23-11-2025

5301CMD303033250007 MD

PHYSICS

1) x1 = A sin (ωt – 0.1x)

and x2 = A sin
resultant amplitude of combined wave is :-

2A cos
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The vibrations of a string of length 60 cm fixed at both the ends are represented by the equation y

= 2sin cos (96πt) where x and y are in cm. The maximum number of loops that can be formed
in it is :-

(1) 6
(2) 16
(3) 5
(4) 15

3) A transverse wave is travelling along a string from left to right. The adjoining figure represents
the shape of the string at a given instant. At this instant, among the following , choose the wrong

statement about particle velocity-

(1) Points D, E and F have upwards positive velocity.

(2) Points A, B and H have downwards negative velocity.
(3) Points C and G have zero velocity.
(4) Points A and B have upwards positive velocity.

4) Two waves represented by the following equations are travelling in the same medium y1 = 5 sin
2π (75t –0.25x), y2 = 10 sin 2π (150t – 0.50x). The intensity ratio I1/I2 of the two waves is :-
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 16

5) The mathematical forms for three sinusoidal traveling waves are given by,
Wave 1 : y(x,t) = (2cm) sin(3x–6t)
Wave 2 : y(x,t) = (3cm) sin(4x–12t)
Wave 3 : y(x,t) = (4cm) sin(5x–11t)
where x is in meters and t is in seconds. Of these waves-

(1) wave 1 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed.
wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 1 has the greatest maximum transverse string
(2)
speed.
(3) wave 3 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed.
wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 3 has the greatest maximum transverse string
(4)
speed.

6) A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency f in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in
a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to :

(1)

(2) f

(3)

(4) 2f

7) A girl stands 130 m away from a high wall. She claps her hands together at a steady rate such
that 37 claps are made in 30 seconds ; starting at time t = 0 and ending at t = 30 s. Each clap,
except the first, coincides with the echo of the one before. Calculate the speed of sound.

(1) 320 m/s

(2) 327 m/s
(3) 340 m/s
(4) 312 m/s

8) A source x of unknown frequency produces 8 beats with a source of 250 Hz and 12 beats with a
source of 270 Hz. The frequency of source x is :

(1) 258 Hz
(2) 242 Hz
(3) 262 Hz
(4) 282 Hz

9) In a large room, a person receives direct sound waves from a source 120 metres away from him.
He also receives waves from the same source which reach, being reflected from the 25 metres high
ceiling, at a point halfway between them. The two waves interfere constructively for a wavelength of
:-

(1)
20, , etc.
(2) 10, 5, 10/3 etc.
(3) 10, 20, 30 etc.
(4) 15, 25, 35 etc.

10) 56 tuning forks are so arranged in series that each fork gives 4 beats per sec with the previous
one. The frequency of the last fork is 3 times that of the first. The frequency of the first fork (in Hz)
is :-

(1) 110
(2) 56
(3) 60
(4) 52

11) Frequency of a tuning fork A is 256 Hz. It produces 4 beats/sec. with tuning fork B. When wax is
applied at tuning fork B then 6 beats/sec. are heard. By reducing little amount of wax 4 beats/sec.
are heard. Frequency of B is :-

(1) 250 Hz
(2) 260 Hz
(3) 252 Hz
(4) 256 Hz

12) Mark the correct statement :-

(1) In case of stationary waves, maximum pressure change occurs at antinodes

(2) In case of stationary waves, maximum pressure change occurs at nodes
(3) In case of stationary waves, pressure change is same at all the nodes and antinodes
(4) In case of stationary waves, no pressure change takes place

13) Three tuning forks of frequencies 200, 201 and 204 Hz are sounded together. The beat
frequency will be :-

(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 15
(4) None of these

14) The velocity of sound in a gas at temperature 27°C is V then in the same gas its velocity will be
2V at temperature :-

(1) 54°C
(2) 327°C
(3) 927°C
(4) 108°C

15) Two coherent sources of different intensities send waves which interfere. The ratio of the
maximum intensity to the minimum intensity is 25. The intensities are in the ratio :-

(1) 25 : 1
(2) 5 : 1
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 625 :1

16) Equation of a standing wave is generally expressed as y = 2A sin ωt coskx. In the equation,
quantity ω/k represents :-

(1) the transverse speed of the particles of the string

(2) the speed of either of the component wave
(3) the speed of the standing wave
(4) a quantity that is independent of the properties of the string.

17) The lengths of two closed organ pipes are 0.750 m and 0.770 m. If they are sounded together, 3
beats per second are produced. The velocity of sound will be :-

(1) 350.5 m/sec

(2) 335.5 m/sec
(3) 346.5 m/sec
(4) None of these

18) A transverse wave described by an equation y = 0.02 sin (x + 30t) where x and t are in metre
and second, is traveling along a wire of area of cross-section 1 mm2 and density 8000 kgm–3. What is
the tension in the wire ?

(1) 20 N
(2) 7.2 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 14.4 N

19) A second harmonic has to be generated in a string of length L stretched between two rigid
supports. The point where the string has to be plucked and touched are :-

(1)
plucked at and touch at

(2) plucked at and touch at

(3)
plucked at and touch at
(4) plucked at and touch at

20) S1 and S2 are two coherent sources of sound having no initial phase difference. The velocity of
sound is 330 m/s. No minima will be formed on the line passing through S2 and perpendicular to the

line joining S1 and S2, if the frequency of both the sources is :-

(1) 50 Hz
(2) 60 Hz
(3) 70 Hz
(4) 80 Hz

21) The transverse displacement y(x, t) of a wave on a string is given by .

This represents a :-

(1) standing wave of frequency

(2)
standing wave of frequency

(3)
wave moving in +x directionwith speed
wave moving in –x direction with speed
(4)

22) At x = 0 particle oscillate by law . If wave pulse is propagating along –ve x axis with
velocity 2 m/s, find equation of wave pulse

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) There is a set of 4 tuning forks, one with lowest frequency vibrating at 552 Hz. By using any two
forks at time, the beat frequencies heard are 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8. The possible frequencies of other three
forks are :-

(1) 553, 554 and 560 Hz

(2) 553, 555 and 560 Hz
(3) 553, 556 and 558 Hz
(4) 551, 554 and 560 Hz

24) A transverse sinusoidal wave moves along a string in the positive x-direction at a speed of 10
cm/s. The wavelength of the wave is 0.5 m and its amplitude is 10 cm. At a particular time t, the
snap shot of the wave is shown in figure. The velocity of P when its displacement is 5 cm is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25)

A sound wave starting from source S, follows two paths SEFD and SEABFD. AB = ℓ, AE = BF = 0.6
ℓ and wave length of wave is 6 m. If maximum sound is heard at D, then minimum value of length ℓ
is-

(1) 11m
(2) 6m
(3) 2.5m
(4) 5m

26) In an interference pattern, at a point we observe the 16th order bright fringe or maxima for λ1 =
7200Å. What order will be visible here if the source is replaced by light of wavelength λ2 = 4800Å.

