16-11-2025

1015CMD303001250029 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle of mass 1 kg is suspended from a ceiling through a string of length . The

particle moves in a horizontal circle. Find its time period.

(1) 2π sec
(2) π sec
(3) π/2 sec
(4) 1 sec

2) A small body of mass M slides without friction from the top of a hemisphere of radius r. At what

height from center will the body be detached of the hemisphere ?

(1) h = r/2
(2) h = r/3
(3) h = 2r/3
(4) h = r/4

3) The kinetic energy k of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends on the distance
covered s as k = as2 where a is a positive constant. The total force acting on the particle is :

(1)
2a

(2)
2as

(3)

(4)

4) A particle is performing vertical circular motion with the help of a string of length 'ℓ'. What
should be the minimum speed at lowest position so that it can complete vertical circular motion :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None

5)

A roller coaster is moving as shown in figure. It just completes the verticle circular motion on a path
of radius 2m. What should be the velocity at the highest point.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light spring of force constant k and unstretched
length ℓ. The system is rotated about the other end of spring with an angular velocity ω in gravity
free space. The increase in length of the spring is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

7) A car is moving on circular path of radius 100 m such that its speed is increasing at the rate of 5
m/s2. At t = 0 it starts from rest. What is the radial acceleration of car at the instant it makes one
complete round trip ?

(1) 20π ms–2

(2) 10π ms–2
(3) 5π ms–2
(4) None of these

8) A car speeds up in a circular [Link] of the following figures illustrates the acceleration of the
car ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The dumbell is placed on a frictionless horizontal table. Sphere A is attached to a frictionless pivot
so that B can be made to rotate about A with constant angular velocity. If B makes one revolution in

period P, the tension in the rod is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A body tied to a string of length L is revolved in a vertical circle with minimum velocity, when
the body reaches the upper most point the string breaks and the body moves under the influence of
the gravitational field of earth along a parabolic path. The horizontal range AC of the body will be :–

(1) x = L
(2) x = 2L
(3) x =
x=
(4)
11) A bucket tied at the end of a 1.6 m long string is whirled in a vertical circle with constant speed.
What should be the minimum speed so that the water from the bucket does not spill, when the
bucket is at the highest position (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 6.25 m/s
(3) 16 m/s
(4) None of the above

12) The position vector of a particle as a function of time is given by :

Where R is in meters, t is in seconds and and denote unit vectors along x- and y- directions,
respectively. Which one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of particle?

(1) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter

Acceleration vectors is along
(2)

(3)
Magnitude of acceleration vector is where v is the velocity of particle.
(4) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 meter/second.

13) A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity v. It reaches up
to a maximum height of 3v2/4g with respect to the initial position. The object is :-

(1) Ring
(2) Solid sphere
(3) Hollow sphere
(4) Disc

14) A ring of mass m is thrown in horizontal direction on a rough horizontal surface with a speed v0 .

The speed of the ring, when it start pure rolling, is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
15) A hoop of radius 2 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so that its centre of mass has
a speed of 20 cm s–1. How much work has to be done to stop it ?

(1) 2 J
(2) 4 J
(3) 6 J
(4) 8 J

16) A body is rolling without slipping on a horizontal plane. If the rotational energy of the body is
40% of the total kinetic energy, then the body might be :-

(1) Cylinder
(2) Hollow sphere
(3) Solid cylinder
(4) Ring

17) A hollow sphere rolls without slipping on plane surface. The ratio of kinetic energy of rotation to
the total kinetic energy is :-

(1) 1/3
(2) 2/5
(3) 1/4
(4) 3/4

18) A disc is rolling (without slipping) on a horizontal surface. C is its centre and Q and P are two
points equidistant from C. Let vP, vQ and vC be the magnitude of velocities of points P, Q and C, then

:-

(1) vQ > vC > vP

vQ = vP ; vC =
(2)

(3) vQ < vC < vP

(4) vQ < vC > vP

19) The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is nine times that of steel. In the composite
cylindrical bar shown in the figure what will be the temperature at the junction of copper and steel ?

(1) 75°C
(2) 67°C
(3) 33°C
(4) 25°C

20) If the temperature of the sun were to increase from T to 2T and its radius from R to 2R. The ratio
of power, radiated by it would become :-

(1) 64 times
(2) 16 times
(3) 32 times
(4) 4 times

21)

The thermal radiation from a hot body travels with a velocity of :-

(1) 330 m s–1

(2) 2 × 108 m s–1
(3) 1200 m s–1
(4) 3 × 108 m s–1

22) Two spheres P and Q of same colour having radii 16 cm and 4 cm are maintained at
temperatures 177°C and 627°C respectively. The ratio of energy radiated by P and Q is –

(1) 0.054
(2) 0.0034
(3) 1
(4) 2

23) The ratio of spectral emissive power & spectral absorptive power is equal to :

(1) Spectral emissive power of ideal black body

(2) Spectral absorptive power of ideal black body
(3) Both
(4) None

24) Unit of emissive power (e) is :-

(1) J

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The temperature of a body is increased by 50%. The amount of radiation emitted by it would be
increased nearly :-
(1) 50%
(2) 225%
(3) 250%
(4) 400%

26) Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross section have been joined as
shown in the figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0°C and 90°C

respectively. The temperature of the junction of three rods will be :-

(1) 45°C
(2) 60°C
(3) 30°C
(4) 20°C

27) Two identical rods with different thermal conductivities K1 and K2 and different temperature are
first placed along length and then along area, then the ratio of effective thermal conductivity in both
cases is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

28) A metal rod of length 2m has cross sectional areas 2A and A as shown in figure. The ends are
maintained at temperature 100°C and 70°C. The temperature at middle point C is :-

(1) 80°C
(2) 85°C
(3) 90°C
(4) 95°C

29) A sphere, cube and a thin plate, all of same material and mass, are initially heated to same high
temperature. Then

(1) Plate will cool fastest and cube the slowest.

(2) Sphere will cool fastest and cube the slowest.
(3) Plate will cool fastest and sphere the slowest.
(4) cube will cool fastest and plate the slowest.

30) Two spheres made of same material are heated to same temperature and placed in same
surrounding. If there radii are 2r and 3r respectively then ratio of rate of fall of temperature for two
spheres will be :

(1) 4 : 9
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 9 : 4

31) At what height above the surface of earth, the value of "g" decreases by 2%? [radius of the earth
is 6400 km]

(1) 32 km
(2) 64 km
(3) 128 km
(4) 1600 km

32) The height, at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes (where, g = acceleration due to
gravity on the surface of the Earth), in terms of R, the radius of the Earth, is

(1) 2R

(2)

(3)

(4) R

33) At what height the gravity is reduced by 64% of earth's surface?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The depth below surface of earth, at which acceleration due to gravity reduces by 75%, is :-

(1) R

(2)
(3)

(4)

35) If the diameter of the earth becomes half its present value but its mass remains unchanged, then
the weight of an object on the surface of earth will be:

(1) Two times

(2) Four times
(3) One-fourth
(4) Eight times

36) With what angular velocity the earth should spin in order that a body lying at 45° latitude may
become weight less.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A body of mass m rises to a height from the Earth's surface where R is Earth's radius. If
g is acceleration due to gravity at the Earth's surface, the increase in potential energy will be:-

(1) mgh

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The depth d, at which the value of acceleration due to gravity become times of the value at the
surface, is (R = Radius of earth) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

39) What should be the angular velocity of earth about own axis so that a person's weight at equator

will be of his weight at poles ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The
magnitude of the gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre, will be-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Which of the following statements are true about acceleration due to gravity ? (r is distance from
centre and g is acceleration due to gravity)
(a) 'g' decreases in moving away from the centre if r > R
(b) 'g' decreases in moving away from the centre if r < R
(c) 'g' is zero at the centre of earth
(d) 'g' decreases if earth stops rotating about its axis

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) (a), (b) & (c)
(3) (a) & (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)

42) Two particles of combined mass M, placed in space with certain separation, are released.
Interaction between the particles is only of gravitational in nature and there is no external force
present. Acceleration of one particle with respect to the other when separation between them is R,
has a magnitude :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) not possible to calculate due to lack of information

