09-11-2025

2401CMD303085250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) A long string with a charge of λ per unit length passes through an imaginary cube of edge a. The
maximum flux of the electric field through the cube will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) For an infinitely long wire with uniform line-charge density, λ, along the z-axis, the electric field
at a point (a,b,0) away from the origin is ( and are unit vectors in Cartesian-coordinate system.)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The variation of electric field between the two charges q1 and q2 along the line joining the charges
is plotted against distance from q1 (taking rightward direction of electric field as positive) as shown
in the figure. Then the correct statement is :-

(1) q1 and q2 are positive and q1 < q2

(2) q1 and q2 are positive and q1 > q2
(3) q1 is positive and q2 is negative and q1 < q2
(4) q1 and q2 are negative and q1 < q2
4) For the system shown in figure find Q for which resultant force on q is zero.

(1)
Q=
Q=
(2)

(3)
Q=
Q=
(4)

5) A charge Q is placed at the centre of the line joining two exactly equal positive charges q. The
system of these charges will be in equilibrium, if q is equal to

(1) –q/4
(2) –q/2
(3) +q/4
(4) +q/2

6) Particle B of charge Q and mass m is in equilibrium under weight and electrostatics force applied
by a fixed charged A, which is directly beneath the particle B as shown in figure. When particle B is

disturbed along vertical, the equilibrium is

(1) stable
(2) unstable
(3) neutral
(4) there can not be in equilibrium

7) Two infinite planes each with uniform surface charge density + σ are kept in such a way that the
angle between them is 30°. The electric field in the region shown between them is given by :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Two infinitely long line charge having linear charge density λ and –λ are placed at angle θ as
shown in figure. Find electric field at P, which is at a distance 'x' from point O along angle bisector

of line charges :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) In a solid sphere of radius R volume charge density varies as , where r is distance from
centre. The electric field at inside point P varies as

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) Two charges each of magnitude Q are fixed at 2a distance apart and a third charge q of mass m
is placed at the mid point of the line joining the two charges; all charges being of the same sign. If q
charge is slightly displaced from its position along the line and released then determine its time
period.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The cube shown below has edge lengths of 1.4 m and is placed such that the hidden corner is at
the origin of the coordinate system. If N/C , where is in units of newtons/coulomb and y

is coordinate in meters, what is ?

(1) 5.88 N-m2/C

(2) 0
(3) 8.23 N-m2/C
(4) 4.2 N-m2/C

12) The electric field inside a sphere which carries a charge density proportional to the distance
from the origin ρ = αr (α is a constant) is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

13) A particle of charge –q and mass m moves in a circle of radius r around an infinitely long line
charge of linear charge density +λ. Then, time period will be :-

where,

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Which statement is true ?

(i) A ring of radius R carries a uniformly distributed charge +Q. A point charge –q is placed on the
axis of the ring at a distance 2R from its centre and released. The particle executes simple harmonic
motion along the axis of the ring.
(ii) Electrons move from a region of higher potential to that of lower potential

(1) only (i)

(2) only (ii)
(3) (i), (ii)
(4) none of them

15) Two identically charged pith balls are suspended from the some point by two massless identical
threads density of each ball is ρ. If system is immersed in a medium of density σ, balls remain
undeflected, then the dielectric constant of medium is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Electric potential in a region is given by V = x2 + y2 + z2. The magnitude of electric field intensity
(E) at point P(x, y, z) is......
(1) 2(x + y + z)

(2)

(3) 2x + y + z
(4) xyz

17) The variation of potential with distance ‘x’ is shown in the graph below :-

The magnitude of electric field at x = 5m is

(1) 2 V/m
(2) 0.5 V/m
(3) 6 V/m
(4) 8 V/m

18) For a given surface the Gauss's law is stated as . From this we can conclude that
:-

(1) E is necessarily zero on the surface

(2) E is perpendicular to the surface at every point
(3) The total flux through the surface is zero
(4) The flux is only going out of the surface

19) Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the other of radius 2R, both have same surface charge
density σ. If they are brought in contact and seperated, then the new surface charge densities on
each of the sphere are respectively:-

,
(1)

(2) ,

(3) ,

(4) ,
20) A charge Q is distributed uniformly inside the shown hollow sphere. The electric field at point P

is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A proton is projected with a velocity v towards another proton at rest from distant point then
distance of closest approach will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A neutral spherical conductor (radius r2) has a concentric spherical cavity (radius r1). A point
charge Q is placed at a distance ‘r’ (less than r1) from the centre. The potential at the centre is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Cannot be determined by given data

23) A uniform electric field of 400 V/m is directed at 45° with x-axis as shown in figure. The potential
difference VA – VB is given by :-

(1) 0
(2) 4 V
(3) 6.4 V
(4) 2.8 V

24) For the isolated charged conductor shown in figure. The potentials at points A, B, C and D are
VA, VB, VC and VD respectively. Then -

(1) VA = VB > VC > VD

(2) VD > VC > VB = VA
(3) VD > VC > VB > VA
(4) VD = VC = VB = VA

25) What is the value of linear velocity, if and ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) A cyclist riding the bicycle at a speed of m/sec takes a turn around a circular road of
radius m without skidding. Given g = 9.8 m/s2. What is the banking angle of circular path ?

(1) 30°
(2) 90°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

27)

A particle crosses the topmost point C of a vertical circle with critical speed; then the ratio of
velocities at points A, B and C is :-
(1) 3 : 2 : 1
(2) 5 : 3 : 1
(3) 52 : 32 : 12
(4)

28) A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity ω. A coin is placed at a distance r
from the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is µ. The coin will revolve with the
record if :-

(1)

(2)
r<
(3)

(4)

29) A small body of mass m slides down from the top of a hemisphere of radius r. The surface of
block and hemisphere are frictionless. The height (h) at which the body loses contact with the

surface of the sphere is :- (hemisphere is fixed)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Car moves at a constant speed on a road as shown in figure. The normal force by the road on

the car is NA and NB when it is at the points A and B respectively :

(1) NA = NB
(2) NA > NB
(3) NA < NB
(4) Insufficient information to decide the relation of NA & NB

31) Assertion : In the inertial frame centrifugal force can't appear. Reason : In the uniform
circular motion centripetal force will counter balance to the centrifugal force.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

32) Radius of the curved road on national highway is R. Width of the road is b. The outer edge of the
road is raised by h with respect to inner edge so that a car with velocity v can pass safely over it.
The value of h is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A frictionless track ABCDE ends in a circular loop of radius R. A body slides down the track from
point A which is at a height h = 5 cm. Maximum value of R for the body to successfully complete the

loop is :-

(1) 5 cm

(2)