(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 36
(4) 16

27) In Young's double slit interference experiment, the distance between two sources is 0.1 mm. The
distance of the screen from the sources is 20 cm. Wavelength of light used is 5460 Å. Then the
angular position of the first dark fringe is :-

(1) 0.08°
(2) 0.16°
(3) 0.20°
(4) 0.32°

28) If the light is polarised by reflection, then the angle between reflected and refracted light is :-

(1) π
(2) π/2
(3) 2π
(4) π/4

29) Light waves can be polarised because they :-

(1) have high frequencies

(2) have short wavelength
(3) are transverse
(4) can be reflected

30) A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of 60°. If the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other, the index of refraction of glass is :-

(1)
(2) 3/2
(3)
(4) 1/2

31) If a thin mica sheet of thickness t and refractive index µ = (5/3) is placed in the path of one of
the interfering beams as shown in figure, then the displacement of the fringe system is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A thin sheet of glass (µ = 1.5) of thickness 6 microns introduced in the path of one of interfering
beams in a double slit experiment shifts the central fringe to a position previously occupied by fifth
bright fringe. Then the wavelength of light used is :-

(1) 6000 Å
(2) 3000 Å
(3) 4500 Å
(4) 7500 Å

33) In a Fraunhoffer diffraction experiment at a single slit using light of wavelength 400 nm, the first
minimum is formed at an angle of 30°. Then the direction θ of the first secondary maximum is :-

(1)
tan–1
(2) 60°
sin–1
(3)

(4)
tan–1

34) The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit separation equal to two and half
times the wavelength in Youngs double slit experiment in :-

(1) Infinite
(2) Five
(3) Three
(4) Zero

35) If Young's experiment is performed using two separate identical sources of light instead of using
two slits and one light source then the :-

(1) Interference fringes will be darker

(2) Interference fringes will be brighter
(3) Fringes will not be obtained
(4) Contrast between bright and dark fringes increases

36) If two coherent sources are placed at a distance 3λ from each other symmetric to the centre of
the circle shown in the figure, then number of maxima shown on the screen placed along the

circumference is :-

(1) 16
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 4

37) A monochormatic plane wave of speed c and wavelength λ is diffracted at a small aperture. The
diagram illustrates successive in phase wavefronts. After what time will some portion of the

wavefront XY reach P ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Two light rays having the same wavelength in vacuum are in phase initially. Then the first ray
travels a path of length L1 through a medium of refractive index n1 while the second ray travels a
path of length L2 through a medium of refractive index n2. The two waves are then combined to
observe interference. The phase-difference between the two waves is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
39) In a young' double slit experiment, a student observes 12 fringes in a certain segment of screen
when a monochromatic light of 500 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed,
then the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is 15. The new
wavelength of light is :

(1) 600 nm
(2) 300 nm
(3) 800 nm
(4) 400 nm

40) Red light is generally used to observe diffraction pattern from single slit. If green light is used
instead of red light, then diffraction pattern –

(1) Will be more clear

(2) Will be contract
(3) Will be expanded
(4) Will not visualize

41) For Fraunhoffer single slit diffraction –

(1) width of central maxima is proportional to λ

(2) on increasing the slit width, the width of central maxima decreases
(3) on making the slit width a = λ, central fringe spreads in the range ± 90°
(4) all of the above are correct

42) White light is used to illuminate two slits in a Young's double slit experiment. The separation
between the slits is b and the screen is at a distance d(>>b) from the slits. At a point on the screen
directly in front of one of the slits, certain wavelengths are missing Some of these missing
wavelengths are :-

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (iii)
(4) (ii), (iv)

43) Two polaroids are placed in the path of unpolarized beam of intensity I0 such that no light is
emitted from the second polaroid. If a third polaroid whose polarization axis makes an angle θ with
the polarization axis of first polaroid, is placed between these polaroids then the intensity of light
emerging from the last polaroid will be.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) I0 cos θ
4

44) The angle of polarisation for any medium is 60° what will be critical angle for this.

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

45) Huygen's principle of secondary wavelets can be used to (a) Explain the laws of reflection of
light
(b) Explain the laws of refraction of light
(c) explain the transverse nature of light waves
(d) predict the location of a wave front as time passes
Select the correct statement

(1) a, b only
(2) a, c only
(3) a, b, d only
(4) c, d only

CHEMISTRY

1)

The major alkene obtained in following reaction

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

2) CH3–CH=CH2 product
correct statement for above reaction :-

(1) Reaction completes with anti-addition

(2) Reaction can be used as test of unsaturation
(3) Reaction involves cyclic intermediate
(4) All

3) Identify the product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Identify the product, ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

5) reagent
should be -
(1) dil. H2SO4
(2) i. BH3/THf ii. H2O2/OH–
(3) i. Hg(OAc)2/H2O ii. NaBH4
(4) Both 1 & 3

6) Which is Tilden reagent ?

(1) NaCl
(2) NOCl
(3) HOCl
(4) All

7) In following compound correct order of reactivity for EAR is :-

(X) (Y) (Z) Ph–CH=CH2

(1) Y > X > Z

(2) X > Y > Z
(3) Z > Y > X
(4) X > Z > Y

8) What will be major product in following reaction?

CH3–CH=CH–CH2 Major

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Assertion(A) :- Propene and propyne differentiated by Baeyer's reagent. Reason (R):- Propene
decolourise colour of Baeyer's reagent but not propyne.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) and (R) both are false
10) product Identify the product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Out of following, which will not react with Tollens reagent :-

(1) Ethyne
(2) 1-Butyne
(3) 1-Pentene
(4) All

12) Identify the product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)
Major product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14) Which is most reactive for E2 elimination reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Which product is not possible in following reaction with N.B.S. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Which of the following alkene give 3° alcohol as major product on reaction with :-

(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (2) & (3)

17)
X and Y are respectively :

(1) and

and
(2)

(3)
Both

(4)
Both

18) CH3–C≡CH ?
Identify the product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) major product :-

(1) CH3–CH=CH–OH
(2)

(3)

(4)

20) (Product)
(A) is :

(1) CH3–CH2–CHO

(2)

(3)

(4)

21)
Incorrect statement about (A) is :

(1) Degree of unsaturation is two

(2) By clemmenson reduction it produce n-Butane
(3) IUPAC name is 2-Butanone
(4) It is dicarbonyl compound

22) Which of the following alkene will form acetone on ozonalysis as a one of the product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) and (3)

23) CaC2 A B; B is –
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) X is.

(1) Pd + CaCO3/Quinolene
(2) Na + Liq. NH3
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

25) A cell is constituted as follows

Pt|H2 (1 atm) |HA1| |HA2| H2 (1 atm) | Pt
The pH of two acids solutions HA1 and HA2 are 5 and 3 respectively. The emf of the cell is -

(1) 0.059 V
(2) 0.0295 V
(3) 0.118 V
(4) – 0.118 V

26) The position of some metals in the electrochemical series in decreasing electropositive character
is Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag. What will happen if copper spoon is used to stir a solution of aluminium
nitrate?

(1) The spoon gets coated with aluminium

(2) An alloy of aluminium and copper is formed
(3) No reaction occurs
(4) The solution starts turning blue

27) For the cell Zn(s) | Zn2+(aq) || Mx+ (aq) | M(s), different half cells and their standard electrode
potentials are given below : If
, which cathode will give a maximum value of per electron transferred ?

(1) Fe3+ / Fe2+

(2) Ag+ / Ag
(3) Au3+ / Au
(4) Fe2+ / Fe

28) Given : = – 0.72 V, = – 0.42V. The potential for the cell,

3+ 2+
Cr(s) | Cr (aq) (0.1 M) || Fe (aq) (0.01 M)|Fe(s) is

(1) 0.26 V
(2) 0.339 V
(3) – 0.339 V
(4) – 0.26 V

29) Reduction potential of ions are given below:

The correct order of their oxidising power is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) Assertion : The SRP of three metallic ions A+, B2+, C3+ are –0.3, –0.5, 0.8 volt respectively, so
oxidising power of ions is C3+ > A+ > B2+.
Reason : Higher the SRP, higher the oxidising power.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

31) Electrolytic conduction differs from metallic conduction from the fact that in the former

(1) The resistance increases with increasing temperature

(2) The resistance decreases with increasing temperature
(3) The resistance remains constant with increasing temperature
(4) The resistance is independent of the length of the conductor
32) For the strong electroytes NaOH, NaCl and BaCl2 the molar ionic conductivities at infinite
dilution are 240 ×10–4, 125 ×10–4 and 280.0 ×10-4 mho cm2 mol–1 respectively. Calculate the molar
conductivity of Ba(OH)2 at infinite dilution.

