19-11-2025

7601CMD303034250008 MD

PHYSICS

1) A point mass m is placed inside a spherical shell of radius R and mass M at a distance from the
centre of the shell. The gravitational force exerted by the shell on the point mass is

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

2) A satellite is orbiting the earth in a circular orbit of radius r. Its :-

(a) Kinetic energy varies as

(b) Angular momentum varies as

(c) Linear momentum varies as

(d) Frequency of revolution varies as

(1) Only d
(2) a, c, d
(3) Only a, b
(4) Only b

3) A projectile is projected with a velocity ve vertically up where ve is the escape velocity. The
maximum height attained by the projectile will be. (R is the radius of earth) :-

(1)
R

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

4) If earth is supposed to be a sphere of radius R, if g30 is value of acceleration due to gravity at

latitude of 30°, than the value of g – g30° is :-
(1)

(2)

(3) ω2R

(4)

5) The additional kinetic energy to be provided to a satellite of mass m revolving around a planet of
mass M, to transfer it from a circular orbit of radius R1 to another of radius R2(R2 > R1) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Four particles each of mass M are located at the vertices of a square with side L. The
gravitational potential due to this at the centre of the square is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

7) Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a distance r. The gravitational potential at a point
on the line joining them where the gravitational field is zero is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

8) A planet is revolving round the sun. Its distance from the sun at Apogee is rA and that at Perigee is
rp. The mass of planet and sun is m and M respectively, νA and νP is the velocity of planet at Apogee
and Perigee respectively and T is the time period of revolution of planet round the sun.

(a)
(b)
(c) vArA = vPrP
(d) vA < vP , rA > rP

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) all

9) Force of gravitation between two masses is found to be F, in vacuum. If both the masses are
dipped in water then, new force will be

(1) Greater than F

(2) Less than F
(3) F
(4) Cannot say

10) A tunnel is dug across the diameter of earth, a ball is released from the surface of Earth into the

tunnel. The velocity of ball when it is at a distance from centre of earth is (where R = radius of
Earth and M = mass of Earth)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A parallel plate capacitor has a capacity C. The separation between the plates is doubled and a
dielectric medium is introduced between the plates. If the capacity now becomes 2C, the dielectric
constant of the medium is :-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 8

12) In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential difference across the 4.5μF capacitor is-
(1)
volts
(2) 4 volts
(3) 6 volts
(4) 8 volts

13) If a wire is stretched, so that its length is 20% more than its initial length, the percentage
increase in the resistance of the wire is:-

(1) 40%
(2) 10%
(3) 44%
(4) 25%

14) Two cells X and Y are connected to a resistance of 10 Ω as shown in the figure. The terminal

voltage of cell Y is:

(1) zero
(2) 2V
(3) 4V
(4) 10V

15) In the given circuit, the voltmeter and the electric cell are ideal. Find the reading of the

voltmeter (in volts)

(1) 1 V
(2) 2 V
(3) 0.5 V
(4) 2.5 V

16) Two cells of equal e.m.f. and of internal resistances r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) are connected in series. On
connecting this combination to an external resistance R, it is observed that the potential difference
across the first cell becomes zero. The value of R will be

(1) r1 + r2
(2) r1 – r2

(3)

(4)

17) The equivalent resistance of the arrangement of resistances shown in adjoining figure between

the points A and B is

(1) 6 ohm
(2) 8 ohm
(3) 16 ohm
(4) 24 ohm

18) As the switch S is closed in the circuit shown figure, current passes through it is :-

(1) 4.5 A
(2) 6.0 A
(3) 3.0 A
(4) Zero

19) For the given current distribution the magnetic field at point, 'P' is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Two parallel wires one of length 1m and other is infinitive, are lying at a distance of 2m. If the
current flowing in each wire is 1 ampere then the force between them will be :

(1) 2 × 10–7 N
(2) 10–7 N
(3) 0.5 N
(4) 107 N

21) The current in the windings of a toroid is 2.0A. There are 400 turns and the mean
circumferential length is 40cm. If the inside magnetic field is 1.0T, the relative permeability is near
to

(1) 100
(2) 200
(3) 300
(4) 400

22) If a proton, deutron and α-particle on being accelerated by the same potential difference enters
perpendicular to the magnetic field, then the ratio of their kinetic energies inside magnetic field is :-

(1) 1 : 2 : 2
(2) 2 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 2

23) The value of magnetic field B at centre O is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) An α particle and a proton both are having same kinetic energy are projected in same magnetic
field at an angle of θ, then the correct statement is

(1) Pitch and radius of α particle is more than that of proton

(2) Pitch and radius of α particle is less than that of proton
Pitch of α particle is more than that of proton and radius of proton is more than that of pitch of
(3)
α particle
(4) Both α particle and proton have same pitch and radius

25) A circular conducting loop is connected by a battery according to figure. The length of ABC and
ADC is ℓ1 and ℓ2 respectively then which is correct :-

(1) i1/ℓ1 = i2/ℓ2

(2) =

(3) i1ℓ1 = i2ℓ2

(4) i1i2 = ℓ1ℓ2

26) A capacitor of 2µF can withstand a maximum potential difference of 5V. It is connected with
another capacitor of 5µF. The series combination can now withstand a potential difference of 7V.
The maximum voltage that 5µF can withstand is

(1) 1 volt
(2) 2 volt
(3) more than or equal to 2 volt
(4) less than or equal to 2V.
27) A parallel plate capacitor is charged by 100V and which has capacitance 2µF. If it is connected
across a resistance of 10Ω, find out energy loss in form of heat across resistor.

(1) 0.02 J
(2) 0.01 J
(3) 0.1 J
(4) 0.001 J

28) As in figure shown, if a capacitor C is charged by connecting it with resistance R, then energy is

given by the battery will be

(1)

(2)
More than

(3)
Less than
(4) Zero

29) 64 small drops of water having the same charge and same radius are combined to form one big
drop. The ratio of capacitance of big drop to small drop is

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

30)

Find the equivalent capacitance across A and B for the arrangement shown in figure: (All the
capacitors are of capacitance C) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

31) In the given figure the steady state current I is :

(1) zero
(2) 0.6 A
(3) 0.9 A
(4) 1.5 A

32) For what value of R in circuit, current through 4Ω resistance is zero :-

(1) 1 Ω
(2) 2 Ω
(3) 3 Ω
(4) 4 Ω

33) Find the value of current in 4Ω ?

(1) 4A
(2) 2A
(3) 3A
(4) 1A

34) In given meter bridge circuit length of wire AB is 1m. When resistance X is shunted by R
resistance then balancing length from A is found to be 20 cm. Find value of R :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The figure shows current in some part of circuit the current i is :-

(1) 1.7 A
(2) 3.7 A
(3) 1.3 A
(4) 1 A

36) Find time constant of following circuit.

(1) RC
(2) 2/3 RC
(3) 5/3 RC
(4) 3/2 RC

37) Equivalent resistance between the points A and B is :-

(1) 1 Ω
(2) 2 Ω
(3) 3 Ω
(4) 4 Ω

38) Figure represents a part of the closed circuit. The potential difference between points A and

B (VA – VB) is

(1) + 9 V
(2) – 9 V
(3) + 3 V
(4) + 6 V

39) A long conducting wire carrying a current I is bent into the shape as shown. The net magnetic

field at the centre 'O' of the circular arc of radius 'R' is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Rank the magnitude of for the closed paths shown in figure from the smallest to
largest.