(3)

(4) 2 cm

34) Keeping the angle of banking same, if the radius of curvature is made four times, the percentage
increase in the maximum speed with which a vehicle can travel on a circular road is :-

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

35) Two particles A and B are situted at a distance d = 2 m apart. Particle A has velocity of 10 m/s at
an angle of 60° and particle B has a velocity v at an angle of 30°, as shown in figure. The distance d
between A and B is constant. The angular velocity of B with respect to A is :

(1) rad/s

(2)
rad/s
(3) rad/s

(4)
rad/s

36) Three masses of 2kg, 4 kg and 4 kg are placed at the three points (1, 0, 0) (1, 1, 0) and (0, 1, 0)
respectively. The position vector of its center of mass is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A dog weighing 5 kg is standing on a flat boat so that dog is 10 m from the shore. The dog walks
4 m on the boat towards the shore and then halts. The boat weighs 20 kg and one can assume that
there is no friction between it and the water. How far is the dog from the shore at the end of this
time?

(1) 3.2 m
(2) 0.8 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 6.8 m

38) A collides to a surface as shown in figure. If coefficient of restitution , then θ will be:-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 0°
39) A body of mass 5 kg strikes another body of mass 2.5 kg initially at rest. The bodies after
collision coalesce and begin to move as a whole with a kinetic energy of 5 J. The kinetic energy of
the first body before collision is :-

(1) 7.5 J
(2) 5 J
(3) 2.5 J
(4) 10 J

40) Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radii R and 2R respectively are released in free
space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12 R. It they attract each other due to
gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body just before collision is-

(1) 2.5 R
(2) 4.5 R
(3) 7.5 R
(4) 1.5 R

41) A particle of mass 4 m which is at rest explodes into three fragments. Two of the fragments, each
of mass m are found to move with a speed of v each in perpendicular directions. What is the total
energy released in the process?

(1) 3 mv2

(2)

(3)

(4) 4 mv2

42) A bullet of mass m is fired from a gun of mass M. The recoiling gun compresses a spring of force
constant k by a distance d. Then the velocity of the bullet is :-

(1) kd

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A boat of length 10 m and mass 450 kg is floating without motion in still water. A man of mass
50 kg standing at one end of it walks to the other end of it and stops. The magnitude of the
displacement of the boat in meters relative to ground is :-

(1) zero
(2) 1 m
(3) 2 m
(4) 5 m
44) Two identical balls A and B having velocities of 0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s respectively collide
elastically in one dimension. The velocities of B and A after the collision respectively will be :-

(1) –0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

(2) 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
(3) –0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s
(4) 0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s

45) Two particles of mass 2 kg and 1 kg are moving along the same straight line with speeds 2 m/s
and 5 m/s respectively. The speed of COM of system when particles are moving in opposite
directions is V1 and when particles are moving in same direction is V2. The ratio V1/V2 is :

(1) 3:4
(2) 4:3
(3) 9:1
(4) 1:9

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following has highest value of e/m ratio ?

(1) Electron
(2) Proton
(3) Neutron
(4) Deuterium

2) Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an atom ?

(1) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
(2) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2
(3) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +1/2
(4) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2

3) The energy of a photon is 10 MeV. What is the wavelength of radiation ?

(1) 10–15 metre

(2) 5.1 × 10–13 metre
(3) 1.2 × 10–15 metre
(4) 1.2 × 10–13 metre

4) The maximum number of electrons in a d-orbital with n = 5

(1) 14
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 10

5) Total energy associated with 1 mole of photons having frequency equal to 6 × 1014 Hz is

(1) 3.97 × 10–19 Joule

(2) 3.97 × 10–21 Joule
(3) 2.39 × 105 Joule
(4) 2.39 × 106 Joule

6) The total value of m for the electrons (n = 4) is -

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 32

7) The ratio of the ionisation energy of H atom and Be+3 ion is :

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 9
(4) 1 : 16

8) The total energy of the electron of H-atom in the second orbit is –E2. The total energy of the He+
ion in the third orbit is :-

(1)
E2

(2)
E2

(3)
E

(4)
E2

9) The orbital diagram in which both the Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule are violated as :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) The de Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass 1 g and velocity 100 m/s is:

(1) 6.63×10–35 m
(2) 6.63×10–34 m
(3) 6.63×10–33 m
(4) 6.65×10–35 m

11) The number of photons emitted by a 60W sodium lamp in 10 hrs are (approximately) :-

(1) 1024
(2) 1020
(3) 1018
(4) Can not be predicted

12) Assertion : It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact momentum of an electron
simultaneously.
Reason : The path of an electron in an atom is clearly defined.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

13) Assertion : The probability of finding the electron at a point within an atom is proportional to
the |ψ|2 at that point.
Reason : The wave function is a mathematical function whose value depends upon the coordinates
of the electron in an atom and does not carry any physical meaning.

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(2) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.

14) Assertion (A) : The existence of three unpaired electrons in phosphorous atom can be
explained on the basis of Hund's rule.
Reason (R) : According to Hund's rule, the degenerate orbitals are first singly occupied and only
then pairing takes place.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct and R is wrong
(4) A is wrong and R is correct

15) The weight of 1 × 1020 molecules of CuSO4 . 5H2O is :-

(1) 41.59 g
(2) 415.9 g
(3) 4.159 g
(4) 0.041 g
16) Average molar mass of the gaseous mixture of 2 mol N2O4 and 3 mol NO2 is :-

(1) 84.4 g mol–1

(2) 28.34 g mol–1
(3) 32.2 g mol–1
(4) 64.4 g mol–1

17) The total number of electrons present in 18 gm water is :

(1) 6.023 × 1023

(2) 6.023 × 1024
(3) 6.023 × 1025
(4) 6.023 × 1021

18) Which of the following compounds have same empirical and molecular formula :

(1) CH4
(2) HCHO
(3) CH3Cl
(4) All

19) The V.D. of gas is 15. 1.12 ℓ sample of gas at STP has a mass of :-

(1) 30 g
(2) 15 g
(3) 1.5 g
(4) 1 g

20) The sodium salt of methyl orange has 7% sodium. What is the minimum molar mass of the
compound, when the compound contains only one atom of sodium in its one molecule :

(1) 420
(2) 375
(3) 329
(4) 295

21) What is true about 10gm CaCO3. It contains :-

(1) 1 gm atom of carbon

(2) 0.3 gm atom of oxygen
(3) 12 gm of calcium
(4) 0.69 gm oxygen

22) The number of water molecules in 1L of water is :-

(1) 18
(2) 18 × 1000
(3) NA
(4) 55.55 NA

23)

Total number of neutrons in 5g of D2O is :-

(1) 0.25 NA
(2) 2.5 NA
(3) 1.1 NA
(4) 0.5 NA

24) , A is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

25) Which of the following has minimum heat of hydrogenation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Which is not suitable to obtain by Wurtz reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Which of the following alkyl bromides is used for the synthesis of 2,3-dimethylbutane by wurtz
reaction ?