(1) = 510 × 8–4

(2) = 510 × 10–4
(3) = 510 × 10–5
(4) = 508 × 10–5

33) Calculate emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place:-

Given: , ,
log2 = 0.3)

(1) 1.05V
(2) 0.912V
(3) 1.19 V
(4) 2.05V

34) The single electrode potential E of 0.1 M solution of M+ ions [EºR = – 2.36 V] is :

(1) + 2.41
(2) – 2.41
(3) – 4.82
(4) + 4.82

35) The resistance of 0.1 N solution of formic acid is 200 ohm and cell constant is 2.0 cm–1. The
equivalent conductivity (in S cm2eq–1) of 0.1 N formic acid is :-

(1) 100
(2) 10
(3) 1
(4) None of these

36) Equivalent conductance of NaCl, HCl and C2H5COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and
91Ω–1 equiv–1cm2, respectively. The equivalent conductance of C2H5COOH is :

(1) 201.28 Ω–1 equiv–1cm2

(2) 390.71 Ω–1 equiv–1cm2
(3) 698.28 Ω–1 equiv–1cm2
(4) 540.48 Ω–1 equiv–1cm2

37) The e.m.f. of the following galvanic cells:-

(a) Zn|Zn2+ (1M) ||Cu2+(1M)|Cu
(b) Zn|Zn2+ (0.1M) ||Cu2+(1M)|Cu
(c) Zn|Zn2+ (1M) ||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu
(d) Zn|Zn2+ (0.1M) ||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu
are represented by E1, E2, E3 and E4 respectively. Which of the following statement is true?

(1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4

(2) E3 > E2 > E1 > E4
(3) E3 > E1 = E4 > E2
(4) E2 > E1 = E4 > E3

38)

Which one of the following is wrong :–

(1) Specific conductance increases on dilution.

(2) Specific conductance decreases on dilution.
(3) Equivalent conductance increases on dilution.
(4) Molar conductance increases on dilution.

39) Which of the following expressions correctly represents the equivalent conductance of Al2(SO4)3

at infinite dilution. Given that and are the equivalent conductances at infinite dilution of
the respective ions :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A cell in which the following reaction takes place :-

Mg(s)+2Ag+(0.0001 M) → Mg+2(0.120 M) + 2Ag(s)
if = 3.17 volt then calculate Ecell

(1) 2.0 volt

(2) 2.96 volt
(3) 3.50 volt
(4) 3.17 volt

41) The equivalent conductivity of 0.1 N CH3 COOH at 25°C is 80 and at infinite 400. The degree of
dissociation of CH3 COOH is:

(1) 1
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.5

42) For the cell Zn|Zn+2||Cu+2|Cu, if the concentration of both Zn+2 and Cu+2 ions are doubled, the
EMF of the cell :

(1) Doubles
(2) Reduced to half
(3) Remains same
(4) Becomes zero

43) The specific conductance of a 0.20 mol L–1 solution of an electrolyte at 20ºC is 2.48 x 10–4 ohm–1
cm–1. The molar conductivity of the solution is -

(1) 1.24 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1

(2) 4.96 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
(3) 1.24 ohm–1 cm2
(4) 4.96 ohm–1 cm2

44) The emf of cell Cd(s) | Cd+2(1 M) || Cu+2 (1M) | Cu(s) will increase, when :-

(1) [Cd+2] is increased

(2) [Cd+2] is decreased
(3) [Cu+2] is increased
(4) Both (2) and (3)

45) From the following E° values for the half-cells :

(i) D → D2+ + 2e–; E° = –1.5V
(ii) B+ + e– → B; E° = –0.5 V
(iii) A3– → A2– + e–; E° = 1.5V
(iv) C2+ + e– → C+; E° = +0.5V
Which combination of two half cells would result in a cell with largest potential?

(1) i and iii

(2) i and iv
(3) iii and iv
(4) ii and iv

BIOLOGY

1) Read the following statements carefully :-

(1) All flowering plants shows sexual reproduction.
(2) Flowers are objects of aesthetics, ornamental and cultural value.
(3) Flowers have always been used as symbols for conveying important human feelings.
(4) Flower is a fascinating organ of Angiosperms.
How many above statements are correct/s ?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

2) How many statement are correct regarding stamen ?

(A) It is unit of androecium
(B) It is equivalent to microsporophyll
(C) It is differentiated into filament and anther
(D) It is male sex organ of the flower
Option :-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

3)

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R.
Assertion A : A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to
floral meristem.
Reason R : Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally
at successive nodes instead of leaves.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

4) Apomixis is ?

(1) Special mechanism to produce seed without fertilization

(2) Special mechanism to produce seed with fertilization
(3) Mimics sexual reproduction
(4) Both (1) and (3)

5)

Read the following four statement (A-D)

(A) Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is referred to as polyembryony.
(B) Anther is attached to proximal end of the filament of stamen.
(C) The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of scutellum is the hypocotyl.
(D) The number and length of stamens are variable in flowers of different species

How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

6) Tapetum is :-

(1) Inner nutritive layer that degenerates at maturity of anther

(2) Inner nutritive layer that persists at maturity of anther
(3) Outer nutritive layer that persists at maturity of anther
(4) Outer nutritive layer that degenerates at maturity of anther

7) In flowering plant, how many divisions are required for the formation of mature male
gametophyte from mature pollen grain –

(1) 1 meiotic division

(2) 1 meiotic and 1 mitotic division
(3) 1 mitotic division
(4) 1 meiotic and 2 mitotic division

8)

Examine the figure of microsporangium and select the part correctly matched with its feature or
function :-

(1) Part (D) : Endothecium – Protection

(2) Part (A) : Innermost wall layer – Dense cytoplasm in cells
(3) Part (C) : Middle layers – Nutrition to megaspores
(4) Part (B) : Tapetum – Sporic meiosis

9) Few events of male gametophyte development in angiosperm are shown in figure given below.
Arrange the diagram in progressive order of their occurrence and select the correct order from the
options given below:
Options :

(1) i, ii, iii, iv, v

(2) i, v, iv, iii, ii
(3) i, ii, iv, iii, v
(4) i, v, ii, iv, iii

10) If leaftip cells possess 28 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in middle layer, generative
cell and male gametes will be:

(1) 14, 28, 14

(2) 28, 14, 14
(3) 14, 14, 28
(4) 28, 28, 14

11) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(1) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients.

(2) In some cereals like rice and wheat pollen grains maintain viability for months
In some members of rosaceae, leguminosae and solanaceae, pollen grains lose viability within
(3)
30 minutes of their release
(4) All of the above

12) Transverse section of a floral part is given below, identify this structure–

(1) T.S. of young anther

(2) T.S. of a megasporangium
(3) T.S. of a mature deshisced anther
(4) T.S. of a mature indehisced anther

13) During embryogeny in dicot plants, the zygote first divides into two unequal cells in which

(1) Larger suspensor cell lies towards micropyle

(2) Smaller suspensor cell lies towards micropyle
(3) Larger embryonal cell lies towards antipodal region
(4) Larger suspensor cell lies towards antipodal region

14) Assertion : Each cell of sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad.
Reason : Each one is potential pollen or microspore mother cell.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) Read the following statements carefully.