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b, d, c
(3) a, d, c, b
(4) a, c, b, d

41) Assertion (A) :- The capacitance of a capacitor depends on the shape, size and geometrical
placing of the conductors and the medium between them. Reason (R) :- When a charge q passes
through a battery of emf E from the negative terminal to the positive terminal, an amount of work qE
is done by the battery.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

42) Assertion :- Capacity of parallel plate condenser remains unaffected on introducing a insulating
slab between the plates.
Reason :- Electric field intensity between the plates increases on introducing the insulating slab.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

43) A copper wire is connected across an ideal battery. The drift velocity of the electrons is v. If
another copper wire of the same length and double the radius is connected across the same battery,
the drift velocity will be

(1) v
(2) 2v
(3) v/2
(4) 4v

44) Which of these is a false statement ?

(1) The wheatstone bridge is most sensitive when all the four resistances are of the same order
In a balanced wheatstone bridge, interchanging the positions of galvanometer and cell affects
(2)
the balance of the bridge
Kirchhoff's first law (for currents meeting at a junction in an electric circuit) expresses the
(3)
conservation of charge
(4) The rheostat can be used as a potential divider

45) An infinite sequence of resistances is shown in the figure. The resultant resistance between A

and B will be, when R1 = 1ohm and R2 = 2ohm :-

(1) Infinity
(2) 1Ω
(3) 2Ω
(4) 1.5Ω

CHEMISTRY

1)

Calculate emf of given cell at 25ºC :

Given :
(1) 0.80 V
(2) 0.12
(3) 0.92 V
(4) 1.04 V

2) The emf of the cell, Zn|Zn2+ (0.01M)||Fe2+(0.001M)|Fe at 298 K is 0.2905 V then the value of
equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is :

(1) e0.32/0.0295
(2) 100.32/0.0295
(3) 100.26/0.0295
(4) 100.32/0.0591

3) If the half cell reactions are given as

(i)

(ii)
E° for the reaction,

(1) +1.67V
(2) –1.67V
(3) +0.79V
(4) –0.79V

4) The standard electrode potential (E°M+/M) at four metals A,B,C and D are –1.2V, 0.6V, 0.85 V. and
–0.76 V., respectively the sequence of the deposition of metals on applied potential is :

(1) A, C, B, D
(2) B, D, C, A
(3) C, B, D, A
(4) D, A, B, C

5)
Calculate using appropriate molar conductance of electrolyte listed above at infinite
2 –1
dilution in H2O at 25°C (In Scm mol )

(1) 517.2
(2) 390.7
(3) 299.7
(4) 217.5

6) Resistance of 0.1 M KCl solution in a conductance cell is 300 ohm and conductivity is 0.013 S
cm–1. The value of cell constant is :-

(1) 3.9 cm–1

(2) 39 m–1
(3) 3.9 m–1
(4) None of these

7) If the standard reduction potential for four divalent elements X, Y, Z, W are – 1.46 V, – 0.36V,
0.15 V and – 1.24 V respectively, then :-
(1) X will displace Z+2 from aqueous solution
(2) Y will displace Z+2 from aqueous solution
(3) W will displace Z+2 from aqueous solution
(4) All the above statements are correct

8) The rate of reaction is expressed in different ways as follows :

The reaction is :

(1) 4A + B —→ 2C + 3D
(2) B + 3D —→ 4A + 2C
(3) A + B —→ C + D
(4) B + D —→ A + C

9) For a zero order reaction, the plot of conc. (a – x) vs time is linear with :-

(1) +ve slope and zero intercept

(2) –ve slope and zero intercept
(3) +ve slope and non-zero intercept
(4) –ve slope and non-zero intercept

10) A2 + B2 —→ 2AB; Rate of reaction = k[A2]a[B2]b

Rate of reaction (r)

Initial [A2] Initial [B2]
M sec–1

0.2 0.2 0.4

0.1 0.4 0.4

0.2 0.4 0.8

order of reaction with respect to A2 and B2 are respectively :-
(1) a = 1, b = 1
(2) a = 2, b = 0
(3) a = 2, b = 1
(4) None

11) For an elementary reaction 2A + B —→ A2B if the volume of vessel is quickly reduced to half of
it's original volume then rate or reaction will :-

(1) Unchange
(2) Increase four times
(3) Increase eight times
(4) Decrease eight times

12) A first order reaction is 75% completed in 100 minutes. How long time will it take for it's 87.5%
completion ?
(1) 125 min
(2) 150 min
(3) 175 min
(4) 200 min

13) A following mechanism has been proposed for a reaction

2A + B → D + E
(i) A + B → C + D (slow)
(ii) A + C → E (fast)
The rate law expression for the reaction is :-

(1) r = k[A]2B
(2) r = k[A][B]
(3) r = k[A]2
(4) r = k[A][C]

14) For the reaction the rate law is rate = k[H2][Br2]1/2. Which of the
following statement is true about this reaction

(1) The reaction is of second order

(2) Molecularity of the reaction is 3/2
(3) The unit of k is s–1
(4) Order of the reaction is 1.5

15) The reaction 2X → B is a zeroth order reaction. If the initial concentration of X is 0.2 M, the half-
life is 6 h. When the initial concentration of X is 0.5 M, the time required to reach its final
concentration of 0.2 M will be :-

(1) 18.0 h
(2) 7.2 h
(3) 9.0 h
(4) 12.0 h

16) Consider the reaciton

If the rate of appearence of CO2 is 0.40 mol/L/sec, the rate of disappereance of O2 is–

(1) 10 mol/L/sec
(2) 0.90 mol/L/sec
(3) 0.60 mol/L/sec
(4) 0.3 mol/L/sec

17) Which is an aromatic compound :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Correct order of indicated bond-length is : , ,

(1) ℓ1 > ℓ2 > ℓ3

(2) ℓ3 > ℓ2 > ℓ1
(3) ℓ1 > ℓ3 > ℓ2
(4) ℓ3 > ℓ1 > ℓ2

19) Which of the following cation is most stable:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The decreasing order of –I effect of the following is:

I. H3N⊕ II. NO2 III. CN IV. COOH

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > I > III > IV
(3) I > III > II > IV
(4) II > I > IV > III

21) Which one of the following compounds is non-aromatic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The most stable carbocation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Among which of the following benzene ring has highest electron density?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Which one of them is not resonating structure of -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25)

Conformation obtained on anticlockwise rotation of C1 by 120°C :

(1) Eclipsed
(2) Anti
(3) Partially eclipsed
(4) Gauche
26) Total number of functional groups present in above
compound

(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 6

27) Which of the following is incorrect match of IUPAC name with the given structure

(1)
(2-Ethyl-4-methyl pentane)

(2)
(2-Propyl but-3-enal)
(3) H–COOMe (Methyl methanoate)
(4) HC≡C–CH=CH–CH3 (Pent-3-en-1-yne)

28) Which of the following has odd number of degree of unsaturation ?

(1)

(2)

(3) H3C–C≡C–Ph

(4)

29)

Choose the correct IUPAC name of following compound ?

(1) 2,4-diethyl-6-methyl heptane
(2) 3,7-dimethyl-5-ethyl octane
(3) 5-ethyl-3,7-dimethyl octane
(4) 4-ethyl-2,6-dimethyl octane

30) Higher homologue for the given compound is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3–NH–CH3

31) Which alkane would have only the primary and tertiary carbon ?

