron
[Zn(H2O)6] → Zn+2 → 3d10
+2

0 unpaired electron

65)

66)

Explanation -

The question asks to identify the incorrect trend among the given options describing the
properties (thermal stability, bond strength, reducing character, basicity) of Group 15
hydrides.

Concept - General Properties of Group - 15.

Solution -

The incorrect statement is regarding reducing character. Reducing ability increases down the
group (NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3) because the stability of the hydrides decreases,
making it easier to donate hydrogen. The other trends for thermal stability, bond dissociation
enthalpy, and basicity decrease down the group.

Final Answer - Option (3)

67) In acidic medium, reaction goes more forward & vice-versa.

68)

Question Explanation :
Question is asking about which combination with Fe(II) ion form a brown complex.

Concept :
This question is based on Brown ring complex.
 Solution :

The nitric oxide (NO) reacts with Fe+2 ion to form a nitroyl complex [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]SO4 which
is responsible for the branch brown complex.

Hence,
Option (2) is correct : NO

69)

Cu has positive of (M+2/M) E° in the 3d series due to high enthalpy of atomization.

70)

Down the group stability of higher oxidation state increases.

Cr+6 < Mo+6 < W+6 – stability

71)

Page-254, NCERT-XII, Part-I

72) It has Mg not Ca

73) M–C B.O./C–O B.L. –ve charge

74) Question Explanation: Identifying the correct property order for VO2+​, Cr2​O72−​, and
MnO4−​.
Concept: Oxidizing Power and Oxidation State.
Solution: The oxidizing power of oxyanions generally increases with the oxidation state of
the central metal.

A. V in VO2+​ is +5.
B. Cr in Cr2​O72−​ is +6.
C. Mn in MnO4−​ is +7. The order of oxidation state is V+5<Cr+6<Mn+7. Therefore, the order of
Oxidising power is VO2+​<Cr2​O72−​<MnO4−​. Final Answer: Oxidising power

75)

CrO4–2 Cr+6 diamagnetic

Cr2O7–2 Cr+6 diamagnetic
MnO4– Mn+7 diamagnetic

MnO4–2 Mn+6 paramagnetic

unpaired electron is present so d–d transition is possible.
76)

O.S. of Co = +3
⇒ So CN = 6
⇒ CoCl3·3NH3 [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
⇒ This will not give test of chloride ion.

77)

Explanation - This question explores the relationship between the electronic configuration of
transition metals and their melting points. Specifically, it asks why manganese (Mn) has a
lower melting point than iron (Fe).

Concept - (Physical properties of Mn & Fe)

The melting point of Mn is lower than Fe. Mn has a d⁵ configuration, leading to weaker
metallic bonds. Fe has a d⁶ configuration, resulting in stronger metallic bonds. Stronger
metallic bonds correlate with higher melting points. Thus, Mn weaker bonds cause its lower
melting point.

Final Answer - Option (2)

78)

79)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : -
Final Answer : (2)

80)

81) Question Explanation: Identifying the correct statement regarding low/negative

oxidation states in complexes.
Concept: Oxidation States in Coordination Compounds and π-Acceptor Ligands.
 Solution:

A. Statement I: Zero and negative oxidation states are possible (e.g., Ni(CO)4​, Fe(CO)42−​).
(Incorrect) .
B. Statement II: Low oxidation states of metal ions are stabilized by π-acceptor ligands (like
CO,CN−) which form π-bonds in addition to σ-bonds (synergic effect). (Correct) Final Answer:
Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

82)
Ce+4, Tb+4 +3 (Common O.S.)

83)

Explanation -

The question asks to identify which of the given metal chlorides will produce chromyl chloride
(CrO₂Cl₂) vapour when heated with concentrated sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) and potassium
dichromate (K2Cr2O7).

Concept - General Reaction

Solution -
K2​Cr2​O7 ​+ 4NaCl + 6H2​SO4 ​→ 2CrO2​Cl2​(vapour) + 2KHSO4​ + 4NaHSO4​ + 3H2​O

Final Answer - Option (1)

84) While giving iupac name of [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2]

[Ag(NH3)2]+[Ag(CN)2]- cationic complex was named and then anionic complex was named.
Hence the iupac name is Diamminesilver(I)dicyanidoargentate(I).

85) [Ni(CO)4] - diamagnetic

86) Explanation :
The question asks you to select the correct order for the wavelength of absorption of visible
light for the given chromium(III) coordination complexes.

Concept :
Crystal Field Theory (CFT).

Solution :
The wavelength of absorption is inversely proportional to Δ0. The spectrochemical series is Cl–
< H2O < NH3 < CN–, indicating increasing Δ0.
Therefore, the order of decreasing Δ0 (increasing wavelength) is :
[CrCl6]3– > [Cr(H2O)6]3+ > [Cr(NH3)6]3+ > [Cr(CN)6]3–
 87) Explanation :
We are given four pairs of ions and need to determine which pair has a similar magnetic
moment.