(1) n-propyl bromide

(2) isopropyl bromide
(3) isobutyl bromide
(4) s-butyl bromide

28) Which of the following not a product of wurtz reaction of n-propyl chloride and isopropyl
chloride:-

(1) n-Hexane
(2) Isohexane
(3) neo-hexane
(4) 2, 3-dimethyl butane

29) Which of the following does not give alkane with R–Mg–X.

(1) Ph–OH
(2) C6H6
(3) CH3COOH
(4) HCl

30) Which of the following reaction is incorrect?

(1)

(2)

(CH3)2CuLi + CH3CH2—Br
(3)

(4)
CH3—CH2—I CH3—CH3

31)
Find the product B is ...?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Which of the following acids gives propane on decarboxylation.

(1) 2–Methyl propanoic acid

(2) 2–Methyl butanoic acid
(3) Propanoic acid
(4) 3–Methyl butanoic acid

33) How many carboxylic acid can give isopentane on decarboxylation ?

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 6

34) For the reaction given : Which is incorrect ?

(1)

A is

(2)
C is

(3)
C is

(4)

B is
35) Kolbe's electrolysis of a mixture of pot. Propanoate and pot. 3–Methylbutanoate gives :

(1) Butane and isobutane

(2) Butane and 2, 5–dimethylhexane
(3) Butane, 2, 5–dimethylhexane and isohexane
(4) Butane and isohexane

36) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Carboxylic acids lose carbon dioxide to form hydrocarbons when their sodium salts are
heated with sodalime (NaOH and CaO in the ratio of 3 : 1). The reaction is known as
decarboxylation.
Reason (R): The hydrocarbon formed has twice the number of carbon atoms present in the alkyl
group of the acid.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

37) Statement-I : During the Kolbe electrolysis reaction, pH of solution is increased.

Statement-II : On increasing the hydroxyl ion concentration of solution, pH is increased.

(1) Statement-I is correct, II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I & Statement-II is correct
(3) Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct

38) Compare the reactivity of following compounds towards soda lime decarboxylation

(A) (B) (C)

(1) A > B > C

(2) C > B > A
(3) C > A > B
(4) B > A > C

39)
Which of the following can be used in above reaction as a reagent ?
(1) Red P + HI
(2)
(3) Zn–Hg+HCl
(4) All of above

40) Suppose following reaction

→ Product
The product Alkane will be :-

(1)

(2) CH3–CH2–CH3

(3)

(4) CH4

41) (X) (Y), (Y) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) When water vapours are passed over aluminium carbide, we get-

(1) Methane
(2) Ethane
(3) Propane
(4) Butane
43)
Alkene (R) is :

(1) cis-But-2-ene
(2) trans-But-2-ene
(3) 1-butene
(4) ethene

44) The most volatile alkane is -

(1) n-pentane
(2) isopentane
(3) neopentane
(4) n-hexane

45) Which of the following alkyl halide is treated with sodium metal to obtain 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethyl
butane?

(1) sec-butyl bromide

(2) n-propyl bromide
(3) n-butyl bromide
(4) tert-butyl bromide

BIOLOGY

1)

Which of the following options correct word for the four blanks A, B, C and D
 (A) (B) (C) (D)

Intermembrane
(1) FAD CytC1 Cyt-F
space

Inter
(2) FMN membrane QH2 Cyt-a-a3
Space

Matrix of
(3) NAD CytC1 Cyta
mitochondria

Inner
(4) FMN mitochondrial CytC1 Cyta-a3
membrane
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of ATP synthesis in mitochondria. Identify the
components labelled as A,B,C and D and select the correct option :-
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which of the following graph correctly represents the variation in value of RQ when initially
respiratory substrate was carbohydrate, then fats and after that proteins ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Animal cells are suspended in a culture medium that contains excess glucose. The graph below
shows glucose utilization under different growth conditions. (A), (B) and (C) in the graph incidcate :-
 A - Anaerobic respiration
(1) B - Introduction of O2 to culture medium
C - Aerobic respiration
A - Aerobic respiration
(2) B - Introduction of CO2 to culture medium
C - Anaerobic respiration
A - Aerobic respiration
(3) B - Supply of organic triphosphate
C - Aerobic respiration
A - Aerobic respiration
(4) B - Introduction of CO to culture medium
C - Anaerobic respiration

5)
The above figure indicates the interrelationship among metabolic pathways. Now identify A to D:-
 A B C D

(1) Protein Acetyl CoA Fat DHAP

(2) Fat DHAP Protein Acetyl CoA

(3) Acetyl CoA Fat DHAP Protein

(4) Fat DHAP Acetyl CoA Protein

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Given flow chart shows some of the stages in respiration

During which of the following stages does oxidative decarboxylation occur?

(1) 1 and 3
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 3 and 4
(4) 4 and 5

7) Assertion: Glycolysis occur in cytoplasm.

Reason: Enzyme for glycolysis are found in cytoplasm, it is common in both aerobic & anaerobic
respiration.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

8) Assertion : R.Q. of fats is less than one.

Reason : Fats require more oxygen for oxidation.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) Assertion : The maximum concentration of alcohol in beverages that are naturally fermented is
about 13 percent
Reason : fermenting organism like yeast poison themselves to death when the concentration of
alcohol reaches about 13 percent.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) How many of the following are compounds of glycolysis ?

DHAP, OAA, Malate, PEP, α-Ketoglutarate, Fructose Bis-P, Succinyl CoA, 3-PGA, Citrate

(1) Two
(2) Six
(3) Four
(4) Five

11) Statement - I : In Aerobic respiration the complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise
removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving two molecules of CO2.
Statement - II : The metabolic fate of pyruvate depends on the cellular need.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.

12) Statement-I : The carbon skeleton produced during respiration is used as precursors for
biosynthesis of other molecules in cell.
Statement-II : Plants, unlike animals, have no specialised organs for gaseous exchange but they
have stomata and lenticels for this purpose.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

13) Statement-I :- Respiratory pathway is considered as an amphibolic pathway rather than a

catabolic one.
Statement-II :- The respiratory pathway is involved in both catabolism and anabolism.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

14) Which of the following comparative account is incorrect about respiratory process ?