(1) Pentane
(2) 2-Methylbutane
(3) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane
(4) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane

32) IUPAC name of the given compound is :

(1) l-bromo-l-chloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane
(2) 1,2,2–trifluoro–1–bromo–1–chloroethane
(3) 1–trifluoro–1–bromo–2–chloroethane
(4) 1–bromo–2–chloro–1,2,2–trifluoroethane

33) Structure of 2,3-Dibromo-1-phenyl pentane is ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The hybridisation of nitrogen in primary amine is __________.

(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3
(4) sp3d

35) IUPAC name of the compound

(1) trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
(2) cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
(3) trans-2-chloro-3-iodo pent-2-ene
(4) cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene

36) If has rotation of + 68° with ppL then what will be rotation of :-

(1) +68°
(2) –68°
(3) +34°
(4) None of these

37)

Consider following matching :

(a) Functional isomer

(b) Positional isomer

(c) Metamer

(d) Chain isomer

Which is/are correct matching :

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) c only
(4) a, b, c, d

38)

The correct order of acidic strength is :-

(1) Chloroacetic acid > Fluoroacetic acid > Phenol > Ethanol
(2) Ethanol > Phenol > Chloroacetic acid > Fluoroacetic acid
(3) Fluoroacetic acid > Chloroacetic acid > Ethanol > Phenol
(4) Fluoroacetic acid > Chloroacetic acid > phenol > Ethanol

39) Diethyl ether and methyl n-propyl ether are

(1) Position isomers

(2) Functional isomers
(3) Metamers
(4) Chain isomers

40) CH3–CH2–CH2–COOH & are :-

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Functional isomers
(4) Metamers

41) The chirality of the compound is :-

(1) R
(2) S
(3) Z
(4) E

42)

Find out number of chiral carbon in the given compounds :-

(1) 3, 1
(2) 1, 1
(3) 1, 0
(4) 3, 0

43) How many compounds among the following are chiral ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Statement-I : Cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are non-interconvertible at room temperature.

Statement-II : Dihedral angle in least stable conformer of ethane is 60°.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect, statement-II is correct.

45) Which of the following is not chiral?

(1) 2-Butanol
(2) 2,3-Dibromo pentane
(3) 3-Bromo pentane
(4) 2-Hydroxy propanoic acid
 BIOLOGY

1) Which is not a stem modification

(1) Rhizome of ginger

(2) Corm of Colocasia
(3) Pitcher of Nepenthes
(4) Tuber of potato

2) Potato and sweet potato

(1) have edible parts which are homologous organs

(2) have edible parts which are analogous organs
(3) Stored food in form of proteins
(4) Are two plants of same species

3)

Vessel elements differ from tracheids in having -

(1) In being living

(2) Presence of perforation plates at both ends
(3) Enucleated condition
(4) All of the above

4) In a plant, the peduncle is elogated and it bears pedicillate flowers. The older flowers lie towards
the base and the younger ones near the apex. The inflorescence is

(1) raceme
(2) Spadix
(3) Spike
(4) Racemose head

5) The perianth is the term used when

(1) androecium and gynoecium are similar

(2) androecium and calyx are similar
(3) corolla and gynoecium are similar
(4) calyx and corolla are similar

6) Pneumatophores are characteristic feature of :-

(1) Halophytes
(2) Mesophytes
(3) Epiphytes
(4) Xerophytes

7) Match the following column correctly :-

Modification of
Example Function
root

(i) Prop (a) gram (p) Mechanical support to branch

(ii) Stilt (b) Rhizophora (q) Nitrogen fixation

(iii) Pneumatophore (c) Banyan (r) Respiration

(iv) Nodulated root (d) Maize (s) Mechanical support to stem

(1) i-c-s, ii-d-p, iii-b-r, iv-a-q
(2) i-c-p, ii-d-s, iii-b-r, iv-a-q
(3) i-a-s, ii-b-r, iii-c-p, iv-d-q
(4) i-d-p, ii-c-q, iii-a-r, iv-b-s

8) Silk cotton has :

(1) Pinnately compound leaves

(2) Palmately simple leaves
(3) Palmately compound leaves
(4) Pinnately simple leaves

9) Petiole is modified into green and flattened structure for food synthesis in

(1) Asparagus
(2) Opuntia
(3) Australian acacia
(4) Ruscus

10) Most advanced type of inflorescence are found :

(1) Solanum
(2) Sunflower
(3) Radish
(4) Mustard

11) Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure showing structure of a monocot seed and select the

correct option:-
 A B C D
(1) Endosperm Scutellum Plumule Radicle
(2) Endosperm Scutellum Radicle Plumule
(3) Scutellum Endosperm Radicle Plumule
(4) Plumule Radicle Scutellum Endosperm
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12)

Some characters are given below, which of the following is not correct about seeds of maize?
(A) Seed coat is membranous and generally fused with fruit wall.
(B) The outer covering of endosperm separates embryo by aleurone layer.
(C) The plumule and radicle are not covered with coleoptile and coleorhiza, respectively.

(D) Embryo consists of two large shield shaped cotyledons known as scutellum.
(1) A and B
(2) only C
(3) only D
(4) C and D

13) The coconut water and edible part represents :

(1) Epicarp
(2) Mesocarp
(3) Endocarp
(4) Endosperm

14) Mango fruit develops form :

(1) Monocarpellary, Inferior ovary

(2) Monocarpellary, superior ovary
(3) Multicarpellary, superior ovary
(4) Multicarpelary, inferior ovary

15) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different types of aestivation.
Which one of these is correctly identified in the option given along with its correct example.

Aestivation Example
 (1) (B) Valvate Calotropis

(2) (A) Twisted Brinjal

(3) (C) Imbricate Gulmohur

(4) (D) Vexillary Cassia

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) How many example of plants in the list given below have axile placentation.
Mustard, Sesbania, Trifolium, Belladonna, Tobacco, Petunia, Onion, Datura, Makoi, Chilli

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 6

17) Which of the following characters are represented by both floral formula and floral diagram?

(1) Aestivation of calyx or corolla

(2) Placentation present in ovary
(3) Both cohesion and adhesion of stamens
(4) Type of inflorescence

18) Which of the following condition seen in the family-Compositae ?

(1) Superior ovary, syngenesious and single basal ovule

(2) Inferior ovary, basal placentation
(3) Inferior ovary, syngenesious and axile placentation
(4) Syngenesious, basal placentation and hypogynous flower

19) Floral formula of papilionoideae family

(1)
Br k(5) C(5) A(5) G1

(2)
% k(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G(2)

(3)
% k(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1

(4) % k5 C(2)+2+1 A(9)+1

20) Sclereid found in

(1) Leaves of tea

(2) Fruit pulp of pear
(3) Seed coat of pea
(4) All of these

21) Given below is the four sketches (A, B, C, D). Identify them :-

A B C D

(1) Tracheid Vessel Collenchyma Parenchyma

(2) Tracheae Vessel Sclereid Collenchyma

(3) Tracheid Vessel Sclereid Collenchyma

(4) Vessel Tracheid Parenchyma Collenchyma

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Gymnosperm are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack :-

(1) Phloem fibre

(2) Tracheids
(3) Xylem fibre
(4) Bast fibre

23) Interfascicular cambium & cork cambium are formed due to-

(1) Cell division

(2) Cell differntiation
(3) Cell dedifferentiation
(4) Redifferentiation

24)

Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during the secondary growth in dicotyledonous roots
takes place from :-

(1) Hypodermis
(2) Cortex
(3) Endodermis
(4) Pericycle

25) A piece of dicot stem and dicot root will be given. Which of the following anatomical structures
will you use to distinguish between the two ?