43) A stone, dropped from height 'h', reaches to Earth surface in 1 sec. If the same stone taken to
Moon and dropped freely from same height then it will reach the surface of the Moon in the time
(The 'g' of Moon is 1/6 times of Earth):–

(1) second
(2) 9 second
(3) second
(4) 6 second

44) The figure represents two concentric shells of radii R1 and R2 and masses M1 and M2
respectively. The gravitational field intensity at the point A at distance a (R1 < a < R2) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

45) The radii of two planets are respectively R1 and R2 and their densities are respectively ρ1 and ρ2.
The ratio of the acceleration due to gravity at their surface is :

(1)

(2) g1 : g2 = R1R2 : ρ1ρ2

(3) g1 : g2 = R1ρ2 : R2ρ1
(4) g1 : g2 = R1ρ1 : R2ρ2

CHEMISTRY

1) Under isothermal conditions, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant
external pressure of 2 bar. The work done is [Given that 1 L bar = 100 J]

(1) 30 J
(2) –30 J
(3) 5 kJ
(4) 25 J

2) The unit of entropy is :

(1) JK–1
(2) KJ–1
(3) KJ
(4) J–1 K–1

3) Which one of the following is dependent only on initial and final state of the system ?

(1) Heat supplied at constant pressure

(2) Heat supplied at constant volume
(3) Enthalpy
(4) All of the above

4) Assertion (A) : Sum of two path functions is always path function.

Reason (R) : Internal energy is a state function.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

5) Heat required to raise the temperature of 1 mol of a substance by 1°C is called :-

(1) Specific heat

(2) Molar heat capacity
(3) Enthalpy
(4) Internal energy

6) Which of the following statement is incorrect.

(1) Heat released by system is equal to the work done on system in isothermal process.
(2) In Isochoric process, heat absorbed by system is equal to increase in internal energy of system.
(3) On adiabatic expansion of gas, its internal energy decreases.
(4) In Isobaric process heat absorbed by system is equal to decrease in enthalpy of system.

7) Heat of reaction for, CO(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) at constant V is –67.71 kCal at 17°C. The heat of
reaction at constant P at 17°C is :-

(1) –68.0 kCal

(2) + 68.0 kCal
(3) – 67.42 kCal
(4) None

8) At constant temperature for the reaction

C3H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 3CO2 (g) + 4H2O (ℓ),
ΔE – ΔH is :-

(1) +RT
(2) –3RT
(3) +3RT
(4) –RT

9) For reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas at 300 K, from a volume of 10 L to
20 L, ΔH is :

(1) 1.73 kJ
(2) –1.73 kJ
(3) 3.46 kJ
(4) zero

10) If 1000 J heat is absorbed by 180 g of water such that temperature increases from 20°C to 80°C.
Then molar heat capacity is :-

(1) 1.2 J/mol–K

(2) 2 J/mol–K
(3) 1.6 J/mol–K
(4) 2.4 J/mol–K

11) 5 moles of oxygen gas are heated at constant volume from 10°C to 20°C. What will be the
change in internal energy of gas ?
[Given : Cp = 7cal mol–1K–1]

(1) 250 cal

(2) 350 cal
(3) 250 J
(4) 350 J

12) The molar heat capacity of water at constant pressure, Cp is 75 J K–1 mol–1. When 10 kJ of heat is
supplied at constant pressure to 1 kg water which is free to expand, the increase in temperature of
water is :-

(1) 2.4 K
(2) 4.8 K
(3) 3.2 K
(4) 10 K

13) 7 g of N2(g) at 27°C is expanded slowly and isothermally from initial pressure of 0.5 MPa to a
final pressure 0.1 MPa. Determine approx work done [ℓn 5 = 1.6]
(1) –996 J
(2) +125 J
(3) –95 J
(4) +200 J

14) One mole of an ideal gas is allowed to expand reversibly and adibatically from a temperature of
. If the work done during the process is , then final temperature of the gas is (CV = 20 J/K
mol)

(1) 100 K
(2) 150 K
(3) 195 K
(4) 255 K

15) The work done by the gas in reversible adiabatic expansion process is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

16)

What are the signs of the entropy change (+ or –) in the following :-

I : A liquid crystallises into a solid
II : Temperature of a crystalline solid is raised from 0 K to 115 K
III : 2NaHCO3(s)⟶Na2CO3(s)+CO2(g)+H2O(g)
IV : H2(g) ⟶ 2H(g)

I II III IV
(1) – + + +
(2) – – – +
(3) – + – +
(4) + – – –
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Statement I :- Heat exchanged in a chemical reaction at constant pressure is called enthalpy
change.
Statement II :- Degree of disorderness of the system is called entropy.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false

18) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

A p Non-aromatic

B q aromatic

C r antiaromatic

(1) A-p, B-r, C-q, D-p

(2) A-q, B-r, C-r, D-p
(3) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-q
(4) A-q, B-r, C-p, D-q

19) Which resonating structure is least stable amongst the given structure :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) In which of the following lone-pair is involved in resonance :-

(I) (II)
(III) (IV)

(1) I, III
(2) II, IV
(3) III, IV
(4) I, II

21)

Group attached to Benzene ring Electronic effect exhibited

(I) –O– (A) +I, hyperconjugation

(II) –CN (B) –I, +M

(III) –OCH3 (C) –I, –M

(IV) –CH3 (D) +I, +M

Correct match is
I II III IV

(1) C D B A

(2) D C B A

(3) C A D B

(4) D B C A
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22)

Identify the incorrect statement.

(1) Inductive effect involves partial displacement of σ bonded e–

The difference in energy between resonance hybrid & most stable resonating structure is called
(2)
resonance energy.
(3) Resonance hybrid explains all the properties of molecule / ion.
(4) Energy of resonance hybrid is higher than resonating structure.

23) Which of the following alkenes is the most stable?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24)
Which of the following orders is correct for the energy required for homolytic cleavage of indicated
C – H bond?

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) III > I > II

25)

Identify correct order of inductive effect.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) –C≡CH > –OR > –CH = CH2 (–I)

26)

Which of the following is not pair of resonating structure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)
In which of the following hyperconjugation is not observed

(1) CH3–CH=CH2

(2)

(3)

(4)

28)

Identify incorrect order of basic strength.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29)

Identify correct order among the following :-

Ph–COOH > CH3–COOH > H–COOH

(1)
(Order of acidic strength)

(2)
(Order of basic strength)

(3)

(Stability of carbocation)

(4)
(Stability of carbanion)

30) Consider the following carbanions :

Correct decreasing order of stability is :

(1) II > III > IV > I

(2) III > IV > I > II
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) I > II > III > IV

31)

Identify the correct order among the following.

(1)

Heat of hydrogenation

(2)
Heat of combustion

(3)

Stability of carbocation

(4)

Order of acidic strength for given H-atom

32) Most stable carbocation is-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

33)

Which free radical is most stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Maximum number of H–bonding is shown by

(1) H2O
(2) H2Se
(3) H2S
(4) HF

35) Four diatomic species are listed below in different sequences. Which of these represents the
correct order of their increasing bond order ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) PBr3 > PCl3 < PF3 (Bond angle)

(2) O3 < O2 (Bond length)
(3) SO2 have 2 types of π bonds
(4) NH3, H2O, ClF3 are planar structures

37) In which of the following co-ordinate bond are absent ?

(1) O3
(2) HNO3
(3) N2O5
(4) CO2

38) Which of the following molecule is planar as well as polar :

(1) PCl3
(2) SF4
(3) ClF3
(4) None of these

39) Which of the followihg shape is not possible for possible value of n in XeFn molecule ?

(1) Linear
(2) Square planar
(3) Trigonal planar
(4) Distorted octahedral

40) The most covalent halide is:-

(1) AlF3
(2) AlCl3
(3) AlBr3
(4) AlI3

41) In which axis px + px form π bond?