Aerobic
Fermentation
respiration

(1) Partial oxidation Complete oxidation

Low amount of
High amount of
(2) energy is
energy is released
released

(3) No loss of heat Heat loss occurs

(4) No ETS ETS present

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Match the column :

C-C bonds 2
(A) (a) Breathing (i)
in glucose molecules

Stomata
(B) and (b) 3 Carbon (ii) 10 steps
lenticels

Present in
(C) Glycolysis (c) Cytoplasm (iii) plants
only

More
Pyruvic
(D) (d) Oxidation (iv) energy
acid
released
(1) A → d → iv, B → a → iii, C → c → ii, D → b → i
(2) A → c → i, B → a → iii, C → b → iv, D → d → ii
(3) A → a → iii, B → d → iv, C → c → i, D → b → ii
(4) A → b → ii, B → c → i, C → a → iii, D → d → iv

16) How many new cells are produced per hour by a single maize root apical meristem cell :-

(1) 16500
(2) 17500
(3) 17000
(4) 15500
17) The growth of pollen tube is measured in terms of :-

(1) Surface area

(2) Length
(3) Cell number
(4) Dry weight

18) Which one is correct graph for arithmetic growth ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Maturation phase of cell is characterized by -

(1) Modification of protoplasm

(2) Thickening of walls
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Increased vacuolation

20) Exponential growth can be expressed as :

ert
(1) W1 = W0
ert
(2) W0 = Wt
rt
(3) Wt = W0eD
(4) Lt = L0 + rt

21) Cells in a watermelon may increase in size by upto:

(1) 2,000 times

(2) 3,00,000 times
(3) 3,50,000 times
(4) 2,50,000 times

22) 2, 4–D as a weedicide doesn't affect :-

(1) Mature monocotyledons

(2) Mature dicotyledons
(3) Both
(4) Either of the above

23) Represented below are the two phenomena in plants. Among the following two phenomena (a)

and (b) which phenomena is widely applied in tea plantation?

(1) Phenomena (a)

(2) Phenomena (b)
(3) Phenomena (a) and (b) both
(4) Neither phenomena (a) nor (b)

24) Which of the following activities do not involve the role of GA ?

(1) Seed germination

(2) Malting
(3) Root growth
(4) Flowering in LDPs

25) Which of the following features are correctly matched ?

(a) Causes elongation of apple and improve its shape
(b) Promotes flowering in pineapple
(c) Increases length of sugarcane stem
(d) Promotes bolting in beet
(e) Causes lateral shoot growth

(1) a, c, d - Gibberelins
(2) b, d, e - Auxin
(3) a, c, e - Cytokinin
(4) a, b, c - Ethylene

26) Hormone that induces early seed production in conifers is :-

(1) CK
(2) IAA
(3) GA
(4) H2C = CH2

27) Which hormone is maximum in coconut milk ?

(1) Gibberellin
(2) Ethylene
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Auxin

28) Horizontal growth of seedling, swelling of axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedling are
associated with:-

(1) Photoperiodism
(2) Vernalisation
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinin

29) Thinning of cotton is caused by :

(1) Ethylene
(2) Cytokinins
(3) Gibberellin
(4) IAA

30) During Drought (stress) plants, develop hormone :-

(1) IAA
(2) NAA
(3) ABA
(4) IBA

31) Which of the following is not true for ABA ?

(1) Promote seed dormancy and inhibit opening of stomata

(2) induce morphogenesis
(3) stress hormone
(4) antagonist to GA3

32) Addition of what to auxins in nutrients medium cause proliferation of callus?

(1) DNA
(2) Yeast extract
(3) Coconut milk
(4) All

33) Which three different kinds of inhibitors were found in mid-1960s?

(1) Inhibitor-A, Abscission-II and dormin

(2) Inhibitor-B, Abscission-II and dormin
(3) Inhibitor-A, Abscission-III and dormin
(4) Inhibitor-B, Abscission-III and dormin

34) The two leaves with respective growth are depicted below :-

Consider A1 & B1 as final size after one day growth.

Which of the following statement not explains the above situation appropriately ?

(1) Absolute growth rate is same in A and B

(2) RGR (Relative growth rate ) of A is twice as that of B
(3) RGR (Relative growth rate ) of B is less than A
(4) RGR (Relative growth rate ) of B is 1/10 of A

35) Which of the following is conclusion of given diagram ?

(1) Tip of coleptile is the site of transmittable influence
(2) Tip is the photoperceptive structure for phototaxis
(3) Stump is the site of transmittable influence
(4) Stump is the photoperceptive structure for phototropism

36) A female is heterozygous for two autosomal gene M and N and homozygous for r gene then what
will be proportion of gamete having all dominant allele

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

37) When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid segregation of one pair of character is
independent of the other pair of characters" This examples :-

(1) Law of dominance

(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of independent assortment
(4) Postulate of paired factors

38) Both chromosomes as well as genes do not occurs in pairs in the :-

(1) Somatic cells

(2) Fertilised egg
(3) Megaspore mother cell
(4) Microspore

39) From a single ear of corn, a farmer planted 200 Kernels which produced 120 tall and 40 short
plants. The genotypes of these offsprings are most likely.

(1) TT, Tt & tt

(2) TT & tt
(3) TT & Tt
(4) Tt & tt
40) On which plant Mendel had carried out his experiment :-

(1) Pisum sativum

(2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Wild pea
(4) Maize

41) Recessive trait is seen due to

(1) Normal enzyme

(2) No enzyme
(3) Non functional enzyme
(4) Both (2) and (3)

42) Inheritable variations arise due to

(1) Sexual reproduction

(2) Mutation
(3) Somatic cell variations
(4) Both (1) and (2)

43) Which contributed to Mendel's success ?

I. Selection of pea plant.
II. Knowledge of history.
III. One character at one time.
IV. His statistical knowledge
Choose the correct option

(1) I, II, III and IV

(2) II and III
(3) I, III and IV
(4) IV, III and II

44) Mendel's principle of segregation means that gametes always receive :-

(1) One pair of alleles

(2) One quarter of the genes
(3) One of the paired alleles
(4) Any pair of alleles

45) Assertion : In a monohybrid cross F1 generation indicates recessive characters.

Reason: In monohybrid cross F1 generation dominance occur in homozygous state.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

46) Which of the following is correct for cardiac muscle ?

(1) Spindle shape and striated

(2) Multinucleated & Voluntary
(3) Striated and Involuntary
(4) Non-striated and Voluntary

47) Identify the correct option in given diagram ?