(1) Secondary xylem

(2) Epidermis
(3) Secondary phloem
(4) Protoxylem

26) Assertion : Collenchyma tissue provides mechanical support to the growing parts of the plant
such as young stem and petiole.
Reason : Cells of collenchyma are much thickened at the cornors due to the deposition of cellulose,
hemicellulose and lignin.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is incorrect explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

27)

Net products of photosynthesis are :-

(1) CO2 + H2O + C6H12O6

(2) O2 + H2O + C6H12O6
(3) H2S + O2 + C6H12O6
(4) C6H12O6 + H2O

28) Photosynthesis is :-

(1) Anabolic, exergonic and oxidation - reduction process

(2) Catabolic, exergonic and oxidation - reduction process.
(3) Anabolic, endergonic and oxidation - reduction process.
(4) Catabolic, endergonic and oxidation - reduction process.

29) Carbondioxide is essential for photosynthesis, this fact can be proved by using :-

(1) KOH, a bell jar and a candle.

(2) A test tube or a jar, KOH and a leafy plant.
(3) KOH and purple sulphur bacteria.
(4) A bell jar, candle and a mouse.

30) Chloroplast shows division of labour and it can be verified by the fact that :-
(1) There are seperate thylakoids for light reaction and dark reaction.
(2) Light reaction is performed in grana and dark reaction in stroma.
(3) Light reaction is performed in stroma and dark reaction in grana.
(4) There are two photosystem to perform cyclic photophosphorylation.

31) Choose the correct option for A to E.

A – Grana, B – Stroma, C – Starch granuals,

(1)
D – Lipid droplets, E – Ribosome
A – Stroma, B – Grana, C – Starch granuals,
(2)
D – Lipid droplets, E – Ribosome
A – Grana, B – Starch granuals, C – Stroma,
(3)
D – Lipid droplets, E – Ribosome
A – Grana, B – Stroma, C – Starch granuals,
(4)
D – Ribosome, E – H2O2

32) In a chromatographic paper, different pigments can be seen as:

Chl-a = Yellow-green, Chl-b = Bright or blue-green, Xanthophylls = Yellow, Carotenoids =

(1)
Yellow-orange
Chl-a = Bright or blue-green, Chl-b = Yellow-green, Xanthophylls = Yellow-orange, Carotenoids
(2)
= yellow
Chl-a = Bright or blue-green, Chl-b = Yellow-green, Xanthophylls = Yellow, Carotenoids =
(3)
Yellow-orange
(4) None of these

33) Assertion (A) : When light is made to split into its spectral components and then used to
illuminate Cladophora, aerobic bacteria accumulate mainly in the region of blue and red light of the
split spectrum.
Reason (R) : Plants absorb red and blue lights only.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
34) In this diagram (a), (b), (c) stands for:

(A) (B) (C)

(1) Chl-a Chl-b Carotenoids

(2) Chl-b Chl-a Phycobilins

(3) Chl-b Chl-a Carotenoids

(4) Carotenoids Chl-a Chl-b

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) During light reaction in higher plants, the light energy is absorbed by the pigment present in
___A___ and transfer energy to ___B___.

A B

(1) Antenna Reaction center

(2) Antenna Special chlorophyll b

(3) Reaction centre Antenna

(4) Reaction centre Special chlorophyll a

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) PS-I and PS-II are respectively located in :

(1) Nonappressed part and appressed part

(2) Appressed and non-appressed part
(3) Both are in appressed part
(4) Both are in non-appressed part

37) Given below are two statements :

One is labelled as assertion A and the other is labelled as reason R.
Assertion (A) :- NADPH is not formed in cyclic photophosphorylation.
Reason (R) :- NADP reductase enzyme is not found in the membrane of stroma lamellae which is
probable site for cyclic photophosphorylation.
In the light of the above statements ; Choose the correction answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

38)

Which of the following is correctly labelled with below diagram

a b c d

(1) PSII PSI e– acceptor LHC

(2) PSI PSII e–acceptor LHC

(3) LHC e–acceptor PSI PSII

(4) LHC PSI PSII e–acceptor

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) On the basis of above diagram, which of the

following is correct :-
 i ii iii iv

Thylakoid
(1) ATPase Photosystem I Photosystem II
membrane

ATP
(2) Stroma photosystem II Photosystem I
synthase

ATP Thylakoid
(3) photosystem II photosystem I
synthase membrane

ATP Grana
(4) Photosystem I Photosystem II
synthase thylakoid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40)

In C4 plants, during photosynthesis, splitting of water occurs in :-

(1) Chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells

(2) Chloroplasts of mesophyll cells
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

41)

How many water molecule is required as a substrate to evolve 3 molecules of O2 during

photosynthesis?

(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 10
(4) 8

42) During Z-scheme of photosynthesis which of the following does not help in creation of proton
gradient ?

(1) Release of protons in stroma by water splitting

(2) Presence of H-carriers in the thylakoid membrane
(3) Reduction of NADP+
(4) Oxidation of water by photosystem-II

43)

Saturation point of CO2 in C3- plants is -

(1) Beyond 450

(2) Beyond 450

(3) At about 360

At about 360
(4)

44) Assertion :- Carboxylation is the most crucial step of Calvin cycle.

Reason :- CO2 is utilised for the carboxylation of 3 PGA.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion and reason both are false.

45) Bundle sheath cells in C4 plants are characterised by how many of the following features given
below?
i Large cells
ii. Having large number of chloroplasts
iii. Thin walled
iv. Impervious to gaseous exchange
v. Presence of intercellular spaces

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(2) (i) and (iv) only
(3) (i), (iii) and (v) only
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

46) How many of the following bones are belong to fore limb:

Patella, Tibia, Fibula, Ulna, Radius, Manubrium, Clavicle, Tarsals,

Carpals, Metacarpals
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

47) Which type of movement is seen in human body ?

(1) Amoeboid
(2) Ciliary
(3) Muscular
(4) All

48) How many of the following statement are correct regarding muscle contraction ?
(a) A-band retain its length
(b) I-band gets reduced
(c) sarcomere gets shorter
(d) Actin & myosin filaments gets shorter
(e) Thick filament slide over thin filament

(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

49) Following is the figure of actin (thin) filaments. Select the option with the correct description of

structures labelled as A, B and C.

A-Its subunit masks the active binding site for myosin on the actin filaments in resting as well as
(1)
active state.
(2) B-Polymerised protein which is made up of many monomeric proteins called meromyosin
(3) C-Polymer of monomeric G-actins.
(4) B-It has two important parts-HMM and LMM.

50)

Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. red muscle fibres:

(1) High myoglobin content

(2) Large no. of mitochondria
(3) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is high
(4) Does not fatigue easily

51) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer.
Statement I - Pectoral girdle articulates with sternum through clavicle.
Statement II - Scapula is a large bone of pelvic region, which has expanded process called
acromion.

(1) Both statements are correct and statement II is correct expaination of statement I.
(2) Both statements are correct but statement II is not correct explaination of I.
(3) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect.
(4) Both statements are wrong.

52)

How many of the following are flat bone?