(1) x-axis
(2) y-axis
(3) z-axis
(4) (2) & (3) both

42) The correct order of decreasing bond energy is:-

(1) O–O > S–S > Se–Se

(2) C–C > Si–Si > Ge–Ge
(3) F–F > O–O > N–N
(4) F –F > Cl–Cl > Br–Br
43) Molecule showing both ionic and covalent bond is:-

(1) NaCN
(2) CO
(3) NaCl
(4) N2

44) Correct trend for lattice energy is?

(1) BeO < MgO < CaO

(2) NaF < NaCl < NaBr < NaI
(3) Na2SO4 < MgSO4 < Al2(SO4)3
(4) None of the above

45) Ionic mobility order for following species will be :

Ca2+ (aq) , Mg2+ (aq), Sr+2 (aq)

(1) Sr+2 (aq) > Ca2+ (aq) > Mg2+(aq)

(2) Ca+2 (aq) > Sr2+ (aq) > Mg2+ (aq)
(3) Ca+2 (aq) > Mg2+ (aq) > Sr+ (aq)
(4) Sr+2 (aq) > Mg2+ (aq) > Ca+ (aq)

BIOLOGY

1) The role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage of the respiration. Yet, the presence of oxygen
is vital because :-

(1) It acts as final acceptor of ATP produced in respiration

(2) It reacts with respiratory substrates in cytoplasm to oxidise them completely
(3) It drives the whole process of respiration by removing hydrogen from the system
(4) It converts the NAD+ into NADH + H+ to enhance the number of ATP in respiration

2) Read the statements carefully.

(a) Each plant part takes care of its own gas exchange needs
(b) Plants shows great gaseous demand for gas exchange
(c) In plants large volume of gases are exchanged only during respiration
(d) Plants show very little transport of gases from one part to another
How many of the above statement (a-d) are incorrect ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Assertion :- Cellular respiration is an amphibolic process.

Reason :- The carbon skeleton produced during respiration is used as precursor of sysnthesis of
biomolecules.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) Assertion : In respiration, glucose is not oxidised in one step but in several small steps.
Reason : In single step reaction. The liberated energy goes out as heat and cannot be coupled to
ATP synthesis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Choose the incorrect statement about geomatrical growth :

(1) A sigmoid curve is a characteristic of diving organism growing in a natural environment

(2) Initial growth is fast and represent lag phase
(3) Growth rate increases rapidly and represent exponential phase
(4) When limited nutrient supply the growth slow down leading to stationary phase

6) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Abscisic acid (ABA) is known as the stress hormone and plays a crucial role in seed
development, maturation, and inducing dormancy.
Statement II : Abscisic acid (ABA) generally acts as a synergist to gibberellins (GAs) in most
situations.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

7) Assertion : Cytokinin helps in the delay of leaf senescence.

Reason : Cytokinin do not promote nutrient mobilisation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

8) If we remove accessory pigments from plant then what will be the effect ?

The efficiency of photosynthesis will increase because all the light energy become available to
(1)
chlorophyll ‘a’
(2) Range of wavelengths, which are utilised in photosynthesis, become narrower
Due to less amount of light energy the possibility of photo-oxidation of chlorophyll ‘a’ will
(3)
increase
(4) The photolysis of water and formation of ATP will not occur

9) Given below are two statements :

One is labelled as assertion A and the other is labelled as reason R.
Assertion (A) :- Like in respiration, in photosynthesis too, ATP synthesis is linked to development of
proton gradient across a membrane.
Reason (R) :- Splitting of water molecule takes place on the inner side of the granum thylakoid
membrane.
In the light of the above statements ; Choose the correction answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

10) Which of the following statements about photosynthesis is/are correct ?

(a) PEP is the primary CO2 acceptor in C3 plants
(b) Five carbons are present in the CO2 acceptor in Calvin cycle in C4 plants.
(c) CO2 is pumped from mesophyl cell to bundle sheeth cell in C4 plant.

(1) a and b
(2) c only
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c

11) Engelmann's experiment with Cladophora demonstrated that :-

(1) The full spectrum of sunlight is equally effective for photosynthesis

(2) Only red wavelengths are effective in causing photosynthesis
(3) Only blue wavelengths are effective
(4) Both blue and red wavelengths are more effective

12) Who found that the green part in plants is where glucose is made, and that the glucose is usually
stored as starch.

(1) Julius von Sachs

(2) Cornelius van Niel
(3) T.W. Engelmann
(4) Jan Ingenhousz

13) Statement-1: Kranz anatomy is characteristic feature of C4 plants only.

Statement-2: There is a linear relationship between incident light and CO2 fixation rate under low
light intensity.
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

14) CO2 saturation point for C3 and C4 plants respectively :-

(1) 300 ppm & 500 ppm

(2) 500 ppm & 360 ppm
(3) 450 ppm & 360 ppm
(4) 400 ppm & 450 ppm

15) Given below the two statements :

Statement-I : The Calvin pathway occurs in all photosynthetic plants ; it does not matter whether
they have C3 or C4 (or any other) pathways.
Statement-II : Calvin pathway is the basic pathway that results in the formation of the sugars.
In light of the above statements. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

16) No. of ATP molecules produced during complete oxidation of 1 pyruvate molecule would be :-

(1) 15
(2) 12
(3) 10
(4) 8

17) Number of NADH molecules produced in EMP pathway, is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) R.Q. is less than one if the respiratory substrate is:-

(1) Organic acids

(2) Fats and protein
(3) Sucrose
(4) Glucose

19)
In the given diagram for respiratory process inside mitochondria, correctly identify 'A', 'B' and 'C'

(1) A=ATP, B=Oxaloacetic acid, C=CO2

(2) A=ATP, B=Fumaric acid, C=CO2
(3) A=CO2, B=Fumaric acid, C=CoA
(4) A=CO2, B=Oxaloacetic acid, C=CO2

20) If TCA cycle produce FADH2 at all the oxidation steps, then theoritically what would be the
number of net ATP produced by complete oxidation of one glucose ?

(1) 35 ATP
(2) 9 ATP
(3) 36 ATP
(4) 32 ATP

21) Match column-I & column-II select the correct option from options given below :-

Column-I Column-II

Growth from
(A) Intrinsic growth (I)
outside

Growth occurs
(B) Extrinsic growth (II) only upto
certain age

Indeterminate Growth from

(C) (III)
growth inside

Growth occurs
Determinate
(D) (IV) throughout life
growth
span
(1) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
(2) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(3) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
(4) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III

22) Match the columns :

Column-I Column-II

(1) Human urine (a) Cytokinin

(2) Gibberella fujikuroi (b) Auxin

(3) Herring sperm DNA (c) Ethylene

(4) Ripening fruits (d) Abscisic acid

(5) Aged leaves of plants (e) Gibberellins

(1) 1-e, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b, 5-a
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-a
(3) 1-a, 2-e, 3-b, 4-d, 5-c
(4) 1-b, 2-e, 3-a, 4-c, 5-d

23) Which one is responsible for internodal elongation in rossett plants ?

(1) Cytokinins
(2) Auxins
(3) Ethylene
(4) Gibberellins

24)

Match the following column :-

Column A Column B

(a) Auxin (i) Prevent apical dominance

(b) GA (ii) Apical hook formation

(c) Cytokinin (iii) Seed maturation

(d) Ethylene (iv) Control xylem differentiation

(e) ABA (v) Stem elongation

(1) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(v), d-(ii), e-(iii)
(2) a-(v), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii), e-(iii)
(3) a-(iv), b-(v), c-(i), d-(iii), e-(ii)
(4) a-(iv), b-(v), c-(i), d-(ii), e-(iii)

25) Function of petiole is :-

(1) Hold the leaf blade

(2) Allow leaf blades to flutter in wind
(3) Bringing fresh air to leafs surface
(4) All of the above

26) In which inflorescence flower are born in basipetal order :-

(1) Racemose
(2) Cymose
(3) Cyathium
(4) Above both (1) & (2)

27) When a shoot tip transforms into a flower ?