Concept :
The magnetic moment (μ/muμ) of an ion depends on the number of unpaired electrons in its
electronic configuration. It is calculated using the formula :

Where n = number of unpaired electrons.

Determine the electronic configuraion of each ion
• Ti3+ : [Ar]3d1 (1 unpaired electrons)
• V3+ : [Ar]3d2 (2 unpaired electrons)
• Cr3+ : [Ar]3d3 (3 unpaired electrons)
• Mn2+ : [Ar]3d5 (5 unpaired electrons)

88) Explanation :
The question asks you to identify which of the four given cobalt(III) coordination complexes
exhibits the maximum value of crystal field splitting energy (Δ0)

Concept :
Crystal Field Theory(CFT)

Solution :
The magnitude of Δ0 depends on the ligand strength. Based on the spectrochemical series, CN–
is the strongest field ligand among C2O42– , H2O and NH3. Therefore, [Co(CN)6]3– will have the
maximum value of Δ0.

89) NCERT Pg. No. # 173

90) Question Explanation: Explaining why Permanganate titrations with HCl are
unsatisfactory.
Concept: Redox Titration and Side Reactions.
Solution:

A. Assertion (A): KMnO4​ titrations in presence of HCl are unsatisfactory. (True) .

B. Reason (R): HCl is oxidized into Cl2​. (True, the side reaction consumes KMnO4​) . The reason
correctly explains the assertion. Final Answer: Both (A) & (R) are true & (R) is correct
explanation of (A)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT (XII) Pg # 227, 230-231

92)

NCERT Pg. No. 259

93) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 264, 265

94)

NCERT Pg. # 191

95) Question Explanation: The pioneer of Indian ecology.

Concept: Father of Indian Ecology
Solution: Professor R. D. Misra is known as the Father of Indian Ecology. His work and
teachings in ecology laid the foundation for environmental studies in India. He established the
first ecology postgraduate courses and was instrumental in the creation of the National
Committee for Environmental Planning and Coordination (NCEPC).
Final Answer: Prof. R. D. Misra

96)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 201

97) NCERT Pg. # 220

98) NCERT XII Pg.# 244

99)

NCERT-XII Pg.# 243

100)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 226

101)

Explanation : India is home to approximately 8.1% of the world's recorded species, making it
one of the most biodiverse countries on the planet. This includes a wide variety of plants,
animals, and other organisms, due to its diverse ecosystems and geographical regions.
Answer -2 (8.1 %)

102)

The mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time is called the Standing crop. It
refers to the total biomass of organisms present in an area at a specific moment.
So, the correct answer is:
Standing crop.

103)
Question Explanation:
Earth has experienced five major mass extinctions in its history.

Solution:
Earth has experienced five major mass extinctions, often referred to as the "Bif Five"
Theseevents occurred at different points in Earth's history, leading to the loss of a significant
percentage of life forms. The most famous of these is the Creataceous-Paleogene (K-Pg)
extinction that wiped out the dinosaurs about 66 mlliion years ago.

The five major mass extinctions are:

End-Ordovician
Late Devonian
End-Permain (the largest extinction event)
End-Triassic
Creataceous-Paleogene (K-Pg)

Hence,
Correct Option: 2

104)

NCERT XII Pg # 232-238

105)

NCERT XII Pg. # 197

106)

NCERT Pg. # 228

107)

NCERT XII Pg # 243, 246

108)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 225

109) NCERT XII Pg.# 230

110) NCERT Pg. # 6

111) NCERT Page # 249,250,251

112) NCERT XII Pg # 227

113) NCERT XII Pg # 228

114) NCERT Pg. # 244(E), 267 (H)

115) Module 1

116) NCERT (XII) Pg # 230

117)

Explaining the Question :- The question is asking which one of the following is not included
under in-situ conservation. In-situ conservation refers to the conservation of species in
their natural habitats, where they naturally occur.
Solution :-
3. Cryopreservation
Cryopreservation: This is not an in-situ method. It is a form of ex-situ conservation, where
biological material (e.g., sperm, seeds) is preserved outside of its natural habitat by freezing.
Final Answer :- (3)

118)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 249

119)

NCERT Pg. # 243

120) NCERT Pg. # 234, 236

121)

Question Explanation: Defining ecology and its scope.

Concept: Ecology

Solution: Ecology studies how organisms interact with each other (biotic factors) and their
non-living surroundings like temperature, water, and soil (abiotic factors). The correct
definition must include both. Statement (a) covers both, and (d) also includes both biotic and
abiotic interactions, making them both correct.