(a) Occipital bone (b) Clavicle (c) Vertebrae (d) Scapula

(e) Humerus (f) Ribs
(g) Ulna (h) Sternum
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 5

53)

Correctly match column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

(A) Tetany i Endomysium

(B) Muscle fibre ii Rapid spasm in muscles

(C) Fasciculi iii Auto immune Disorder

(D) Myasthenia gravis iv Perimysium

(1) A→(iii), B→(ii), C→(iv), D→(i)
(2) A→(ii), B→(i), C→(iii), D→(iv)
(3) A→(ii), B→(i), C→(iv), D→(iii)
(4) A→(iii), B→(iv), C→(i), D→(ii)

54) Read the following statements carefully :-

(a) Cross-bridge formation
(b) Neurotransmitter released
(c) Action potential generated in sarcolemma
(d) Shortening of sarcomere
(e) Binding of calcium at Troponin C-site.
Arrange the following statements in a correct sequence of muscle contraction.

(1) c → b → e → a → d
(2) b → c → e → a → d
(3) c → b → a → e → d
(4) a → c → b → d → e

55)

Fill in the blank with the correct option

The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet__a__ to form the __b__ containing __c__.
a = Dorsally; b = Pubic symphysis;
(1)
c = fibrous cartilage
a = Dorsally; b = Pubic symphysis;
(2)
c = fibrous cartilage
a = Ventrally; b = Pubic symphysis;
(3)
c = fibrous cartilage
a = Laterally; b = Pubic Symphysis;
(4)
c = fibrous joint

56) Which of the following is /are not correctly matched pairs?

 Column-I Column-II

Ball and Between humerus and pectoral

(i)
socket joint girdle

(ii) Pivot joint Between carpal and metacarpal

(iii) Saddle joint Between atlas and axis

(iv) Gliding joint Between the carpals

(v) Fibrous joint In flat skull bones

(1) (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (v) only
(4) (ii) only

57) Flat skull bones fused together by _______ which is a type of ________ joint.

(1) Cartilage, cartilagenous joint

(2) Sutures, fibrous joint
(3) Imperfect joint, immovable
(4) Perfect, movable

58) Find out the true and false statements.

(A) Human skeleton has 206 bones
(B) There are 12 pairs of ribs in human beings
(C) Sternum is present on the dorsal side of the body
(D) All mammals (except of few) have 8 cervical vertebrae
(E) Ribs are bicephalic

(1) A,B,C True, D,E False

(2) A,B,D True, C,E False
(3) A,B,E True, C,D False
(4) A,C,E True, B,D False

59) An autoimmune disorder that affects neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and
paralysis of skeletal muscle is:

(1) Muscular dystrophy

(2) Tetany
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis

60) The central part of thick filaments, not overlapped by thin filament at relaxed state of muscle
fibre is

(1) H-zone
(2) I-band
(3) A-band
(4) Sarcomere

61) Statement - I :- The potential difference across the membrane at rest is called the resting
membrane potential and this is about - 70 mV.
Statement - II :- Axolemma is selectively permeable in nature.
Choose the correct option from the given below -

(1) Both statement - I and statement - II are incorrect.

(2) Statement - I is correct but statement - II is incorrect.
(3) Statement - I is incorrect but statement - II is correct.
(4) Both statement - I and statement - II are correct.

62) Select the option with the incorrect matching of the following structures with their location and
functions in our body.

Structure Location Function

Major co-ordinating centre for

(1) Thalamus Fore brain
sensory and motor signaling

Base of Regulate body temperature,

(2) Hypothalamus
diencephalon urge for eating and drinking

Analysis of sound impulses

(3) Auditory cortex Cerebellum
and recognition of sound

Corpora Between
Receivers and integrate visual,
(4) quadrigemina hypothalamus
tactile and auditory inputs
(mid brain) and pons
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Assertion : Besides controlling body temperature, hypothalamus also perform Endocrine
function.
Reason : Hypothalamus has various neurosecretory cells which secrete hormones.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

64) How many of the following statements are correct :-

(a) Myelin sheath is found around all neurons of CNS.
(b) Schwann cells are found in PNS, which is only confined to cranial nerves.
(c) Oligodendrocyte forms myelin sheath around axons of CNS.
(d) If myelin sheath is continous then nerve conduction velocity is increased
(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

65) Identify the correct match from column I, II and III

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Sexual behaviour
(1) Pons (a) Cerebral cortex (i)
and emotions

Below mid brain and

Association Memory and
(2) (b) upper side of (ii)
area communication
medulla oblongata

Cerebral
hemisphere and
Limbic
(3) (c) deep structure like (iii) Pneumotaxic centre
System
amygdla and
hippocampus
(1) 1–b–ii, 2–a–i, 3–c–iii
(2) 1–a–i, 2–b–ii, 3–c–iii
(3) 1–c–iii, 2–b–ii, 3–a–i
(4) 1–b–iii, 2–a–ii, 3–c–i

66) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(A) A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through junctions called synapses.
(B) There are two types of synapses, namely, electrical synapses and chemical synapses.
(C) Across electrical synapses, electric current can flow directly from one neuron into the other
(D) Transmission of an impulse across electrical synapses is very similar to impulse conduction along
a single axon.
(E) Impusle transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster than that across a chemical
synapse.
(F) Electrical synapses are rare in our system

(1) six
(2) four
(3) five
(4) three

67)

In resting condition the outer surface of the axonal membrane possesses a ___A___ while its inner
surface has ___B___ and therefore is ___C___.

A B C

(1) Positive charge Negative charge Depolarised

(2) Positive charge Negative charge Polarised

 (3) Negative charge Positive charge Polarised

(4) Positive charge Negative charge Hyper polarised

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68) In the given list how many functions are related with the limbic system ?

rage, memory, regulation of sexual behavior, expression of emotional

reactions, motivation.
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 3

69) Ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by

(1) Rapid influx of Na+ down its concentration gradient

(2) Rapid efflux of K+ down its concentration gradient
(3) Active transport of ions by Na+ - K+ pump
(4) Leakage of more K+ than Na+ against concentration gradient

70) Unipolar neurons have

(1) One axon and one dendrite

(2) One cell body and One axon
(3) One axon and two dendrites
(4) One axon and many dendrites

71) Choose the correct option from given below :

(a) Association areas are clearly sensory
(b) Association areas are neither clearly sensory nor motor
(c) Association areas are responsible for complex functions
(d) Association areas are clearly motor

(1) a, c
(2) a, b, c
(3) b, c
(4) a, b, c, d

72) Assertion :- Myelinated nerve fibre are found in spinal & cranial nerves enclosed by
oligodendrocytes.
Reason :- Oligodendrocytes forms myelin sheath in CNS and PNS both.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

73) Assertion : Hyposecretion of ADH results into diabetes insipidus.

Reason : Diminished ability of the kidney to conserve water leading to water loss and dehydration.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

74) Hormone that initiates ejection of milk, and stimulate milk production are respectively :-

(1) Prolactin, Oxytocin

(2) Prolactin, Dopamine
(3) Oxytocin, Prolactin
(4) ADH, Oxytocin

75) Find out the correct statement

(A) Gluconeogenesis & lipolysis are stimulated by glucocorticoids of adrenal.
(B) In diabetes insipidus patients are successfully treated with insulin therapy.
(C) When blood pressure decreases, ANF is secreted which causes dialation of blood vessels to
increase B.P.
(D) Glucagon reduces cellular glucose uptake and utilisation.

(1) A, C
(2) B, C
(3) A, D
(4) B, D

76) From the followings how many glands are organised endocrine gland ?

Pituitary, Kidney, Heart, Liver, Pineal, Pancreas, Thymus, Thyroid.

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 7

77)

(i) Stimulate muscular growth

(ii) Aggressiveness
(iii) Act on C.N.S and influence libido
(iv) Catabolic effect on protein
(v) High pitch voice How many of the above is not the function of testosterone ?
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

78) Match the column I with column II, and choose the correct option given below ?