(1) Pollination can not be normal

(2) It is always solitary
(3) Flower opening is centripetal
(4) Growth is indefinite

28)

Edible portion of Mango is:-

(1) Epicarp
(2) Mesocarp
(3) Endocarp
(4) Pericarp

29) Ovary is half inferior in the flowers of :-

(1) Cucumber
(2) Guava
(3) Plum
(4) Calotropis

30) Parietal placentation is found in :-

(1) Mustard
(2) Tomato
(3) Lemon
(4) Pea

31) The four sketches (A, B, C, D) given below represent the different types of placentation. Which
one of these is correctly identified in the options given along with correct position of ovule and

examples ?
 Types
Position of ovule Example
of placentation

(1) C Free central Ventral suture of ovary Pea, Bean

(2) D Marginal Base of ovary Sunflower,marigold

(3) B Parietal Peripheral part of ovary Primrose, Dianthus

(4) A Axile Central axis China rose,Lemon

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Drupe fruit has

(1) Stony mesocarp

(2) Stony endocarp
(3) Stony pericarp
(4) Stony epicarp

33) In which of the following plant stamens are attached to petals ?

(1) Mustard
(2) Pea
(3) Brinjal
(4) Both (2) & (3)

34) Swollen placenta is found in :-

(1) Brassicaceae family

(2) Malvaceae family
(3) Solanaceae family
(4) Fabaceae family

35) The fruit of coconut is called as :-

(1) Pepo
(2) Pome
(3) Berry
(4) Drupe

36) Which of the following is/are not common for both mango and coconut ?

(1) Presence of stony endocarp

(2) Presence of differentiated pericarp
(3) Lignified fibrous mesocarp
(4) All of these

37) Endospermous seeds, axile placentation, epipetalous stamens are found in:

(1) Brassicaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Solanaceae

38) Fibrous root is found in :-

(1) Monstera
(2) Banyan tree
(3) Wheat
(4) Radish

39) Which of the following is not a function of root system ?

(1) Anchorage to plant

(2) Storage of food material
(3) Synthesis of plant growth regulators
(4) Storage of water

40)

Region Region Region

of elongation of Meristematic growth of maturation

(1) A D B

(2) B C A
 (3) C A D

(4) D B C
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious roots of sweet potato become swollen for :-

(1) Support
(2) Respiration
(3) Storage
(4) Nitrogen fixation

42) Stem originates from :-

(1) Radicle
(2) Plumule
(3) Cotyledon
(4) Leaf

43) Which of the following option given the correct categorization of six plants on the basis of
arrangement of leaves (A, B and C) on the stem or branch :

(A) (B) (C)

Alternate Opposite Whorl
phyllotaxy phyllotaxy phyllotaxy

Chinarose,
1 Alstonia Mustard
Calotropis

2 Alstonia Chinarose Mustard

Mustard, Calotropis,
3 Alstonia
Chinarose Guava

Mustard,
4 Calotropis Alstonia
Guava
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) In which of the following plant, flower cannot be divided into two similar halves by any vertical
plane

(1) Mustard
(2) Cassia
(3) Canna
(4) Datura

45) Identify the correct match from the column-I, II and III

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) Zygomorphic (i) Cucumber,

(a) Irregular
flower sunflower

(2) Perigynous
(b) Inferior ovary (ii) Canna
flower

(3) Epigynous (c) Bilateral

(iii) Rose, plum
flower symmetry

(4) Asymmetric (d) Half-inferior

(iv) Pea, bean
flower ovary
(1) 1-c-iv, 2-a-iii, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii
(2) 1-c-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii
(3) 1-d-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-c-i, 4-a-ii
(4) 1-c-iv, 2-a-iii, 3-b-ii, 4-d-i

46) Find out the correct match from the following table :

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Hypogynous Ovary Chinarose,

(i)
flower inferior Cucumber

Epigynous Ovary Peach,

(ii)
flower superior Guava

Perigynous Ovary
(iii) Rose, Plum
flower half inferior
(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

47) Consider the following statements:-

(A) Valvate aestivation is most common and found in Calotropis.
(B) Imbricate aestivation show overlapping of margin without any regular fashion.
(C) Basal placentation is found in sunflower.
(D) The stamens are united into two bundles as in Pea.
How many of the following statements are correct?

(1) Only A
(2) Only B and C
(3) Both A, C and D
(4) A, B, C and D
48) What is perianth ?

(1) Outer part of flower in which calyx and corolla are not always distinguishable.
(2) When stamens and gynoecium are not distinguishable.
(3) When only calyx is present
(4) When calyx and corolla both are absent in a flower.

49)

Observe the following examples. How many plants show hypogynous condition?

Mustard, Chinarose, Rose, Plum, Peach, Guava, Apple, Cucumber, Brinjal

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

50) Match the following and choose correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

A Monoadelphous Stamens I Liliaceae

B Diadelphous Stamens II Solanaceae

C Epipetalous Stamens III Fabaceae

D Epiphyllous Stamens IV Malvaceae

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-III, D-I

51) In which plant vexillum is present ?

(1) Dianthus
(2) Petunia
(3) Pea
(4) Salvia

52) The aestivation in petals of lady finger and Calotropis plants are respectively :-
(1) A & D
(2) B & A
(3) D & A
(4) D & B

53)

In which of the following option consist of only those characters of flower described by the floral
formula given below :

K(5)C1+(2)+(2)A(9)+1G1
Zygomorphic, Hermaphrodite, Hypogynous, Diadelphous, imbricale aestivation, Marginal
(1)
Placentation
(2) Actinomorphic, Hermaphrodite, Hypogynous, Diadelphous, Vaxillary aestivation
(3) Zygomorphic, Hermaphrodite, Hypognous, Diadelphous
(4) Actinomorphic, Hermaphorodite, Diadelphous, Hypogynous

54) Recognise the figure and find out correct option :–

(1) a–Standard, b–Wings, c–Keel

(2) a–Wing, b–Standard, c–Keel
(3) a–Keel, b–Standard, c–Wings
(4) a–Keel, b–Keel, c–Standard

55) Choose the correct floral formula with the help of given floral diagram ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

56) In which plants ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two chambered due to the formation of
false septum :-

(1) Mustard
(2) Primrose
(3) Tomato
(4) Pea

57) Identify the given diagram.

(1) Recemose infloresence

(2) Cymose inflorescence
(3) Solitary inflorescence
(4) Hypanthodium Inflorescence

58) How many phalanges are present in normal human adult ?

(1) 14
(2) 28
(3) 30
(4) 56

59) Presence of obturator foramen feature of:-

(1) Pectoral girdle

(2) Vertebrae
(3) Pelvic girdle
(4) Occipital bone

60) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are called

(1) Vertebrosternal ribs

(2) True ribs
(3) vertebrochondral ribs
(4) floating ribs
61) Match the column-I and II and select the correct option ?

Column-I Column-II

A. Fibrous Joint (i) Between tarsals

Cartilaginous Between the

B. (ii)
Joint carpals

Between the
C. Pivot Joint (iii)
cranial bones

Between the two

D. Hinge Joint (iv) adjoining
vertebrae

Between Atlas
E. Gliding Joint (v)
and Axis

Between Femur
(vi)
and Tibia

Between humerus
(vii)
and radioulna

Options :-

A B C D E

1 (iii) (iv) (i), (ii) (vi), (vii) (v)

2 (iv) (v) (vi), (vii) (iii) (i), (ii)

3 (iii) (iv) (v) (vi), (vii) (i), (ii)

4 (iv) (i), (ii) (v) (vi), (vii) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

62) Which of the following is a sessamoid bone ?

(1) Pelvic
(2) Patella
(3) Pterigoid
(4) Pectoral girdle

63) Largest mammalian vertebra is :-

(1) Thoracic
(2) Sacral
(3) Lumbar
(4) Cervical

64) Each coxal bone is formed by fusion of three bones?