Final Answer: a and d are correct

122) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 231

123) NCERT XII Pg # 227

124) NCERT XII Pg # 227

125) NCERT, Pg. # 193

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 210

127)

NCERT XII Page # 229

128)

Question Explanation: Why tropical soil is nutrient poor.

Concept: Leaching

Solution: Tropical rainforests experience very high rainfall. This heavy rain washes away
nutrients from the topsoil, a process known as leaching. As a result, the soil loses its essential
nutrients, making it poor and unsuitable for agriculture, even though the vegetation above is
dense.

Final Answer: high rate of leaching

129) Question Explanation: What does ecology study?

Concept: Scope of Ecology

Solution: Ecology is the study of how living organisms, from individuals to entire populations,
communities, and ecosystems, interact with each other and with their non-living physical
environment. This includes interactions between organisms of the same species, different
species, and the relationship between organisms and factors like soil, water, and air.

Final Answer: All of these

130) NCERT-XII Pg # 201, Module

131) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 200

132)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 224

133) Explain Question : extinction of passenger pigeon
Concept : This question is based on Causes Of Biodiversity Losses - Alien Species Invasion
And Co-Extinction
Explanation :
2. Over exploitation
Explanation:
The passenger pigeon became extinct primarily due to overexploitation by humans, especially
massive hunting and habitat destruction in the 19th century. They were hunted in huge
numbers for food and commercial purposes, which, combined with deforestation, led to their
rapid decline and eventual extinction.
Correct Answer : 2. Over exploitation

134) NCERT XII Pg # 227

135)

NCERT Pg. # 206

136)

NCERT XII Pg # 157

137)

NCERT XII Pg. # 182

138)

The correct answer is 3. Agrobacterium.

Explanation: Nostoc, Mycorrhiza, and Rhizobium are biofertilizers because they enhance soil
fertility through nitrogen fixation or nutrient uptake. However, Agrobacterium is not a
biofertilizer; it is a bacterium used in genetic engineering for plant transformation,
particularly in the creation of genetically modified plants.

139) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 188 (E), 205 (H)

140) NCERT-XII ; Pg # 156, 157

141)

Both (1) and (2)

142)
NCERT XII Pg. # 181, 183

143)

NCERT XII Pg # 155

144)

a - (iv), b - (i), c - (ii), d - (iii)

145)

NCERT Pg. # 187, 188

146) NCERT Pg. # 153

147) NCERT Pg. # 187

148) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 188

149) NCERT Pg#184

150)

Biological treatment is performed on primary effluent

151) NCERT - XII, Pg. # 158

152) NCERT XII - Pg. # 158

153) NCERT XII - Pg. # 155

154)

Mycorrhiza; Glomus

155)

Both (1) & (2)

156) NCERT Pg. # 188

 157)

Question Explanation: Identify non-vector methods for foreign DNA transfer.

Concept: Methods of introducing alien DNA into host cells
Solution: Microinjection and Biolistics (gene gun) are direct/vectorless methods of
introducing foreign DNA into host cells by physical means. Bacterial Artificial Chromosome
(BAC) is a type of cloning vector, so its use is a vector-mediated approach.
Final Answer: A & B both

158)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 170

159)

Question Explanation: Role of the methylase enzyme.

Concept: Restriction-Modification System

Solution:

A. REASON: A bacterium's restriction enzyme is designed to cut foreign viral DNA. However, the
same recognition sequence might exist in the bacterium's own DNA. To avoid self-destruction,
the bacterium needs a protective mechanism.
B. REASON: The methylase enzyme provides this protection. It adds a methyl group (-CH₃) to the
bacterium's own DNA at the specific recognition sites. This modification acts as a shield,
blocking the restriction enzyme from cutting the host DNA. ️

Final Answer: The correct option is (1).

160) Explaining the Question :-The question is asking about "Which of the following DNA
sequences is a palindromic sequence that EcoRl can recognize and cut?"
Concept:- Restriction Enzymes and Palindromic Sequences
Solution :-

A. EcoRl is a restriction enzyme that cuts at a specific palindromic sequence:

5' GAATTC 3'3' CTTAAG 5'

A. A palindromic sequence reads the same on both strands (in 5' to 3' direction)

Only option (4) matches this exact EcoRl recognition site, so it can be easily cut by EcoRl.
Final Answer :- Only option (4)

161)

Question Explanation:

Method of DNA insertion into cells.

Concept:
Genetic transformation

Solution:

Forcing recombinant DNA into host cells is called transformation. It's achieved by making the
bacterial cells competent. This is done by first treating them with divalent ions like calcium
chloride (CaCl2​) and then incubating them on ice. This is followed by a brief exposure to high
temperature (heat shock) to open up the pores of the cell wall, allowing the DNA to enter, and
then placing them back on ice to seal the pores.