(1) A = Made up of actin and myosin filaments

(2) B = Made up of only myosin filaments
(3) C = Made up of one I band + two half A band
(4) D = Made up of only myosin filaments

48) Statement – 1 : Ball and socket joints are the most mobile joints.
Statement – 2 : Ball and socket joint is related to pectoral girdle.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Both Statements are false.
(3) Statement–1 is true and Statement–2 is false.
(4) Statement–2 is true and Statement-1 is false.

49) How many statements are correct?

(i) Each myosin (thick) filament is a polymerised protein.
(ii) Each actin (thin) filament is made of two "F" (filamentous) actin helically wound to each other.
(iii) Two filaments of another protein, Troponin run close to the "F" actins throughout its length.
(iv) Each meromyosin has two important parts a globular head with a short arm and a tail.

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) One

50) Which statement is incorrect about osteoporosis?

(1) It is age related disorder

(2) In this bone mass decreased
(3) Decreased level of estrogen is a common cause of it
(4) It is due to hyposecretion of PTH
51) Statement-I : About 40-50 percent of the body weight of human adult is contributed by
muscles.
Statement-II : Muscles is endodermal origin.

(1) Both statement I and II correct

(2) Both statement I and II incorrect
(3) Statement I correct and statement II incorrect
(4) Statement I incorrect and statement II correct

52) Read the following statement carefully :-

(A) Between tarsals ellipsoid joint present.
(B) Osteoporosis is due to deficiency of androgen hormone
(C) Between carpals gliding joint present.
(D) Humerus is longest bone of hindlimb.
How many statements are incorrect?

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, B, D
(4) A, B, C, D

53) Identify the correct statement :

(A) All locomotions are not movement but all movements are locmotion
(B) Cells of human body exhibit four main types of movements
(C) Macrophages & leucocytes in blood exhibit ciliary movement
(D) Locomotion requires a perfect co-ordinated activity of muscular, skeletal & neural systems

(1) Only A, B & C are correct

(2) Only B, C & D are correct
(3) Only C & D are correct
(4) Only D is correct

54) Read the following statements and choose answer accordingly :-

Statement-I :- Coxal bone is formed by fusion of ilium, ischium & pubis bone.
Statement-II :- Pubic symphysis is attached to pubis of coxal bone.

(1) Both statement-I & statement-II correct.

(2) Both statement-I & statement-II incorrect.
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

55) Which of the following statement is correct :-

(1) Gout is condition where urea accumulates at joints.

(2) Muscular dystropy is a progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
(3) Osteoporosis is due to decreased estrogen level in male.
(4) Fibrous joint allow limited or little movement.
56) Which of the following statement is correct about ribs :

(1) Ribs have two articulation surfaces on its ventral end and is hence called bicephalic
(2) Total number of ribs is 24 pair in Human
(3) Number of vertebro chondral ribs is 6
(4) Ribs are cylindrical and long bones

57) Select the incorrect match for the total number of respective bones-

(1) Carpal - 8 × 2
(2) Tarsal - 8 × 2
(3) Pelvic girdle - 1 × 2
(4) Pectoral girdle - 2 × 2

58) Identify the correct and wrong statements :-

(a) Sphenoid is a cranial bone
(b) Sternum is present on the dorsal side of the body
(c) Human skull is monocondylic
(d) Ribs are bicephalic
Correct Wrong
(1) b a, c, d
(2) b, c a, d
(3) a, d, c b
(4) a, d b, c

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

59) Read the following statements very carefully.

(A) Muscle fibres carry out aerobic oxidation.
(B) Muscle fibres have slow rate of contraction.
(C) Muscle fibres poor in sarcoplasmic reticulum and less mitochondria.
(D) Muscle fibres are red in colour.
How many of the following statements are correct for thigh muscle fibres in marathon runner ?

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

60) How many bones from given list are paired and not included in axial skeletal :
Femur, Radius, Tibia, Hyoid, Malleus, Frontal, Ethmoid, Patella, Sternum, Clavicle, Zygomatic,
Vomar, Palatine

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 3

61) Skeletal muscles are controlled by :-

(1) Sympathetic Nervous system

(2) Parasympathetic Nervous system
(3) Autonomic Nervous system
(4) Somatic Neural system

62) Association areas is-

(1) Sensory in function

(2) Motor in function
(3) Neither clearly sensory nor motor in function
(4) Neurosecretory in function

63) Midbrain receives and integrates signals from ____________ inputs.

(1) Visual
(2) Auditory
(3) Tactile
(4) All

64) Visceral nervous system is a part of ___________ and comprised of ____________.

(1) PNS, ganglia only

(2) ANS, nerves only
(3) PNS, nerves & plexuses
(4) ANS, Lymphatic vessels only

65) Which of the following statements is incorrect for neuron :-

(1) A neuron is a macroscopic structure composed of cell body, dendrites and axon.
(2) Nissil's granule present in cell body and dendrites
(3) Dendrites transmit impulse towards cyton.
(4) Distal end of axon is branched.

66) Which is not true in the following?

(1) Schwann cell is found in both myelinated and non myelinated nerve fibres of CNS
(2) Multipolar neuron is found in cerebral cortex
(3) Bipolar neuron is found in retina
(4) Unmyelinated nerve fibers are commonly found in somatic and autonomic nervous system.

67) Assertion : Nerve impulse is a one way conduction (unidirectional).

Reason : Nerve impulse is transmitted from dendrites to axon terminals.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

68) Which statements is false ?

(1) Myelinated nerve fibres are found in spinal and cranial nerves.
(2) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by a schwann cell and is commonly found in CNS.
(3) Myelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by a schwann cell and is commonly found in PNS.
(4) Unipolar neurons are usually found in embryonic stage.

69)

Identify the correct match from column I, II and III:-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) Polarisation –70 mV Na+ VGC open

(2) Repolarisation –70 mV K+ ion is responsible

(3) Hyper polarisation +85 mV Na+ ion is responsible

(4) Depolarisation +35 mV Na+-K+ pump open

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

70) Following conditions are correct about nerve transmission except :-

(1) Depolarisation - Na+ ions influx

(2) Repolarisation - K+ ions efflux
(3) Depolarisation - Na+–K+ pump closed
(4) Hyperpolarisation - K+ ions influx

71) Assertion : The PNS comprises of all the nerves of the body associated with CNS.
Reason : The PNS is divided into two division called somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous
system.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
72) and are involved in the regulation of hunger & thirst and cardio-vascular
reflexes what is A and B respectively?

