14-12-2025

1902CMD303031250069 MD

PHYSICS

1) Which of the following does not hold in SHM ?

(1) Work done in one complete oscillation is zero.

(2) Energy is converted continuously from PE to KE and vice versa.
(3) Acceleration is maximum at the mean position.
(4) Velocity is maximum at mean position.

2) A particle executing SHM has amplitude 0.01 m and frequency 60 Hz. The maximum acceleration
of the particle is :-

(1) 60 π2 m/s2
(2) 88 π2 m/s2
(3) 150 π2 m/s2
(4) 144 π2 m/s2

3) The angular velocity and the amplitude of a simple pendulum are 'ω' and 'A' respectively. At a
displacement x from the mean position its kinetic energy is 'T' and potential energy is 'V'. Then the

ratio is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents SHM :-
(i) y = sin ωt – cos ωt
(ii) y = sin3 ωt (iii) y = sin ωt + cos 2ωt

(iv) y = 5 cos

(1) Only (i)

(2) Only (iii) does not represent SHM
(3) Only (i) and (iv)
(4) Only (i) and (ii)
5) A particle executes simple hormonic motion between x = –A and x = +A. It starts from x = 0

moves in +x-direction. The time taken for it to move from x = 0 to x = is T1 and to move from to

is T2, then

(1) T1 < T2
(2) T1 = T2
(3) T2 = 2T1
(4) T1 = 2T2

6) The period of a simple pendulum, whose bob is a hollow metallic sphere, is T. The period is T1
when the bob is filled with sand, T2 when it is filled with mercury. Which of the following is true?

(1) T > T1 > T2

(2) T < T1 < T2
(3) T > T1 = T2
(4) T = T1 = T2

7) Figure shows the variation of force action on a particle of mass 400 g executing simple harmonic
motion. The frequency of oscillation of the particle is :-

(1) 4 s–1
(2) (5/2π) s–1
(3) (1/8π) s–1
(4) (1/2π) s–1

8) Which of the following quantities are always negative in a simple harmonic motion ?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (i), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii)
(4) (iii), (iv)

9) If displacement x and velocity n are related as 4v2 = 25 – x2 in a SHM. Then time period of given
SHM is (consider SI units)

(1) π
(2) 2π
(3) 4π
(4) 6π

10) Four pendulums A, B, C and D are suspended from the same elastic support as shown in figure.
A and C are of the same length, while B is smaller than A and D is larger than A. If A is given a

transverse displacement.

(1) D will vibrate with maximum amplitude

(2) C will vibrate with maximum amplitude
(3) B will vibrate with maximum amplitude
(4) All the four will oscillate with equal amplitude

11) Velocity-time graph of a particle performing SHM is as shown in Fig. Amplitude of oscillation is
then nearly :-

(1) 20 cm
(2) 48 cm
(3) 75 cm
(4) 8 cm

12) What will be the equation of velocity of oscillating particle, if oscillation starts from A/2 position
towards positive extreme?
(1) x = A sin [ωt + π/3]
(2) x = A sin [ωt + π/4]
(3) v = Aωcos [ωt + π/3]
(4) v = Aωcos [ωt + π/6]

13) In artificial satellite, the watch used is :

(1) Spring watch

(2) Simple pendulum watch
(3) (1) & (2) both
(4) None

14) The periods of oscillations of a spring mass system in the two arrangements shown below are T1

and T2 respectively. The ratio is

(1) sinθ : 1
(2) cosθ : 1
(3) tanθ : 1
(4) 1 : 1

15) In the given diagram, S1 and S2 are identical springs. The frequency of oscillation of the mass m

is f. If one of the springs is removed, the frequency will be :-

(1) f
(2) 2 f
(3)
(4)

16) A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible mass. The spring is pulled a little and then
released, so that the mass executes SHM of time period T. If the mass is increased by m, the time
period becomes 5T/3. The ratio of m/M is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

17) Time period of a simple pendulum in a freely falling lift will be :-

(1) Finite
(2) Infinite
(3) Zero
(4) All of these

18) Two bodies P and Q of equal mass are suspended from two separate massless springs of force
constants K1 and K2 respectively. If the maximum velocity of them are equal during their motion, the
ratio of amplitude of P and Q is.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) In the adjacent figure, if the incline plane is smooth and the springs are identical, then the

period of oscillation of this body is :-

2π
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) In a simple harmonic oscillator, at the mean position :-

(1) kinetic energy is minimum, potential energy is maximum

(2) both kinetic and potential energies are maximum
(3) kinetic energy is maximum, potential energy is minimum
(4) both kinetic and potential energies are minimum

21) A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such that one piece is double the length of the
other. Then the longer piece will have a force constant of :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 3k
(4) 6k

22) Transverse elastic waves can be propagate in

(1) Both solid & gas

(2) In solid but not gas
(3) neither solid nor gas
(4) None

23) The equation of stationary wave along a stretched string is given by

y = 5 sin cos 40πt,

where x and y are in centimeter and t in second. The separation between two adjacent nodes is:-

(1) 6 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 1.5 cm

24) When a stretched wire and a tuning fork are sounded together, 5 beats per second are produced,
when length of wire is 95 cm or
100 cm, frequency of the fork is :-

(1) 90 Hz
(2) 195 Hz
(3) 100 Hz
(4) 105 Hz

25) When two progressive waves of intensity I1 and I2 but slightly different frequencies superpose,
the resultant intensity fluctuates between :-

(1) and
(2) and
(3) (I1 + I2) and
(4)
and

26) The first resonance length of a resonance tube is 40 cm and the second resonance length is 122
cm. The third resonance length of the tube will be :-

(1) 200 cm
(2) 202 cm
(3) 203 cm
(4) 204 cm

27)

In a standing wave on a string :-

(1) In one time period all the particles are simultaneously at rest once
(2) All the particles must be at their positive extremes once in a time period
(3) All the particles may be at their positive extremes simulaneously once in a time period.
(4) All the particles are never at rest simultaneously.

28) S1, S2 are two coherent sources of sound located along x-axis separated by 4λ where λ is
wavelength of sound emitted by them. Number of maximum located on the elliptical boundary

around it will be :-

(1) 16
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 4

29) A sound wave starting from source S, follows two paths SEFD and SEABFD. AB = , AE = BF =
0.6 and wave length of wave is 6 m. If maximum sound is heard at D, then minimum value of length
l is-

(1) 11m
(2) 6m
(3) 2.5m
(4) 5m
30)

If the frequency of a wave is increased by 25%, then the change in its wavelength will be :
(medium not changed) :-

(1) 20% increase

(2) 20% decrease
(3) 25% increase
(4) 25% decrease

31) A big explosion on the moon cannot be heard on the earth because : ––

(1) The explosion produces high frequency sound waves which are inaudible
(2) Sound waves require a material medium for propagation
(3) Sound waves are absorbed in the moon’s atmosphere
(4) Sound waves are absorbed in the earth’s atmosphere

32) At the room temperature the velocity of sound in O2 gas is V. Then in mixture of H2 and O2 gas
the speed of sound at same temprature :-

(1) will be less than V

(2) will be more than V
(3) will be equal to V
(4) nothing can be said

33) A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz is vibrated with a sonometer wire and 6 beats per second are
heard. The beat frequency reduces if the tension in the string is slightly increased. The original
frequency of vibration of the string is :

(1) 506 Hz
(2) 512 Hz
(3) 518 Hz
(4) 524 Hz

34) The temperature at which the speed of sound in air becomes double of its value at 0°C.

(1) 1092ºC
(2) 819ºK
(3) 819ºC
(4) 546ºC

35) The path difference between the two waves

and

is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A string of density 7.5 gcm–3 and area of cross-section 0.2 mm2 is stretched under a tension of
20N. When it is plucked at the mid-point, the speed of the transverse wave on the wire is

(1) 116 m/s

(2) 40m/s
(3) 200 m/s
(4) 5900 m/s

37) When a sound wave of frequency 300Hz passes through a medium the maximum displacement of
a particle of the medium is 0.1 cm. the maximum velocity of the particle is equal to

(1) 60π cm s–1

(2) 30π cm s–1
(3) 30 cm s–1
(4) 60 cm s–1

38) An earthquake generates both transverse (S) and longitudinal (P) sound waves in the earth. The
speed of S waves is about 6 km/s and that of P waves is about 9 km/s. A seismograph records P and
S waves from an earthquake. The first P wave arrives 5 minute before the first S wave. The
epicentre of earthquake is located at a distance about

(1) 54 km
(2) 540 km
(3) 5400 km
(4) 72 km

39) A tuning fork of frequency 100 Hz when sounded together with another tuning fork of unknown
frequency produces 2 beats per second. On loading the tuning fork whose frequency is not known
and sounded together with a tuning fork of frequency 100 Hz produces one beat, then the frequency
of the other tuning fork is

(1) 102
(2) 98
(3) 99
(4) 101

40) The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density 0.04 kgm-1 is given by y=0.02 (m) sin
 . The tension in the string is

(1) 4.0N
(2) 12.5N
(3) 25N
(4) 6.25N

41) The transverse wave shown is travelling from right to left in a medium. The direction of the
instantaneous velocity of a particle of the medium at point P is :

(1) ↑
(2) ↓
(3)
(4) ←

42) The vibrations of four air columns under identical conditions are represented in the figure below.

The ratio of frequencies np : nq : nr : ns will be

(1) 12 : 6 : 3 : 4
(2) 1 : 2 : 4 : 3
(3) 1 : 2 : 4 : 3
(4) 6 : 2 : 3 : 4

43) Stationary waves are produced in 20 m long streched string. If the string vibrates in 5 segments
and wave velocity is 40 m/sec, then the frequency

(1) 10 Hz
(2) 5 Hz
(3) 4 Hz
(4) 2 Hz

44) Two identical piano wires, kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600
Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6
beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be :-

(1) 0.01
(2) 0.02
(3) 0.03
(4) 0.04
45) The second overtone of an open pipe A and a closed pipe B have the same frequencies at a given
temperature. Both pipes contain air. The ratio of fundamental frequency of A to the fundamental
frequency of B is:

(1) 3: 5
(2) 5: 3
(3) 5: 6
(4) 6: 5

CHEMISTRY

1) Which will have largest Δ Tb ?

(1) 180 g glucose in 1 kg water

(2) 342 g sucrose in 1,000 g water
(3) 18 g glucose in 100 g water
(4) 65 g urea in 1 kg water

2) Liquid-liquid solution are classified into :-

(1) ideal solution

(2) non-ideal solution
(3) ideal and non-ideal solution
(4) only suspensions

3) What is the osmotic pressure of decimolar solution of glucose at 30°C?

(1) 2.48 atm

(2) 8.24 atm
(3) 3.48 atm
(4) 0.241 atm

4) A gas is compressed by constant pressure 0.5 atm from a volume of 10 litre to 1 litre. If the gas
absorbs 250 J of heat from the surroundings what will be the value of ΔE :-

(1) –205 J
(2) –710 J
(3) +710 J
(4) +205 J

5)

Magnitude of net work done in the given cycle is :-

(1) 60 × 10–3 J
(2) 54 × 102 J
(3) 40 × 10–3 J
(4) 50 × 10–3 J

6) One mol of gas absorbs 30 J of heat at const. volume and its temperature raises from 30°C to
35°C. The value of ΔU is:-

(1) 60 J
(2) 150 J
(3) 30 J
(4) 200 J

7) A gas under high pressure is allowed to expand isothermally against vacuum then which is
correct ?

(1) ΔG < 0
(2) ΔE = 0
(3) W = 0
(4) All of these

8) During isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, its :

(1) Internal energy increases

(2) Enthalpy decreases
(3) Internal energy and enthalpy remains unaltered
(4) Enthalpy reduces to zero

9) Which process is known as isoentropic process:-

(1) Isothermal reversible

(2) Adiabatic reversible
(3) Isobaric
(4) Isochoric

10) For the vaporisation of water :

H2O(l) H2O(g) [1 atm. pressure]
Given: ΔS = 120 JK–1 and ΔH = + 45.0 kJ.
Evaluate the temperature at which liquid water and water vapours are in equilibrium at 1 atm.
pressure

(1) 273 K
(2) 370 K
(3) 373 K
(4) 375 K

11) A system is expanded under adiabatic process:-

(1) Temperature increases

(2) E decreases
(3) E increases
(4) None of these

12) Identify endothermic reaction with increase in entropy :-

(1)
H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(l)
(2) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(3) NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O
(4) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

13) Evaluate ΔU at 500 K for the process :-

Mg(s) + 2HCl(g) → MgCl2(s)+H2(g) ; ΔH = – 109 Kcal

(1) –204 kcal

(2) –108 kcal
(3) –9 kcal
(4) +9 kcal

14) The work done during the expansion of a gas from volume of 4 dm3 to 6 dm3 against a constant
external pressure of 3 atm is (1 atm-L = 101.32 J) :-

(1) –608 J
(2) –6 J
(3) + 304 J
(4) –304 J

15) For an endothermic reaction, the change in entropy is negative, then reaction is

(1) non spontaneous at any temperature

(2) spontaneous at low temperature
(3) spontaneous at all temperature
(4) spontaneous at high temperature
16) Calculate work done during isothermal reversible process when 5 mole ideal gas is expanded so
that its volume is doubled at 400K?

(1) –11.5 kJ
(2) –344 kJ
(3) 0
(4) –2.8 kJ

17) If 400 kJ work is done by the system and 150 kJ heat is given to system then what will be effect
on internal energy of the system

(1) Increases by 250 kJ

(2) Decreases by 250 kJ
(3) Increases by 600 kJ
(4) Decreases by 600 kJ

18) For which of the following reactions ΔH is less than ΔE :–

(1) C12H22O11(s) + 12O2(g) → 12CO2(g) + 11H2O(l)

(2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)
(3) N2O4(g) → 2NO2(g)
(4) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g)

19)

The correct set of intensive properties :-

(1) P, T
(2) V, T
(3) P, V
(4) V, E

20) An ideal gas expands from 2 L to 10 L adiabatically against a constant external pressure of 10
atm. Then find the change in internal energy:-

(1) –80 L-atm

(2) Zero
(3) 80 L-atm
(4) 40 L-atm

21) During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas in vacuum :-

(1) q = 0 and ΔU ≠ 0
(2) q ≠0 and ΔU ≠ 0
(3) q ≠ 0 and ΔU ≠ 0
(4) q = 0 and ΔU = 0
22) The mixture of n-hexane and n-heptane is an example of

(1) ideal solution

(2) non-ideal solution
(3) dilute solution
(4) none

23) In cold countries, ethylene glycol is added to water in the radiators of cars during winters. It
result in reducing

(1) viscoity
(2) specific heat
(3) freezing point
(4) boiling point

24) 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionised. If Kf for water is1.86 K kg mol–1,
the lowering in freezing point of the solution is :

(1) –0.56 K
(2) –1.12 K
(3) 0.56 K
(4) 1.12 K

25) Which of the two processes occur at the same rate in order to achieve this equilibrium ?
Solute + Solvent Solution

(1) Saturation, unsaturation

(2) Saturation, crystallization
(3) Dissolution, crystallization
(4) Unsaturation, crystallization

26) If liquid A and B form ideal solution, then :-

(1) ΔGmix = 0
(2) ΔHmixing = 0
(3) ΔGmix = 0, ΔSmix = 0
(4) ΔSmix = 0

27) The solubility of gases in liquid is maximum at :-

(1) Low temperature and low pressure

(2) Low temperature and high pressure
(3) High temperature and high pressure
(4) High temperature and low pressure

28) The freezing point of equimolal aqueous solution will be highest for :
(1) urea
(2) Ca(NO3)2
(3) Al(NO3)3
(4) NaCl

29) Equal moles of benzene and toluene are mixed the V.P. of benzene and toluene in pure state are
700 and 600 mm Hg respectively. The mole fraction of benzene in vapour state is

(1) 0.7
(2) 0.47
(3) 0.50
(4) 0.54

30) The vapour pressure of benzene at a certain temperature is 640 mm of Hg. A non-volatile and
non-electrolyte solid, weighing 2.175 g is added to 39.08 of benzene. The vapour pressure of the
solution is 600 mm of Hg. What is the molecular weight of solid substance?

(1) 49.50
(2) 59.6
(3) 69.2
(4) 79.8

31) The mole fraction of glucose in aqueous solution is 0.2, then molality of solution will be

(1) 2
(2) 12
(3) 13.8
(4) 55.56

32) 100 mL of liquid A and 25 mL of liquid B are mixed to form a solution of volume 125 mL. Then
the solution is:

(1) ideal
(2) non-ideal with positive deviation
(3) non-ideal with negative deviation
(4) cannot be predicted

33) Evaluate ΔH for the reaction :

(g)→ C(g) + 2H(g) + 2 Cl(g)

The average bond energy of C–H bond and C–Cl bond are 416 kJ and 325 kJ mol–1 respectively.

(1) 1450 kJ mol–1

(2) 1520 kJ mol–1
(3) 1420 kJ mol–1
(4) 1482 kJ mol–1

34) The enthalpy of formation of ammonia at 298K is: Δ = –46.11 kJ mol–1. This value is applicable
to this equation :-

(1) ½N2(g) +3/2H2(g) → NH3(g)

(2) N(g) + 3H(g) → NH3(g)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
(4) ½N2(g) + 3/2H2(g) → NH3(ℓ)

35) The enthalpy of combustion of C6H6(ℓ) is –3250 KJ. When 0.39 g of benzene is burnt in excess of
oxygen, the amount of heat evolved is :-

(1) 16.25 J
(2) 16.25 KJ
(3) 32.5 KJ
(4) 32.5 J

36) Heat of combustion of C2H6 and C2H2 is –341.1 and –310.0 Kcal mol–1. Which one is best fuel.

(1) C2H6
(2) C2H2
(3) both
(4) None of these

37) Which of the following equation correctly represent enthalpy of neutralization (take moles
according to stoichiometric coefficient).

H2SO4(aq) + 2KOH(aq) →
(1)
K2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(ℓ),ΔH1
H2SO3(aq)+2KOH(aq) →
(2)
K2SO3(aq) + 2H2O(ℓ),ΔH2
HCl(aq) + KOH(aq) →
(3)
KCl(aq) + H2O(ℓ),ΔH3
(4) All of the above

38) Pressure - volume (PV) work done by an ideal gaseous system at constant volume is-

(1)

(2)

(3) – PΔV
(4) zero

39) Thermodynamics is not concerned about

(1) Energy changes involved in a chemical reaction
(2) The extent to which a chemical reaction proceeds
(3) The rate at which reaction proceeds
(4) The feasibility of a chemical reaction

40) Which of the following reactions will have the value of ΔS with a negative sign ?

(1) H2O (ℓ) → H2O(g)

(2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)
(3) Cl2(g) → 2 Cl(g)
(4) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

41) Given that

.
The heat of sublimation of A will be

(1) x – y
(2) x + y
(3) x or y
(4) – x + y

42) If the entropy of vaporisation of a liquid is 110 JK–1 mol–1 and its enthalpy of vaporisation is 50
kJmol–1. The boiling point of the liquid is

(1) 354.5 K
(2) 454. 5 K
(3) 554.5K
(4) 445.5K

43) Free energy change at 300 K for following reaction will be :-

2CuO(s) → CuO(s) + O2(g)

Given that ΔH = 145.6 kJ mol–1 & ΔS = 116 JK–1 mol–1 :-

(1) 110.8 kJ mol–1

(2) 221.5 kJ mol–1
(3) 55.4 kJ mol–1
(4) 145.6 kJ mol–1

44) What is the free energy change (ΔG) when 1.0 mole of water at 100°C and 1 atm pressure is
converted into steam at 100°C and 1 atm pressure?

(1) 80 cal
(2) 540 cal
(3) 620 cal
(4) zero

45) Assertion : Depression in freezing point for same concentration solutions of Na2SO4 & Hg2I2 in
the water is same (Assuming 100% ionisation)
Reason : Hg2I2 in water dissociates as
Hg2I2 ⇌ 2Hg+ + 2I–

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

BIOLOGY

1) A sigmoid or S-curve is a characterstic of :-

(1) Living organism growing in a natural environment

(2) Typically growth of only cells, of plant.
(3) Root elongation at a constant rate.
(4) Parallel line technique.

2) Apical dominance is caused due to action of

(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Cytokinins
(4) Abscissic acid

3) One of the synthetic auxin is

(1) GA
(2) IBA
(3) NAA
(4) IAA

4)

Go through the following figure

Choose the correct labelling.

 (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) Log phase Exponential phase Stationary phase
(2) Lag phase Exponential phase Stationary phase
(3) Exponential phase Log phase Stationary phase
(4) Stationary phase Exponential phase Log phase
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Which of the following is conclusion of given

diagram :-

(1) Tip of coleoptile is the site of transmittable influence

(2) Tip is the photoperceptive structure for phototactic
(3) Stump is the site of transmittable influence
(4) Stump is the photoperceptive structure for photoropism

6) Read the following statements :

(i) The unlimited growth throughout the life in plants is due to the presence of meristems at all
locations in their body
(ii) The form of growth in plants wherein new cells are always being added to the body by the
activity of the meristem is called 'open' from of growth
(iii) Growth may be reversible
(iv) Development is the sum total of two processes growth and differentiation
(v) Growth is regarded as one of the most fundamental characteristics of living being
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii)
(4) (iii) only

7) Assertion :- 2, 4–D is artificial auxin. Reason :- 2, 4–D is a weedicide and quickly kills mature
monocots.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
8) What causes a green plant to bend towards light as it Grows ?

(1) Because Green plants need light to carry on Photosynthesis

(2) Because Green plants are phototropic
(3) Auxin accumulates on shaded side stimulating Greater cell elongation
(4) Light Stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to Grow faster

9)

In photosynthesis, P680 refers to :-

(1) Reaction center of photosystem I

(2) Antennae molecules complex
(3) Reaction center of photosystem II
(4) Complete light harvesting complexes

10)

Which one does not differ between a C3 and C4 plants ?

I. Initial CO2 acceptor
II. Extent of photorespiration
III. Enzyme catalyzing reaction that fixes CO2 in mesophyll cells
IV. Presence of Calvin cycle
V. Leaf anatomy

(1) I and V
(2) IV
(3) II and III
(4) V

11) A process concern with photosynthesis which helpful for other organisms on earth is :-

(1) Photophosphorylation
(2) Breakdown of glucose
(3) Photolysis of water
(4) Redox reaction

12) Most abundant bimolecules on earth are produced by :-

(1) Fungi, algae, Green plants

(2) All bacteria, Fungi and Plants
(3) All plants and all bacteria
(4) All plants and some bacteria

13) Moll's half leaf experiment was done to show _____ was required for photosynthesis.

(1) H2O
(2) Chlorophyll
(3) Light
(4) CO2

14) Six molecules of 14CO2 were introduced into Chlorella algae. How many molecules of PGA must
be radioactive ?

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Twelve
(4) Six

15) F. W went credited for

(1) Isolation of Auxin

(2) Term Auxin
(3) Both A and B
(4) Discovery of Gibberellin

16) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(1) Glucose is stored as starch – Jan Ingenhousz

(2) O2 evolved during photosynthesis comes from H2O – Cornelius Van Neil
(3) Action spectrum of photosynthesis – Joseph priestley
(4) Sunlight is essential for photosynthesis – Engelmann.

17) Photosynthesis is a :

(1) Anabolic, exergonic and physico-chemical process

(2) Anabolic, endergonic and biophysical process
(3) Catabolic, endergonic and biochemical process
(4) Anabolic, endergonic and physico-chemical process

18) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) z-chlorophyll a, x-chlorophyll b, y-carotenoids

(2) z-chlorophyll a, y-chlorophyll b, x-carotenoids
(3) y-chlorophyll a, z-chlorophyll b, x-carotenoids
(4) y-chlorophyll a, x-chlorophyll b, z-carotenoids
19) Maximal size in terms of wall thickening and protoplasmic modifications are achieved by -

(1) Cells of division phase

(2) Cells of maturation phase
(3) Cells of elongation phase
(4) Cells of meristematic zone

20) Who proved that sunlight is essential for plant process that somehow purifies that air fouled by
burning candles or breathing animals by placing Priestley’s setup once in the dark and once in the
sunlight :-

(1) Julius Von Sachs

(2) T.W. Engelmann
(3) Joseph Priestley
(4) Jan Ingenhousz

21) Assertion :- In stroma lamellae only cyclic phosphorylation occur.

Reason :- In stroma lamella only PS I is present and FNR is absent.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) Only PS-I occurs in -

(1) Stroma
(2) Grana thylakoids
(3) Stroma Lamella
(4) Matrix

23) In the diagram given below identify b,c, and d :-

(1) b-pheophytin, c-plastocyanin, d-Fd

(2) b-plastoquinone, c-plastocyanin, d-FRS
(3) b-FRS, c-plastocyanin, d-plastoquinone
(4) b-pheophytin, c-plastoquinone, d-FRS
24) If available CO2 concentration is 360 ppm then which of the following plant will feel CO2 stress?

(1) Sorghum
(2) Sugarcane
(3) Maize
(4) Tomato

25) Which phase of calvin cycle do not use any energy rich molecule ?

(1) Carboxylation only

(2) Carboxylation and reduction
(3) Reduction and regeneration
(4) Reduction only

26) Study the given flow chart of cyclic photophosphorylation and select the correct answer for A, B
and C :-

A B C

(1) PS I e– acceptor P680

(2) PS I e– acceptor P700

(3) PS II Cytochrome P700

(4) PS II Cytochrome P680

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of :-

(1) ATP
(2) NADPH
(3) ATP and NADPH
(4) ATP, NADPH and O2

28) In presence of high concentration of oxygen, RuBP Oxygenase converts RuBP to :-

(1) Malic acid and PEP
(2) PGA and PEP
(3) PGA and malic acid
(4) PGA and phosphoglycolate

29) J. priestley's experiment was on :-

(1) Chlorella and Scenedesmus

(2) Cladophora
(3) Mint plant
(4) Purple and green sulphur bacteria

30) In the diagram given below identify a,b,c and d :-

(1) b-carboxylation, a-reduction, c-glycolytic reversal, d-regenration

(2) a-glycolytic reversal , b-carboxylation, c-Fixation, d-regenration
(3) a-Fixation, b-glycolytic reversal, c-carboxylation, d-regenration
(4) b-reduction, c-glycolytic reversal, d-regenration, a-carboxylation

31) During photosynthesis, fixation of single CO2 molecule in maize (A) and tomato (B) plants
requires :-

(A) 5 ATP & 2 NADPH2

(1)
(B) 3 ATP & 2 NADPH2
(A) 3 ATP & 2 NADPH2
(2)
(B) 3 ATP & 2 NADPH2
(A) 2 ATP & 2 NADPH2
(3)
(B) 3 ATP & 2 NADPH2
(A) 30 ATP & 12 NADPH2
(4)
(B) 18 ATP & 12 NADPH2

32)

Select the correct option for given statements.

(A) The F1 head piece is a transmembrane protein which contains the site of ATP synthesis.
(B) F0 is an integral membrane protein complex which forms the channel through which protons
cross the outer membrane of mitochondria

(1) Only (A) is correct

(2) Only (B) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect

33) Which of the following growth regulators can fit either of the groups (Promoter and Inhibitor)

(1) C2H4
(2) ABA
(3) GA3
(4) IAA

34) Read the following four statement (a-d) carefully.

(a) The chlorophyll-a molecule form the reaction centre.
(b) Photochemical phase includes light absorption, water splitting, O2-release and the formation of
high chemical intermediates like ATP and NADPH.
(c) Dark reaction is not dependent on the products of light reaction like ATP & NADH2
(d) In PS-II, the reaction centre chlorophyll-b has an absorption peak at 680 nm.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) To synthesise one molecule of glucose the requirements of CO2 : ATP : NADPH + H+ in C3 plants
are C4 plants are :

C3 Plant CO2 : ATP : C4 Plant CO2 : ATP :

NADPH + H+ NADPH + H+

1 6 : 30 : 12 i 6 : 18 : 12

2 1:5:2 ii 1:3:2

3 6 : 18 : 12 iii 6 : 30 : 12

4 1:3:2 iv 1:5:2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36)

Which of the following is correct w.r.t. electron transport chain in the Z-scheme of light reaction?

The electrons are not used up as they pass through the electron transport chain but passed on
(1)
to the pigments of PS – I
 During movement of electrons from one carrier to the next results in gain of energy in the
(2)
electrons
The transfer of electrons, starting from PS–II, uphill to the acceptor, down the electron
(3) transport chain to PS–I, excitation of electrons, transfer to another acceptor and finally downhill
to NADP+ occurs
(4) Both (1) and (3)

37)

What is correct about the following statements ?

(a) Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm of the cell
(b) Aerobic respiration occurs inside mitochondria
(c) ETS occurs in outer mitochondrial membrane
(d) C51H98O6 is tripalmitin

(e) R.Q. = volume of O2 evolved/volume of CO2 consumed

(1) a, b and d are correct
(2) b, c and d are correct
(3) c, d and e are correct
(4) b, d and e are correct

38) How many ATP molecules are released when one molecule of glucose is oxidised in our
liver cells ?

(1) 36
(2) 38
(3) 2
(4) 8

39) Number of ATP produced from one pyruvic acid during conversion to acetyl CoA is :-

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 15

40) If a cell perform aerobic respiration then in glycolytic pathway, the molecules of ATP can
produced in :-

(1) Two ways first from direct transfer of phoshphate to ADP and second is by oxidation of NADH2
(2) Only one way by oxidatio of NADH2
(3) Only one way by direct transfer of phosphate to ADP
(4) Two ways first is oxidation of NADH2 and second is oxidation of FADH2

41) In Krebs' cycle, number of molecules of CO2, NADH, FADH2 and ATP produced from one glucose
molecule :-
(1) 6CO2 , 8 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP
(2) 6CO2 , 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP
(3) 4CO2 , 6 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP
(4) 4CO2 , 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP

42) Anaerobic respiration takes place in :-

(1) Ribosome
(2) Nucleus
(3) Vacuole
(4) Cytoplasm

43) Assertion :- Glycolysis is the first step of respiration in which glucose completely breaks into
CO2 and H2O. Reason :- In this process, there is net gain of twenty four molecules of ATP.

(1) Both assertion & reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct.
(4) Assertion and reason both are incorrect.

44) Choose the components which are found in both oxidative and photophosphorylation :-

(1) Cytochromes, UbiQuinone, Fe-S

(2) Cytochrome C, PlastoQuinone, Fd
(3) Cytochromes, Protonpump, Proton gradient
(4) Oxysomes, Cytochromeb6, PlastoQuinone

45) In a respiring cell R.Q. is in creased when their is a shift from:-

(1) Carbohydrates to fats as substrate

(2) Fats to carbohydrates as substrate
(3) Proteins to fats as substrate
(4) Carbohydrates to fats as substrate

46) Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding assisted reproductive technologies :-
(a) ZIFT - The zygote or early embryo (with upto 8 blastomere) transferred into the fallopian tube
(b) ICSI - A sperm is directly injected into the ovum to form an embryo in the laboratory
(c) IUI - The semen collected either from the husband or healthy donor is artificially introduced into
the uterus
(d) GIFT - Transfer of zygote collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who
cannot produce one but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and development
Which of the above statements are correct :

(1) a, b, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, d, a

47) Find the correct match :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Hormonal Effective
(1) Norplant method of upto 10
contraception years

Copper and
Effective
(2) Cu-7 hormone
upto 1 year
releasing IUD

Physical
Used by
(3) Vaults barrier of
female
contraception

Invivo A type of
(4) ICSI
fertilisation ART
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48)

In a female undergoing tubectomy, which one of the following event will not occur ?

(1) Menstruation cycle

(2) Ovulation
(3) Fusion of sperm & ovum
(4) Formation of grafian follicle

49)

Match the following –

Method Mode of Action

(A) Saheli (i) Prevents sperm reaching cervix
(B) Nirodh (ii) Prevents implantation
(C) Vasectomy (iii) Once a week pill
(D) Copper–T (iv) Semen contains no sperm
(1) (A)–iii, (B)–i, (C)–iv, (D)–ii
(2) (A)–ii, (B)–iii, (C)–i, (D)–iv
(3) (A)–iv, (B)–i, (C)–ii, (D)–iii
(4) (A)–iii, (B)–iv, (C)–i, (D)–ii

50) LNG - 20 is -
(1) Barrier method
(2) IUD
(3) Pill
(4) Natural method

51) According to 2011 census report the population growth rate was -

(1) Less than 2%

(2) more than 2%
(3) 7.2%
(4) 5%

52) How many of the following contraceptive measures are exclusively for males ?
Condom, Diaphragm, Vault, IUDs, Tubectomy, Vasectomy

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

53) In the given list how many are the properties of an ideal contraceptive method ?
User friendly, Easily available, Effective, Reversible, No or least side effects.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

54) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Oral contraceptive pills contain small doses of either progesterone or progesterone -
oestrogen combination.
Statement-II : Oral pills are very effective with lesser side effects and high contraceptive value.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

55) Read the following statement carefully and choose the incorrect statements :
(A) Sterilisation method stop the gamete formation.
(B) Hormone releasing IUD make the uterus un-suitable for implantation.
(C) Multiload-375 is the example of Cu releasing IUD.
(D) Lactation amnenorrhoea effective upto 6 month after pregnancy.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and D
(4) C and D

56) Match the List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(A) Cut and tie the vas-deferens I. Oral method

(B) Avoid insemination during coitus II. Barrier method

(C) Rubber to cover the cervix III. Surgical method

(D) Weekly pill IV. Natural method

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

57) Which of the following is correct for the given figure ?

(1) It covers the vagina and cervix

(2) These are used by females as implants under the skin
(3) They are orally administered
(4) They are surgically inserted in ovaries

58) Match list-I with list-II regarding reproductive procedures and their purposes.

List-I List-II

Transferring the egg into

(a) MTP (i)
fallopian tube

Inducing abortion during early

(b) Infertility treatments (ii)
pregnancy

ART (Assisted Facilitating pregnancy through

(c) (iii)
reproductive technology) medical assistance

ZIFT (Zygote Transferring fertilized egg into

(d) (iv)
intrafallopian transfer) the fallopian tube
 GIFT (Gamete Treating the conditions causing
(e) (v)
Intrafallopian transfer) difficulty in conceiving

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(v), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e)-(i)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iv), (e)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i), (e)-(v)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iv)

59) Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct option regarding IUD.
(i) IUD increases phagocytosis of sperm is ___A___
(ii) IUD which make the uterus unsuitable for implantation is ___B___
(iii) IUD which makes the cervix hostile to the sperms is ___C___
(iv) IUD which suppresses motility of sperm ___D___.

(1) Lippes loop, Cu-T, LNG-20, Combination of Estrogen and progesterone

(2) Lippes loop, Cu-T, LNG-20, Multiload-375
(3) Lippes loop, LNG-20, Progestasert, Cu-T
(4) Cu-T, Lippes loop, Multiload-375, LNG-20

60) Read the following statements :

a. Ideal contraceptive should not be userfriendly.
b. Saheli "Once a day" pill with high contraceptive value.
c. MTP are considered relatively safe during first trimester.
d. Govt of India legalised MTP in 1871.
e. Lippes loop increase phagocytosis of sperm with in uterus.
Choose the correct option :

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d, e
(3) d, e only
(4) c & e only

61) Which of the following is a wrong match between the type of contraception and its function?

Contraceptive device Function

1 Contraceptive pills Inhibit ovulation

2 Sterilisation Inhibit gamete formation

3 IUDs Inhibit implantation

4 Natural methods Avoid chances of ovum and sperm meeting

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
62) Which of the following statements is correct with reference to a test tube baby?

Fertilisation of the egg is completed outside the body; the embryo is then placed in the womb of
(1)
the mother where the gestation is completed
Fertilisation of the egg is completed in the female genital tract. It is then taken out and gown in
(2)
a large test tube
(3) A prematurely born baby is reared in an incubator
(4) Fertilisation of the egg and growth of the embryo is completed in a large test tube

63) Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are made of rubber and are inserted into the
female reproductive tract to cover the cervix before coitus.
Statement 2 : these are chemical barriers of conception which are reusable.

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

(2) Statements 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

64) Choose the right one among the statements given below.

(1) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself

(2) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
(3) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
(4) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced

65) Read statement with respect to and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: In ICSI technique the semen is collected either from the husband or a healthy donor
is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus.
Statement 2: In ZIFT, the zygote or early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres) could be transferred
into the fallopian tube.

(1) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect

(2) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct
(3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
(4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect

66) Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive which is a natural method of contraception
it is due to :

(1) Hypersecretion of oxytocin

(2) Suppression of release of gonadotropins by high level of prolactin
(3) Suppression of ciliary motility in oviducts
(4) Retardation of sperm movement through cervix

67) Assertion : There is chance of fertilisation during 10-17 days menstrual cycle.
Reason : Ovulation occurs during these days.
(1) Assertion & Reason both are correct and reason gives correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason both are correct but reason not give correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

68) How many of the following are methods of contraception for males ?
(a) Condoms
(b) Diaphragm
(c) Injectables
(d) Implants
(e) Vasectomy

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 5

69) Identify A and B and their respective functions:

Function
A B
A B

Inner cell Attach to the Differentiated

(1) Trophoblast
mass Endometrium as embryo

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(2) Trophoblast
mass as embryo Endometrium

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(3) Mesoderm
mass as embryo Endometrium

Attach to the Differentiated

(4) Ectoderm Mesoderm
myometrium as embryo
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

70) Identify the correct match from columns I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) Sertoli cells (a) Epididymis (i) Androgens

 (2) Leydig cells (b) Scrotum (ii) AMH

Temperature regulation
(3) Dartos muscles (c) Testis (iii)
of scrotum

Circular Seminiferous Help in pulsation

(4) (d) (iv)
muscles tubule movement
(1) 2 – a – iii, 1 – c – iv, 3 – b – i, 4 – d – ii
(2) 1 – c – iv, 2 – d – iii, 3 – b – i, 4 – a – ii
(3) 1 – d – ii, 2 – c – i, 3 – b – iii, 4 – a – iv
(4) 3 – b – iv, 4 – a – ii, 2 – d – i, 1 – c – iii

71)

How many of the following are secondary sex organs in males ?

Uterus, Epididymis, Vas deferens, Prostate, Fallopian tube, Seminal vesicles, Penis, Vagina, Testes,
Bulbourethral glands
(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Four

72) How many structures in the list given below show (22 + X) chromosomes?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary spermatocyte, ovum, sperm, oogonia, spermatogonia, polar
body

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

73) Refer the given schematic representation of menstrual cycle showing three phases I, II and III.
Select the option that correctly matches these phases with the following events :-

(i) FSH secreted by the anterior pituitary stimulates the ovarian follicle to secrete oestrogen which
stimulates the proliferation of endometrium.
(ii) LH secreted by the anterior pituitary stimulates the development of corpus luteum which
secretes progesterone
(iii) Reduced production of LH from anterior pituitary causes degeneration of corpus luteum,
thereby menustral flow starts.
 Phase - I Phase - II Phase - III
(1)
(i) (ii) (iii)
Phase - I Phase - II Phase - III
(2)
(iii) (i) (ii)
Phase - I Phase - II Phase - III
(3)
(ii) (iii) (i)
Phase - I Phase - II Phase - III
(4)
(iii) (ii) (i)

74)

Which of the following contributes in the formation of seminal plasma ?

(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Seminal vesicles
(c) Spermatogonia
(d) Leydig cells
(e) Bulbourethral gland
(f) Prostate gland

(1) b, c, e, f
(2) a, b, c, f
(3) b, c, d, e, f
(4) only b, e, f

75) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

(1) A → d → i; B → c → iv, C → b → iii, D → a → ii

(2) A → c → i; B → d → iii, C → d → ii, D → b → iv
(3) A → c → iv; B → d → i, C → b → iii, D → a → ii
(4) A → b → iv; B → c → iii, C → a → ii, D → d → i

76)

During spermatogenesis, how many primary spermatocytes will form 256 spermatozoa ?

(1) 32
(2) 16
(3) 64
(4) 128
77) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column - I Column - II Column - III

Proliferative Formation
(A) (a) 14th day (i)
phase of corpus luteum

Secretory Development
(B) (b) 1st - 4th day (ii)
phase of graafian follicle

Menstruation Shedding of
(C) (c) 15th - 28th day (iii)
phase stratum functionale

Ovulatory Release of
(D) (d) 5th - 13th day (iv)
phase secondary oocyte
(1) A → d → iii; B → c → i, C → b → iv, D → a → ii
(2) A → c → ii; B → b → iii, C → a → i, D → d → iv
(3) A → d → ii; B → c → i, C → b → iii, D → a → iv
(4) A → d → iii; B → b → iv, C → a → ii, D → c → i

78) It is a diagrammatic presentation of developing follicle events, find out correct statement:

(1) A = Primary follicle, C = secondary follicle E = Corpus haemorragicum, F = Corpus luteum

B = Secondary follicle, D = Mature follicle
(2)
E = Corpus haemorragicum, F=Corpus luteum
(3) A = Primary follicle, C = mature follicle E = Corpus luteum, F = Corpus albicans
(4) A = Primary follicle, D = Mature follicle E = Corpus luteum, F = Corpus albicans

79)

Arrange following events of female reproductive cycle in (human) in sequence :-

(I) Secretion of FSH
(II) Growth of corpus luteum
(III) Growth of follicles
(IV) Ovulation

(V) Sudden increase in level of LH.

(1) III → I → IV → II → V
(2) I → III → V → IV → II
(3) I → IV → III → V → II
(4) II → I → III → IV → V

80) Given below is an incomplete flow chart showing influence of hormone on oogenesis in female.
Observe the flow chart carefully and fill in the blanks A and B :-

A-Secretory nature of endometrium

(1)
B-Development of endometrium
A-Development of endometrium
(2)
B-Secretary nature of endometrium
A-Development of perimetrium
(3)
B-Secretary nature of myometrium
(4) A-Development of myometrium B-Secretary nature of perimetrium

81)
See the diagram and Identify A,B,C,D,E :-

A B C D E

(1) Infundibulum Ovary Fimbriae Cervix Vagina

(2) Fallopiantube Infundibulum Cervix Vagina Isthmns

(3) Isthmns Infundibulum Fimbriae Cervix Vagina

(4) Cervix Ovary Vagina Fimbriae Isthmus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Read the following statements about the given diagram carefully and choose the correct option:-
 (i) 'A' carries urine and 'C' stores sperms
(ii) 'B' secretes a fluid that helps in the lubrication of penis
(iii) 'D' produces testosterone but not sperms
(iv) 'C' stores sperms temporarily

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)

83) Seminal plasma in humans is rich in

(1) fructose and calcium but has no enzymes

(2) glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium
(3) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
(4) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.

84) Identify the correct match from the column-I, II, and III :-

I II III

Corpus Maintain the

A Progesterone a i
luteum endometrium

Help in
B Oestrogen b Placenta ii
parturition

Theca
C Relaxin c iii Milk ejection
interna

Post. Proliferation
D Oxytocin d iv
pituitary of endometrium
(1) A-a-i B-d-ii C-b-iii D-c-iv
(2) A-a-i B-c-iv C-b-ii D-d-iii
(3) B-a-iv A-b-iii C-c-ii D-d-i
(4) D-c-iii C-b-ii A-d-iv D-a-i

85) By which of the following pathway milk is sucked out ?

(1) Alveoli → Mammary duct → Mammary tubules → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct
(2) Alveoli → Mammary tubules → Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct
(3) Alveoli → Mammary duct → Lactiferous duct → Mammary ampulla
(4) Alveoli → Lactiferous duct → Mammary ampulla → Mammary tubules → Mammary duct

86)

How many structure in the list given below are haploid ?

Spermatid, Secondary oocyte, Primary spermatocyte, Ovum, sperm, Oogonia, Spermatogonia, Polar
body
(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

87) Which one of given below option does not have all of secondary sex organ :-

(1) Uterus, Penis, Vagina

(2) Fallopian tube, Uterus, Vagina
(3) Epididymis, testis, oviduct
(4) Epididymis, penis, vagina

88) Consider the following statements :-

I Oxytocin is a milk let down hormone
II Progesterone cause strong contraction of endometrium during pregnancy
III Relaxin causes strong contraction in uterine myometrium during parturition
Which of the statements given above is are correct

(1) I only
(2) II and III
(3) III only
(4) I, II and III

89) Consider the following statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only.
(a) Parturition is induced by a complex neuro- endocrine mechanism.
(b) During parturition, secretion of progesterone decreases but secretion of estrogen increases from
placenta.
(c) Progesterone, hCG, hPL and estrogens are produced in women only during pregnancy.
(d) The first movement of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during
the third month of pregnancy.

(1) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) All statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)

90) Which of the following hormone level is increased during pregnancy in the maternal blood ?
(a) FSH
(b) Progesterone
(c) Thyroxine
(d) Cortisol
(e) LH
(f) Estrogen

(1) a, b, e, f
(2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, c, d, f
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 3 3 4 4 2 4 3 2 2 4 1 4 4 3 2 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 3 2 1 4 3 1 4 2 2 2 1 3 2 1 1 3 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 2 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 1 3 2 3 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 4 3 2 2 1 4 3 3 1 4 1 2 2 3 4 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 1 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 3 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 3 4 4 4 3 2 4 1 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 2 4 1 2 1 4 3 4 1 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 1 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 4 3 2 3 3 3 1 2 1 4 4 4 3 4 2 1 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 3 2 4 3 4 3 3 3 3 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 4 2 2 4 3 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explaining : Asking about correctness of statement about SHM ?

Concept : Acceleration of SHM
Solution : Acceleration is zero at mean position, so option (3) is wrong.
Final Answer : option (3)

2) Question Explanation:
We are asked to find the maximum acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic
motion (SHM) with amplitude 0.01 m and frequency 60 Hz .

Concept Used:
In SHM, the maximum acceleration is given by:

where A is the amplitude and ω = 2πf is the angular frequency, with f being the frequency of
the oscillation.

Solution:
1. Given:

A. Amplitude
B. Frequency

2. Angular frequency .
3. The maximum acceleration:

4. Simplifying the calculation:

Final Answer:
The maximum acceleration is , so the correct answer is Option 4.

3)

Explain Question : We have to find ratio of P.E and K.E in SHM at position x.
Concept : This question is based on energy in SHM.
Solution :

P.E. = V =

K.E. = T =

Final answer : 3
4)

Concept:
SHM is described by a sinusoidal function of time, typically in the form y = A sin(ωt + ϕ),
where
A is the amplitude, ω is the angular frequency, and ϕ is the phase constant.
Formula:
For SAM, the displacement function must be sinusoidal. Any function that can be written as y
= A sin(ωt + ϕ) or y A cos(ωt + ϕ) represents SHM.
Calculation:
• (i) y = sin(ωt) – cos(ωt): This is a linear combination of sine and cosine, which can be written
as a sinusoidal function, so it represents SHM.
• (ii) y = sin (ωt): This is not a sinusoidal function, as the cube of a sine function does not
produce a simple sinusoidal motion, so it does not represent SHM.
• (iii) y = sin(ωt) + cos(2ωt): This is a sum of two functions with different angular frequencies,
so it does not represent SHM because SHM requires a single frequency.

• (iv) y = 5 cos :
This is a sinusoidal function, so it represents SHM.
Answer: The correct answer is Option 3: Only (i) and (iv).

5)

6) Time period of pendulum does not depends upon mass of bob but it depends upon length
(distance betwen point of suspension and centre of mass). In first three cases lengths are same
so T = T1 = T2.

7) The slope of the length is

But F = –mω2x or F/x = –mω2

So, –mω2 = –10 or mω2 = 10
or, ω2 = 10/m

8) Acceleration and position vectors are always opposite.

 9) Given 4v2 = 25 – x2
Differentiating with respect to t on both sides,

Motion is simple harmonic :

So, ω2 =

10)

C will vibrate with maximum amplitude

11) V = Aω

12) Explain question : Find the correct velocity equation for SHM when the particle starts
from x = A/2 and moves toward the positive extreme.
Concept : Use ; apply initial condition and choose phase giving positive
velocity.
Solution :
Given x(0) = A/2 .

Since motion starts toward the positive extreme, velocity must be positive = =
choose

The velocity .

Final answer : Option (4)

13) a =

14) Question Explanation :-

A spring-mas system is arranged in two different configurations. The time periods of
oscillations. and T1 and T2. We need to find to ratio T1/T2.

Concept :-
This question based on Spring-Mass System (Oscillatory motion).

Formula :-
• Time period relation.
• Ratio of time periods

Conclusion :- I

.....(i)

...........(ii)
eq (i)/qe(ii)

T1 : T2 = 1 : 1

Correct option is (4)

15)

Explain Question : As shown in figure find frequency of oscillation when one spring is
removed.
Concept : This question is based on oscillation of a spring block system.
Solution : Initial keq = K + K = 2K

initial f =
when one spring is removed

Final answer : Option (4)

16)

correct answer is

17)

18)

A1ω1 = A2ω2

19) Time period of spring pendulum is independent of 'g' therefore given combination is two
springs in parallel combination.

20) At the mean position, x = 0

KE = mω2(A2 – x2) = mω2A2 = (maximum)

PE = mω2x2 = 0 (minimum)

21) If the total length of the spring is 3L, the smaller piece is of length L and the longer piece
is of length 2L. Since the force constant is inversly proportional to the length of the spring and
let the force constant of longer and smaller pieces are Kℓ and Ks respectively. Then

Now we have since

Both the longer and smaller pieces are connected in series they form the original spring of
force constant k,

or or

22)

correct answer is In solid but not gas

23)

K=
 λ = 6 cm
N↔N

24) Let the frequency of tuning fork be n.

Let at length ℓ1 = 95 cm the frequency is n1 and at ℓ2 = 100 cm is frequency is n2(< n1)
Given n1 – n = 5 ...(i)
and n – n2 = 5 ...(ii)
Adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
n1 – n2 = 10 ...(iii)

For stretched wire n ∝

Also,

n1 =

From Eq. (iii), ⇒ n2 = 190

From Eq. (ii), n = n2 + 5 = 190 + 5 = 195 Hz.

25)

Question Explanation :

When two progressive waves of slightly different frequencies and intensities I 1 and
I2 superpose, they product beats. The resultant intensity oscillates due to constructive and
destructive interference.

Concept :

The resultant intensity varies between a maximum and a minimum value based on the
principle of interference. The maximum intensity occurs during constructive interference and
minimum intensity occurs during destructive interference.

Formula :
The resultant intensity is given by:

cosϕ

where ϕ the phase difference between the two waves.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

A. Maximum intensity (Imax) occurs when cosϕ = 1:

Rewriting in squared form;

 A. Minimum intensity (Imax) occurs when cosϕ = –1:

Rewriting in squared form:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct

26) Diffrence b/w two constant resonating length =

here

Now III resonating length = II resonating length +

= 122 + 82
= 204 cm

27) y = 2A sin kx. sinωt

Vy = sin kx. cos ωt

Vy = 0 ⇒ t = T/4, 3T/4
(Vy is zero 2 times in one time period i.e. during upward & downward motion respectively)

28) Question Explaination: Finding interference maxima on an ellipse.

Concept: Constructive Interference

Solution: For constructive interference (a maximum), the path difference (Δx) from the two
sources must be an integer multiple of the wavelength, so Δx=nλ.The maximum possible path
difference is the distance between the sources, which is d=4λ. The minimum path difference is
0. So, we must have ∣nλ∣≤4λ, which means the possible integer values for n are:
n=0,±1,±2,±3,±4.

A. For n=0, there are 2 maxima (on the perpendicular bisector).

B. For n=±1,±2,±3, each value gives 2 maxima due to the symmetrical shape of the ellipse. This
is 3×2×2=12 maxima.
C. For the extreme cases n=±4, the maxima occur at the vertices of the ellipse along the x-axis,
giving 2 more maxima.

Total number of maxima = 2+12+2=16.

Final Answer: (1)

29) For maxima-
Δx = nλ
2 × 0.6 = λ

30)

Since, the medium has not changed, speed of wave remains same.
⇒ v = fλ = constant

decrease

% change in wavelength =

31) Sound is a mechanical wave, it cannot propagate in vacuum

32)

33) T↑ f↑

34) ∴ V ∝

=
T2 = 4T1
T2 = 4 × 273 = 1092 K
or T2 = 1092 – 273 = 819°C

35)
correct answer is

36) The speed of transverse wave,

37)

38) Let d be the distance of epicentre

Time taken be S – wave

39) Suppose nA is known frequency, then nA = 100 Hz, and let nB be the frequency of the other
tuning fork
X = 2 = beat frequency, which is decreasing after loading (i.e. x↓)
Unknown tuning fork is loaded so nB decreases and also given that beat frequency is 1, so beat
frequency also decreases
Hence, nB>nA and nB - nA= x
nB = nA+ x = 100 + 2 = 102 Hz

40)

T = 6.25 N

41) Use vp =

42)

no solution

43)
 no solution

44) n ∝ ⇒ ⇒

=2 = 0.02

45)

3f1 = 5f2

CHEMISTRY

46) 65 g urea in 1 kg of water has a molality of 1.083 m, all other solutions are 1 molal each.

47)

Liquid liquid solution can be classified into ideal and non-ideal solutions on the basis of
Raoult's law.

48)

2.48 atm

49)

+710 J

50)

W = area of graph
W = 9 × 6 = 54 × 102 J

51)

Question Explanation: One mole of gas absorbs 30 J of heat at constant volume, raising its
temperature from 30°C to 35°C. We need to calculate the change in internal energy (ΔU).
Concept: Internal energy (ΔU).
Solution:
At constant volume, heat absorbed equals the change in internal energy:
ΔU = qv
qv = 30 J, constant volume → ΔU = qv = 30 J
Final Answer: Option 3

52) Question Explanation:

We are analyzing th case where a gas expands isothemal against a vacuum . In this process
we need to consider the work done the change in Gibbs free energy (ΔG) and the change in
internal energy (ΔE).

Given:
The gas is expanding isothermallly (constant temperature).
The gas expands against a vacuum (no external pressure)

Concept: Internal energy

Conclusion:
Thus, in an isothermal expansion against a vacuum
• The work done W = 0,
• The Gibbs free energy change ΔG =0
• The internal energy change ΔE = 0
Since all the statement are true the correct answer if indeed option: (4)

53) Concept: For ideal gas in Isothermal process

ΔE = 0 and ΔH = 0
Correct option: (3)

54)

A. Question Explanation: The question asks us to identify the process that is known as an
isoentropic process.

B. Concept: Entropy change

C. Solution:

A. Isoentropic Process: An isoentropic process is a thermodynamic process in which the

entropy of the system remains constant.

B. Adiabatic Process: An adiabatic process is a process in which no heat is transferred

into or out of the system.

C. Reversible Process: A reversible process is a process that can be reversed without

leaving any change in the system or surroundings.

D. Mathematical Calculation:
While there's no direct calculation here, the key concept is that for a reversible adiabatic
process, the change in entropy is zero. This is because the heat transfer (q) is zero in an
adiabatic process, and for a reversible process, the change in entropy (ΔS) is defined as ΔS =
 q/T. If q=0, then ΔS must also be zero.

E. Final Answer: The process known as isoentropic is the Adiabatic reversible process.

55)

correct answer is 375 K

56)

ΔE = q + W
For adiabatic process q = 0

ΔE = W = –ve

57) Question Explanation: Identify the reaction among the options that is both endothermic
(ΔH > 0) and has an increase in entropy (ΔS > 0).

Concept: Increase in Entropy

Solution:
CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Solid gives gas as product
Hence entropy increases.

Final Answer : Option (2)

58) ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT

–109 = ΔU + kcal
–109 = ΔU –1 kcal
ΔU = –109 + 1 = –108 kcal

59) Work done (W) = – P ext. (V2 – V1)

= –3 × (6 – 4) = –6 L-atm
= –6 ×101.32 J (∵1 L atm = 101.32 J)
= –607.92 ≈ 608 J.

60)

non spontaneous at any temperature

61)

w = – 2.303 nRT ℓog

w = – 2.303 × 5 × ℓog 2 × 400
w = – 11.5 kJ

62) Explanation: Find ΔE

Given Data: ,
Concept:
Calculation:

Final Answer: Decreases by 250 KJ

Correct option: (2)

63)

For Δng < 0 ⇒ ΔH < ΔE

64)

correct answer is P, T

65) Wirr = – PExt ΔV

= –10 (10 – 2)
= –80 L-atm
For adiabatic process
q=0
According FLOT
ΔU = 0 + w
ΔU = w = –80 L-atm

66)

Question Explanation :
We must determine q and ΔU during adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas in vacuum (free
expansion).

Concept :

A. Adiabatic → q = 0

B. Expansion in vacuum (free expansion) → no work (w = 0)

C. For ideal gas in free expansion → ΔU = 0 (because ΔU depends only on temperature, and
T remains constant).

Solution :
Since q = 0 and w = 0,
[ ΔU = q + w = 0 ]

Final Answer : Option (4)

67) Explanation :
Nonpolar and nonpolar compounds form ideal solution.
n-hexane and n-heptane form ideal solution
Final answer : ideal solution

68)

freezing point

69)

A. Question Explanation:

The question provides the molality of a weak acid solution, its degree of ionization, and asks us
to calculate the lowering in freezing point (ΔTf).

B. Given Data:

A. Molality (m) = 0.5 molal

B. Degree of ionization (α) = 20% = 0.2

C. Kf (water) = 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹

C. Concepts:

A. Freezing Point Depression: ΔTf = i × Kf × m

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Calculate the van't Hoff factor (i): i = 1 + α = 1 + 0.2 = 1.2

B. Calculate the lowering in freezing point (ΔTf): ΔTf = i × Kf × m = 1.2 × 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹
× 0.5 mol kg⁻¹ = 1.116 K ≈ 1.12 K

E. Final Answer:

The lowering in freezing point of the solution is approximately 1.12 K.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4: 1.12 K

70) Question Explanation : The question asks which two processes occur at the same rate to
establish the equilibrium between a solute, solvent and solution. Equilibrium is a dynamic
state where the rates of forward and reverse processes are equal.

Given Data :
The equilibrium is represented as : Solute + Solvent ⇌ Solution.

Concept :
Solution

Solution :
In the given equilibrium :
The forward process is the dissolution of the solute into the solvent to form the solution.
The reverse process is the crystallization of the solute from the solution.

At equilibrium, the rate of dissolution must be equal to the rate of crystallization. If the rate of
dissolution were higher, the concentration of the solution would increase. If the rate of
crystallization were higher, the concentration of the solution would decrease. Only when these
rates are equal does the concentration of the solution remain constant, which is the definition
of equilibrium.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Dissolution, crystallization

Level : Easy

71) For ideal solution,

ΔGmix = –ve and ΔSmix = +ve
but ΔHmix = 0

72) Low temperature and high pressure.

73) Solution/Explanation:
Molality of all is same then depression is freezing point directly proportional to varthoff
factor.

i for Urea = 1
i for Ca(NO3)2 = 3
i for Al (NO3)3 = 4
i for NaCl = 2

Freezing point
i low freezing point high
Final answer = Urea
Hence the correct answer is option (1)

74)
 correct answer is 0.54

75)

correct answer is 69.2

76)

77) ΔVmix = 0, hence the solution is ideal.

78)

ΔH = 2(416) + 2(325)
= 1482 kJ/mol–1

79)

½N2(g) +3/2H2(g) → NH3(g)

80)

16.25 KJ

81)

Calorific value =

82)

N≡N
∴ per unit cell 4Na+ and 4Cl–.

83)

zero

84) Question Explanation:

The question asks what thermodynamics is not concerned with.
Concept: Thermodynamics:
Explanaton:

A. Thermodynamics: Deals with energy changes (enthalpy, entropy, Gibbs free energy) and the
 feasibility/spontaneity of reactions. It can tell you whether a reaction is likely to occur (based
on changes in Gibbs Free Energy) and how much energy is involved.
B. Kinetics: Deals with the rate of chemical reactions. It describes how fast a reaction proceeds.

Final Answer:
Thermodynamics is not concerned about the rate at which a reaction proceeds.
Hence, option (3) is correct.

85)

2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)

86)

correct answer is x + y

87)

correct answer is 454. 5 K

88)

110.8 kJ mol–1

89)

correct answer is zero

90) Explain the Question : Compares ΔTf of Na2SO4 and Hg2I2 solutions based on ions.
Concept : This question is based on depression in freezing point depends on the Van't Hoff
factor (i)
Solution : Both salt dissociate to forms 3 ions (i = 3). Thus, ΔTf is the same for both.
The dissociation of Hg2I2 given is incorrect.
So assertion is true but reason is false.
Final Answer : 3

BIOLOGY

91)

Living organism growing in a natural environment

92)

Auxins
93)

NAA

94)

NO SOLUTION

95)

Tip of coleoptile is the site of transmittable influence

96) Module # 3 Pg. # 229, 232

97) Module # 3 Pg. # 234

98)

Auxin accumulates on shaded side stimulating Greater cell elongation

99)

Reaction center of photosystem II

100)

correct answer is IV

101) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 212

102)

All plants and some bacteria

103)

no solution

104)

correct answer is six

105)
Both A and B

106) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 207, 208

107)

Anabolic, endergonic and physico-chemical process

108) NCERT Pg. # 210

109)

Cells of maturation phase

110) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 207, Para-5, Line-1,2,3,4

111)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

112)

Stroma Lamella

113)

b-plastoquinone, c-plastocyanin, d-FRS

114)

Tomato

115)

Carboxylation only

116)

no solution

117)

correct answer is ATP

118) NCERT Pg.#220

119)

Mint plant

120)

b-reduction, c-glycolytic reversal, d-regenration, a-carboxylation

121)

(A) 5 ATP & 2 NADPH2

(B) 3 ATP & 2 NADPH2

122)

Both (A) and (B) are incorrect

123)

no solution

124)

no solution

125)

no solution

126) NCERT Pg. # 212

127)

a, b and d are correct

128)

no solution

129)

no solution
 130) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 229

131)

4CO2 , 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP

132)

correct answer is Cytoplasm

133)

Assertion and reason both are incorrect.

134)

Cytochromes, Protonpump, Proton gradient

135) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 237

136)

Solution:
Let's go through each statement:

(a) ZIFT - The zygote or early embryo (with up to 8 blastomeres) transferred into the fallopian tube:
This is correct.
(b) ICSI - A sperm is directly injected into the ovum to form an embryo in the laboratory:
This is correct.
(c) IUI - The semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced
into the uterus:
This is correct.
(d) GIFT - Transfer of zygote collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who
cannot produce one but can provide a suitable environment for fertilization and development:
This is incorrect. GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer) involves placing eggs and sperm (not a
zygote) into the fallopian tube of a woman so fertilization can occur naturally. It is not about
transferring a zygote from a donor.

Conclusion:
The correct statements are (a), (b), and (c).

Final Answer: (3) a, b, c

137) NCERT, Pg # 60,64

Norplant effective upto 5 years Cu-7-copper releasing IUD, ICSI-In-vitro fertilisations

138)
 Explanation:
Tubectomy is a surgical procedure for female sterilization, where a portion of the fallopian
tubes is removed or blocked.

The correct answer is : Option (3) Fusion of sperm & ovum.

139)

correct answer is (A)–iii, (B)–i, (C)–iv, (D)–ii

140) NCERT Page-60,61 (E) ; 66,67 (H)

141)

Less than 2%

142)

NCERT (XII) Page no. 44

143) Question Explanation:

Find how many of the given characteristics are properties of an ideal contraceptive method.

Concept: Birth control methods

Solution:

A. User friendly — should be easy to use.

B. Easily available — should be accessible to everyone.

C. Effective — must successfully prevent pregnancy.

D. Reversible — normal fertility should return after discontinuation.
E. No or least side effects — must not harm the user’s health.

Final Answer : option (4)

144) NCERT, Pg # 45

145)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify incorrect statements about

contraceptive methods.

Concept: The question is based on contraceptive methods.

 Solution:

A. Statement (A) → Incorrect. Sterilisation prevents gamete transport, not gamete formation.
B. Statement (B) → Correct. Hormonal IUDs alter endometrium and cervical mucus, preventing
implantation.
C. Statement (C) → Correct. It is a copper‑bearing IUCD.
D. Statement (D) → Incorrect. It is effective up to 6 months after parturition, not after pregnancy.

Thus, the incorrect statements are A and D.

Final Answer: Option 3

146) NCERT-XII Pg # 44, 45

147)

Question explanation
The question is asking which statement correctly describes the contraceptive device
shown in the figure.

Concept
Temporary Barrier methods of contraception

Solution
The device shown is an implant, a small hormone-releasing capsule placed under the
skin (subcutaneous).Final answer
These are used by females as implants under the skin

148)

Question explanation : The question is asking to match reproductive procedures with their
correct purposes.

Concept : Reproductive health.

Solution :
(a) MTP → Inducing abortion during early pregnancy (ii)
(b) Infertility treatments → Treating conditions causing difficulty in conceiving (v)
(c) ART → Facilitating pregnancy through medical assistance (iii)
(d) ZIFT → Transferring fertilized egg into the fallopian tube (iv)
(e) GIFT → Transferring the egg into fallopian tube (i)

Final answer : Option (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(v), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e)-(i).

149)

NCERT Pg # 60

150) NCERT XII Pg. No. # 43, 44, 45, 46

151) Ans : (2)
Sol : Sterilisation : Inhibit gamete formation

152)

Fertilisation of the egg is completed outside the body; the embryo is then placed in the womb
of the mother where the gestation is completed

153)

Statements 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

154)

IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus

155)

Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct

156)

Suppression of release of gonadotropins by high level of prolactin

157)

Assertion & Reason both are correct and reason gives correct explanation of assertion.

158)

no solution

159)

Question Explanation:
This question asks about the blastomeres in the blastocyst which is labelled as trophoblast(A)
and inner cell mass (B).

Concept:
The concept based on General stages of embryonic development- blastocyst.

Answer Explanation:
The structure shown in the image is blastocyst. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged
into an outer layer called trophoblast(A) and an inner group of cells attached to trophoblast
called the inner cell mass(B).

The trophoblast layer gets attached to the endometrium and the inner cell mass gets
differentiated as the embryo.

Final Answer: (1)

160)

NCERT Page No 27

161)

correct answer is six

162)

correct answer is Five

163)

no solution

164)

only b, e, f

165)

The correct answer is option 3. a-C-iv, B-d-i, C-b-iii, D-a-ii

A. (Corpus luteum) is in c ovary and makes iv (Pogesterone)
B. (Granulosa cells) are in d (developing follicle) and make i (estrogen)
C (Proximal centriole) comes from b (sperm) and does iii(Promote cleavage)
D. (fimbriae) are in a (fallopian tube) and do ii (collect ovum)

166)

no solution

167)

no solution

168)

A = Primary Follicle: This is the initial stage where a single layer of squamous cells surrounds
the oocyte.

C = Mature Follicle: This is the final stage before ovulation, with a large antrum and a
prominent layer of granulosa cells surrounding the oocyte.

E = Corpus Luteum: After ovulation, the ruptured follicle transforms into the corpus luteum, a
temporary endocrine structure that produces progesterone. 1

F = Corpus Albicans: If pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates and forms
the corpus albicans, a scar-like tissue.

Option 3 is the correct answer

169)

I → III → V → IV → II

170)

Oestrogen: Oestrogen helps in the development of the endometrium (the inner lining of the
uterus) in preparation for pregnancy.
Progesterone: Progesterone is involved in the secretory nature of the endometrium, meaning it
helps the endometrium to secrete nutrients for a potential fertilized egg.
The correct answer is Option 2:

171)

Infundibulum: The funnel-shaped part of the fallopian tube closest to the ovary, often
associated with the fimbriae.

Ovary: The organ where eggs are produced and released.

Fimbriae: The finger-like projections at the end of the fallopian tube near the ovary, helping to
catch the released egg.

Cervix: The lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina.

Vagina: The canal that connects the uterus to the outside of the body.

Fallopian Tube: The tubes that transport the egg from the ovary to the uterus.

Isthmus: The narrow part of the fallopian tube, closer to the uterus.
OPTION 3 IS ANSWER

172) Explaining : A - Vas-deferens; B-Cowper's gland; C-Epididymis; D-Testis.

Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

173)

fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.

 174)

A-a-i B-c-iv C-b-ii D-d-iii

175)

Alveoli → Mammary tubules → Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct

176)

no solution

177)

Question Explanation : Identify which option contains a primary sex organ along with
secondary sex organs.

Concept : Human Reproduction(Sex Organs)

Solution : The correct answer is option 3

A. Option 3 – Epididymis, testis, oviduct: Testis is a primary sex organ

B. Option 1 – Uterus, Penis, Vagina: All secondary sex organs

C. Option 2 – Fallopian tube, Uterus, Vagina: All secondary sex organs

D. Option 4 – Epididymis, penis, vagina: All secondary sex organs

Final answer : Option (3)

178)

The correct answer is 1. I only

I. Oxytocin is a milk let-down hormone.

A. This statement is true. Oxytocin plays a crucial role in milk ejection during breastfeeding. It
stimulates the contraction of smooth muscle cells in the breast, causing the release of milk
from the mammary glands.

179)

a. Parturition is induced by a complex neuro-endocrine mechanism.

A. True. Parturition, or childbirth, is a complex process involving a cascade of hormonal changes

 and neural signals.
B. Hormonal factors: Estrogen levels rise, while progesterone levels fall. Oxytocin plays a
crucial role in initiating and sustaining uterine contractions.
C. Neural factors: The nervous system, particularly the hypothalamus, plays a role in
coordinating the release of hormones and controlling uterine contractions.

b. During parturition, secretion of progesterone decreases but secretion of estrogen

increases from placenta.

The correct answer is 3. Only (a) and (b).

180)

Question Explanation : Identify which hormone levels increase in maternal blood during
pregnancy.
Concept: Pregnancy
Solution: The correct answer is option [Link] during pregnancy :

A. Progesterone → maintains endometrium & prevents contractions.

B. Thyroxine → raises metabolism to support foetus & mother.
C. Cortisol → supports foetal organ maturation & metabolism.
D. Estrogen → promotes uterine growth & mammary gland development.

decreased during pregnancy :

A. FSH → suppressed, no follicle development.

B. LH → suppressed, no ovulation during pregnancy.

Final answer : option (4)