Column-I Column-II

(A) Secretin (1) Stimulate the secretion from gastric glands

(B) Gastrin (2) Stimulate the secretion of water & bicarbonates

(C) CCK (3) Inhibit gastric secretion & motility

(D) GIP (4) stimulate the secretion of pancreatic enzymes

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(4) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

79) Which one is not correctly matched :-

(1) ANF = ↓ Blood pressure

(2) Progesterone = Alveoli formation in mammary gland
(3) Aldosterone = Na+ excretion and K+ reabsorption
(4) Glucocorticoids - suppress immune reactions

80) Given match is related to functions of particular hormone. Find out the incorrect match :-
(A) Proteolysis – Cortisol
(B) Glycogenolysis – Nor Adrenaline
(C) Libido – Progesterone
(D) Critinism – Decrease level of thyroxine
(E) Gluconeogenesis – Glucagon
(F) Erythropoiesis – Thyrocalcitonin
(G) Development of somatic tissue – Growth hormone

(1) B, C and F are incorrect

(2) C, E and G are incorrect
(3) Only C & F are incorrect
(4) A, B, C, D are incorrect

81) Identify the structure labelled as A,B,C and D in the following figure, showing the mode of action
of a steroid hormone. :-
(1) A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Receptor protein, C-CAMP
(2) A-Ovarian cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, D-Biochemical response
(3) A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, D-Tissue growth and differentiation
(4) B-C-AMP, C-Protein, D-Tissue growth and differentiation

82)

Which of the following is not a function of estrogen?

(1) Development of growing ovarian follicles.

(2) High pitch of voice.
(3) Mammary gland development.
(4) Act on the mammary gland and stimulates the formation of alveoli.

83) Which of the following is correct ?

(A) Hypercalcemic hormone is thyrocalcitonin (TCT).
(B) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases the Ca+2 levels in the blood.
(C) Thymosin play a major role in the differentiation of T-lymphocytes.
(D) Parathyroid glands are present on back side of the thyroid gland.

(1) B,C,D
(2) A,B,C
(3) A,C,D
(4) A,B,C,D

84)

How many hormones from the below list interact with intracellular receptors and regulate
chromosome function and gene expression.

GH, Oxytocin, ADH, ANF, Aldosterone, Cortisol, Thyroxin, Epinephrine,

Estradiol, GnRH, Progesterone
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

85) Hormone which influences :-

(a) Body temperature
(b) Metabolism
(c) Menstrual cycle, is/are

(1) necessarily a hormone of Thyroid gland

(2) necessarily a hormone of Adrenal gland
(3) necessarily a hormone of pineal gland
(4) may be a hormone of Thyroid or pineal gland

86) How many of these hormones help in increasing RBC count :-

Renin, erythropoietin, growth hormone, cortisol, thyroxine,

testosterone, epinephrine.
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

87) In the given list how many hormones are included in peptide/protein hormone ? Estradiol,
insulin, cortisol, glucagon, progesterone, testosterone

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2

88) How many statements are not correct regarding glucocorticoids ? (A) Inhibit gluconeogenesis
(B) Stimulate lipolysis
(C) Stimulate proteolysis
(D) Supress immune response

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

89) Select the correct match for position of gland:-

(1) Pineal gland – Ventral side of fore brain

(2) Thyroid gland – Either side of pharynx
(3) Parathyroid glands – Dorsal surface of thyroid gland
(4) Adrenal gland – Dorsal surface of Aorta.

90) Statement - (A) : GnRH, acts on anterior pituitary and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.
Statement - (B) : The Posterior pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of hypothalamus.
Select the correct option -

(1) statement - A is correct and B is incorrect.

(2) statement - A is incorrect and B is correct.
(3) Both statement - A and B are correct.
(4) Both statements - A and B are incorrect.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 2 2 4 1 2 3 3 1 3 4 3 1 1 2 2 1 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 4 4 3 3 2 2 1 1 4 1 2 1 1 3 2 1 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 1 3 2 1 4 2 4 1 3 2 2 4 1 3 2 2 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 3 3 2 1 1 4 4 3 4 1 3 3 3 4 3 4 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 3 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 2 1 4 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 4 2 3 2 3 2 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 3 4 4 3 2 1 2 2 1 3 3 1 1 1 4 1 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 1 3 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 1 2 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 1 1 4 1 2 1 3 2 3 3 1 3 3 1 3 2 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 1 2 4 4 4 1 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) If a point mass is placed inside a uniform spherical shell, the gravitational field on the point
mass is zero. Hence, the gravitational force exerted by the shell on the point mass is zero.

2)

(a) K.E = ⇒K.E ∝

(b) L=mvr = ⇒L∝

(c) P = mv = ⇒P∝

3/2
(d) T ∝ r ⇒f∝

3)

By COME

on solving

4) Acceleration due to gravity at latitude λ is given by

g' = g – Rω cos λ
2 2

At 30°, g30° = g – Rω2 cos2 30° = g – Rω2

∴ g – g30 = .

5)

KE = .

6)
7)

V=–

= [1 + 2] =

8) T2 =

T2 = =
mvr = constant ⇒ vr = constant
∴ vArA = vprp
∴ rA > rp ∴ vA < vp

9) Question Explanation:
The change in gravitational force when two masses are dipped in water.

Concept Based:
Newton's Law of universal gravitation depends only on the masses and the distance between
their centers. The medium between the masses does not affect the gravitational force.

Formula Used:

Calculation:
The formula for gravitational force does not include any properties of the medium between the
masses. Therefore, dipping the masses in water will not change the gravitational force
between them.

Final Answer: Th new force will be F.

Correct Option : (3)

10)
From conservation of energy,

11)

Concept
Capacitance with Dielectric-Electrostatics
Formula

• Original:

• New:
Calculation :
From formula:

Answer-3 (4)

12) ⇒ Cequ = 3 µF
The charge through the circuit = 3 × 12 = 36 μC
∴ Potential difference across 4.5 μF capacitor

V= = = 8 volts

13)

Conceptual

14) Conceptual

15)

The electric current through ideal voltmeter is zero.

According to loop rule, E –1 × I –1 × I = 0

Reading of the voltmeter = VA – VB = [1 × I]

= [ 1 × 1] = 1 V
16) Let the voltage across any one cell is V, then

But V = 0

⇒
⇒
⇒

17)

18) Let V is the potential of junction so.

+ + = 0 ⇒ V = 9V

So, i= = 4.5 A

19)

B=

= (I1 – I2)
 (5 – 2.5) = μ /2π
0
=

20)

21)

= 4π × 10–4 × 2 μr

22)

K = qV ⇒ Kp = eV ; Kd = eV ; Kα = 2eV
Kp : Kd : Kα :: 1 : 1 : 2

23)

B=

24)

radius =
Pitch

Pitch

is pitch and radius

25) V1 = V2 ⇒ I1R1 = I2R2 (Both arcs in parallel)

⇒ I1ℓ1 = I2 ℓ2

26)

∵ Capacitor having capacitance 5mF is withstand for 2 V so that the maximum voltage for
which this capacitor withstand is ≥ 2 V

27) ΔH= CV2 = ×(2×10–6)(100)2 = 0.01 J

28) Some energy lost in the form of heat in resistance also.

29)

30)
31)

In steady state condition capacitor behave as open circuit.