Final Answer:

On ice followed by heat shock and then again on ice

162) Explaining the Question : The question is asking about the biolistic procedure used in
genetic [Link]:- Biolistics (gene gun method)Solution :- Biolistics involves
bombarding plant cells with DNA-coated gold or tungsten microparticles at high speed.
Final Answer :- (4)

163) Explaining the Question :-The question is asking about which of the following
statements about DNA elution, plasmid pBR322, downstream processing, and bacterial
competence are correct?
Concept:- Key Terms in Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
]
Solution :-All given statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct regarding DNA elution, pBR322
features, downstream processing, and bacterial
competence.
Final Answer :- (4) All are correct

164) Explaining the Question :-The question is asking about what is the reason that primer
annealing in PCR occurs at temperatures lower than 90°C, typically between
50–65°C?
Concept:- PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
Solution :-(a) True - Kary Mullis developed PCR.(b) True - PCR uses thermos table DNA
polymerase (like Taq polymerase).(c) True - DNA denaturation happens at 94–98°C.(d) False –
Primer annealing occurs at a lower temperature (typically 50-65°C), not
90°C.
Final Answer :- (3) Statements are correct

165) NCERT XII Page No. 179, 180(E), 196, 197(H)

166) NCERT XII Pg. No. # 208

167)

The correct answer is option (3).

The incorrect statement is 3. The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilize it
 and thus prevent its multiplication.

Explanation:

A. Bt toxin primarily acts on the gut of susceptible insects. Once ingested, the alkaline pH in the
insect's gut solubilizes the inactive protoxin, converting it into the active toxin. This activated
toxin then binds to specific receptors in the gut lining, causing it to break down. This leads to
the insect's death due to starvation and septicemia. While the toxin disrupts the digestive
system, it doesn't directly target the ovaries for sterilization.

168) NCERT XII Pg # 212

169)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 201

170)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 199,195,196

171)

Pg. No. 184 XII-NCERT

172)

Explain Question : Identify which is not a valid application of transgenic animals.

Concept : This question is based on Transgenic animals.

Solution : The correct answer is option 4

A. Molecular diagnosis does not involve transgenic animals; it relies on lab techniques like
PCR, ELISA.

Final answer : option (4)

173)

NCERT Pg. No. 183

174)

Explanation : Term for the illegal and unlawful development of biomaterial without
compensating the inhabitants of their origin.
Concept : The concept based on Ethical issues.

Final Answer : (4)

175)

The correct answer is: (2) C-peptide is removed from proinsulin

Proinsulin is essentially the inactive form of insulin, often referred to as a prohormone. It’s
made up of three parts: the A-chain, the B-chain, and the C-peptide, which is also known as the
connecting peptide. As proinsulin matures, specific enzymes come into play to remove the C-
peptide, transforming it into active insulin, which is just the A and B chains linked together by
disulfide bonds.

176)

Explanation : How many of the given four statements are incorrect.

Concept : The concept based on Application of biotechnology in medicine and ethical issues.
Solution :
Statement (a) Incorrect , In 1997, not in 200, an American company got patent rights on
basmati rice through U.S. patent and trademark office.
Statement (b) Correct
Statement (c) Incorrect,
First clinical gene therapy was done in 1190 in a 4 year old girl with adenosine deaminase
deficiency not lyrosianic deficiency.
Statement (d) Incorrect,
In 1983, Eli lily company prepared DNA sequences corresponding to A & B chain not A, B and
C chains of human insulin.

Final Answer : (2)

177)

The mismatch is: 3. Cry II Ab – Corn borer

Cry genes come from Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) and produce proteins toxic to specific insect
pests. Different Cry proteins target different insect groups:

Cry I Ac → Targets bollworms (correct)

Cry II Ab → Targets bollworms (correct)

Cry II Ab → Mismatch (It targets bollworms, not corn borer)

Cry I Ab → Targets corn borer (correct)

Therefore - 3 is incorrect because Cry II Ab is effective against bollworms, not corn borers.

178)
 The correct answer is: 2. A single stranded DNA or RNA

A probe is a labeled single-stranded DNA or RNA sequence that is used to search for its
complementary sequence in a sample.

179)

Question Explanation: Identify the diagnostic technique routinely used to detect HIV in
suspected AIDS patients.
Concept: Medical Diagnostics - AIDS
Solution :

A. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a molecular technique used to detect the presence of HIV
genetic material (RNA/DNA) in a patient’s blood.
B. It is highly sensitive and specific, especially useful in early detection before antibodies are
formed.
C. Other options like serum analysis and urine analysis are non-specific, and Widal test is
unrelated (used for typhoid diagnosis).

Final Answer: Option 3 — PCR

180)

NCERT XII [Link] - 213