(1) ilium, ischium, pubis

(2) ilium, sacrum, pubis
(3) ilium, sacrum, coccyx
(4) ilium, sacrum, ischium

65) Foramen of Magnum is present in

(1) Base of medulla

(2) Base of skull
(3) Apex of vertebral column
(4) Base of brain

66) Given below is a diagram of the bones of the left human hindlimb as seen from front. It has

certain mistakes in labeling. Two of the wrongly labelled bones are :-

(1) Tibia and tarsals

(2) Femur and fibula
(3) Fibula and phalanges
(4) Tarsals and femur

67) Amoeboid movement is found in :-

(1) Limbs, Jaw

(2) Macrophages, Leucocytes
(3) Trachea, Fallopian tube
(4) Tongue, Lencocytes

68) The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is :-

(1) Neuro muscular junction

(2) Motor and plate
(3) Gap junction
(4) Both 1 and 2

69) Acetabulum is present in :-

(1) Scapula
(2) Coxal bone
(3) Femur
(4) Humerus

70) Axis vertebra is identified by

(1) Coracoid process

(2) Odontoid process
(3) Acromion
(4) Centrum

71) Which statement is incorrect about smooth muscles ?

(A) Muscle fibre is unbranched and spindle shape.
(B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is not well developed.
(C) Myofibrils are arranged in bundle form.
(D) Contraction period is longer than skeletal muscle.

(1) B and C
(2) Only C
(3) Only D
(4) C and D

72) The body weight contributed by muscles in a human adult is :-

(1) 30-40%
(2) 40-50%
(3) 50-60%
(4) 60-70%

73) Recognise the figure and find out thecorrect matching :-

(1) a – 120, b – 6, c – 2, d – 4
(2) a – 60, b – 14, c – 2, d – 4
(3) a – 120, b – 6, c – 4, d – 2
(4) a – 60, b – 6, c – 2, d – 2

74) Skull articulate with :-

(1) Atlas
(2) Axis
(3) Thoracic vertebra
(4) Clavicle

75) Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by CNS a motor neuron.
(ii) During muscle contraction, isotropic band gets elongated.
(iii) The dark band contains only myosin filament.
(iv) A motor neuron along with the muscle fibres connected to it constitute a motor unit.

(1) (i) and (ii) are correct

(2) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(3) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(4) (i) and (iv) are correct

76) Muscles contains a red coloured oxygen storing pigment called :-

(1) Haemoglobin
(2) Sarcosome
(3) Myoglobin
(4) Hemerythrins

77)

Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

a-HMM,b-LMM,c-ATP binding sites,

(1)
d-myosin binding sites
a-head,b-cross bridge, c-actin binding sites,
(2)
d-ATP binding sites
a-head, b-cross arm, c-ATP binding sites,
(3)
d-actin binding sites
a-head, b-cross arm, c-actin binding sites,
(4)
d-ATP binding sites

78) Which of the following does not occur in muscle contraction :-

(1) I Band decrease

(2) A Band decrease
(3) Sarcomere shortens
(4) H-zone decreases

79) The contractile element present in the myofibril of a striated muscle between two successive Z-
lines is called :

(1) Sarcosome
(2) Sarcoplasm
(3) Sarcomere
(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

80) Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system :-

(1) Myasthenia gravis – Degeneration of muscles due to genetic disorder

(2) Gout – Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium.
(3) Muscular dystrophy – Autoimmune disorders.
(4) Osteoporosis – Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age.

81) Which character is not associated with white muscle fibres?

(1) Less quantity of myoglobin.

(2) Number of mitochondria are few.
(3) Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is low.
(4) Depend on anaerobic process for energy.

82) Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of the normal human
skeleton ?

(1) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint
(2) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles
(3) The 6th and 7th pairs of ribs are called vertebro chondral ribs
(4) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates

83) Unpaired facial bone is

(1) Lacrimal
(2) Vomer
(3) Nasal
(4) Palatine

84) Statement I : The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet dorsally to form the pubic symphysis
containing fibrous cartilage.
Statement II : The first seven pairs of ribs are called vertebral ribs as they are directly attached
with sternum.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

85) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

Striated Distribution
A. appearance of I. pattern of actin
myofibril and myosin.

Store house of Sarcoplamic

B. II.
calcium ions reticulum

Helps myosin
head to bind to
Energy
exposed active
C. released from III,
sites on actin to
ATP hydrolysis
form a cross
bridge

Active ATPase
enzyme and has
Globular head
D. IV. binding sites for
of meromyosin
ATP and active
sites for actin.

A B C D

(1) I II III IV

(2) III I IV II

(3) II I III IV

(4) III IV II I
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross bridge activity
during muscle contraction :-

(1) Sodium
(2) Potassium
(3) Calcium
(4) Magnesium
87) Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure.

A–Sarcolemma,
B–Blood capillary,
(1)
C–Fascicle (muscle bundle),
D–Muscle fibre (muscle cell)
A–Blood capillary,
B–Muscle fibre (muscle cell),
(2)
C–Fascicle (muscle bundle),
D–Sarcolemma
A–Sacrolemma,
B–Muscle fibre (muscle cell),
(3)
C–Fasicle (muscle bundle),
D–Blood capillary
A–Muscle fibre (muscle cell),
B–Sarcolemma,
(4)
C–Blood capillary,
D–Fascicle (muscle bundles)

88) Assertion (A) : Cartilaginous joints permit limited movement.

Reason (R) : These joints are formed by cartilages between bones, such as in the vertebral column.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

89) During the mechanism of muscle contraction, following events occur.

A. Myosin head activated by ATP hydrolysis binds to exposed active sites to form cross bridge.
B. Pulling of actin filaments towards A-band leads to contraction.
C. Acetylcholine is released at neuromuscular junction which generate action potential.
D. Release of Ca+2 ions from SR, binds to subunit troponin of actin filaments.
Which of the following sequence of above events is correct?

(1) A,B,C,D
(2) C,D,B,A
(3) C,D,A,B
(4) C,B,D, A

90) Statement-I : Skeletal system consists of a framework of bones and a few cartilages.
Statement-II : Bone and cartilage are spcialised connective tissues.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 2 3 3 2 1 2 2 2 1 4 4 1 2 2 2 1 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 1 4 4 2 1 3 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 4 3 4 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 1 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 4 3 2 4 1 3 4 3 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 3 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 4 3 2 3 4 3 3 1 2 1 1 1 2 3 4 3 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 1 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 1 1 2 4 3 2 1 3 4 1 3 3 4 1 2 2 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 4 4 4 2 2 2 3 1 4 2 3 3 4 3 4 3 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 1 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 4 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 2 2 2 2 1 1 4 3 4 2 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 2 4 1 3 4 1 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) QUESTION EXPLANATION: A 1 kg particle is in a conical pendulum with a string of

length m making an angle of 45° with the vertical. Find its time period.
CONCEPT INVOLVED: Dynamics of a conical pendulum.
SOLUTION: For a conical pendulum,

.
The radius of the circular path is

m
Substituting values:

rad/s.

The time period is s.

FINAL ANSWER: (1) sec

2)
h = rcosθ ...(1)
At point of angular position θ with vertical

...(2)
If body is detached here N = 0

or v2 = rgcosθ ...(3)
By energy conservation
v2 = 2gr(1–cosθ) ...(4)
by (2) & (3)
⇒ cosθ = 2(1–cosθ)
cosθ = 2/3 ...(5)
by equation (1) & (5)

3)

v2 =
at = ⇒ Ft = 2as …(1)

Fcp =

FTotal =

FTotal =

4) Explaining the Question :- Find the minimum speed at the lowest point so a particle
completes a vertical loop (radius R or string length ℓ).
Concept:- This question is based on Require just enough speed at top to maintain contact (N
= 0). and use energy conservation between bottom and top.
Solution :- At top (limiting case) .
Energy change from bottom to top = gain in potential energy = 2mgR.

i.e.

= (∵ R = ℓ, here)

5) Question Explanation :
A roller coaster moves in a vertical circular path of radius 2 m. We need to determine the
minimum velocity at the highest point to ensure it just completes the loop.
Concept :
Condition for Completing a Vertical Loop:
Solution :

• Centripetal Force: FC =
At the highest point: To just complete the vertical circular motion the only force acting as
centripetal force is weight

mg =
• Solving for velocity:
v2 = gr
v=
Given r = 2m,
v=
v=
Final Answer:
Option 3: m/s
 6)
kx = mω2ℓ​​ + mω2x
(k–mω2) x = mω2ℓ​​

7)

Angular acceleration, rad/s2

⇒
ar = ω2R = 20 π m/s2

8) Net acceleration : a =

=
As v increases, a also increases
So size of arrow should be increasing and angle between velocity and acceleration should be
acute.