(A) (B)

(1) Cerebral cortex Posterior pituitory

(2) Corpora quadrigemina Pons

(3) Hypothalamus Limbic system

(4) Hypothalamus Medulla oblongata

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) If the corpus callosum is removed in mammalian brain then what will be affected :-

(1) Coordination of Cerebellar hemispheres

(2) Involuntary activity of brain
(3) Coordination of Cerebral hemispheres
(4) Behaviour and emotional disturbances

74) Association areas are responsible for complex functions. Which of the following is not the
function of association areas :-

(1) Intersensory association

(2) Thermoregulation
(3) Memory
(4) Communication

75) Along with the hypothalamus, limbic system is involved in :

a. Motivation
b. Expression of emotional reactions (excitement, pleasure, rage and fear)
c. Sexual behaviour
d. Cardiovascular reflexes

(1) a, b and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) b, c and d
(4) All

76) Match the following hormones with their functions:

List -I List -II

1 Insulin A Regulates metabolism and growth

 2 Thyroxine B Regulates blood sugar levels

3 Adrenaline C Stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth

4 Oxytocin D Prepares the body for 'fight or flight' response

(1) 1 → A, 2 → B, 3 → C, 4 → D
(2) 1 → B, 2 → A, 3 → D, 4 → C
(3) 1 → C, 2 → B, 3 → A, 4 → D
(4) 1 → D, 2 → C, 3 → A, 4 → B

77)
Name of the hormone which are secreted by x and y respectively?

(1) Adrenaline, noradrenaline

(2) Mineralocorticoid, glucocorticoid
(3) Corticoid, Adrenaline
(4) Catecholamines, corticoids

78) Which hormones are responsible for maintenance of water and electrolyte in body?

(1) ACTH, Vasopresin, Thyrocalcitonin

(2) Aldosterone, Vasopresin, Thyroxine
(3) Oxytocin, Insulin, ADH
(4) ADH, Thyroxine, Somatotropin

79) Graves' disease is caused due to:

(1) Hyposecretion of TCT

(2) Hypersecretion of Thyroxin
(3) Hypersecretion of cortisol
(4) Hyposecretion of Adrenaline

80) Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) All hormones of adrenal cortex effect carbohydrate metabolism.

All hormones synthesized by hypothalamus are releasing and inhibitory factors for pitutary
(2)
gland.
(3) Cortisol is diabetogenic hormone and increases blood glucose level by gluconeogenesis.
(4) Cortisol is a flight or fight hormone
81) Read the following statement :
Choose the correct option :
(A) Glucagon is secreted by β-cell
(B) Atrial wall of heart produce eythropoietin
(C) GIP inhibits gastric secretion and motility
(D) CCK acts on both pancreas and gall bladder

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) C & D
(4) A & D

82) Consider the two statements·

Assertion (A) : Adrenal medullary hormones can increase the cardiac output.
Reason (R) : Adrenal medullary hormones are steroids with prominent effects on homeostasis in
human body.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
(2) (A) is True but (R) is False.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(4) (A) is False but (R) is True.

83) Among the following functions, which functions are performed by Aldosterone hormone?
(a) Reabsorption of Na+ & water
(b) Resorption of bones
(c) Excretion of K+ & phosphate
(d) Maintainance of blood press.

(1) a & d
(2) a, b & d
(3) a, c & d
(4) c & d

84) Match the following disease with their respective symptoms

Disease Symptoms

i. Cretinism a. Protrusion of eyeballs

ii. Goiter b. Fatigue muscles

iii. Grave’s disease c. Stunted growth

iv. Addision's disease d. Enlargement of thyroid

(1) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(2) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(3) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
85) Assertion: PTH increases the Ca2+ level in blood
Reason: PTH stimulates the process of bone resorption.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

86) According to the correct scientific definition, hormones are-

(1) Nutrient chemicals produced in large amounts.

(2) Non nutrient chemicals produced in trace amounts.
(3) Produced by endocrine glands and released into blood.
(4) Produce by endocrine glands are transported to a distantly located target organ.

87) Assertion: CCK stimulates secretion of bile juice.

Reason: CCK act on liver

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

88) Assertion :- Secretin acts on the exocrine pancreas and stimulates secretion of water and
bicarbonate ions.
Reason :- Secretin is secreted by liver cells.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

89) Group of hormones which interact with intracellular receptors include hormones that
stimulate/regulate the :-

(1) Blood glucose levels

(2) Calcium levels in ECF
(3) Basal metabolic rate
(4) Pigmentation, defense & metabolism

90) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : The pineal gland is located on the dorsal side of midbrain.
Statement-II : Melatonin plays an important role in regulation of diurnal rhythm.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 1 4 1 1 2 1 3 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 2 3 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 4 4 4 4 4 4 2 2 3 1 4 4 2 1 4 2 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 2 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 4 2 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 3 4 1 4 4 2 4 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 2 4 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 1 4 3 3 3 2 3 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 2 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 2 1 2 3 1 1 1 3 4 3 3 3 1 2 2 1 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 2 3 1 3 3 3 1 3 2 4 2 2 1 4 3 4 1 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 3 3 3 3 4 1 3 4 3 3 4 1 2 3 2 4 4 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 4 3 1 1 3 2 2 4 2 4 3 2 1 2 4 2 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 3 1 1 2 3 2 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) diagonal length =

∴ flux =

2) use formula

E=

3)

At point (x, 0)

(i) when q1 and q2 both are +ve

at x →0 ⇒ E →
at x →d ⇒ E → –
Which follows the figure. So q1 and q2 are +ve
(ii) At the point where E = 0 ⇒ x < (d – x) from figure.

4) For force on q to be zero, charges q and Q must be of opposite of nature. Net attraction
force on q due to charges Q = Repulsion force on q due to q
so FA = FR

⇒ = ⇒ |q| = 2Q
Hence q = –2Q

Q=

5)
Total force on q at B is

Q = –q/4

6) If B is pushed down, upwards electrostatic repulsion on it increases and hence it return

back & vice versa

7) Electric field due to each sheet is uniform and equal to

Now net electric field between plates

8) Electric field due to 1 wire E =

9) According to Gauss law

10)
If q is displaced by x from equilibrium position then net force on it

If
⇒ , so, the particle will undergo S.H.M. and hence

11) ϕ =
= 3.00yj × (1.4)2
= 3 × 1.4 × (1.4)2
= 8.23 Nm2 / C

12) We can consider it to be made of small concentric spheres of charge density α x. Consider
an elementary shell of radius x and thickness dx

13)
∴

Now,

14)
(i) Displacement is not small so no SHM excution
(ii) e–s move from lower to higher potential.