32) i =

10 – i × 2 = 6
i = 2A
∴ R = 1Ω

33) i= = 2A

34)

35) By Kirchoff 's first law, i = 1.7 A

36)

Short the cell open the capacitor

37) Circuit can be redrawn as shown.

RAB = 2 Ω
 38)

Explain Question : We are given a circuit element, and are need to find the potential
different (VA – VB) from the data given.

Concept : This question is based on KVL (and applications)

Solution :

The given part of a closed circuit can be redrawn as follows. It should be remember that product of
current and resistance can be treated as an imaginary cell having emf = iR.

⇒
⇒ Hence VA – VB = +9 V Final Answer : option (1)

39) The net magnetic field at the centre 'O' of the circular arc is

40) Conceptual

41) Solution/Explanation : to find correct option for given assertion- reason.

Concept : (1) Capacitance of a capacitor depends on rape, size and geometrical placing of the
conductors and the medium between them.
(2) amount of work done in qE by battery when a charge passes through a battery of emf E.

Formula : not required.

Calculation : both assertion and reason is correct but reason is not correct explation of
asserstion because the capacitance of a capacitor in not related to the work done by the
batters.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

42) If the medium between the plates of a capacitor is filled with an insulating substance, the
 electric field due to the charged plates induces a net dipole moment in the dielectric. This give
rise to field in the opposite direction. The net electric field inside the capacitor decreases and
hence the potential difference between the plates is reduced. Consequently, the capacitance C
increases from its value, when there is no medium.

43)

i = neAv
4i = ne 4A v'

v' = v

44) In balanced Wheatstone bridge, the arms of galvanometer and cell can be interchanged
without affecting the balance of the bridge.

45)

2x + x2 = 2x + 2 + x
x2 – x – 2 = 0

CHEMISTRY

46) A : H2 → H+ + e–
EAO = 0.059 × 2 = 0.12V
C : Ag+ + e– → Ag

ECR = 0.8 – log = 0.68V

Ecell = 0.80 V

Ag → Ag+ + e–

H+ + e– → H2
__________________________

Ag + H+ → Ag+ + H2

47)
(A)

48)

Conceptual

49)

Conce[ptual

50)

Conceptual

51) K =
∵ 0.013 =

= 3.9 cm–1

52)

X, Y, W will displace Z+2

53)

B + 3D —→ 4A + 2C

54) H2O :

K=
K×t = a – (a–x)
(a–x) = a – Kt
y = c + mx
∵ slope = –ve
Intercept = –K

55) r = K[A2]a[B2]b
Put the given values of conc. and rate in equation.

56) r1 = k[A]2 [B] ; r2 = k[2A]2[2B] = 8r1

57)

t = 150 min

58)

Conceptual

59)
Rate law, R = k[H2][Br2]1/2

Order of reaction
Molecularity of reaction = 2

The unit of

60) For zero order

[A0]–[At] = kt
0.2 – 0.1 = k×6

and 0.5–0.2 =
t = 18 hrs.

61)

0.60 mol/L/sec
62)

63)

ℓ3 > ℓ2 > ℓ1

64) Due to lone pair, (+) charge conjugation

65)

66) For the following ion/compounds

– Non aromatic

– Aromatic

– Aromatic

– Aromatic

67)

68)

Correct answer (C)

69)

Conceptual

70) Concept:
Conformational Isomerism

Explanation -

(Anti)

After the 120° anticlockwise rotation, the two Cl groups will be 180° apart. This is anti
conformers .

E Final Answer:option 2 F Question Level: Easy

71)
Explanation Question: To count total number of functional group in the given compound.
Concept: This question is based on different type of functional groups.
Solution: There are 7 different functional groups present in the given compound.

This compound has seven different functional groups.

(1) Alcohol (–OH)
(2) 1° Amine (–NH2)

(3) 3° Amine
(4) Cyanide (–CN)
(5) Isocyanide (–NC)
(6) Amide (–CONH2)
(7) Ester (–COOR)
Final Answer: (1)

72) Question Explanation:

To select the incorrect match of IUPAC name with the given structure.

Concept:
This question is based on Nomenclature of poly functional groups containing compound.

Solution:

(1) 2,4-dimethyl hexane

(2) 2-propyl but-3-enal

(3) Methyl methanoate

(4) Pent-3-en-1-yne

Final Answer:
 The correct option is (1)

73)

Question Explanation: To select the option with odd number of degree of unsaturation (DU)
Concept: This question is based on DU or degree of unsaturation or double bond equivalent.
Solution: 1 D.U. represents one π bond or one ring

(1) 5π bond +1 ring D.U. = 6

(2) 2π bond +2 ring D.U. = 4

(3) 5π bond +1 ring D.U. = 6

(4) 5π bond +2 ring D.U. = 7

Final Answer option : (4)

74) Explain question : The question asks for the correct IUPAC name of the given structure?
Concept : This question is based on IUPAC nomenclature (selection and numering of PCC)
Solution :

PCC ⇒ 6C with single bond ⇒ Octane.

Thre substituent are present ⇒ 2-Methyl, 6-Methyl, 4-Ethyl, written in alphabetical order.
The IUPAC name is 4-Ethyl-2, 6-dimethylcoctane
Final answer : option 4

75)

Explain Question : You need to find a compound with similar structure but one –CH2– group
more.

Concept : Homologous series: same functional group, differs by –CH2– group.

Solution : Given: Ethylamine (CH3CH2NH2)

Higher homologue = One extra –CH2– group →CH3CH2CH2NH2 (Propylamine)

Option 3 shows CH3CH2CH2NH2, which is propylamine, the correct answer.

Final Answer : option (3)

76)

2, 3-Dimethylbutane

77)

l-bromo-l-chloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane

78)

Conceptual

79) Question Explanation : The question asks for the hybridisation of nitrogen atom in
primary amine?
Concept : This question is based in hybridisation and classification of amines.

Solution : Example of primary amine ⇒

For hybridisation
Steric number = no. of σ bond + ℓp
=3+1
= 4 ⇒ sp3
The nitrogen in primary amine is sp3 hybridised.
Final Answer : Option (3)

80)
81)

None of these

82)

83)

Fluoroacetic acid > Chloroacetic acid > phenol > Ethanol

84) Diethyl ether → CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3

Methyl n-propyl ether → CH3–O–CH2–CH2–CH3
Different arrangement of atoms/groups around polyvalent functional group so, they are
metamers.

85)
⇒ PCC-different so chain isomer.

86)

Concept:

R/S Configuration:

A. Cahn-Ingold-Prelog Priority Rules:

A. Assign priority to the four groups attached to the chiral center based on atomic
number (highest atomic number gets highest priority).

B. If the lowest priority group (usually 4) is present at the vertical line or dash line
then trace a path from 1 to 2 to 3. If the direction is clockwise, it's the (R)
configuration. If it's anticlockwise, it's the (S) configuration.

C. If the lowest priority group (usually 4) is present at the horizontal line or wedge
line then trace a path from 3 to 2 to 1. If the direction is clockwise, it's the (R)
configuration. If it's anticlockwise, it's the (S) configuration.

D. Orient the molecule so that the lowest priority group (usually 4) is pointing away
from you.
Answer Explanation:

Final Answer: Option-(1) ( R configuration )

87)

Question Asking About:

The question asks for the number of chiral carbon atoms in each of the two given compounds.
This requires identifying the presence of carbon atoms bonded to four different groups.

Key Concept:
• Chiral Carbon (Stereocenter): A carbon atom bonded to four different groups.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

Chiral carbon = 3 Chiral carbon =0

Therefore, the first compound has 3 chiral centers, and the second compound has 0 chiral
centers.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

88)

Chiral Atom-Any sp3 hybridised atom attached four different group.

 Total CC = 3

89) cis-2 butene and trans-2-butene are geometrical isomers (configurational isomers) that are
non-inconvertible at room temperature.
Dihedral angle in least stable conformer (Eclipsed) of ethane is 0°.

90) 3-Bromo pentane

BIOLOGY

91)

Pitcher of Nepenthes

92)

have edible parts which are analogous organs

93)

Presence of perforation plates at both ends.

94)

Conceptual

95)

calyx and corolla are similar

96) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 67

97) NCERT XIth Pg # 67

98)

Palmately compound leaves

99)

Australian acacia

100)

Sunflower

101) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 77

102) NCERT Pg.# 76, 77

103)

Solution-

The coconut water and edible part of coconut represents the endosperm.

The correct answer is -(4)

104)

Monocarpellary, superior ovary

105) NCERT [XII] pg. 74

106) NCERT, Pg. # 75

107)

Both cohesion and adhesion of stamens

108)

Inferior ovary, basal placentation

109)
 % k(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1

110)

All of these

111) NCERT Pg. # 87,86 Fig # 6.3(a), Fig # 6.2(a), (b)

112)

Xylem fibre

113)

The correct answer is Cell dedifferentiation.

Explanation:

A. Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are both secondary meristems that are formed due
to dedifferentiation of mature cells.
B. Cell division is a general process, but it's the dedifferentiation of cells that gives rise to the
cambium layers.
C. Cell differentiation refers to the process where meristematic cells become specialized into
various tissues, and redifferentiation involves the re-specialization of previously
dedifferentiated cells. Neither of these processes is directly responsible for the formation of
cambium layers like interfascicular or cork cambium.

So, cell dedifferentiation is the correct answer.

114)

Pericycle

115)

Protoxylem

116) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

117)

O2 + H2O + C6H12O6
118)

Anabolic, exergonic and oxidation - reduction process

119)

A test tube or a jar, KOH and a leafy plant.

120) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 209

121) NCERT XI Pg # 214

122)

Chl-a = Bright or blue-green, Chl-b = Yellow-green, Xanthophylls = Yellow, Carotenoids =

Yellow-orange

123)

(A) is true but (R) is false

124)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 137

125) NCERT Pg. # 211

126)

Nonappressed part and appressed part

127) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 214

128) NCERT XI pg. # 212

129)

Conceptual

130)

Chloroplasts of mesophyll cells

 131)

Conceptual

132) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 213

133)

Beyond 450

134) NCERT XI Pg # 216

135)

(i), (ii) and (iv) only

136)

Question Explanation : The question is asking to identify which of the listed bones belong to
the human forelimb.
Concept: Forelimb bones.
Solution : Count of forelimb bones = Ulna, Radius, Carpals, Metacarpals → 4
Final Answer: Option (2)

137) NCERT Pg. # 302, para = 20.1

138)

NCERT Pg. # 221, 222

139)

The figure is a diagram of an actin filament, which is a key component of the cytoskeleton in
eukaryotic cells. Here's a description of the labeled structures:

A is the troponin complex, which regulates muscle contraction by interacting with tropomyosin.

B is tropomyosin, which blocks the myosin-binding sites on actin in the absence of calcium.C is
the F-actin or filamentous actin. It's the polymerized form of actin, created when multiple
globular actin (G-actin) monomers come together.

The statement given in option 3 is correct,so the correct answer is 3.

140)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 308

141)

NCERT XI - Pg# 311

142) Question explanation: The question is asking how many bones listed belong to the
category of flat bones.

Concept: Skeletal system.

Solution
Flat bones are generally thin, flattened, and often slightly curved. They provide protection and
surfaces for muscle attachment. In the given question following are the examples of flat bones:
1. Occipital bone (a) - Flat bone
2. Scapula (d) - Flat bone
3. Ribs (f) - Flat bones
4. Sternum (h) - Flat bone

So, the correct answer is option 4.

143) NCERT XI Pg. # 312

144) NCERT Pg No. 222, 223

145) NCERT Pg. # 311, Para : 20.3

146) NCERT Page#312

147)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 312

148)

Question Explanation : The question is asking to identify which statements about the human
skeleton are true or false.
Concept : Human skeleton system.
Solution :
(A) True, humans have 206 bones.
(B) True, humans have 12 pairs of ribs.
(C) False, sternum is on the ventral (anterior) side.
(D) True, most mammals have 7 cervical vertebrae, so statement is False.
(E) True, ribs have two articulation surfaces → bicephalic.
Final Answer : Option (3)

149) NCERT Pg. #227

150) NCERT Page no 308

151)

NCERT XI Pg.# 318

152) NCERT Pg. # 321

153) NCERT_Page No. (E) 321, (H) 322

154)

NCERT Pg. # 317

155) NCERT Pg. # 321

156) Pg. No. 234 XI-NCERT

157) NCERT (E) Pg. # 232

158) NCERT XI, Pg.#327

159) NCERT Page no 317

160) NCERT Page 317

161)

Question Explanation: Association areas functions

Concept: Cerebral cortex – Association areas

Solution:
Association areas are neither purely sensory nor motor and are responsible for complex
functions.

Final answer: Option (3)

162) NCERT Pg. # 318

163)

NCERT XII Page No. # 334

 164)

The correct answer is 3. Oxytocin, Prolactin.

Solution:
• Oxytocin initiates the ejection of milk from the mammary glands.
• Prolactin stimulates the production of milk in the mammary glands.

165)

Explain Question: The question asks which statements about hormones and their functions
are correct.

Concept : Hormone action

Explanation :

(A) True – Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis and lipolysis.

(B) False – Diabetes insipidus is due to ADH deficiency, not treated with insulin.
(C) False – ANF is secreted when blood pressure increases, not decreases.
(D) True – Glucagon decreases cellular glucose uptake and promotes glucose release.

Final answer : Option 3 – A and D

166) NCERT Pg. # 331, 22.2

167) NCERT-XI, Pg No. 337

168)

The correct answer is 2. A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

Explanation:

A. Secretin (A) stimulates the secretion of water & bicarbonates (2).

B. Gastrin (B) stimulates the secretion from gastric glands (1).

C. CCK (C) stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes (4).

D. GIP (D) inhibits gastric secretion & motility (3).

169) NCERT Pg. # 336

170) NCERT Page # 333, 335, 336

 171) NCERT Pg # 339

172)

NCERT Pg. # 337, 22.2.10

173) NCERT Pg # 334 (E)

174)

NCERT XI Pg.# 248

175)

The correct answer is 4. may be a hormone of Thyroid or pineal gland.

Solution:

A. Thyroid hormones significantly influence metabolism. Melatonin, a hormone from the

pineal gland, can have effects on body temperature. It also has some influence on the timing
of the menstrual cycle.

176) Erythropoietin, Growth hormone, thyroxine and cortisol help in increasing RBC count.

177)

Explanation :

The hormones included in the peptide, polypeptide, and protein hormone category from the
given list are:

A. Insulin: A protein hormone.

B. Glucagon: A peptide hormone.

Estradiol, cortisol, progesterone, and testosterone are steroid hormones.

the correct answer is 4. (2)

178) NCERT XI, Pg.# 335

179) NCERT XIth Pg. no. 334 Parathyroid gland

180) NCERT XII Pg # 240 (E)