9)

10)

For looping the loop minimum velocity at top point, v =

time taken by particle,

∴ horizontal range, x = vt = = 2L

11)
N≥0

12)
Now, x2 + y2 = 42, which is equation of circle of radius R.
So, the motion is uniform circular motion with speed.

13) Disc

14) By conservation of angular momentum

mv0R = mvR + Iω but v=ωR, so v =

15) Here, R = 2 m, M = 100 kg, n = 200 cm s–1

= 20 × 10–2 m s–1
Total kinetic energy of the hoop = KT + KR

[∵ For a hoop, I = MR2]

[∵ v = Rω]
2
= Mv
Work required to stop the hoop = Total kinetic energy of the hoop
= Mv2 = (100 kg) (20 × 10–2 ms–1) = 4 J

16)

5K2 = 2R2 + 2K2

17)

18) Assuming motion as the case of pure rotation about the point of contact,
vC = Rω
vQ = r2ω
vP = r1ω
vQ > vC > vP

19)
900 – 9θ = 3θ

θ= = 75 °C

20)
P = σ(4πr2)T4 ⇒ P ∝ r2T4

⇒ P2 = 64 P

21)

The thermal radiation from a hot body travels with a velocity of light in vacuum i.e. 3 × 108 m
s–1.

22) = ⇒ =1

23)

24)

25)
So

26) Let the temperature of junction be Q. Since roads B and C are parallel to each other
(because both having the same temperature difference). Hence given figure can be redrawn as
follows.

∵ and

27) Ist case : As it is a series combination

2nd case : As it is a parallel combination

Kp = (K1+K2) / 2

28) Let θ be temperature of middle point C and in series rate of heat flow is same
⇒ K(2A) (100–θ) = KA(θ–70)
⇒ 200 – 2θ = θ – 70 ⇒ 3θ = 270 ⇒ θ = 90°C

29)

∴
Plate having maximum area will cool fastest and sphere having lowest area will cool slowest.

30) For same material

∝ ∝

31) Acceleration due to gravity above the surface of earth at a height h is given, g' = g

here, g' = 0.98 g

⇒ 0.98 = 1 –

h = 0.01 Re
= 0.01 x 6400 km = 64 km

32) 1. Question Explanation:

We need to find the height h above Earth's surface where the acceleration due to gravity

becomes , given that Earth's radius is R.

2. Concept:

Acceleration due to gravity at a height h is given by gh = . We solve for h by

equating gh = .
3. Formula:

The gravity at height h is given by: 4. Calculation:

Given: Substituting into the formula: Dividing both sides by g:

Taking the square root on both sides: Rearranging: R + h = 3R h

= 2R Hence,
Option (1) is correct

33) g' = 36% g

34)

35)
36) Explanation:
To find the angular velocity.
Concept:
This question based on effect of rotation on 'mg'.
Solution:
We know that
g' = g - Rω²cos²(λ)
given λ = 45°, g' = 0
So, g – ω2 R cos²45°= 0

[∴ ]

Final Answer:
Option : 4

37) Increase in gravitational potential energy

[∵ R = 5h]

38) ,

39)
g' = g – Rω2 cos2 ϕ
At poles, ϕ = 90°
∴ Wpole = mg'P = mg
At equator, ϕ = 0°.
Weq = mg'eq. = mg – mRω2

or mg = mg – mRω2

ω=

40)
Gravitational potential at P
VP = Vshell + Vpoint mass

41) Variation of g with distance variation of g with ω : g' = g – ω2Rcos2λ

If ω = 0 then g' = g

42)

a1 = / M1 a2 = / M2
arel. = a1 + a2

= = .

43) ,

⇒
 44)

Field due to outside sphere will be zero

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Pext = 2 bar, V2 = 0.25L, V1 = 0.1L

W = Pext ΔV = –Pext (V2 – V1)
W = –2 bar (0.25 – 0.1) L
= – 0.3 L- bar
= – 0.3 × 100 J = –30 J

47)

Unit of entropy is JK–1

48)

Heat supplied at constant pressure.

qp = ΔH (Enthalpy change)
Heat supplied at constant volume
qv = ΔE (Internal energy change)
ΔH, ΔE, Enthalpy all are state function,
depends only upon initial and final state.

49)

ΔE = q + w
q and w are path function but E is state function.

50) Molar heat capacity is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one
mole of substance by one degree Celcius (or kelvin)

51)

Isothermal process,
ΔE = 0
q+W=0
–q = + W
Isochoric process,
W=0
+ ΔE = +q
Adiabatic expansion
q = 0, W = –ve

ΔE = –ve
Isobaric process, q = ΔH
Heat absorbed by the system is equal to increase in enthalpy of system

52) Given :
T = 17°C = 17 + 273 = 290 K
ΔE = –67.71 KJ
ΔH = ΔE + ΔngRT
qp = qv + ΔngRT

CO2(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

Δng = 1 – 1.5 = –0.5

qp = –67.71 +
qp = –68 kCal

53)

ΔH = ΔE + ΔngRT

Δng = 3 – (5 + 1) = – 3
ΔH = ΔE + ΔngRT
ΔH = ΔE – 3RT
ΔE – ΔH = + 3RT

54)

Enthalpy of an ideal gas depends only on temperature

T → constant
H → constant
ΔH = 0

55)
= 1.66 Jmol–1K–1

56)
ΔE = nCvΔT CP – C V = R
= 5 × 5 × (10) CV = C P – R
= 250 cal =7–2
= 5 cal mol–1K–1

57) Given :- CP = 75 J mol–1 K–1,

qP = ΔH = 10,000 J

ΔH = nCPΔT

ΔT = 2.4 K

58)

= –996 J

59)

Given, n = 1
T1 = 27°C = 300 K
W = – 3000 J
CV = 20 J mol–1 K–1
Wrev, adiabatic = nCVΔT
–3000 = 1 × 20 × (T2 – 300)
–150 = T2 – 300
T2 = 150 K

60)

Work done during reversible adiabatic process

W = nCVΔT

61)

(I) Liquid → solid ΔS < 0

(II) Solid (T1) → Solid (T2) ΔS > 0
(T2 > T1)
(III) 2NaHCO3(s)
Na2CO3(s) + CO3(g) + H2O(g)
ΔS > 0 (as Δng = +ve)
(IV) H2(g) → 2H(g) ΔS > 0

62) Statement-I : qP = ΔH
Statement-II : Entropy is defined as thermodynamic quantity which is used to measure the
degree of disorderness of the systen.

63) , → Aromatic

→ Non Aromatic

→ Antiaromatic

64)
least stable due to ⊕ ve charge on oxygen atom.

65)

Fact

66)

–O– → +I/+M
–CN → –I/–M
–OCH3 → –I/+M
–CH3 → +I/+H

67)

Energy of RH is less than R.S.

68)
69)

70)

Fact

71)

2nd period element cannot expand their octet.

72)

No α–H, No hyperconjugation

73)

74)

75)

76)

HOC ∝ No. of 'C'

77)

Stability of c+ directly proportion to number of alpha H.

78) Reso + 5αH

79)

H2O can form 4 H-bonds

80)

e– Bond order
He2+ → 3e– → 0.5
O2– → 17e– → 1.5
NO → 15e– → 2.5
C2–2 → 14e– → 3

81)

(1) Bond angle

PF3 < PCl3 < PBr3 (Size)
(2) O 3 O2
Bond order 1.5 2
Bond length O3 > O2
(3) SO2 → 1 → pπ–pπ
1 → pπ–dπ
(4) NH3 → Non polar

82)

O=C=O (No co-ordinate bond are present)

83)
μ≠0
polar T-shape (Planar)

84)

In XeFn
n → Start with 2
XeF2 → Linear
XeF4 → Square planar
XeF6 → Distorted octahedral
 85) Explain Question : Identify the most covalent halide
Concept : This Question is based on Fajan's rule
Solution :
Covalent character ∝ Polarisation

Final Answer option (4)

86) Form π bond when overlap along y-axis & z-axis.