(1) Sporopollenin forms hard outer layer called exine, it is most resistant inorganic material.
(2) In 40% of angiosperms pollen grains shed at two celled stage.
(3) Vegetative cell is smaller and generative cell is larger.
(4) In over 60% of angiosperms pollen grain shed at three celled stage.
How many above statement/s are wrong :-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

16) Select the correct statements from the following :

(i) In typical angiosperm, embryo sac is 7 celled and 8 nucleated.
(ii) Egg apparatus in an embryo sac consists of two egg cell and one synergid.
(iii) Three antipodal cells are situated at chalazal end of embryo sac.
(iv) Egg cell is largest cell of egg apparatus

(1) i only
(2) ii and iii only
(3) i, iii and iv only
(4) ii only

17) Diagrammatic view of a typical ovule is given select the option with incorrect identificaiton :-
 d = Integuments
(1)
e = Nucellus
f = Embryosac
(2)
a = micropylar pole
b = Funicle
(3)
g = Chalaza
g = Embryosac
(4)
c = Hilum

18) Identify the above structures; A and B respectively :-

(1) Syncarpous pistil of Michelia, Apocarpous pistil of Papaver

(2) Apocarpous pistil of Papaver, Syncarpous pistil Michelia
(3) Sycarpous pistil of Papaver, Apocarpous pistil of Michelia
(4) Megasporophyll of Hibiscus, Microsprophyll of Papaver

19) Which of the following features are true for synergids?

(a) Diploid cells
(b) it is part of female gametophyte.
(c) Produced by microsporogenesis
(d) Contains filiform apparatus

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)

20) Remnants of nucellus in a mature seed represents

(1) Diploid parent sporophyte generation

(2) Diploid future generation of sporophyte
(3) Nucellar embryos
(4) Haploid parent sporophyte generation
21) In the given diagram of fertilized embryo sac labelled structure 'A' is :-

(1) Zygote
(2) PEC
(3) PEN
(4) Antipodal cell

22) Which of the following is incorrect about wind pollination ?

(1) Compact inflorescence

(2) Well – Exposed stamens
(3) Many and light pollens
(4) Ovary has many ovules

23) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
Statement II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

24) A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers but never produces fruits and seeds. The most probable
cause for the above situation is :

(1) Plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate flowers

(2) Plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and staminate flowers
(3) Plant is monoecious
(4) Plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers.

25) Read carefully the given statement-

Statement-I : Elongated, stigma and style which wave in wind to trap pollens in maize are called
"Tassels".
Statement-II : In Vallisneria, the female flowers reach surface of water by long stalk and male
flowers or pollen grains are released on surface of water.
Choose the correct answer.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

26) One meiosis produces how many male gametes?

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 8

27) Which of the following is an important requirement for autogamy ?

(1) synchrony in pollen release and stigma receptivity

(2) stigma and pollen should lie close to each other
(3) bisexual flower
(4) all of these

28) Select the incorrect matching with respect to following diagram :-

(1) A-haploid structure, degenerate after syngamy

(2) B-diploid structure, forms embryo sac after fertilization
(3) C-one degenerate before syngamy
(4) D-undergoes syngamy during double fertilization

29) When a tetraploid female plant is crossed with a diploid male plant, the ploidy of endosperm
cells in resulting seed of this angiosperm would be:

(1) Pentaploidy
(2) Diploidy
(3) Triploidy
(4) Tetraploidy

30) Generative cell was destroyed by laser beam but a normal pollen tube was still formed because

(1) Vegetative cell is not damaged

(2) Contents of killed generative cell stimulated pollen growth
(3) Laser beam stimulates growth of pollen tube
(4) The region of emergence of pollen tube is not harmed by laser beam

31) Given below are two statements –

Statement-I : Endosperm development preceeds embryo development.
Statement-II : Embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac where the zygote is
situated.
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

32) Assertion (A) : Out of two types of fusions in double fertilisation, one is called triple fusion.
Reason (R) : Triple fusion involves the fusion of three haploid nuclei.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

33)
Identify the A :-

(1) Synergid
(2) Egg nucleus
(3) Vegetative nucleus
(4) Zygote

34) Total number of nuclei involved in double fertilization is:

(1) 2
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 5

35) In the following figures, (A) and (B) represent respectively

(1) Plumule and cotyledons

(2) Cotyledons and plumule
(3) Suspensor and cotyledons
(4) Cotyledons and suspensor

36) Which of the following is correct sequence of embryogeny in dicot plant?

(1) Zygote-Proembryo-Globular embryo-heart shaped embryo-Mature embryo

(2) Zygote-Proembryo-Heart shaped embryo-Globular embryo-Mature embryo
(3) Zygote-Heart shaped embryo-Proembryo-Globular embryo-Mature embryo
(4) Zygote-Globular embryo-Proembryo-Heart shaped embryo-Mature embryo

37) Choose the right one w.r.t. post-fertilization events.

(1) Endosperm development succeeds embryo development

(2) Transformation of ovary into fruit and ovules into seeds proceeds simultaneously
(3) Transformation of ovary into fruit precedes the transformation of ovules into seeds
(4) Transformation of ovules into seeds precedes the transformation of ovary into fruit.

38) The plant parts which consist of two generations one within the other:
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)
39)
Identify the A

(1) Seed coat

(2) Micropyle
(3) Plumule
(4) Endosperm

40) Statement-I :- Fruits develops only from the ovary are called true fruits.
Statement-II :- Fruits develops without fertilisation are called false fruits.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statement-I and II are correct.
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

41) Assertion : Phoenix dactylifera discovered during the archeological excavation at king Herod's
palace.
Reason : Seed of Lupinus arcticus excavated from arctic tundra, germinated & flowered after an
estimated record of 10,000 years of dormancy.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but the Reason is not correct.
(4) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.

42) Choose the correct option from the following -

I. Dehydration and dormancy of mature seed are crucial for seed storage.
II. Large trees of Ficus develops from a large seed.
III. Orchid seed is one of largest seed in plant Kingdom
IV. Seeds of parasitic plants Orobanche and Striga are tiny seeds.

(1) I, II are correct but III, IV are incorrect

(2) I, IV are correct but II, III are incorrect
(3) III, IV are correct but I, II are incorrect
(4) II, III are correct but I, IV are incorrect

43) Select the correct statement according to geitonogamy?

(1) Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a different plant
 This is the only type of pollination which during pollination brings genetically different types of
(2)
pollen grain to the stigma
(3) It occurs only in chasmogamous flowers
(4) Transfer of pollen grain from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant

44) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
A. Scutellum I. Persistent nucellus
B. Non-albuminous seed II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed
C. Epiblast III. Groundnut
D. Perisperm IV. Rudimentary cotyledon

​Choose the option with all correct matches.

(1) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(2) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(3) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(4) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I

45) Assertion : In angiosperms, seeds are often describe as fertilised ovule.

Reason : Seed is the product of sexual reproduction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

46) Which is the correct pathway of pulmonary circulation ?

(1) Rt. ventricle Lungs

(1)
Lt. atrium

Rt. ventricle Lungs

(2)
Lt. atrium

Lt ventricle Lungs
(3)
Rt. atrium

Lt ventricle Body tissues

(4)
Rt ventricle

47) Blood colloidal osmotic pressure is mainly maintainted by which plasma protein ?

(1) Globulin
(2) Albumin
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Prothombin

48) How many statements are correct for RBC?

(i) Biconcave and non-nucleated in human.
(ii) It contains carbonic anhydrase in large quantity.
(iii) It contain antigen of blood group on surface.
(iv) It contains mitochondria in large number.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

49) Least number of white blood corpuscles are :-

(1) Neutrophils
(2) Basophils
(3) Monocytes
(4) Eosinophils

50) Which one of the following option gives the correct categorisation of formed elements with
respect to their count and function :-

(A) (B) (C)

Element Count Function

(1) Erythrocyte 55 million/mm3 Transport of gas

(2) Leucocyte 6000 - 8000/mm3 Clotting of Blood

(3) Thrombocyte 1.5 - 3.5 lakh/mm3 Immunity

(4) Platelets 1.5 - 3.5 lakh/mm3 Coagulation

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51)

Select the correct order of events occurring in blood clotting :

(I) Formation of fibrin.
(II) Formation of clot.
(III) Thromboplastin formation.
(IV) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

Choose the correct option :

(1) III, IV, II and I
(2) III, II, I and IV
(3) III, IV, I and II
(4) IV, I, III and II

52) There are 3 drops of blood on a slide Identify the blood

group :-

(1) B+
(2) B–
(3) A+
(4) A–

53)

Choose the correct statements :

(i) A person with 'A' blood group has anti-B antibody in the plasma
(ii) A person with 'O' blood group has no antibodies in the plasma
(iii) A person with 'AB' blood group has no antibodies in the plasma
(iv) A person with 'AB' blood group has both the antigens A and B on the RBC's

(1) (i), (ii), (iii)

(2) (i), (iii)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii), (iv)

54) For erythroblastosis foetalis, which of the following statement is true?

(1) Adult may die due to severe jaundice and anaemia.

(2) Baby may die due to severe jaundice and anaemia.
(3) No effect on baby.
(4) During pregnancy pregnant lady may be die due to severe jaundice.

55) Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood occurs in the ventricle of :-

(1) Scoliodon
(2) Frog
(3) Rabbit
(4) Pigeon

56) Which of the following are in direct contact with the AV valves and prevent these from collapsing
back into atria ?

(1) Chordae tendinae

(2) Papillary muscles
(3) Columnae carnae
(4) Musculi pectinati

57) Human's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometimes ?
Select the best option from the following statements :-
(a) Human does not have renal portal system
(b) Heart is "myogenic" in nature
(c) Heart is auto excitable
(d) Human heart is four chambered

(1) Only (c)

(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (b) and (d)

58) Read the following statements from A to D

A. All the four chambers of heart are in a relaxed state.
B. The tricuspid and Bicuspid valves are open.
C. The semilunar valves are close.
D. Blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the right and left ventricles respectively
through the left and right atria.
How many of the above state statements are incorrect during joint diastole ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

59) The heart sound 'dupp' is produced when :-

(1) Tricuspid valve is opened

(2) Mitral valve is opened
(3) Mitral valve is closed
(4) Semi-lunar valves get closed

60) Cardiac activity could be moderated by the autonomous neural system. Tick the correct answer:-

(1) The parasympathetic system stimulates heart rate and stroke volume
(2) The sympathetic system stimulates heart rate and stroke volume
(3) The parasympathetic system decreases the heart rate but increases the stroke volume
(4) The sympathetic system decreases the heart rate but increase stroke volume

61) T-wave of ECG represents :-

(1) Atrial systole
(2) Ventricular repolarisation
(3) Atrial depolarisation
(4) Ventricular depolarisation

62) Blood pressure is defined as the force with which blood

(1) comes out of the atrium

(2) is pushed to the legs
(3) pushes against wall of blood vessels
(4) comes out of the ventricle

63) Unique vascular connection that exists between digestive tract and liver is called as :-

(1) Portal triad

(2) Hepatic lobule
(3) Lymphatic system
(4) Hepatic portal system

64) Artificial pacemaker implanted at site of :-

(1) AVN
(2) Purkinje fiber
(3) SAN
(4) Bundle of His

65) Complete stoppage of heart beat is known as:

(1) Cardiac arrest

(2) Myocardial infarction
(3) Angina pectoris
(4) Heart failure

66)

Which of the following steps is not involved in respiration ?

(1) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane

(2) Transport of gases by the blood
(3) Provide nutrients to all the living cells of body
(4) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2.

67)

Match the column I with column II :

 Column-I Column-II

A Tracheal tubes I Scorpion

B Gills II Frog

C Moist skin III Insect

D Book lungs IV Aquatic arthropods

A B C D

(1) III IV II I

(2) III I IV II

(3) IV III II I

(4) IV II I III
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68) Respiratory or exchange part of the respiratory system consists of :

(1) The parts start with external nostrils upto terminal bronchioles
(2) Alveoli and their ducts
(3) All bronchi and terminal bronchioles
(4) All bronchioles

69) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is :-

(1) TV + ERV
(2) TV + IRV
(3) TLC - RV
(4) ERV + RV

70)

C-shaped cartilagenous rings in Human respiratory tract are found ?

(1) From trachea upto end of bronchioles

(2) From trachea upto alveoli
(3) Only in trachea and primary bronchi
(4) From trachea to initial bronchioles

71) Mammalian lungs contain an enormous number of minute alveoli. This is to allow :

(1) more space for increasing the total volume of inspired air
(2) more surface area for diffusion of gases
(3) more spongy texture for keeping lungs in proper shape
(4) more nerve supply to keep, the organs working more efficiently

72) A film of ............ lines the alveoli to keep them open by lowering surface tension :-

(1) Pneumocyte
(2) Lecithin
(3) Carbonic acid
(4) Adrenalin

73)

How many characterstic feature given below are related to pleura.

(I) Double layered
(II) Fluid contained in it reduces the frictin on the lung surface
(III) Its outer layer is in contact with thoracic wall
(IV) Its inner layer is in contact with lungs.

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) III and IV
(4) All of these

74) When there is no air in initial bronchioles, they does not collapse. it is due to :-

(1) Presence of Lecithin

(2) Presence of incomplete cartilagenous rings
(3) Presence of complete cartilagenous rings
(4) Presence of mucous

75) Correct combination for the parts of thorasic cavity and their position is :-

(A) Ribs (i) Ventral

(B) Diaphragm (ii) Dorsal

(C) Vertebral column (iii) Lower side

(D) Sternum (iv) Upper side

(E) Collar bone (v) Lateral

(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iv), E-(ii)
(2) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii), E-(iii)
(3) A-(v), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv), E-(i)
(4) A-(v), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(iv)

76) Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration is called :
(1) VC
(2) IRV
(3) TLC
(4) ERV

77) Statement-I :- Humans can not directly alter the pulmonary volume.
Statement-II :- Lungs are situated in the air tight thoracic chamber.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true.

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true.
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false.

78) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) All the time of inspiration, contraction in diaphragm and external intercostal muscles take place.
(b) Normal breathing is also called as abdominal breathing.
(c) Expiration during sneezing, coughing, yoga is normal expiration during which IICM and
abdominal muscles relax.
(d) Inspiration can occur if the pressure within lungs (intra pulmonary pressure) is more then the
atmospheric pressure.

(1) Statements (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) Statements (a) only
(3) Statements (a), (b), (c)
(4) Statements (a) and (b)

79) The given figure illustrates the changes in lung volume during the process of breathing.

The change from II to III indicates the :-

(1) Flattening of diaphragm

(2) Expansion of the thoracic cavity
(3) Movement of air out of the lungs
(4) Expansion of ribs

80) Match the following

1 Tidal volume (a) 2500-3000 ml

2 IRV (b) ERV + TV + IRV
3 FRC (c) 500 ml
4 VC (d) RV + ERV
 5 IC (e) TV + IRV
Select the correct one :-
(1) 1–c ; 2–a ; 3–d ; 4–b ; 5–e
(2) 1–c ; 2–d ; 3–a ; 4–b ; 5–e
(3) 1–c ; 2–d ; 3–a ; 4–e ; 5–b
(4) 1–c ; 2–a ; 3–e ; 4–b ; 5–d

81) Assertion : The maximum volume of air a person can breath out after a forced insipration, this
is called vital capacity of lungs.
Reason : Residual volume is that volume of air remaining in the lungs after a forceful expiration.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

82) The diffusion membrane is made up of three major layers. Select the option which correctly
describes these layers :

(1) One cellular and two non cellular layers

(2) One non cellular and two cellular layers
(3) All three layers are cellular
(4) All three layers are non cellular

83) Consider the following statements and select the option which includes all the correct ones :-
(a) Partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in Alveolar air are 104 mmHg and 40 mmhg
(b) Partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in deoxygenated blood are 40 mmHg and 45 mmhg respectively
(c) Partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in deoxygenated blood are 95 mmHg and 40 mmHg respectively
(d) Partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in Atmospheric air are 40 mmhg and 46 mmHg
Options :

(1) Statement a, b and c are correct

(2) Statement a, b,c and d are correct
(3) Statement a, b are correct
(4) Statement c and d are correct

84) Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to right when :-

(1) pO2 increases

(2) pCO2 decreases
(3) pH decreases
(4) Temperature decreases

85) How many of the following conditions favour formation of oxyhaemoglobin?

High pO2, Low pCO2, High H+ concentration,
Low pH, High pCO2, Low temperature
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

86)

Above diagram shows a process during transportation of CO2 gas at tissue level.

Consider that process and then choose right statement :-

– –
(1) A is Cl and B is HCO3
– –
(2) A is HCO3 and B is Cl
– +
(3) A is HCO3 and B is Na
(4) A is Na+ and B is Cl–

87) CO2 from carbaminohaemoglobin dissociates due to -

(1) PO2 is low near tissue

(2) PCO2 high near tissue
(3) PO2 high near alveoli
(4) PCO2 low near alveoli

88) A neural centre present in pons region of brain called __(A)__ which can morderate the function
of the __(B)__ :-

(A) (B)

(I) Chemosensitive area Carotid bodies

Respiratory rhythm
(II) Pneumotaxic centre
centre

Respiratory rhythm
(III) Pheumotaxic centre
centre

(IV) Pneumotaxic centre Chemosensitive area

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

89) 'CO' poisoning causes the decrease in oxygen availability to the tissues because :-
(1) It binds the haemoglobin and to form stable compound carboxyhaemoglobin
(2) It increases CO2 concentration in our body.
(3) It is a toxic gas so main body organs like brain, failure occured.
(4) 'CO' impedes the CO2 transportation.

90) Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema, respectively ?

(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface

(2) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
(3) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(4) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 4 4 4 2 1 1 2 1 2 2 1 3 3 2 3 2 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 2 3 4 2 2 2 3 1 1 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 3 1 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 2 2 4 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 1 4 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 1 1 3 3 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 4 1 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 1 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 4 4 3 1 3 2 4 2 1 3 1 1 4 3 4 3 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 4 4 1 4 4 2 1 1 4 1 2 4 3 1 2 1 4 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 4 1 4 1 2 2 2 4 3 1 3 2 2 1 3 4 4 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 4 3 1 3 1 2 3 4 2 2 4 2 4 3 1 4 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 II 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2A cos

2) l =

3)

Particle velocity,

or = – wave velocity × slope of the wave

(a) For upward velocity, vpa = + ve, so slope must negative which is at the points D, E and F.

(b) For downward velocity, vpa = –ve, so slope must be positive which
is at the points A, B and H.
(c) For zero velocity, slope must be zero which is at C and G.
(d) For maximum magnitude of velocity, |slope| = maximum, which is at A and E. Hence, the given
(d) alternative is wrong.

4) Question Explanation :
Two waves with different amplitudes are traveling in the same medium. The ratio of their
intensities needs to be determined using the relationship between intensity and amplitude.

Concept Based :
This question is based on progressive wave.

Formula :
Intensity of a wave:
I µ A2ω2
Intensity ratio:
Calculation :
Given wave equations:
y1 = 5sin 2π(75t – 0.25x)
y2 = 10sin 2π(150t – 0.5x)
Identifying amplitudes:
A1 = 5, A2 = 10
Using intensity formula:

Hence,
Option (4) is correct : I1 : I2 = 1 : 16 Ans.

5) Question Explanation : The problem three sinusoidal wave equation and asks which wave
has the greatest wave speed and which has the greatest transverse string speed.
Concept Based : This question is based on Wave speed.
Formula :
Wave speed = w/k
Maximum transverse speed vmax = Aw
and a travelling wave equ. is given as
y = A sin (kt –wt)

Calculation :
Comparing all the given equation with the standard wave equation in formula.

Wave 2 has the highest wave speed (3 m/s3 m/s), and Wave 3 has the highest transverse string
speed (44 cm/s).

Correct answer: Option 4.

6)

For open pipe f =

When half of its length is dipped in water, Now it is COP.

f′ =

7) Time for one clap t1 = sec

so t1 =

⇒ vs = = 320 m/s

8)

258 Hz

9)

10, 5, 10/3 etc.

10)

n + 55 b = 3 n

n=
n = 110 Hz

11)

260 Hz

12) When a stationary wave is established in a medium, then maximum deformation of the
medium is produced at nodes. Hence, maximum pressure change takes place at nodes and at
antinodes no pressure changes takes place. Hence, option (2) alone is correct.

13)
∴ No. of beats = 6

14) In a gas,
 = 1200 K = 927°C

15) ⇒ a1 + a2 = 5 (a1 – a2)

16) Equation of the component wave are

y = A sin (ωt – kx) and y = A sin (ωt + kx) where ; ωt – kx = constant or ωt + kx = constant
Differentiating w.r.t 't';

and

⇒v= and

i.e. ; the speed of component waves is

17) 1. Explanation of the Question:

Two closed organ pipes with different lengths produce beats when sounded together. The
frequency difference between the pipes causes the beat frequency, and we need to calculate
the velocity of sound based on this information.
2. Concept:
For a closed-end pipe, the frequency is given by:

where:

A. n is the frequency of the pipe,

B. v is the velocity of sound,
C. L is the length of the pipe.

The beat frequency Δn is the absolute difference between the frequencies of the two pipes:

where n1 and n2 are the frequencies of the two pipes.

3. Formula:
For two pipes with lengths L1 and L2, their frequencies are:

Thus, the beat frequency is:

This simplifies to:

4. Brief Calculation:
We are given:

A. L1 = 0.750 m,
 B. L2 = 0.770 m,
C. Beat frequency Δn = 3 beats/sec.

Using the formula for beat frequency:

Substitute the values for L1 and L2:

Calculate the difference:

Now solve for v:

18)

7.2 N

19) The plucking point of the string will be the antinode and touching point will be node.

20)
(Δx)max will be at P

(Δx) <

3<

or 3 <

or f < ⇒ f < 55 Hz.

21)

wave moving in –x direction with speed

22)
moving along negative axis – axis
so it should be having (ωt + kx)
23)

24) vP = ω vwave =

vP = T=

vP = T=

vP = , T = 5 sec
vP = m/s

vP =

25) Δx = nλ
⇒ (EA + AB + BF) – EF = nλ
For minimum ℓ, n = 1
1.2ℓ = 6 ⇒ ℓ = 5 m

26) The distance of a bright fringe from zero order fringe is given by

xn=
Thus at a given point nl=constant
∴ n1λ1 = n2λ2

n2= = 24

27) d sin θ =

sin θ = (small angle)

θ=

θ=
θ = 0.156° = 0.16°

28)

Ans. π/2
29)

are transverse

30) µ = tan60 =

31) S = (µ – 1) t (D/2d)

S = (5/3 – 1) t (D/2d) =

32) (µ–1)t = 5λ

λ=

33) For first minimum a sin θ = l

So = sin 30° =

Now for first secondary maximum a sinθ =

Therefore sin θ =

⇒ θ = sin–1

34) dsin θ = nl

(n = 0, ±1, ± 2)
Five

35)

Fringes will not be obtained

36) Diagram shows Δx at different point on circle From diagram

it is clear that number of maxima = 12
37) Distance between successive wave front is wavelength λ so path difference 3λ.

Time Taken =

38) Phase difference = (Path difference)

Path difference = n1L1 – n2L2

so phase diff =

39) n1β1 = n2β2 ⇒ ⇒ λ2 =

λ2 =

40)

Will be contract

41)

width of central maxima is proportional to λ

on increasing the slit width, the width of central maxima decreases
on making the list width a = λ, central fringe spreads in the range ± 90°

42)

sinθ = ...(1)

For small angle ...(2)

by (1) & (2)

for missing wavelengths

, n = 1, 2, 3, ......

.......

So,
 or

43)

Inet =

44)

Angle of polorization θ = tan–1 µ = 60°

⇒ µ = tanθ = tan 60° =

critical angle θc = sin–1 =

45) Theory Based.