15)
T sinθ = F0
T cosθ = mg

tanθ =
F0 = mg tanθ .....(i)
In medium

= mg tanθ .......(ii)
from (i) & (ii)

K=

16)

17)
From (x = 0 to x = 10)

18) Solution:-
Exp:- To find flux . through a surface
Concept :- electric flux

Formula:- ϕ (flux enclosed) =

Cal:- If =0
than ϕ = 0
Answer-3
Level:- Easy

19)

Initial charges q1 = (4πR2)σ, q2 = 4π(2R)2σ

Q = q1 + q2 = (20πR2)σ
After redistribution

and

20)

21)

When sepration is minimum v1 = v2 = u ...(1)

from Linear momentum conservation
mv = mu + mu
u = v/2 ...(2)
from mechanical energy conservation

...(3)

⇒r=
22)

23)

= Ex(xB – xA) + Ey(yB – yA)

24)

Theoritical

25)

Question Asking About:

We are given the angular velocity vector and the position vector
. We need to find the linear velocity v.
Concept:
Linear velocity v is related to the angular velocity ω and the position vector r by the cross
product:
Formula:
Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Given:

We will compute the cross product using the determinant method:

This expands to:

Thus, the correct linear velocity vector is:

Conclusion:
Hence, option () is correct.
26)

tan θ =

tan θ =
∴ θ = 60°

27)

Question Asking About:

The velocity ratio at points A, B and C in a vertical circle, given critical speed at C.

Key Concept:

• Energy Conservation =
• Critical Speed at C:

Formula & Calculation:

VA = ?, VB = ?, VC = ?
• At C:
• At B:

• At A:

• Velocity Ratio:

Final Answer:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

28) In Balancing condition

Fcentritugal ≤ Friction force
mrω2 ≤ µmg
29)
By conservation of energy

mv2 = mg(r – h) .....(1)

as block leaves contact at B,
so normal reaction at B = 0

∴ = mg cos θ ⇒ = mg ×
2
⇒ mv = mgh substitute this in eqn (1) we get

= mg(r – h)

or r= h ⇒ h= r

30)

Question Explanation :

A car moves at a constant speed on a curved road. We need to compare the normal forces
exerted by the road at points A and B, where the road has different curvatures.

Concept :

Circular Motion & Normal Force: The normal force and weight provide the required
centripetal force for the curved motion. The normal force depends on the curvature radius at
different points.

Formula :

• Centripetal Force: FC =
• Newton's Second Law: ΣF = ma
• Normal force at any point:
Both are valley points so

• At A: NA = mg +

• At B: NB = mg +

Since rA < rB, we get

 >
Thus, NA > NB

31) Explanation:
Assertion:
In the inertial frame, centrifugal force can't appear.
• This is correct, in an inertial frame centifugal force doesn't exist because it is a fictitious
force that only appears in a rotating (non-inertial) reference frame.
Reason:
In uniform circular motion, centripetal force will counterbalance the centrifugal
force.
• The reason is incorrect in this context because it assumes that centrifugal force is always
present. However, the statement doesn't specify the frame of reference from which the motion
is being observed. If we are observing from an inertial frame, centrifugal force doesn't force
does not exist. It is a only in a rotating (non-inertial) frame that centrifugal force appears to
balance the centripetal force.

Calculation:
• The assertion is true but the reason is false because it assumes the presence of centrifugal
force without clarifying the reference frame from which the motion is observed. In an inertial
frame centrifugal force does not appear.

Correct option: (3)

32) Explanation
The question involves determining the height h by which the outer edge of a curved road
should be raised (banking of road) to allow a car to safely negotiate the curve at a speed v.
This is a classical mechanics problem that involves centripetal force and the concept of
banking of roads.
Concept:
When a vehicle moves along a curved road, a centripetal force is required to keep it on the
circular path. On a banked road, this centripetal force is provided by the horizontal component
of the normal reaction N from the road and, if friction is negligible, the force depends on the
inclination angle θ of the road. The relation between the forces and the geometry of the
situation allows us to calculate the required banking height h.

• Centripetal Force:
• Forces Acting on the Car:

A. Normal Reaction (N) from the road.

B. Weight (mg).

• Geometry: The banking height h and road width b are related to the angle of banking θ through
Formula Derivation:
The vehicle is in equilibrium along the banked road such that:

Where:

A. v = velocity of the car,

B. R = radius of the curve,
C. g = acceleration due to gravity.

From the geometry of the road:

Equating the two expressions for tan θ:

Rearranging to solve for h:

Final Calculation:
The height h depends on the values of v, b, R, and g. Substituting the known values (if provided) will
give the numerical result.
Final Answer:
The height by which the outer edge of the road should be raised is:

This ensures the car can safely negotiate the curve at the given speed v without reliance on friction.

33) Velocity at the bottom =

For completing the loop

∴ R=

34)

% increase = 100%

35)

Distance d is constant, i.e.,

or
or m/s
Magnitude of angular velocity of B with respect to A is :

36)

37)
5(4 – x) – 20 x = 0
25 x = 20
x = 0.8 m
So, distance from starting end = 4 – 0.8 = 3.2 m
acc. to question, distance from shorce
= 10 – 3.2 ⇒ 6.8 m

38)

vsin45° = V'sinθ .......... (1)

evcos45° = V'cosθ ............(2)
By (1) & (2)

39)
If h is the common height when they are connected, by conservation of mass

[as A1 = A2 = A given]

As (h1/2) and (h2/2) are heights of initial centre of gravity of liquid in two vessels., the initial
potential energy of the system

...(i)
When vessels are connected the height of centre of gravity of liquid in each vessel will be
h/2,

i.e. ([as h = (h1 + h2)/2]

Final potential energy of the system

…(ii)

Work done by gravity

40)
5M (9R–x1) = M × x1
45R – 5x1 = x1
45R = 6x1
7.5R = x1

41)

v1 =

K.E = + +

42) Explain Question: Ask to find Velocity of bullet.

Concept: This question is based on Conservation of momentum and energy stored in spring.
Solution: mv = MV ; MV2 = kd2

∴V= ∴v= .
 Final Answer:

43) 50 (10 – x) = 450 x

x=1m

44)

Since both bodies are identical and collision is elastic. Therefore velocities will be
interchanged after collision.

vA = –0.3 m/s and vB = 0.5 m/s

45)

so, V1 : V2 = 1 : 9

CHEMISTRY

46)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

47)

n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 1, s = +1/2 → 3d

48)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

49)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

50)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer
 51) n2

52)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

53)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

54)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

55)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

56)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

57)

A: Question Explanation
We are to evaluate the validity of the assertion and the reason, and determine if the reason explains
the assertion.

B: Concept
Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle

C: Reasoning

● Assertion is true: Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle states that it is impossible to

know both the exact position and exact momentum of an electron simultaneously.