87) As lone pair is absent

∴
∴ (Ans-2)

88)

89)

(1) BeO > MgO > CaO

(2) NaF > NaCl > NaBr > NaI
(3) Na2SO4 < MgSO4 < Al2(SO4)3

90) The larger the cation in molten state the smaller it becomes in aqueous solution.

Conductivity ∝

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. # 233

92) NCERT Pg.# 227

93)

NCERT [Link]. # 235

94) NCERT Page No. 228, 229

 95) NCERT, Pg # 170

96)

Statement I: Correct. Abscisic acid (ABA) is indeed referred to as the stress hormone and is
important for seed development, maturation, and dormancy, helping seeds to withstand
desiccation and other unfavorable growth conditions. Statement II: Incorrect. ABA usually acts
as an antagonist to gibberellins (GAs), not a synergist, meaning it often has opposing effects to
GAs.

97)

NCERT Pg. # 177

98)

NCERT-XI, English Page No. # 211 (1st paragraph)

िहदी पे ज # 211 (3rd पे राग ाफ)

99) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 213

100) NCERT Pg # 145

101) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 208

102)

Ncert page 134.

103) NCERT-XI Pg. # 210

104) NCERT XI pg # 223

105)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 216, 220

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 159

107) NCERT-XI Pg. # 229

 108) NCERT Pg. No. 237, Para-14.7

109) Explanation
In the diagram
• A is CO2 released during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl - CoA
• B is Oxaloacetic acid, which combines with acetyl- CoA to form citric acid
• C is released during the conversion of alpha ketoglutarate to succinyl -CoA in the critic acid
cycle.
Correct Ans. (4)

110)

If TCA cycle produce FADH2 at all steps then instead to 3 NADH2 & 1 FADH2 it will produce 4
FADH2. 3 NADH2 & 1 FADH2 = 11 ATP but 4 FADH2 = 8 ATP which means from one TCA cycle
there will be loss of 3 ATP. For one glucose it will be 6 ATP. Theoritically net ATP production
by one glucose = 38 ATP but in this condition 38-6 = 32 ATP.

111)

Explain Question: Question asking to match column I with column II about type of growth

Concept: The living world

Solution:

Column-I and Column-II Matching:

(A) Intrinsic growth → (III) Growth from inside

A. Intrinsic growth involves growth from within the body or organ (e.g., intercalary and apical
meristems in plants).

(B) Extrinsic growth → (I) Growth from outside

A. Extrinsic means external; although this term isn't commonly used in biological growth, in the
given context, it matches with growth from outside.

(C) Indeterminate growth → (IV) Growth occurs throughout life span

A. Typical in plants (especially roots and stems), which can grow continuously.

(D) Determinate growth → (II) Growth occurs only up to a certain age

A. Seen in animals and certain plant organs (like leaves or flowers).

Final answer: 1
 112)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 174-175

113) Explaining Question:

which plant Hormone is responsible far Intermodal elongation in rosette plants.
Concept: This question is based on Plant growth regulators.
Solution: Gibberellins are responsible for intermodal elongation, especially in rosette planes
by promoting stem growth.

114) Solution:
• (a) Auxin - (iv) Control xylem differentiation
• (b) GA - (v) Stem elongation
• (c) Ethylene - (ii) Apical hook formation
• (d) ABA - (iii) Seed maturation
Correct option: (4)

115) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 70

116) Question Explanation :

The question is asking in which type of inflorescence flowers are arranged in basipetal order,
meaning the older flowers are at the top or center, and younger ones are at the base or
periphery.

Concept:
This question is based on Inflorescence.

Solution:
The correct answer is 2. Cymose

Explanation:
Cymose inflorescence shows:

A. Basipetal order of flowers (older at the top/center, younger below/sides).

B. Main axis ends in a flower (limited/determinate growth).

Final answer: 2. Cymose

117) Question Explanation :

Question asking about what happens when a shoot tip transforms into a flower.

Concept:
This question is based on Inflorescence.

Solution:
When a shoot tip transforms into a flower, it is always solitary
Final answer: 2. It is always solitary
118) Question Explanation :
The question is asking which part of the mango fruit is edible.
Concept:
This question is based on Fruits.
Explanation :
In mango the pericarp is well differentiated into an outer thin epicarp, a middle fleshy edible
mesocarp and an inner stony hard endocarp.
Final answer: 2. Mesocarp

119) Question Explanation :

You are asked to identify in which plant the ovary is half-inferior, meaning it is partially
embedded in the thalamus (i.e. perigynous flower)

Concept :
This question is based on Position of floral parts on thalamus.

Solution :
If gynoecium is situated in the centre and other parts of the flower are located on the rim of
the thalamus almost at the same level, it is called perigynous. The ovary here is said to be half
inferior, e.g. Plum, rose, peach.

Final Answer : 3. Plum

120) Question Explanation :

The question is asking in which plant parietal placentation is found.

Concept :
This question is based on placentation.

Solution :
Parietal placentation is found in mustard plant.

Final Answer : 1. Mustard

121) NCERT-XI Pg. # 75 Fig. 5.16 para [Link]

122)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to identify the name of the part of a plant that acts as
the axis or main stalk which bears or supports the flower.

Underlying Concept: In botany, different parts of a plant have specific names and functions.
The flower-bearing axis is the stalk that supports the flower and connects it to the rest of the
plant. Understanding plant anatomy helps in identifying these parts correctly.
Tips and Tricks: Remember: 'Peduncle' sounds like 'pedestal' which supports something, in
this case, the flower.

Common Mistakes: Confusing 'Peduncle' with 'Pedicle' (which is the stalk of a single flower
in an inflorescence), or mixing it with 'Petiole' (the stalk of a leaf), or 'Funicle' (the stalk
attaching the seed to the fruit).

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: 'Pedicle' refers to the stalk of an individual flower
within a flower cluster, not the main flower-bearing axis. 'Petiole' is the stalk that attaches a
leaf blade to the stem. 'Funicle' is a stalk connecting a seed to the placenta inside the fruit.
Hence, these are not correct for the flower-bearing axis.

123)

When stamens are attached to the petals, they are epipetalous as in brinjal
The correct answer is: (3)

124) Correct Answer: (3) Solanaceae

The Solanaceae family (which includes plants like tomatoes, potatoes, and eggplants) is known
for having swollen placentas. In this family, the ovary typically has a swollen placenta, where
ovules are attached to the inner wall.

125) NCERT XIth pg. # 76 (E)

126)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks which characteristic(s) are not common to both
mango and coconut fruits. It provides options related to fruit structure, and the goal is to
identify the feature uniquely present in one but not both.
Underlying Concept: This problem involves understanding the anatomy of fruits, specifically
the terms related to fruit parts such as endocarp, pericarp, and mesocarp. Mango and coconut
are types of fruits with different structural features: the pericarp is the part of the fruit formed
from the ovary wall and can be differentiated into three layers-exocarp, mesocarp, and
endocarp. The question focuses on which of these features differ between mango and coconut.
Tips and Tricks: Remember the fruit anatomy: Mango is a drupe with a fleshy mesocarp, and
coconut has a fibrous mesocarp that is distinct. This distinction will help identify the correct
answer.
Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the presence of stony endocarp or differentiated
pericarp as unique, but these are common features in both mango and coconut.
Misunderstanding the fibrous nature of the coconut mesocarp is a frequent error.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: 'Presence of stony endocarp' and 'Presence of
differentiated pericarp' are common to both fruits because both have these features, so
choosing these would be incorrect. Only 'Fibrous mesocarp' is not common to both.

127)
NCERT Page # 68

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 66

129)

Explain Question : Question asking about function of root

Concept : This question is based on Plant Morphology-root

Solution : The main functions of the root system are absorption of water and minerals from
the soil, providing a proper anchorage to the plant parts, storing reserve food material and
synthesis of plant growth regulators.

Final Answer : option (4)

130)

Explain Question : Question asking about regions of root

Concept : This question is based on Root.

Solution : Given diagram represent the regions of the root-tip and labelled part A,B and C are
-A-Region of maturation ,B-Region of elongation, C-Region of Meristematic growth

Final Answer : option (2)

131) NCERT XII, Page # 67, Para - 5.1.2

132)

Ncert page 59.

133) NCERT XIth Pg.# 71

134) NCERT pg no. 72

135) Question Explanation :
You are asked to match the correct terms across Column-I (flower type), Column-II (feature),
and Column-III (examples).

Concept:
This question is based on Symmetry type flower

Solution:
Zygomorphic → Bilateral symmetry → Pea, Bean
Perigynous → Half-inferior ovary → Rose, Plum
Epigynous → Inferior ovary → Cucumber, Sunflower
Asymmetric → Irregular → Canna

Final answer: Option 2. 1-c-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii

136) NCERT (XI) Pg.# 63 (E & H)

137) Question Explanation :

You are given 4 statements related to aestivation, placentation and androecium, and asked
how many are correct.

Concept :
This question is based on The flower : Aestivation, placentation and androecium.

Solution :
(A) Valvate aestivation is most common and found in Calotropis - Correct
(B) Imbricate aestivation show overlapping of margin without any regular fashion - Correct
(C) Basal placentation is found in sunflower - Correct
(D) The stamens are united into two bundles as in Pea - Correct

Final Answer : 4. A, B, C, D

138) NCERT XI, Pg.# 62

139) NCERT XI Pg. # 73

Mustard, Chinarose, Brinjal

140)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to match different types of stamens described in
Column I with the plant families listed in Column II. The goal is to identify which type of
stamen is commonly found in each plant family and select the correct matching option.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves understanding the floral morphology, specifically
the types of stamens present in different plant families. Stamens can be classified based on
their arrangement, such as monoadelphous (united by filaments into one group), diadelphous
(united into two groups), epipetalous (attached to petals), and epiphyllous (attached to the
leaf). Recognizing these characteristics helps in identifying plant families like Malvaceae,
Fabaceae, Solanaceae, and Liliaceae.

Tips and Tricks: Remember monoadelphous stamens are united into a single bundle as in
Malvaceae; diadelphous stamens form two bundles typical of Fabaceae; epipetalous stamens
are attached to petals seen in Solanaceae; and epiphyllous stamens are located on the leaf,
often in Liliaceae.

Common Mistakes: Confusing diadelphous with monoadelphous stamens or mixing up the

floral families due to similar sounding names.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Incorrect options typically mismatch stamen types with
families. For example, assigning diadelphous stamens to Malvaceae instead of Fabaceae is
wrong because the characteristic floral structures differ.

141) Question Explanation :

The question asks in which plant has vexillum ?

Concept :
This question is based on Aestivation.

Solution :
In pea and beam flowers there are five petals, the largest (standard/Vexillum) overlaps the two
lateral petals (wings) which in turn overlap the two smallest anterior petal (keel); this type of
aestivation is known as vexiallary or papilionaceous

Final answer : 3. Pea

142) Question Explanation :

The question asks to identify the correct aestivation patterns for the petals of two specific
plants : lady finger (Abelmoschus esculentus) and Calotropis.

Concept :
This question is based on aestivation.

Solution :
Lady Finger (Okra) :
Lady finger exhibits twisted aestivation in its petals, where one margin of each petal overlaps
the adjacent petal in a regular manner, giving a twisted appearance. This corresponds to
diagram (B).
Calotropis :
Calotropis :
Calotropis plants show valvate aestivation, where the margins of the petals just touch each
other without overlapping. This corresponds to diagram (A).

Final Answer :
Option (2)
143) NCERT XIth Pg.# 79

144) NCERT Pg. # 79, fig. 5.21(c) corolla

145) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 79

146)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 65

147) NCERT XI Page no. # 72(E)

148)

NCERT, Pg. # 226

149)

Question explanation: Identify which girdle features the obturator foramen.

Concept: Pelvic girdle

Solution: The correct answer is option: 3

The obturator foramen is a large opening found in the pelvic girdle (hip bone).

It allows passage of nerves and blood vessels.

Final answer: Pelvic girdle

150)

NCERT, Pg. # 225

151) NCERT, Pg. # 227

152)

Explanation:
Patella is a sesamoid bone. Sesamoid bones are bones embedded within a tendon. The patella
is located within the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle.

The correct answer is : (2) Patella

 153)

Lumbar vertebrae are the heaviest and largest vertebrae

154)

NCERT, Pg. # 226

155)

Question Is Asking:
The question is asking you to identify the anatomical location of the foramen magnum.

Solution:
The foramen magnum is a large opening located at the base of the skull. It is part of the occipital
bone and serves as the passage through which the spinal cord exits the cranial cavity and connects
to the medulla oblongata.

CORRECT ANSWER: 2. Base of skull

Difficulty Level

156)

Question explanation: Diagram shows the bones of the left human hindlimb from the front.
Identify the wrongly labelled bones.
Concept : Appendicular Skeleton (Hindlimb)
Explanation :
Femur — correctly labelled (thigh bone).
Tibia — correctly labelled (inner and larger bone of lower leg).
Fibula — incorrectly labelled (it should be on the outer side, not inner).
Tarsals — correctly located at the ankle region.
Phalanges — correctly labelled as toe bones.
Thus, Fibula is wrongly labelled (position error) and Phalanges are also misplaced in this
diagram (label points to tarsal region).

Final answer : 3 — Fibula and Phalanges

157)

What the Question Is Asking: The question is asking you to identify the cells or body parts that
exhibit amoeboid movement.

Solution: Amoeboid movement is a crawling-like motion achieved by the extension and retraction of
pseudopodia. This type of movement is characteristic of certain immune cells, such as macrophages
and leucocytes, which use it to navigate through tissues and respond to infections.

CORRECT ANSWER: 2. Macrophages, Leucocytes

Difficulty Level: Easy

158)

Question Explanation: The junction between a motor neuron and muscle fibre.

Concept : Neuromuscular junction or Motor-end plate

Solution/Explanation :
A motor neuron along with the muscle fibres connected to it consititute a motor unit. The
junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called the
neuromuscular junction or motor-end plate.

Final Answer: Both 1 and 2

159)

Question Explanation : In which bone is the acetabulum cavity located?

Concept : The question is based on girdles

Solution : The correct answer is option 2 .

A. The acetabulum is a deep cup-shaped cavity present in the coxal bone.

B. It articulates with the head of the femur to form the hip joint.

Final answer : Option (2)

160)

Explain Question : Asked about the identifying feature of axis vertebra.

Concept : Vertebral column

Solution : Axis is the 2nd cervical vertebra and is characterized by the presence of a peg-like
odontoid process (dens) which allows rotation of the head.

Final Answer : Option 2 – Odontoid process

161)

NCERT, Pg. # 105 (OLD NCERT)

162)

SOLUTION/EXPLAINATION:

In an average adult human, muscles make up about 40-50% of total body weight. This
percentage can vary depending on factors such as gender, age, and physical condition. For
example, muscle mass tends to be higher in males and athletes compared to females and
sedentary individuals.

163)

NCERT, Pg. # 225/226

164)

NCERT, Pg. # 224

165)

NCERT, Pg. # 222

166)

Question explanation:- Muscles contain a red coloured oxygen storing pigment called ?

Concept: Myoglobin

Solution: Muscles contains a red coloured oxygen storing pigment called Myoglobin

Final answer: Myoglobin

167)

NCERT, Pg. # 221

168)

NCERT, Pg. # 222

169) NCERT, Pg. # 220

170) NCERT, Pg. # 227

171)

NCERT, Pg. # 224

172)

NCERT, Pg. # 224-226

173)
NCERT, Pg. # 224

174) NCERT, Pg. # 226

175)

NCERT, Pg. # 220-222

176)

NCERT, Pg. # 222

177)

NCERT, Pg. # 219

178) NCERT, Pg. # 227

179) NCERT, Pg. # 222

180) NCERT, Pg. # 224