CHEMISTRY

46)

Ans.

47)

Reaction completes with anti-addition

Reaction can be used as test of unsaturation
Reaction involves cyclic intermediate

48)
49) Ans.

50)

Both 1 & 3

51)

NOCl

52)

Z>Y>X

53)

54)

(A) and (R) both are false because propene & propyne both decolorise the bayer's reagent.

55)

Ans.

56)

1-Pentene

57)
Ans.

58)

Ans.

59)

Rate of E2 elimination ∝ Stability of product ∝ No. of β–H.

60)

Ans.

61)

Ans.

62)

63)

Ans.
64)

Abtunirjibukiff;s rule

65)

Ans.

66)

IUPAC name is 2-Butanone

67)

Both (1) and (3)

68)

69)

Pd + CaCO3/Quinolene

70) Anode :

Cathode :
________________________________

________________________________

= 0.118 volt
71)
SRP :Cu > Al
↓
Show reduction but Cu is already in lowest oxidation state so no reaction take place.

72) (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

We have maximum value of for reaction (2)

73) 2Cr + 3Fe+2 → 3Fe + 2Cr+3

Ecell = – log

= (–0.42 + 0.72) – log

= 0.30 – log 104

74)

Higher the value of ⊕ve SRP (Std. reduction potential) more is tendency to undergo reduction,
so better is oxidising power of reactant. Hence, ox. Power:-

75)

Ans : (1)
Higher the SRP, highes the oxidizing power

76) In electrolytic conduction resistance decreases with increase in temperature while in

metallic conduction resistance increases with increase in tempt.

77) 510 × 10–4 mho cm2 mol–1

= (140 + 240) – 125 = 255 × 10–4
= 510 × 10–4

78)

(from nernst equation)

= 1.05 – 0.03{log4 + log104}

= 1.05 – 0.03 {0.6 + 4 log10}
= 1.05 – 0.03 {4.6}= 0.912V

79)

Ans. – 2.41

80)

Ans 100

81)

390.71 Ω–1 equiv–1cm2

82)

E2 > E1 = E4 > E3

83)

Specific conductance increases on dilution.

84)

Ans.
 85) According to nernst equation

Ecell = E°cell =

Ecell = 3.17 – log

Ecell = 2.96 volt

86)

Ans. 0.2

87)

Remains same

88)

1.24 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1

89) Cell reaction : Cd(s) + Cu+2 → Cd+2 + Cu(s)

Ecell =
[Cd+2] ↓ and [Cu+2] ↑ ⇒ Ecell ↑

90)

i and iii

BIOLOGY

91)

Question Explanation : The question asks to Count the number of correct statements about
flowers.

Concept : This question is based on Flower - A Fascinating Organ Of Angiosperms

Solution :

(1) All flowering plants show sexual reproduction. (Correct)

(2) Flowers are objects of aesthetics, ornamental and cultural value. (Correct)

(3) Flowers are used as symbols for conveying feelings. (Correct)

(4) Flower is a fascinating organ of Angiosperms. (Correct)

All four statements are correct.

Final Answer : Option (4) Four

92)

Question Explanation : Question is asking about, how many statement are correct regarding
stamen.
Concept: Male reproductive organ.
Solution:
(A) It is the unit of androecium (male whorl). (Correct)
(B) It is equivalent to the microsporophyll. (Correct)
(C) It is differentiated into filament and anther. (Correct)
(D) It is the male sex organ of the flower. (Correct)
All four statements are correct.
Final Answer: Option (4)

93) NCERT XI Pg # 71

94)

Question Explanation: The primary function and classification of apomixis.

Concept: Apomixis

Solution: Apomixis is a mechanism evolved to produce seeds without fertilization. It is

classified as a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction because the final
product is a seed.

Final Answer: Both (1) and (3)

95)

Explain Question :

The question asks how many of the four given statements about flower structure and function
are correct.

Concept :
This question is based on Flower:- A fascinating organ of angiospers

Solution :

(A) True – Flowers are indeed both morphological and embryological marvels and are
reproductive structures.

(B) False – Anther is attached to the distal end of filament.

(C) False – Androecium and gynoecium are essential parts (they form the reproductive
organs).
 (D) True – Number and length of stamens do vary among species.

Final Answer : option (3)

96)

Inner nutritive layer that degenerates at maturity of anther

97)

1 mitotic division

98)

Part (A) : Innermost wall layer – Dense cytoplasm in cells

99) NCERT XII Pg.#23

100) Question Explanation: The question is asking about determining the chromosome
number at different stages of male gametophyte development starting from somatic cells.

Concept: Androecium

Solution:

Leaf tip cells are somatic cells → diploid (2n = 28) and Middle layer / Pollen mother cell (PMC)
→ arises from somatic tissue → diploid (2n = 28).

Generative cell → formed from haploid microspore after meiosis → haploid (n = 14).

Male gametes → formed by mitotic division of generative cell → remain haploid (n = 14).

Final answer: 2

101)

Pollen grains are rich in nutrients.

102)

T.S. of a mature deshisced anther

103)

Larger suspensor cell lies towards micropyle

104)
NCERT-XII Page No. 22

105)

NCERT XII, Page No. # 23

106) NCERT-XII Pg.#27

107)

Question Explanation: Identifying the incorrectly labeled part in the ovule diagram.

Concept: Ovule Structure

Solution: The labeled part g points to the Chalaza (basal region), while the label c points to
the Hilum (junction with funicle). Option D incorrectly identifies g as the embryo sac (B) and c
as the Hilum. Let's re-examine the options:
D: g = Embryosac (Incorrect, g is Chalaza), c = Hilum (Correct, c is Hilum). The overall option
is incorrect.

Final Answer: g = Embryosac, c = Hilum

108)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the gynoecium structures shown in the
diagrams A and B.

Concept: Gynoecium Types

Solution:
(A) Multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium (pistils) of Papaver
(B) A multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium of Michelia.

Final answer: Option (3)

109)

(b) and (d)

110)

Diploid parent sporophyte generation

111)

Ans. Pen
 112)

Ovary has many ovules

113) Question: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous.
Statement II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross-pollination.
Correct Answer: (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation:

A. Statement I: Cleistogamous flowers remain closed and do not expose reproductive parts. This
ensures autogamy (self-pollination) since no external agents can transfer pollen.
B. Statement II: Cleistogamy can be disadvantageous because it eliminates the possibility of
genetic variation through cross-pollination, which is essential for adaptability and evolution.

114)

Plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers.

115) NCERT, Pg. # 13

116)

Ans. 8

117)

all of these

118) Question Explanation: The question is asking about the incorrect matching with
respect to given diagram

Concept: Embryo sac

Solution: B, labeled as diploid structure, forms embryo sac after fertilization is incorrect
because polar nuclei are haploid before fusion (n + n).They fuse with a male gamete to form
triploid PEN, not the embryo sac.

Final answer: Option 2

119)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify Ploidy of the endosperm resulting from a
tetraploid female x diploid male cross.

Concept : This question is based on the concept of Double Fertilization in angiosperms

(flowering plants).
 Solution : The endosperm (3n) forms from the fusion of one male gamete (n→2n/2=n) and two
polar nuclei (2n→n+n).

A. Female plant: Tetraploid (4n). Polar nuclei are 2n+2n=4n.

B. Male plant: Diploid (2n). Male gamete is n.

Endosperm ploidy = n (male gamete) + 2n (polar nuclei) + 2n (polar nuclei) =∗∗5n∗∗
(Pentaploidy).
*Correction based on typical ploidy rules:

C. Female (4n) → Egg (2n), Polar nuclei (2n,2n) (Unfused).

D. Male (2n) → Male gamete (n).

Endosperm fusion: Male gamete (n) + Polar nuclei (2n) + Polar nuclei (2n) → 5n (Pentaploidy).