● Reason is false: In quantum mechanics, the path of an electron is not clearly

defined—we only describe probability regions (orbitals), not definite paths.

D: Final Answer
Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Correct Option: 3
58)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

59)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

60)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

61)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

62)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

63)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

64)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

65)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

66)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

67)
Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

68)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

69)

A is

Cis product

70)

71)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

72)

73)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

74)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

75) Product is propane

76)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
77)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

78)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

79)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

80)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

81) In decarboxylation reaction of sodium salt of carboxylic acid the hydrocarbon formed will
have one carbon atom less than that in the alkyl group of the carboxylic acid.

82)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

83)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

84)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

85)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

86) NCERT-XI Pg#371

 87)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

88)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

89)

90)

Wurtz Reaction

BIOLOGY

91)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

92)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

93)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

94)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

95)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
96)

Class 11, Ncert Page 159.

97) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 299

98) NCERT XI Pg. # 236

99) NCERT - Pg. # 230

100)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

101) NCERT Pg. No. # 158

102) NCERT XI Page No. # 227

103)

NCERT-XI, Page No. 235

104)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

105) NCERT : 226 ,227, 228

106) NCERT XI, Pg. # 241

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 241

108)

Ncert Page 170.

109)

Ncert Page 172.

110)

NCERT Pg. # 170

111)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

112)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

113) NCERT XI English page # 248 (Last para) 249 (Fig. 15.11)

114) Explaining Question:

Identify which of the given activities does not involve the role of GA.
Concept: This question is based on plant growth regulators.
Solution: G.A do not involves in root growth.
Auxins are the primary plant hormones responsible for promoting root growth.

115)

Explain Question : Which of the following features are correctly matched with plant
hormones?
Concept : This question is based on plant growth regulators (PGRs) are hormones controlling
plant growth and development.
Explanation :
(a) Elongation of apple and shape improvement → Gibberellin
(b) Flowering in pineapple → Ethylene (not GA)
(c) Increase in sugarcane stem length → Gibberellin
(d) Bolting in beet → Gibberellin
(e) Lateral shoot growth → Cytokinin (not GA)
Correctly matched group with Gibberellin is a, c, d
Final answer : 1

116) Explain Question : The question asks to identify the plant hormone that is responsible
for inducing early seed production, specifically in conifers.
Concept :
This question is based on Gibberellins.

Explanation : "Gibberellins also help in promoting seed germination, and in conifers, they are
used to hasten the maturity period and induce early seed production."
Final answer : 3

117)
Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

118) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 230

119)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

120)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

121)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

122)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

123)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

124) Explain Question :

Two leaves grow from 5→10 cm² (A) and 50→55 cm² (B). Choose which statement does not fit
the growth data.
Concept : This question is based on Growth rate.

Explanation :
Absolute growth: A = 10−5 = 5 cm², B = 55−50 = 5 cm² → absolute growth same (so option 1
true).

RGR: A = 5/5 = 1.0 (100%); B = 5/50 = 0.1 (10%).

Thus RGR(A) is 10 times RGR(B), so statements saying RGR(A) = 2×RGR(B) is incorrect, while
RGR(B) < A and RGR(B) = 1/10 of A are correct.

Final answer : 2

125) NCERT Pg. # 247

126)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

127)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

128)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

129)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

130)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

131)

Explanation: A recessive trait is typically observed when there is either no enzyme or a non-
functional enzyme due to the presence of a recessive allele. This results in the inability to
express the dominant trait.

The correct answer is 4: Both (2) and (3)

132)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

133)

Knowledge of history was not a significant factor in Mendel's success in his experiments.

134)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer
135)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

136)

NCERT XI Pg # 105

137) NCERT Pg. # 305, para = 20.2

138)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

139) Question Explanation:

To determine how many of the given statements regarding the structure of muscle filaments
(myosin and actin are correct).

Solution Explanation:
(i) Each myosin (thick) filament is a polymerised protein.
This is correct. Myosin is a large protein, and the thick filaments is formed by the
po9lymerization of many myosin molecules.
(ii) Each actin (thin) filament is made of two "F" (filamentous) actin helically wound to each
order.
This correct. Thin filaments are indeed composed of two intertwined strands of F-action.
(iii) Each meromyosin has two important parts a globular head with a short arm and a tail.

This correct Meromyosin, a component of myosin has a globular head and a tail.

Therefore, statements (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct, making a total of three correct statements.
The correct answer is option 3. Three.

140)

Question Explanation:
To identify the incorrect statement regarding osteoporosis.
Solution/Explanation:

A. Osteoporosis is more prevalent among older adults, particularly in women after

menopause. Bone mass decreases during this time.

B. Osteoporosis results in lower bone density, which makes bones more fragile and
susceptible to fractures. A common cause of this condition is a decrease in estrogen
levels.
 C. Women who have gone through menopause often see a drop in estrogen, which plays a
significant role in the onset of osteoporosis.

D. The statement about hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) is incorrect. PTH

actually works to increase blood calcium levels by breaking down bone. It's the excess
production of PTH that can lead to osteoporosis, not a deficiency.

The correct answer is: (4) It is due to hyposecretion of PTH (Incorrect statement)

141) NCERT XI Page No. # 303

142)

Ncert page 227.

143) NCERT Pg. # 302. 303

144)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answerAns. (1)
1 is the correct answer

145)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

146) NCERT, Pg # 310

147) Ans. (2)

2 is the correct answer

148)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

149)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

150)
NCERT XI, Pg. # 311

151) Explain Question : Skeletal muscles are controlled by

Concept : This question is based on Skeletal muscles
Explanation : The somatic neural system sends motor impulses from the CNS to skeletal
muscles for voluntary movements.
Final answer : 4 – Somatic Neural system

152)

Question Explanation: Integration of sensory & motor info

Concept: Brain – Cerebral cortex

Solution:
Association areas are responsible for integration and interpretation of information; they are
neither purely sensory nor motor.

Final answer: Option (3)

153)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

154)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

155) Module

156)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

157)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

158)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
159)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

160)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

161) NCERT Pg. # 316

162)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

163)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

164) NCERT Pg. # 321 para I

165)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

166) 1 → B, 2 → A, 3 → D, 4 → C
NCERT Pg No 241,242,245

167)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

168)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

169) Hyperthyroidism
NCERT Pg No 243
170)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

171) NCERT, Pg # 245, 246

172)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

173) NCERT, Pg # 334,336,337

174)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

175)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

176) NCERT, Pg. # 239

177)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

178)

NCERT-XI, Page No. 340

Secretin is secreted by endocrine part, not by exocrine part

179)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

180)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer