12-03-2025

9610WMD8012582410R1 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) A heat engine exhausting heat to sink at 27°C is to have 75% efficiency. Temperature of source
must be

(1) 127°C
(2) 227°C
(3) 327°C
(4) 927°C

2) Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d2 (d1 > d2) are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated

(1) both d1 and d2 will decrease

(2) both d1 and d2 will increase
(3) d1 will increase, d2 will decrease
(4) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase

3) A particle having constant mass, starts its motion from rest under the action of constant force. If
the distance covered in the first 10 sec is x and that covered in first 20 sec is y while moving in the
same direction, then :-

(1) y = 2x
(2) y = 3x
(3) y = 4x
(4) y = x

4) A pendulum clock gives correct time at 20°C. The loss of time in one day during summer, when
the temperature is 40°C will be (coefficient of linear expansion α = 2 × 10–5/ºC)

(1) 17.28 s
(2) 8.64 s
(3) 6.64 s
(4) 4.64 s
5) A body is thrown up in a lift with a velocity u relative to the lift and the time of flight is found to
be 't'. The upward acceleration of the lift is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A particle P is projected with velocity u1 at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Another particle Q
is thrown vertically upwards with velocity u2 from a point vertically below the highest point of path
of P. The necessary condition for the two particles to collide at the highest point, is :-

(1) u1 = u2
(2) u1 = 2u2

(3)

(4) u1 = 4u2

7) Velocity of river is 5 km/h and its width is 4km. A boat starts from point A with respect to river
with speed 25/3 km/h (as shown). Then the distance (in km) of point from B where boat will reach
other side of river is :-

(1) zero
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

8) The velocity-time graph of a body is given in figure. The maximum acceleration in ms–2 is :-
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

9) In figure given two solids A and B of same mass are heated at constant rate by same source then

find ratio of latent heat for fusion

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a composite slab, consisting of two materials
having coefficients of thermal conductivity K and 2K respectively and thickness x and 3x respectively

are T2 and T1(T2 > T1). The rate of heat transfer through the slab in steady state is f,

where f is equal to :-

(1) 1
(2) 1/2
(3) 2/5
(4) 1/5

11) Two solid metallic spheres S1 and S2 are made of the same material and have got identical
surface finish. The mass of S1 is thrice that of S2. Both the spheres are heated to the same high
temperature and placed in the same room having lower temperature but are thermally insulated
from each other, the ratio of the initial rate of cooling of S1 to that of S2 is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Assertion (A) :- Material used for cooking utensils is the one having low specific heat and high
conductivity.
Reason (R) :- Low conductivity means high specific heat.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

13) The variation of PV graph with V of a fixed mass of a ideal gas at constant temperature is
graphically represented as shown in figure :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to volume 2V and

then adibatically to volume 64 V. The final pressure of the gas is : (take γ = ) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Four molecules of a gas have speeds 1, 2, 3 and 4 km/s. The value of the r.m.s. speed of the gas
molecule is :-

(1)
km/s

(2)
km/s
(3) 2.5 km/s

(4)
km/s

16) In the triangle shown in figure, the angle between vectors and is :-

(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 150°
(4) 45°

17) If the degree of freedom of a gas molecule be f, then the ratio of two specific heats Cp/Cv is given
by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) In an adiabatic process, pressure is increased by . If then the volume decreased by

about :
(1)

(2)

(3) 4%

(4)

19) If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure to that at constant volume is γ, the
change in internal energy of a fixed mass of gas, when the volume changes from V to 2 V at constant
pressure P, is :-

(1)

(2) PV

(3)

(4)

20) Calculate the ratio of radiation powers of a sphere (which behaves as an ideal black body), at
two temperatures 527oC and 127oC respectively.

(1) 16 : 1
(2) 8 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

21) Assertion :- A beaker is completely filled with water at 4°C. It will overflow, both when heated
or cooled.
Reason :- There is expansion of water below as well as above 4°C.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

22)

A man walks 30m, towards north, then 20m towards east and in the last m towards south-west.
The displacement from origin is :-

(1) 10 m towards west

(2) 10m towards east
(3) 60 m towards north west
(4) 60 m towards north east
23) The length of a seconds hand in a watch is 1cm. Magnitude of change in velocity of its tip in 15
second is :

(1) 0 cm/sec

(2)
cm/sec

(3)
cm/sec

(4)
cm/sec

24) A balloon starts rising from rest with an acceleration of 1.5 m/s2. After 20 sec a man released a
ball from it. Calculate total displacement of ball during first 3 sec of its motion after releasing it :-
(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 30 m downward
(2) 30 m upward
(3) 45 m downward
(4) 45 m upward

25)

A diatomic ideal gas (at an ordinary temperature) does 200 J of work when it expands isobarically.
The heat given to the gas in the process is :-

(1) 200 J
(2) 400 J
(3) 600 J
(4) 700 J

26)

The velocity of the ground to ground projectile at the initial point A is Its velocity (in m/s)
at the landing point B is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
27) A projectile is fired from a 80 m high building with speed 60 m/s at an angle 60°from the
vertical, then find out time after it will strike the ground (g = 10m/s2):-

(1) 2 sec
(2) 3 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 6 sec

28)

A particle moves in east with velocity of 15 m/s for 2 sec, then moves northward with 5 m/s for 8 sec,
then average velocity of the particle is :-

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 7 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

29) Rain drops are falling with velocity m/s. What should be the velocity of a man so that he
observes that rain drops hit him with speed 5m/s ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Both (1) & (2)

30) A person is moving in north direction holding a flag with velocity 25 km/hr. Wind is flowing from
west to east direction with velocity 25 km/hr. In which direction the flag will fly ?

(1) Towards south

(2) Towards west
(3) Towards south-west
(4) Towards south-east

31) A car accelerates from rest at 1 m/s2 for some time then next it retards at 2 m/s2 to come to rest.
If the total time elapsed during the acceleration and the retardation is 100 sec then total distance
covered is :-

(1) 3 km

(2)
km

(3)
km

(4)
km

32) A faulty thermometer has its fixed points marked 5 and 95. If the temperature of a body as
shown on the celsius scale is 40, then its temperature shown on this faulty thermometer is :

(1) 39°
(2) 40°
(3) 41°
(4) 44.4°

33) If = 2 then equals :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3)
(4)

34) The component of a vector along the vector is :-

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3)
(4)

35) Select incorrect statement:-

(1) A dimensionless quantity may have a unit

(2) A unitless quantity never has a nonzero dimension
(3) A dimensionally incorrect equation may be correct
(4) A dimensionally correct equation may be incorrect

36) What is the unit vector perpendicular to both of the following vectors
and ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) If absolute refractive index of a medium (equal to the ratio of speed of light in vacuum and in

that medium) is given as μ = A + where A and B are constant and λ is wavelength then
dimension of B is same as :
(1) Wavelength
(2) Pressure
(3) (Volume)2
(4) Area

38) Which of the following is supplementary unit

(1) radian
(2) light year
(3) parsec
(4) kg weight

39) Round off 16.2689 to 4 significant figures

(1) 16.27
(2) 16.28
(3) 16.26
(4) 16.29

40) The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in the experiment is recorded as 2.63 s, 2.56 s,
2.42 s, 2.71 s and 2.80 s respectively. The average absolute error is :-

(1) 0.1 s
(2) 0.11 s
(3) 0.01 s
(4) 1.0 s

41)

The dimensional formula of the coefficient of thermal conductivity is :

(symbols carry the usual meaning.)

(1) [M1L1T-3K-1]
(2) [M3L-1T-3K]
(3) [M1L-3T-1K-1]
(4) [M1L1T-3K]

42) If an object at absolute temperature (T) radiates energy at rate R, then select correct graph
showing the variation of logeR with loge(T) :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which of the following forces cannot be a resultant of 15 N force and 11 N force ?

(1) 2 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 14 N
(4) 5 N

44) If and are parallel to each other then respective values of z and y
will be :

(1) 10, 5
(2) 5, 10
(3) 5, 5
(4) 10, 10

45) The number of significant digits in 0.001001 is :

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 7
(4) 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) For which species bohr atomic model is valid

(1) H+
(2) He
(3) Li+
(4) Na10+

2) Fluoride ion is isoelectronic with :-

(1) Ne
(2) O2–
(3) N3–
(4) All of these

3) Ratio of neutrons in 'C' & 'Si' having atomic masses 12 and 28 respectively are -

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 3 : 7
(4) 7 : 3

4) Element X have two isotopes 79X and 81X if their % abundance is 50% & 50% then find average
atomic weight of element is :-

(1) 80.2
(2) 79.5
(3) 80
(4) 80.8

5)

For the reaction 2P + Q → R, 8 mol of P and 5 mol of Q will produce

(1) 8 mol of R
(2) 5 mol of R
(3) 4 mol of R
(4) 13 mol of R

6) Assertion : The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.529Å.

Reason : Radius of each circular orbit (rn) = 0.529Å (n2/Z), where n = 1, 2, 3 and Z = atomic
number.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

7) Angular momentum of electron in P-shell of He+ is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

8) The ratio of potential energy and kinetic energy of electron in H-atom is :-

(1) 1 : –1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) –2 : 1
(4) –1 : 2

9) The ratio of minimum and maximum wavelengths of lyman series in spectrum of Li+2 ion is :-

(1) 4 : 27
(2) 3 : 4
(3) 4 : 9
(4) 4 : 3

10) The wavelength of line having minimum wavelength of brackett series in spectrum of He⊕ ion is
:-

(1) 3R

(2)

(3) 4R

(4)

11) In H-atom electron transits from 6th to 2nd orbit in multi-step. Then total spectral lines (without
Balmer series) will be :-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 4
(4) 0

12) Mass no. is :-

(1) No. of protons + No. of neutrons

(2) Atomic no. + No. of neutrons
(3) No. of nucleons
(4) All of above

13)
200 gm CaCO3 heated and it decomposed into CaO and CO2. What is the weight of residue -(Atomic
weight of Ca= 40)

(1) 56 gm
(2) 200 gm
(3) 100 gm
(4) 112 gm

14) The volume of oxygen required for complete oxidation of 8L of CO at NTP will be :-

(1) 8 L
(2) 16 L
(3) 4 L
(4) 2 L

15) If one mole of H2SO4 reacts with an excess of NaOH, how many moles of water are formed ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Amount of oxygen required for complete combustion of 27 g Al is :-

(1) 24 g
(2) 12 g
(3) 20 g
(4) 6 g

17) If 10 moles of CH4 reacts with 21 mol O2 at STP. The no. of moles of excess reactant that remains
unreacted after the completion of reaction will be :-

(1) 1 mol O2
(2) 2 mol O2
(3) 1 mol CH4
(4) 2 mol CH4

18) The dehydration yield of cyclohexanol to cyclohexene is 75%. What would be the yield, if 100 g
of cyclohexanol is dehydrated ?

(1) 61.5 g
(2) 16.5 g
(3) 6.15 g
(4) 615 g

19) A sample of sodium has a mass of 46 g. What is the mass of the same number of calcium atoms
as sodium atoms present in given sample ?

(1) 46 g
(2) 20 g
(3) 40 g
(4) 80 g

20) A sample of ammonium phosphate (NH4)3PO4, contains 3.18 mol of hydrogen atoms. The number
of mole of oxygen atoms in the sample is :-

(1) 0.265
(2) 0.795
(3) 1.06
(4) 3.18

21) How many gram are contained in 1 gram-atom of Na :-

(1) 13 g
(2) 23 g
(3) 1 g

(4)
g

22) Which of the following pairs contains equal number of atoms –

(1) 1 mol of H2O2 and 1 mol of N2O4

(2) 1 milli mole of HCl and 0.5 milli moles of H2SO4
(3) 11.2 cc of nitrogen (at STP) and 0.015 gm of nitric oxide
(4) 22.4 litres of nitrous oxide (at STP) and 22.4 litres of nitric oxide (at STP)

23) The simplest formula of a compound having 50% of x(At. weight = 10) and 50% of y by mass
(At. weight = 20) is :

(1) xy
(2) x2y
(3) xy2
(4) x2y3

24) Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same group, the atomic numbers of elements placed above
and below Ag will be:

(1) 37, 67
(2) 29,79
(3) 39, 69
(4) 29, 65
25) 32 electrons isoelectronic pair is :-

–3 –2
(1) BO3 , CO3
–3 –2
(2) PO4 , SO4
(3) N2, CO
–2 –
(4) SO4 , ClO4

26) Which pair of element have same number of electron in their valence shell :-

(1) Na, Sr
(2) Se, Te
(3) Mn, Fe
(4) He, Ne

27) If electronegativities of A and B is 3 & 2 respectively, then bond form between them is :-

(1) ionic
(2) covalent
(3) both 1 and 2
(4) Metallic

28) Consider the following conversions :

(i) O(g) + e– → O–(g), ΔH1
(ii) F(g) + e– → F–(g), ΔH2
(iii) Cl(g) + e– → Cl–(g), ΔH3
(iv) O–(g) + e– → O2–(g), ΔH4
Then according to given information the incorrect statements is:

(1) ΔH3 is more negative than ΔH1 and ΔH2

(2) ΔH1 is less negative than ΔH2
(3) ΔH1; ΔH2 and ΔH3 are negative whereas ΔH4 is positive.
(4) ΔH1 and ΔH3 are negative whereas ΔH2 and ΔH4 are positive.

29) Which element has minimum affinity for valence electron

(1) Alkali metals

(2) Halogens
(3) Noble gase
(4) Highly electronegative elements

30) Which of the following statements is correct for the addition of an electron to an isolated
gaseous monovalent oxygen (O–) ion -

(1) the addition of electron cannot occur

(2) the addition of electrons occurs with evolution of energy
(3) the addition of electrons occurs with absorption of energy
(4) the heat of reaction is zero

31) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Noble gases have almost zero ionisation-energy values.

(2) O2– has smaller size than that of Mg2+
(3) The electron affinity follows the trend - F < CI > Br > I
(4) The element having atomic number 106 belongs to f-block elements.

32) In which of the following processes, maximum energy is released ?

(1) O(g) + e– → O–(g)

(2) O–(g) + e– → O2–(g)
(3) S(g) + e– → S–(g)
(4) S–(g) + e– → S2–(g)

33) Electron affinity of X would be equal to :

(1) electron affinity of X–

(2) ionisation potential of X–
(3) ionisation potential of X
(4) none of the above

34) Electron affinity of fluorine is less than chlorine, because

(1) Less radius and more electron density of fluorine

(2) Less radius and more electron density of chlorine
(3) More radius and more electron density of chlorine
(4) More radius and less electron density of fluorine

35) Which one of the following statements is incorrect in relation to ionisation enthalpy-

(1) Ionisation enthalpy generally increases for removal of each successive electron
The higher value of ionisation enthalpies are noticed on removal of electron from noble gas
(2)
configuration
(3) End of valence electrons is marked by a big jump in ionisation enthalpy
Removal of electron from orbitals bearing lower n value is easier than from orbital having
(4)
higher n value (n = Shell number)

36) The elements with the lowest atomic number that has a ground state electronic configuration
of (n–1) d6ns2 is located in the :-

(1) fifth period

(2) sixth period
(3) fourth period
(4) third period
37) IP of Cr, Zn, Mn, Hg are 7.4 ev, 6.7 ev, 10.4 ev and 9.3 ev. These IP are not written in order
then, correct match is :-

(1) IP of Zn = 10.4 ev
(2) IP of Mn = 7.4 ev
(3) IP of Cr = 9.3 ev
(4) IP of Hg = 6.7 ev

38) Choose correct option :-

Statement-I (S1) :- Zn is a d-block element but not a transition element.
Statement-II (S2) :- Zn shows only +2 oxidation state.

(1) S1 & S2 both are correct.

(2) S1 & S2 both are incorrect.
(3) S1 is correct but S2 is incorrect.
(4) S1 is incorrect but S2 is correct.

39) Which of the following orders are correct :

(a) F < Cl < Br < I : Atomic size
(b) F > Cl > Br > I : Ionisation energy
(c) F > Cl > Br > I : Electron gain enthalpy
(d) F > Cl > Br > I : Electronegativity
(e) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Bond energy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) a, b, c, d and e
(2) b, c and d only
(3) a, b, d and e only
(4) a, b and d only

40) Identify correct statement(s).

(A) F has more ΔHeg than Cl.
(B) 2nd IP of Li is greater than F.
(C) Radius of O is less than N.
(D) EN of Ga < EN of Al.
(E) Zn, Cd & Hg are non transition element.

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) B, C, D
(3) B, C, E
(4) A, B

41) Assertion : In an atom, velocity of electron in the higher orbits keeps on decreasing.
Reason : Velocity of electron is directly proportional to the orbit number.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

42) Assertion : Number of total electrons in a shell will be equal to total possible values of magnetic
quantum number for the same shell.
Reason : Mtotal = 2l + 1 for a given shell.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

43) Assertion (A) : The orbital angular momentum of 2s–electron is equal to that of 3s–electron.

Reason (R) : The orbital angular momentum is given by the relation and the value of
ℓ is same for 2s–electron and 3s–electron.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct and R is wrong
(4) A is wrong and R is correct

44) The atomic weight of a metal M is 27 and its equivalent weight is 9. The formula of its chloride
will be :-

(1) MCl
(2) MCl2
(3) M3Cl
(4) MCl3

45) The law of multiple proposition is illustrated by the two compounds :-

(1) NaCl, NaBr

(2) H2O, D2O
(3) NaOH, KOH
(4) SO2, SO3

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) Which set of organisms multiply through fragmentation?

(1) Planaria, hydra, yeast

(2) Echinoderm, fungi, becteria
(3) Fungi, filamentous algae, protonema of mosses
(4) Amoeba, Hydra, Virus

2) Growth cannot be taken as a defining property of living organisms because :

(1) All living organisms do not show growth

(2) Non-living things also grow from the inside
(3) Non-living things also grow
(4) Some living organisms do not show reproduction process

3) Read the following statements :

A. Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals
B. Increase in body mass is considered as reproduction
C. Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organism without exception
D. Self consciousness is a defining property of every living organism
Choose the correct statements

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) B and D

4) Choose the correct statements from the following :-

(A) Living organisms are self replicating, evolving and self regulating interactive systems
(B) Cellular organisation, metabolism and consciousness are defining characters of living beings
(C) Growth, reproduction, ability to sense environment and respond are features of living organisms

(D) Growth and reproduction are defining characteristics of living organisms

(1) A and B
(2) B and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B, C and D

5)

Read the following statements and select the incorrect one :-

Mountains, boulders and sand dunes do grow if we take increase in body mass as criterion for
(1)
growth.
Many organisms like mules, sterile worker bees and infertile human couples donot reproduce at
(2)
all.
Living organism are self-replicating, evolving and self-regulating interactive systems capable of
(3)
responding to external stimuli.
(4) Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro condition are living things.

6) Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct option.
Statement A: The number of similar characteristics goes on increasing from species to kingdom.
Statement B: Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other
taxa at same level.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

7) Sapindales and Poales belong to

(1) Same class and division

(2) Different classes and divisions
(3) Same class but different divisions
(4) Different classes but same division

8) How many of the followings are taxa ?

Dogs, Cats, Mammals, Wheat, Rice, Plants, Wood, Mango, Leaves, Jointed legs.

(1) Seven
(2) Six
(3) Eight
(4) One

9) The equivalent rank of Carnivora in taxonomic categories of man & housefly is respectively

(1) Homo & Musca

(2) Homonidae & Muscidae
(3) Mammalia & Insecta
(4) Primata & Diptera

10) Which of the following is true for wheat?

(1) Order – Poales, class – Monocotyledonae

(2) Order – Poales, Kingdom – spermatophyta
(3) Class–Monocotyledonae, Kingdom–Angiospermae
(4) Order – sapindales, Class – Monocotyledonae

11) (A) Hominidae - Family of Man

(B) Anacardiaceae - Family of Wheat
(C) Muscidae - Family of Housefly
(D) Poaceae - Family of Potato
How many of the above are correctly matched. [NCERT Pg-11]

(1) A and B only

(2) All are correct
(3) A and C only
(4) B and D only

12) ER, Golgi complex, lysosome and vacuole are included in endomembrane system because :-

(1) Their Functions are similar

(2) Their structure is same
(3) Their functions are co-ordinated
(4) All these cellular components are originated from the mitochondria

13) Match the Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II
A Robert Hooke (i) Saw first living cell
B Rudulof Virchow (ii) Fluid mosaic model
Discovery of first
C A. V. Leewenhoek (iii)
cell
Omnis cellulae-
D Singer and Nicolson (iv)
cellula
(1) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii
(2) A-ii B-iv C-i D-iii
(3) A-i B-iv C-iii D-ii
(4) A-iii B-iv C-i D-ii

14) Find the correct match from the following table:-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Membrane of
(i) human Lipids 52%
erythrocyte

Singer and Fluid mosaic

(ii) 1972
Nicolson model

Rigid
(iii) Cell wall Living
structure

Options :-
(1) (i) only
(2) (iii) only
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (ii) only

15) Lysosomes are ______ vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the ___.

(1) membrane bound, Golgi apparatus

(2) non-membrane bound, Golgi apparatus
(3) membrane bound, ER
(4) non-membrane bound, ER

16) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existance

(2) Any structure less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living
Matthias schleiden, a German zoologist, Proposed that body of animals are composed of cells
(3)
and product of cells
(4) Schleiden and Schwann together formulated the cell theory

17) Proteins synthesized by ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum are modified by which cell
organelle ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Vacuole
(4) Golgi body

18) The vesicle from RER fuse with which face of Golgi complex ?

(1) Cis
(2) Trans
(3) Alpha
(4) Beta

19)

Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

Packaging and
(A) ER (p)
secretion

(B) Golgi (q) Storage

Synthesis of protein
(C) Lysosome (r)
& lipid

Intra cellular
(D) Vacuole (s)
digestion
(1) A–q, B–p, C–s, D–r
(2) A–r, B–p, C–s, D–q
(3) A–p, B–r, C–q, D–s
(4) A–q, B–r, C–s, D–p

20) Read the following statements :-

(i) The shape of cell may vary with the function they perform
(ii) Nerve cells are some of the longest cells
(iii) The largest isolated single cell is the egg of an ostrich
(iv) Blue-green algae (BGA) is a eukaryote
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) One

21) Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport
pathway ?

(1) Plasmalemma
(2) Plasmodesmata
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

22) Depending on the ease of extraction, memebrane proteins can be classified as

(1) Saturated and unsaturated

(2) Hydrophilic and hydrophobic
(3) Integral and peripheral
(4) Acidic, basic and neutral

23) The fluid nature of the membrane is important from the point of view of functions like

(1) Cell division and cell growth

(2) Endocytosis and secretion
(3) Formation of intercellular junctions
(4) All of the above

24) The figure below shows three stages (A, B, C) of Calvin cycle. Select the option giving correct
identification together with what it represents ?

(1) A – Carboxylation is the fixation of CO2 into a stable inorganic intermediate

B – Reduction that requires one ATP for phosphorylation and 2 molecules of NADPH.H+ per CO2
(2)
molecule
(3) C – Regeneration of primary CO2 acceptor that requires 2 NADPH
(4) C – Regeneration of primary CO2 acceptor that requires one ATP

25) When the two photosystems work in series, first PS-II and then the PS-I, a process called non-
cyclic photophosphorylation occurs- which synthesized-

(1) ATP
(2) NADPH + H+
(3) Oxygen
(4) All of above

26)

Select the correct match.

(1) Site of Calvin cycle in C3 plants - Bundle sheath cells

(2) Primary acceptor of carbon in Calvin cycle - PEP
(3) First stable product of Calvin cycle - 3PGA
(4) Site of Calvin cycle in C4 plants - Mesophyll cells

27)

How many ATP and NADPH are used per CO2 molecule fixation in Calvin cycle ?

(1) 3 ATP, 2 NADPH

(2) 18 ATP, 12 NADPH
(3) 2 ATP, 2 NADPH
(4) 12 ATP, 18 NADPH

28)

Stroma lamellae lacks all except.

(1) PS–II
(2) NADP reductase
(3) PS–I
(4) Water splitting complex

29)

Pigments are organised into two discrete photochemical light harvesting complexes within the PS I
and PS II. These are named in

(1) Which they function in light reaction

(2) The sequence of discovery
(3) The sequence of arrangement of chlorophylls
(4) More than one option is correct

30) In cyclic photophosphorylation which one of the following is formed?

(1) ATP
(2) NADP and ATP
(3) NADH2 and O2
(4) NADH2, ATP and O2

31) In pigment system-II the trapping center of light energy is

(1) P-700
(2) P-680
(3) Carotene
(4) Xanthophyll

32) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion(A): Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis depend directly on presence of light.
Reason(R): Calvin cycle is common to the C3 and C4 plants.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
33) The primary CO2 acceptor in C3 plants is

(1) RuBP
(2) PGA
(3) PEP
(4) OAA

34) Ribulose Bisphosphate carboxylase enzyme catalyses the carboxylation reaction between

(1) Oxaloacetic acid and acetyl CoA

(2) CO2 and ribulose 1, 5 Bisphosphate
(3) Ribulose diphosphate and phosphoglyceraldehyde
(4) PGA and dihydroxyacetone phosphate

35) Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct combination from the options given
below.

Column-I Column-II

Oxygen evolving
A. I. Pigments
complex

Proton gradient First action

B. II.
concentration spectrum

Absorb light at ATP

C. III.
specific wavelength synthesis

Photolysis of
D. T.W. Engelmann IV.
water
(1) A-IV; B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV; B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-II; B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-II; B-IV, C-III, D-I

36) Biological name of Leopard is :-

(1) Panthera leo

(2) Panthera pardus
(3) Panthera tigris
(4) Panthera panthera

37) Which of the following is not true about binomial nomenclature ?

(1) They are latinised

(2) Generic name starts with capital letter
(3) When printed in italics they are separately underlined
(4) They are printed in italics
38) ICBN stands for :-

(1) International class of biological nomenclature

(2) International code of biological nomenclature
(3) Indian code of botanical nomenclature
(4) International code for botanical nomenclature

39) The basis of modern taxonomic studies are :-

(a) External and internal structure
(b) Structure of cell
(c) Development process
(d) Ecological informations

(1) a and b only

(2) a, b and c only
(3) a, c and d only
(4) All a, b, c and d

40) Assertion (A) : To give scientific name to plant, there is ICBN.

Reason (R) : It only uses Ecological information of Plant.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

41) Read the following statements and find the correct statement.
(A) Mitochondria is typically sausage shaped or cylindrical
(B) The inner compartment of mitochondria is called stroma and chloroplast is called matrix
(C) Mitochondria divide by fission
(D) Plastids are found in all plant cell and euglenoids

(1) B, C, D
(2) A, B, C
(3) A, C, D
(4) A, B, D

42) Which of the following is common for bacteria, mitochondria and chloroplast ?

(1) All can do photosynthesis

(2) All can do respiration
(3) All have flagella
(4) All of them have ribosomes

43) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II
A. Mitochondria I. Without membrane
B. Lysosomes II. Single membrane
C. Ribosomes III. Double membrane
A B C
(1) I II III
(2) II III II
(3) III II I
(4) II III I

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44)

Match the following columns.

A. Cristae 1. Flat membranous sacs in stroma
B. Cisternae 2. Infolding in mitochondria
C. thylakoid 3. Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
Codes

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

45) Assertion : The content of nucleolus is continuous with rest of the nucleoplasm.
Reason: Nucleolus is membrane less spherical structure.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A
1) Which one is not a specialised connective tissue ?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Blood
(3) Bone
(4) Areolar tissue

2) The dry surface of human skin is covered by :-

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Glandular epithelium
(3) Compound epithelium
(4) Ciliated epithelium

3)

Stretchable Epithelium :

(1) Simple cuboidal

(2) Simple squamous
(3) Simple columnar
(4) Transitional

4) The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in :-

(1) Bile duct and oesophagus

(2) Bronchioles and fallopian tube
(3) Fallopian tube and urethra
(4) Renal pelvis and stomach

5) Epithelium founds in PCT of nephron.

(1) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium

(2) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium
(3) Glandular columnar epithelium
(4) Steriociliated cuboidal epithelium

6) Recognize the figure and find out the correct labelling :-

(1) 'a' – unicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal.
(2) 'a' – unicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland.
(3) 'a' – Multicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland.
(4) 'a' – Multicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal.

7) Fill in the blanks :-

a. The ....1.... consists of two or more cell layers and has protective function as it does in our skin.
b. The ....2.... is composed of single layer of cells and functions as a lining for body cavities, ducts
and tubes.

(1) 1–squamous epithelium, 2–cuboidal epithelium

(2) 1–columnar epithelium, 2–squamous epithelium
(3) 1–simple epithelium, 2–compound epithelium
(4) 1–compound epithelium, 2–simple epithelium

8) In multicellular animals, a group of similar cells along with intercellular substances perform a
specific function. Such an organisation is called-

(1) Epithelium
(2) Organ
(3) Tissue
(4) Organ system

9) Most abundant and widely distributed tissue in our body is ?

(1) Epithelial
(2) Connective
(3) Muscular
(4) Nervous

10) Select the option of location in which the given epithelia is found :-

(1) PCT
(2) Wall of blood vessels
(3) Lining of stomach
(4) Fallopian tubes

11) Match the columns :-

Tight
(A) Unicellular gland (1)
junctions

Facilitate rapid Gap

(B) (2)
transfer of ions junctions
 Stopping of
Compound
(C) leakage of (3)
epithelia
substance

Providing
Goblet
(D) protection to (4)
cell
underlying tissues

Simple
(5)
epithelia
(1) A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 5
(2) A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1
(3) A – 4, B – 2, C – 3, D – 5
(4) A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 3

12) Mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk and digestive enzymes are secreted by :-

(1) Exocrine glands

(2) Endocrine glands
(3) Heterocrine glands
(4) Compound glands

13) Match the columns I and II and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II

Tendon &
I. Areolar tissue K.
Ligament

Mast cell,
II. Adipose tissue L.
macrophages

Dense regular
III. M. Dura mater
connective tissue

Dense irregular Beneath

IV. N.
connective tissue the skin
(1) I-M, II-N, IV-K, III-L
(2) II-N, I-M, III-L, II-K
(3) I-M, II-N, III-K, II-L
(4) II-N, I-L, IV-M, III-K

14) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement :-

(1) The structures of the cells vary according to their function.

(2) The epithelial cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix.
(3) Main function of compound epithelium is secretion and absorption.
The inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and of pancreatic ducts is covered by compound
(4)
epithelium.

15) The diagrams given below represent :-

 (1) A-Ligament B-Tendon

(2) A-Tendon B-Ligament

(3) A-Bone B-Cartilage

(4) A-Cartilage B-Bone

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) The diagram given below represent :-

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

17) This epithelium is commonly found in ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons of kidneys -

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium

(2) Transitional epithelium
(3) Stratified epithelium
(4) Columnar epithelium

18) The molecule given in diagram belongs to which category of biomolecules :-

(1) Fatty acids
(2) Phospholipids
(3) Triglycerides
(4) Steroids

19) In the above

diagram (B) is zwitterionic form of an amino acid (A) and (C) form of amino acid develop respectively
in :-

(1) Acidic and basic medium

(2) Basic and basic medium
(3) Basic and acidic medium
(4) Acidic and neutral medium

20) Inorganic compounds like sulphate, phosphate, etc., are also seen in the :

(1) Acid insoluble fraction

(2) Acid soluble fraction
(3) Retentate
(4) All of these

21) Which of the following sets contains polysaccharides ?

(1) Glucose, fructose, lactose

(2) Starch, glycogen, cellulose
(3) Sucrose, maltose, cellulose
(4) Galactose, starch, sucrose

22) The three structural formulae A, B and C are given here. Identify them and select the correct
option:-
 A B C

Adenine Adenosine Adenylic acid

(1)
(N-base) (Nucleotide) (Nucleoside)

Adenine Adenosine Adenylic acid

(2)
(N-base) (Nucleoside) (Nucleotide)

Adenosine Adenylic acid Adenine

(3)
(Nucleoside) (Nucleotide) (N-base)

Adenosine Adenylic acid Deoxyadenylic

(4)
(Nucleoside) (Nucleotide) acid
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Choose the non-reducing sugar from the following :-

(1) Glucose
(2) Fructose
(3) Maltose
(4) Sucrose

24)

Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made up of :-

(1) branched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(2) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 6 glycosidic bond
branched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain and 1, 6
(3)
glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(4) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by ( 1, 4 glycosidic bond) 1, 4 glycosidic bond

25)

Match the columns :-

(A) Protein (B) Function

(a) Collagen (i) Enzyme
 proteinaceous
(b) GLUT-4 (ii)
hormone
Intercellular ground
(c) Insulin (iii)
substance
Glucose transport
(d) Trypsin (iv)
into cell
(1) a - iii b - iv c - ii d-i
(2) a - iii b - ii c - iv d-i
(3) a - i b - iv c - ii d - iii
(4) a - iv b - ii c - iii d-i

26) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(i) Drugs (a) Gums, cellulose

(ii) Polymeric substances (b) Morphine, codeine

(iii) Alkaloids (c) Carotenoids, Anthocyanins

(iv) Pigments (d) Vinblastin, curcumin

(1) i–c, ii–a, iii–b, iv–d
(2) i–d, ii–b, iii–a, iv–c
(3) i–d, ii–a, iii–b, iv–c
(4) i–a, ii–d, iii–b, iv–c

27) Paper from plant pulp and cotton fibre is __________ in nature

(1) Glycogen
(2) Protein
(3) Cellulose
(4) Lipid

28)

Which of the following compounds is used in the chemical analysis of living tissue?

(1) CH3COOH
(2) Cl3CCOOH
(3) HCHO
(4) C6H12O6

29) Alpha helices and beta sheets are example of protein organisation :-

(1) Quaternary structure

(2) Secondary structure
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) Primary structure

30) Exoskeleton of arthropods have a complex polysaccharide, called :-

(1) Cellulose
(2) Chitin
(3) Inulin
(4) Glycogen

31) This biomolecule is correctly characterized:-

(1) Alanine amino acid – contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule
(2) Palmitic acid – An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
(3) Lecithin – a phosphorylated glyceride found in the cell membrane
(4) Adenylic acid – adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule

32) Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct ?

(1) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
Competitive inhibition is seen, when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an
(2)
inhibitor protein
Competitive inhibition is seen, when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site
(3)
on the enzyme
(4) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme reversibly.

33) Which of the following describes the given graph correctly ?

(1) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(2) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.
34) Choose the element which is negligible in living matter.

(1) Si
(2) Mg
(3) Ca
(4) S

35) Match the following columns w.r.t nucleic acids

Column - I Column - II

(a) Nitrogen base (i) Uridine

(b) Nucleoside (ii) Cytidylic acid

(c) Nucleotide (iii) Thymine

(d) Nucleic acid (iv) RNA/DNA

(1) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv
(2) a - ii, b - iv, c - iii, d - i
(3) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv
(4) a - iv, b - ii, c - i, d - iii

36) Assertion : In solutions of different pH the structure of amino acids changes.

Reason : A particular property of amino acids is the ionizable nature of -NH2 and -COOH groups.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is correct explanation.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

37) In palmitic acid and arachidonic acid, the number of carbon atoms are respectively :-

(1) 18, 16
(2) 16, 20
(3) 20, 22
(4) 18, 22

38) What is the composition of cane sugar?

(1) α–D– glucose + α–D– glucose

(2) α–D–glucose + β–D–fructose
(3) α–D–fructose + α–D–fructose
(4) β–D–Galactose + β–D–glucose

39) Select the incorrect matching for component percentage in living cell :

(1) Water - 70 to 90%

(2) Proteins - 10 to15%
(3) Carbohydrate - 2%
(4) Nucleic Acid - 5 to 7%

40) Biologists describe the protein structure at four levels. Which level described the sequence of
amino acids, i.e., the positional information in a protein?

(1) Primary structure

(2) Secondary structure
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) Quaternary structure

41) Following is the diagrammatic representation of three different amino acids labelled as A, B and
C.

Select the option which is correct identification of amino acids marked as A, B, C.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) _______ is the most abundant protein in animal world and ______ is the most abundant protein in
the whole biosphere.

(1) Insulin, PEP-case

(2) Insulin, RuBisCO
(3) Collagen, PEP-case
(4) Collagen, RuBisCO
43) Statement I : The left end of polysaccharides is called the reducing end.
Statement II : Glycogen is a polysaccharide with right end as reducing end.

(1) Both the statements are correct.

(2) Only statement II is correct.
(3) Only statement I is correct.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect.

44) Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.

(a) Intercellular material of cartilage is ____(i)____ and ____(ii)____ and resists compression.
(b) Cell are ____(iii)____ and enclosed in cavites. (1-4 in number)
(c) Bones have a ____(iv)____ and ____(v)____ ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen
fibres.

(1) (i)-hard, (ii)-osteocytes, (v)-non-pliable

(2) (ii)-pliable, (iii)-chondrocytes, (v)-non-pliable
(3) (i)-solid, (iii)-osteocytes, (iv)-hard
(4) (ii)-non-pliable, (iv)-hard, (iv)-non-pliable

45)
Which of the following statement is incorrect about the given diagram?
(a) Squamous epithelium is made up single layer of tall and slender cells.
(b) Their nuclei are located at the base.
(c) They are found in the lining of the blood vessels.
(d) Helps in secretion & absorption.
(e) Function like forming a diffusion boundary.

(1) a, b, d only
(2) a, b, c, d only
(3) b, d only
(4) a, c, e only
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 3 1 2 2 1 1 3 3 4 2 4 4 4 3 1 1 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 4 4 4 2 3 2 4 4 2 3 1 3 3 3 4 1 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 1 2 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 3 3 3 1 3 3 2 4 1 4 4 3 1 1 1 1 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 2 1 2 2 4 1 3 3 3 2 1 4 3 2 1 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 1 4 4

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 3 3 4 2 4 1 4 1 3 3 4 4 1 3 4 1 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 4 4 4 3 1 3 2 1 2 4 1 2 1 2 3 4 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 4 3 2 1

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 3 4 2 1 3 4 3 2 2 4 1 4 3 4 3 1 3 1 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 2 4 4 1 3 3 2 2 2 3 3 4 1 3 2 2 2 3 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

⇒ TH = 1200 K
= 927°C

2) If the sheet is heated then both d1 and d2 will increase since the thermal expansion of
isotropic solid is similar to photographic enlargement.

3)

St : S2t = 1 : 4 ⇒ y = 4X

4) Δt = α(Δθ)t

= × 2 × 10–5 × 20 × 86400 = 17.28 seconds

5)

We have, हम जानते ह , Srel = urelt + arel t2

⇒ 0 = ut – (a + g) t2 ⇒ a = –g= .

6) Both particle collide at the highest point it means the vertical distance travelled by both the
particle will be equal, i.e. the vertical component of velocity of both particle will be equal

u1sin30° = u2 ⇒ ∴ u1 = 2u2

8)
from 0 to A
from A to B

from B to C

from C to D

So a3 is maximum

9)

10)

∴ Therefore f = 2/5

11)

ms1 = 3ms2

R1 = (31/3 R2)

12)

Both A & R are wrong.

13) PV = constant ⇒ T = constant

14) In isothermal process, P1V1 = P2V2

PV = P2(2V) ⇒ P2 =
In adiabatic process

15) VRMS =

16)

Angle between and

180° – 30° = 150°

17) γ = = =

γ= ⇒γ=1+

18) PVγ = constant

19)
ΔU = ⇒

21) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Water has maximum density at 4°C, on heating above 4°C or cooling below 4°C density of
water decreases and its volume increases. Therefore, water overflows in both the cases.

22)
=
= 10m towards west

23)
speed of second hand

change in velocity :- V= ×

24)

v = u + at
v = 0 + 1.5 (20)
v = 30 m/s

S = 30 (3) – (10) (32)

S = 45 m upward

27)

∵ sy = uyt + ay t2

∴ –80 = 30t – × 10 × t2
∴t2 – 6t – 16 = 0
∴ t = 8 sec.

29)
Let velocity of man wrt. ground =
velocity of rain wrt. man

2 – v = ±3

30)

Velocity of wind with respect to tractor.

=
This is in south - east direction.

31) S =
here α = 1 m/s2
β = 2 m/s2
t = 100 sec.

S=

S= km

32)

x – 5 = 0.4 × 90
x = 41°

33) θ = 0°

34) and

Acosθ =

0 0 0

35) (1) [Angle]= = [M L T ]

dimensionless but has a unit "radian".
(2) Unit less will have zero dimension
(3) & (4) equation should be dimensionally correct.

36)
 unit vector r to & =

= i(4 – 3) – j (4 + 6) + k (–6 – 12)

so unit vector =
0 0 0
37) Dimension of m = [M L T ]

Dimension of
⇒ Dimension of B = [L2] ⇒ [Area]

38) Radian is a supplementary unit.

39) 16.27
If the digit to be rounded off is more than 5, then the preceding digit is increased by one. e.g.
6.87≈ 6.9

40) Average value

= 2.62 sec.
Now

ΔT5 = 2.80 – 2.62 = 0.18

Mean absolute error

42) R = 6T4
logR = 4logT + log6

43)
Rmax = A + B
Rmin = |A – B|
 44)
z = 5 y = 10

45) By using law of significant figures.

CHEMISTRY

56)

Total spectral lines

69) Z = 103 is an actinide

83) NCERT Pg. # 81 (3.6.3)

84)

EA → Cl > F > Br > I

BE → Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

86)
A = n + p = 56 — (1)
e = z – (charge with sign)
e=p–3 — (2)

n=e+ = e + 0.304 e
⇒ n = 1.304 e — (3)
from (2) and (3)
n = 1.304 (p – 3) — (4)
from (1) and (4)
1.304 (p – 3) + p = 56
2.304 p – 3.912 = 56
2.304 p = 59.912

p= = 26
z = 26

BOTANY
93) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 5

94)

NCERT XI Pg # 3, 4, 5

95)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 4, 5 para 1.1

96) The number of similar characteristics goes on decreasing from species to kingdom.

97)

NCERT Pg. No. 8

99) NCERT Pg# 11

102)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

105) NCERT XI Pg # 134

106) NCERT-XI Pg. # 125,126

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

108)

Ncert Page 134.

109)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 133

111) NCERT Pg. # 132

112)

NCERT XI Pg # 131
 113)

NCERT XI Pg # 132

114) NCERT-XI Pg. # 143, 144

118)

NCERT Page No. 213

121) NCERT - 211

122) NCERT pg no.215, 219

123) NCERT pg no. 216

125)

NCERT Page No. 210, 211, 212, 213, 214, 220, (13.4, 13.5, 13.6, 13.6.3, 13.9)

126) NCERT XI pg no.9

128)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 6

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 5

135)

New NCERT Page no. 100

ZOOLOGY

136)

NCERT Pg 104

137)

NCERT Pg. # 102

138) Module-4

139) NCERT Pg. # 101

140) NCERT Pg 101

141) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 102, Fig. 7.2(b)

142) NCERT XI, Pg. # 101, Ist para

143) NCERT XI, Pg. # 100, Ist para

144)

NCERT XI _ Pg.102

145) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101. Fig 7.1.

146) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102

147) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 102

148) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 103

149) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

150) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 104, Fig- 7.6 (a, b)

151) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103, Fig - 7.5 (a)

152) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

153) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 107, Fig 9.1.

154) NCERT-XI Pg. # 106.

155)

Ncert page_ 105

156)

NCERT Page # 110

157)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 107. Fig 9.1.

158)

Hint : Sucrose is non-reducing because of 1-2 glycosidic bond.

159)

NCERT XI, Pg # 110.

160)

NCERT XII. Pg. No 109, Table 9.5

161) NCERT pg. 108. TABLE 9.3

162)

NCERT Page no. 111

163)

NCERT_2024-25_Pg.#104

164)

NCERT Pg 111, 112

165)

NCERT Pg. no 111

166)

NCERT_2024-25_Page #_101 -107.

167)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 117

168)

NCERT Pg 115

169) NCER Pg No: 105, Table 9.1.

170) NCERT Pg No: 111

172) NCERT-XI Pg. # 144 para 3

173) Module, Pg. # 258

174)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 109, Table 9.4

175) NCERT XII. Pg. No 111

176) NCERT Pg 107

177) NCERT pg:110

178)

NCERT Page # 110

179)

(a) Intercellular material of cartilage is solid and pliable and resists compression.
(b) Cells are chondrocytes in cavities (1-4 in number)
(c) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen
fibres.
NCERT Pg 103, 104.

180)

(a) Columnar epithelium is made up single layer of tall and slender cells.
(c) They are found in the lining of the stomach and intestine.
(e) Function like forming a diffusion boundary — Squamous epithelium.
NCERT Pg 101, Fig 7.1.