Final Answer : option (1) Pentaploidy

120) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 34

121) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 34, 35

122) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 34

123) NCERT Pg. # 32

124)

Ans. 5

125) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 18

126) NCERT XII, Pg. # 34

127)

Transformation of ovary into fruit and ovules into seeds proceeds simultaneously

128)

(a) and (d)

129)

NCERT XII Page # 37

130) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 20, 21

131)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 38 (2.4.3)

132)

I, IV are correct but II, III are incorrect

133) Transfer of pollen grain from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant

134) NCERT-XII Pg # 19, 20

135)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
[Link] Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.

136)

(1) Rt. ventricle Lungs

Lt. atrium

137)

Question Explanation : The question asks which plasma protein is primarily responsible for
maintaining blood colloidal osmotic pressure.

Concept : Functions of plasma proteins.

Solution : Albumin is the most abundant plasma protein and is mainly responsible for
maintaining colloidal osmotic pressure

Final Answer : Option (2)

138) NCERT XIth Pg.#278

139) Explain Question : Least number of white blood corpuscles are

Concept : This question is based on types of WBCs
Explanation : Basophils are present in the lowest proportion (~0.5–1% of total WBC count).
Final answer : 2 – Basophils

140)

NCERT XI Page No. # 280

141)

Question Explanation : What is the correct sequence of steps involved in the process of
blood clotting?

Concept : The question is based on coagulation of blood.

Solution : The correct answer is option 3 (III, IV, I and II).

A. Step I: Injury leads to release of thromboplastin (III).

B. Step II: Thromboplastin haelps in conversion of prothrombin to thrombin (IV).

C. Step III: Thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin (I).

D. Step IV: Fibrin threads trap blood cells forming a clot (II).

Final answer : III, IV, I and II

142) Question Explanation :

To analyze the reaction & Identify the blood group in given chart

Concept :
Blood group

Solution :
Drop 1 (Anti-A): No agglutination → No A antigen
Drop 2 (Anti-B): Agglutination present → B antigen present
Drop 3 (Anti-D): Agglutination present → Rh antigen present (Rh positive)
So Blood group will be B⁺

Final Answer :
Option (1)

143)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 280

144)

Explain Question: To identify the True for erythroblastosis foetalis.

Concept : This question is based on Rh grouping.

Solution : In erythroblastosis foetalis., in case of subsequent pregnancies, the Rh antibodies

from the mother (Rh-ve) can leak into the blood of the foetus (Rh+ve) and destroy the foetal
RBCs. This could be fatal to the foetus or could cause severe anaemia and jaundice to the
baby.

Final answer : option (2)

145)

Frog

146)

Chordae tendinae

147)

(b) and (c)

148) Explain Question : To identify total number of incorrect statements during joint
diastole.
Concept : This question is based on cardiac cycle — joint diastole
Explanation : During joint diastole all chambers are relaxed (A correct), AV valves (tricuspid
& bicuspid) are open (B correct), semilunar valves are closed (C correct). Statement D is
wrong because pulmonary veins drain into the left atrium (to left ventricle) and vena cava
drain into the right atrium (to right ventricle) — D is incorrectly worded.
Final answer : 4. One

149)

Semi-lunar valves get closed

150)

The sympathetic system stimulates heart rate and stroke volume

151)

Question Explanation: The question is asking what the T-wave in an electrocardiogram

(ECG) represents.

Concept: This question is based on ECG.

Solution: In ECG: P-wave represents atrial depolarisation, QRS complex represents
ventricular depolarisation, and T-wave represents ventricular repolarisation.

Final answer: The correct option is (2).

152)

pushes against wall of blood vessels

153)
Digested food moves from digestive tract to liver via hepatic portal veins.
OR
NCERT XI Page No. # 286

154)

SAN

155) NCERT Pg.#288

156)

Provide nutrients to all the living cells of body

157) NCERT XI, Page # 286, para-2

158)

Alveoli and their ducts

159)

TLC - RV

160)

Explanation :

The trachea and larger bronchi have these unique C-shaped cartilaginous rings that play a
crucial role in keeping our airways open and supported.

These rings begin in the trachea and stretch into the larger bronchi, including both the
primary and secondary ones, but they don’t make it all the way down to the bronchioles or
alveoli.

Once the air gets to the bronchioles, you’ll find that the cartilage is either gone or has been
swapped out for smooth muscle.

The correct answer is: 4. From trachea to initial bronchioles

161)

more surface area for diffusion of gases

162)

Lecithin

163)

All of these

164) Explanation : We are asked why the initial bronchioles do not collapse even when there
is no air.

Concept : Respiratory tract.

Solution : The initial bronchioles (part of resiratort tree) are supported structurally by
incomplete cartilaginous rings, which provide rigidity and flexibility, are responsible for
preventing collapse in these bronchioles.

Final answer : Presence of incomplete cartilagenous rings

165)

A-(v), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(iv)

166)

TLC

167)

Explain Question : This question is asking about : control of pulmonary volume during
breathing.
Concept : This question is based on breathing movements and thoracic chamber.
Explanation : Humans cannot directly alter lung volume; it changes indirectly through
movements of diaphragm and intercostal muscles, and lungs lie in an air-tight thoracic cavity.
Final answer : 1
 168)

Explain question: Select correct statement.

Concept: This question is based on mechanism of breathing.

Solution: Statement (a): True. During inspiration, both the diaphragm and external
intercostal muscles contract. This contraction expands the thoracic cavity, reducing the
pressure inside the lungs (intra-pulmonary pressure), causing air to flow into the lungs.

A. Statement (b): True. Normal breathing is often referred to as abdominal breathing because
the diaphragm moves downward during inspiration, causing the abdomen to expand as the
lungs fill with air.
B. Statement (c): False. This is not normal expiration. It is a forced expiration, which involves
the internal intercostal muscles (IICM) and abdominal muscles contracting to expel air more
forcefully, not relaxing.
C. Statement (d): False. Inspiration occurs when the intra-pulmonary pressure is less than the
atmospheric pressure, not more. This pressure difference allows air to move into the lungs.

Thus, the correct statements are (a) and (b). Therefore Statements (a) and (b)

169)

Movement of air out of the lungs

170)

1–c ; 2–a ; 3–d ; 4–b ; 5–e

171) NCERT Pg. # 272

172)

Question Explanation : This question is asking about: Structure of the diffusion

(respiratory) membrane in lungs
Concept : Transport of gases
Solution :The diffusion membrane consists of one non-cellular layer (fused basement
membrane) and two cellular layers (alveolar and capillary epithelial cells) to allow efficient gas
exchange.
Final answer : Option (2)

173)

Statement a, b are correct

174)

Explain question : To identify when oxygen dissociation curve shifts to right

Concept : This question is based on oxygen dissociation curve
Solution :- A rightward shift means hemoglobin releases oxygen more easily to tissues, Means
Decreased affinity for oxygen.
This occurs at High CO2 (↑CO2) Low pH (acidic), High temperature
Final answer :- 3

175)

Explain the Question : Which of the given conditions favor oxyhaemoglobin formation ?
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : Oxyhaemoglobin formation depends on pO2, pCO2, pH and temperature :
High pO2 → favours O2 binding
Low pCO2 → favors O2 binding
Low pH/High H+ → reduces O2 binding (Bohr effect)
Low temperature → favors O2 binding
So, three conditions favor oxyhaemoglobin formation.
Final answer : 2

176)

A is HCO3– and B is Cl–

177)

Explain Question : This question asking about CO2 from carbaminohaemoglobin dissociates
due to
Concept : This question is based on Transport of CO2
Explanation : At alveoli, high pO2 promotes dissociation of carbaminohaemoglobin, releasing
CO2 for expiration.
Final answer : 3

178)

Ans. II

179)

It binds the haemoglobin and to form stable compound carboxyhaemoglobin

180)

Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface