01-09-2025

2001CMD303051250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) Which of the following can be the equation of an ellipse :

(1) x2 + y2 = 5

(2)

(3) 2x2 + 3y2 = 5

(4) 2x + 2y = 5

2)

The maximum value of y = sin x cos x is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

If then calculate acceleration (v → velocity, x → displacement) :-

(1) –8 m/sec2
(2) 8 m/sec2
(3) –16 m/sec2
(4) 16 m/sec2

4) The value of shaded area is :-

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2
5) If 6cosθ + 8sinθ = R sin (θ + α) then value of R and α are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) If y = ecos x; then will be :-

(1) ecos x
(2) esin x
(3) – sin x ecos x
(4) sin x ecos x

7) The graph of function y = 1 + cos x will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

8)

Find the value of x, if sin2x – cos2x = :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 90°
(4) 60°

9) If y = then, the graph between & x-axis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Find

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) +1

11) If radius of a sphere varies as r = t2 find rate of change of its volume at t = 2 sec.

(1) 128π
(2) 512π
(3) 256π
(4) 64π

12) A stone is dropped into a quiet lake and waves move in circles spreading out radially at the

speed of 0.25 m/s. At the instant when the radius of the circular wave is m, how fast is the
enclosed area increasing:-

(1)

(2)

(3) 2 m2/s

(4)

13) The maximum value of 4 – 2 cos θ is:-

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 0
(4) 2

14) The sum of the series is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Equation for the graph shown in the figure :-

(1) y = 2sinθ
(2) y = 2sin (θ/4)
(3) y = sin 4θ
(4) y = 2 sin 4θ
16) .................... :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Given that and (r << 2), then P is roughly equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) 3 + 1 + +......+ =?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19)

(1) 2sinθ
(2) 2cosθ
(3) sinθ
(4) cosθ

20) If y = sin2x + cos2x then is :-

(1) 4 sin cos x
(2) 2 sin x + 2 cos x
(3) Zero
(4) 1

21) If , which of the following options can not be true ?

(1) is a null vector

(2) is a null vector
(3) is perpendicular to
(4) is parallel to

22) What should be added to the sum of vectors and so that the resultant is a
unit vector along the x-axis ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) If and are two vectors such that , the angle between and is :-

(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 120°

24) The scalar product of two vectors is and the magnitude of their vector product is 2. The
angle between them is

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

25) 100 coplanar forces each equal to 10 N act on a body. Each force makes angle π/50 with the
preceding force. What is the resultant of the forces ?

(1) 1000 N
(2) 500 N
(3) 250 N
(4) Zero
26) The sum of the magnitude of two forces acting a point is 18 and the magnitude of their resultant
is 12. If the resultant is at 90° with the force of smaller magnitude what are the magnitudes of forces
:

(1) 5 unit, 13 unit

(2) 12 unit, 6 unit
(3) 10 unit, 8 unit
(4) None of these

27) Resultant of two vectors and is of magnitude P. If is reversed, then resultant is of

magnitude Q. What is the value of P + Q2 ?
2

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) Three forces , and C acting on a body to keep it in equilibrium.

Then, C is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) What is the angle between and the resultant of and ?

(1) 0°

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) If and A = B = C then what should be the angle between and ?

(1) 0
(2) π/3
(3) 2π/3
(4) π

31) and are three orthogonal vectors with magnitudes 3, 4 and 12 respectively. the value of
 will be :-

(1) 11
(2) 19
(3) 13
(4) can't be determined

32) The magnitude of the sum of the two vectors is equal to the difference of their magnitudes. What
is the angle between the vectors ?

(1) 0º
(2) 45º
(3) 90º
(4) 180º

33) If then the value of is

(1)

(2)

(3) A + B

(4)

34) Five forces 2N, N, 5N, and 2N respectively act at a particle P as shown in the figure :-

The resultant force on the particle P is :

(1) 10 N making angle 60° with X-axis

(2) 10 N making angle 60° with Y-axis
(3) 20 N along Y-axis
(4) None of these

35) If (Here K is constant) then :-

(1) is parallel to
(2) is antiparallel to
(3) is perpendicular to
(4) Both (1) and (2)

36) Vector makes angles α, β and γ with the z, y and x axis respectively, then sin2α + sin2β +
sin2γ = ?

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

37) The angle between vectors and is 60°. What is the ratio of and ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The magnitude of x and y components of are 7 and 6 respectively. Also, the magnitudes of x
and y components of are 11 and 9 respectively. Calculate the magnitude of vector .

(1) 10
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

39) The angles which a vector makes with x, y and z-axis respectively are :-

(1) 60°, 60°, 60°

(2) 45°, 45°, 45°
(3) 60°, 60°, 45°
(4) 45°, 45° 60°

40) Which of the following quanity is an axial vector?

(1) Momentum
(2) Force
(3) Torque
(4) Acceleration

41) The unit vector along is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A man moves 10 m in a direction 30° East of North. The displacement of man is

(1) s = (10 m) sin 30 + (10 m) cos 30

s = (10 m) sin 30 – (10 m) cos 30

(2)

(3)
s = (5 m) –
(4) None of these

43)

Vector which is perpendicular to is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) All of the above

44)

If and are perpendicular vectors ; . Then the value of α is :-

(1) –2
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) –8

45) The correct relation is from the figure :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of the above

CHEMISTRY

1) The cause of chemical combination is :-

(1) Tendency of acquire minimum energy

(2) Tendency to acquire noble gas configuration
(3) (1) & (2) both
(4) None of these

2) Li(s) → Li(g) 161 kJ/mol

(sublimation energy)
Li(g) → Li+(g) + e 531 kJ/mol
(ionisation energy)

F2(g) → F(g) 79 kJ/mol

(bond dissociation energy)
– –
F(g) + e → F (g) – 328 kJ/mol (electron gain enthalpy)
______________________________________

Li(s) + F2(g) → Li+(g) + F–(g) = x kJ/mol.

Find the value of x from the given data

(1) 443 kJ/mol

(2) 343 kJ/mol
(3) 243 kJ/mol
(4) 543 kJ/mol

3) Which of the following structure of (CN2)2– is incorrect ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Which among the following pair does not follows octet rule :

(1) CCl4, CO2

(2) IBr, SF2
(3) BCl3, PCl5
(4) NaCl, H2O
5) When lewis Acid and lewis base are present then bond between them will be :-

(1) Ionic
(2) Covalent
(3) Coordinate
(4) Metallic

6) Identify the incorrect statement in the following.

(1) The colour intensity of PbI2 is greater than PbCl2

(2) If H.E > L.E then the compound is soluble
(3) HgCl2 having greater covalent than ZnCl2
(4) KCl is more soluble in water than NaCl

7) Which of the following can decompose on heating gives amphoteric oxide + CO2 ?

(1) Li2CO3
(2) CaCO3
(3) BeCO3
(4) MgCO3

8) The correct order for given properties ?

(1) LiCl > NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl (solubility)
(2) NaCl < MgCl2 > AlCl3 (melting point)
(3) Ionic character AgF < AgCl < AgBr < AgI
(4) Ca3N2 < Ca3P2 (covalent character)

9) Correct statement is :-

–
(1) Average formal charge per oxygen atom in NO2 is –1/3
(2) Average bond order of CO2 is 2
(3) Maximum covalency of Si is 4
–2
(4) Avg. formal charge on CO3 is –2/3

10) Valency of which of the following element is not equal to the valence electron

(1) Na
(2) Mg
(3) C
(4) O

11) Correct order of lattice energy :-

(1) Na2O > MgO

(2) KBr > LiF
(3) NaCl > Na2S
(4) NaCl < Na2S

12) The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its polarizing power. Which one of the following
sequences represents the increasing order of the polarizing power of the cationic species K+, Ca2+,
Mg2+, Be2+ ?

(1) Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+

(2) Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+
(3) K+ < Ca2+ < Mg+2 < Be2+
(4) Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+

13) Which of the following molecules is expected to be the most ionic ?

(1) Fe3O4
(2) SnCl4
(3) MnO
(4) CO

14) Which of the following order is not correct :-

(1) Na2O < MgO < Al2O3 (Melting Point)

(2) Na2CO3 < K2CO3 < Rb2CO3 < Cs2CO3 (solubility)
(3) LiCl < NaCl < KCl < RbCl < CsCl (Melting Point)
(4) MgF2 < CaF2 < SrF2 < BaF2 (solubility)

15) Hydrated Li+ ion has :-

(1) Ion-ion attraction

(2) Ion - dipole attraction
(3) Dipole - induced dipole attraction
(4) Ion-induced dipole

16) Which of the following is most soluble in water :-

(1) LiOH
(2) NaOH
(3) KOH
(4) RbOH

17) An ionic bond P+ Q– is most likely to be formed when :

(1) the ionization energy of P is high and the electron affinity of Q is low
(2) the ionization energy of P is low and the electron affinity of Q is high
(3) the ionization energy of P and the electron affinity of Q is high
(4) the ionization energy of P and the electron affinity of Q is low

18) Consider three hypothetical ionic compounds AB, A2B and A2B3 where in all the compounds B is
in –2 oxidation state and 'A' has a variable oxidation state. What is the correct order of lattic energy
of these compounds :-

(1) A2B > AB > A2B3

(2) A2B3 > AB > A2B
(3) AB > A2B > A2B3
(4) A2B3 > A2B > AB

19) Select the correct order of solubility in water from the following :-

(1) BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4

(2) NaF < KF < RbF < CsF
(3) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2
(4) All of these

20) Order of covalent character is not correct for :-

(1) NaF < Na2O < Na3N

(2) PbO < PbS
(3) CdCl2 < SnCl2
(4) AgCl > NaCl

21) A solid 'X' is a bad conductor of electricity on adding it in water it becomes good conductor. The
solid is :

(1) Dry ice

(2) NaCl
(3) Fe
(4) (2) and (3) both

22) SnCl4 has lower MP than SnCl2 the correct reason is :-

(1) Sn4+ has higher charge

(2) Sn4+ has small size
(3) Sn4+ has higher ionic potential
(4) SnCl4 has tetrahedral shape

23) Identify incorrect order :-

(1) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ (Hydrated Radius)

(2) F–(aq) > Cl–(aq) > Br–(aq) > I–(aq) ; Electrical conductance
(3) K+ < Ca+2 < Zn+2 (Polarizing power)
(4) Li+ < Mg+2 < Al+3 ; Hydration Energy

24) The mass of 1atom of sodium is

(1) 23 amu

(2)
gm
(3) 23 × 1.67 × 10–24gm
(4) All of these

25) 8g H2 and 32g O2 is allowed to react to form water then which the following statement is
correct?

(1) O2 is limiting reagent

(2) O2 is reagent in excess
(3) H2 is limiting reagent
(4) 40g water is formed

26) Which of the following compound has a vapour density is equals to 30 :

(1) CH3COOH
(2) C6H12O6
(3) C2H5OH
(4) C2H6

27) 20 gm of an ideal gas SOx occupies 5.6 lt. at STP. The value of x is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 3

28) What is the number of moles of CO2 produced by complete combustion of 10 mol of C5H10 ?

(1) 50 mol
(2) 100 mol
(3) 150 mol
(4) 200 mol

29) Number of Ca+2 and Cl– ion in 111 g of anhydrous CaCl2 are -

(1) NA, 2NA

(2) 2NA, NA
(3) NA, NA
(4) None

30)

The volume of O2 at STP required for the complete combustion of 4g CH4 is

(1) 5.6 litre

(2) 2.88 litre
(3) 22.4 litre
(4) 11.2 litre

31)

Which of the following statement is incorrect:-

(1)
One gm mole of silver equals ×10–23 gm
(2) One mole of CH4 and 17 gm of NH3 at NTP occupy same volume
(3) One mole of Ag weighs more than that of two moles of Ca
23
(4) One gm mole of CO2 is 6.023 × 10 times heavier than one molecule of CO2

32)

The total no. of protons in 10 g of calcium carbonate is (No = 6.023 × 1023)

(1) 1.5 × 1024

(2) 2.04 × 1024
(3) 3.0 × 1024
(4) 4.09 × 1024

33) 500 ml of a hydrocarbon gas burnt in excess of oxygen yields 2500 ml of CO2 and 3 lts of water
vapours. All volume being measured at the same temperature and pressure. The formula of the
hydrocarbon is

(1) C5H10
(2) C5H12
(3) C4H10
(4) C4H8

34)

1 mole of CH4 contains :-

(1) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of hydrogen

(2) 4 gm-atom of hydrogen
23
(3) 1.81 × 10 molecules of CH4
(4) 3.0 gm of carbon
35)

Which of the following has least number of molecules ?

(1) 0.1 mole of CO2 gas

(2) 11.2 lit. of CO2 gas at NTP
(3) 22 gm of CO2 gas
3
(4) 22.4 × 10 ml of CO2 gas

36)

The wt. of 350 ml of a diatomic gas at 0°C and 2 atm pressure is 1 gm. The wt. of 1 atom is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 16 NA
(4) 32 NA

37) 1 gm of a metal combines with 8.89 gm of bromine equivalent weight of metal is nearly:

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 7

38) Law of multiple proportions is verified by which of the following pairs of compounds ?

(1) PH3, P2O3

(2) SO2, SO3
(3) CO2, NO2
(4) NH3, PH3

39) When a 1.00 g sample of limestone was dissolved in acid 0.38 g of CO2 was generated. If the rock
contained no carbonate other than CaCO3. What was the percent of CaCO3 by mass in the limestone
:-

(1) 51%
(2) 64%
(3) 86%
(4) 92%

40) If the weight of metal oxide is x g containing y g of oxygen, the equivalent weight of metal will be

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

41) How many atoms are contained in one mole of sucrose (C12H22O11):-

(1) 45 × 6.02 × 1023 atom/mol

(2) 20 × 6.02 × 1023 atom/mol
(3) 5 × 6.02 × 1023 atom/mol
(4) None of these

42) Penicillin N is an antibacterial agent that contains 8.88% of sulphur by mass. Which of the
following could be the molar mass of penicillin N :-

(1) 460 g mol–1

(2) 720 g mol–1
(3) 390 g mol–1
(4) 360 g mol–1

43) For the reaction : 7A + 13B + 15C 17P

If 15 moles of A, 26 moles of B & 30.5 moles of C are taken initially then liniting reactant is–

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) None of these

44) The total number of atoms of all elements present in 1 mole of Ammonium dichromate is :-

(1) 19
(2) 6.023 × 1023
(3) 114.437 × 1023
(4) 84.332 × 1023

45) The no. of molecules of water in 333 g of Al2(SO4)3×18H2O is :-

(1) 18 × NA
(2) 9 × NA
(3) 18
(4) 36

BIOLOGY
1) Choose the incorrect statement regarding basidiomycetes :-

(1) Asexual reproduction with the help of fragmentation

(2) Rust, smut and mushroom are related with this group
(3) Karyogamy and meiosis take place in the basidium.
(4) Commonly known forms are Agaricus, Aspergillus and Alternaria.

2) Choose the incorrect statement about phycomycetes:-

(1) Some members are found in aquatic habitats

(2) Spores are endogenously produced in sporangium
(3) A zygospore is formed by reduction division
(4) They show all type of syngamy

3)

Which statement is not associated with fungi?

(1) Cell wall is composed of chitin and polysaccharides

(2) May show symbiotic association with Algae
(3) They are multicellular eukaryotic autotrophic organsims
(4) They causes smut, late blight & rust diseases

4) Which of the following does not apply to Ascomycetes ?

(1) Mycelium is coenocytic and aseptate

(2) Commonly known as sac fungi
(3) Sexual spores are called ascospores and produced endogenously
(4) Dikaryophase is commonly observed

5) How many of the following features in the given list are not related to class Basidiomycetes?
Truffles, Dolipore septum, Conidia, Ascus, Mushrooms, Zygospore, Basidiocarp, Smut

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

6) Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(1) Chlamydomonas is unicellular algae.

(2) Algae vegetatively reproduced by fragmentation.
(3) Thallus of fungus is known as mycelium.
(4) Starch is reserved food material in penicillium.

7) Statement 1 : Fungi are cosmopolitan and occur in air, water, soil and on animals and plants.
Statement 2 : Fungi show a great diversity in morphology and habitat.

(1) Both Statement 1 & Statement 2 are True.

(2) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is True.
(3) Statement 1 is True but the Statement 2 is False.
(4) Both Statement 1 & Statement 2 are False.

8) Assertion : Members of deuteromycetes helps in mineral cycling.

Reason : Most of the members of deuteromycetes are decomposers of litter.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) How many of the following are produced endogeneously ?

Ascospores, Basidiospores, Conidia, Aplananospores, Zoospores

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

10) Which group of organism is related basidomycetes ?

(1) Mushroom, Ustilago, Aspergillus

(2) Puffballs, Agaricus, Aspergillus
(3) Mushroom, Ustilgo, Agaricus
(4) Ustilago, Aspergillus, Agaricus

11) Choose the wrong statement for fungi.

I. They prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
II. Their bodies consist of long, slender thread - like structures called hyphae.
III. The cell walls of fungi are composed of chitin.
IV. The spores are produced in distinct structures called fruiting bodies.
V. The fusion of protoplasm of two gametes called karyogamy.
VI. The fusion of two nuclei called plasmogamy.

(1) (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

12) Statement-I : Neurospora is used in the study of biochemistry & genetics.

Statement-II : Morels & truffles are poisonous mushrooms.

(1) Both statement-I & II are correct

(2) Only statement-I is correct
(3) Both statement-I & II are incorrect
(4) Only statement-II is correct

13) Product of sexual reproduction is oospore in pathogen of :-

(1) Black rust of wheat

(2) Brown leaf spot of rice
(3) White spots of mustard
(4) Red rot of sugarcane

14) Match column I and II

Column-I Column-II

(i) Morels, Truffles (a) Exogenously origtin

(ii) Claviceps (b) Delicacies

(iii) Conidia (c) LSD

(iv) Yeast (d) Unicellular, Non-mycelial

(1) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-d
(2) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(3) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-d, (iv)-c
(4) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-a

15) Which option is not related with phaeophyceae?

(1) Gelatinous coating of algin.

(2) Gametes are pear shaped and bear two laterally attached flagella
(3) The food is stored as floridean starch.
(4) They possess chlorophyll a, chlorophyll c and fucoxanthin

16) Identify the diagram and a, b and c.

(1) Chara; a - Frond, b - Stipe, c - Hold fast
(2) Dictyota; a - Frond, b - Midrib, c - Stipe
(3) Laminaria; a - Frond, b - Stipe, c- Holdfast
(4) Fucus; a- Air bladder, b - Midrib, c- stipe

17) The members of rhodophyceae commonly called red algae because of the.

(1) They are found in greater concentrations of warmer area of ocean

(2) They have floridean starch as a stored food
(3) Prodominance of r-phycoerythrin in their body
(4) They show complex post fertilization developments

18)

A, B and C could be :-

(1) Volvox, Chlorela, Polysiphonia

(2) Volvox, Chlamydomonas, Dictyota
(3) Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Fucus
(4) Volvox, Chlamydomonas, Chara

19) Which is the correct match for chlorophyceae members ?

(1) Major pigments – chlorophyll a, b

(2) Stored food – mannitol/laminarin
(3) Cell wall – cellulose and algin
(4) Flagella – 2 lateral

20) Sexual reproduction in oogamous and accompained by "complex post fertilization development"
in a group of algae in which :-

(1) vegetative cells are covered by algin.

(2) presence of chlorophyll 'a' and chlorophyll 'b'
(3) asexual spores and gametes are non-motile
(4) with in chloroplast/s pyrenoids act as storage body commonly.

21) Algin, floridean starch, Oogamy with complex post fertilization developments, pyriform gametes,
pyrenoids, R-phycoerythrin, carrageen, Absence of flagella, fucoxanthin, porphyra
How many of the above are related with Rhodophyceae
(1) Four
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Eight

22) The predominant stage of the life cycle of bryophytes is gametophyte which consists of :-

(1) Root, Stem, Leaf

(2) Protonema, roots
(3) Protonema, leafy stage and roots
(4) Rhizoids, stem like and leaf like structures

23) Arrange the following events of life cycle of bryophytes in correct sequence :-
I. Germination of spore
II. Gametes formation
III. Formation of gametophyte
IV. Fertilization
V. Embryo formation

(1) I,III,IV,V,II
(2) II,IV,I,V,III
(3) I,III,II,IV,V
(4) V,I,II,III,IV

24) Sphagnum is used as a packing material for transporting of living material because of its :-

(1) Capacity to hold water

(2) Reduce the impact of falling rain
(3) Soil binding capacity
(4) Both (1) and (2)

25) How many plants belongs to pteridophyta?

Selaginella, Isoetes, Riccia, Salvinia, Marchantia, Azolla, Lycopodium, Funaria

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

26) Prothallus is :-

(1) Diploid
(2) Vascular thalloid gametophyte
(3) Inconspicuous but mostly photosynthetic
(4) Proembryo which develop into embryo
27) Identify the correct informations for given below figure :-
Options :-

(1) Sporophyte, Diploid and Sphagnum

(2) Gametophyte, Diploid and Sphagnum
(3) Gametophyte, Haploid and Sphagnum
(4) Sporophyte, Haploid and Funaria

28) How many statements are/is belong to gemma cup ? (a) Unicellular structure
(b) Green in colour.
(c) Multicellular bud.
(d) Participate in sexual reproduction

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) All

29) For Bryophytes, select the incorrect statement in the followings :-.

(1) The plant body of liverworts is thalloid, erect, and leafy gametophyte
(2) Mosses have upright, slender axis bearing spirally arranged leaves
(3) Spores germinate to form gametophyte
(4) The zygote produces a sporophyte

30) Which of the following is incorrect for Bryophytes ?

(1) The sex organs in bryophytes are multicellular

(2) Main plant body of bryophyte is haploid
(3) Bryophytes are called as amphibian of plant kingdom
(4) The sporophyte is free living and photosynthetic

31) Bryophytes resemble algae on the following basis :-

(1) Differentiation of the plant body into root stem and heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(2) Thallus like plant body lack of vascular tissue absence of root and autotrophic mode of nutrition
(3) Thallus like plant body presence of roots and heterotrophic made of nutrition
(4) Filamentous body presence of vascular tissue and autotrophic made of nutrition

32) In mosses vegetative reproduction take place by:-

(1) fragmentation and budding in the secondary protonema
(2) gemmae formation and endospore formation
(3) gemmae and tuber formation
(4) Spores

33) Polysulphate ester is present in the cell wall of A which also show B. What are A and B
respectively :

(1) A = Green algae, B = Agranal chloroplast

(2) A = Red algae, B = Isogamy
(3) A = Brown algae, B = Heterotrichous thallus
(4) A = Red Algae, B = Advanced type of sexual reproduction

34) Which is not true about agar :-

(1) It is obtained from red algae

(2) It is used to grow microbes
(3) It is used to make ice-cream and jellies
(4) It is used as food supplement even by space travellers

35) Exchange the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c, d)
correctly identified.

A B C D

(1) Antheridiophore Male thallus Gemma cup Rhizoids

(2) Archeogoniophore Female thallus Gemma cup Rhizoids

(3) Archegoniophore Female thallus Globule Roots

(4) Antheridiophore Sporophyte Protonema Foot

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are considered a significant step toward evolution of seed
habit because of :

(1) Female gametophyte lack archegonia

Embryo develops in female gametophytes which is retained on parents sporophyte for variable
(2)
period of time
(3) Both are Homosporous
(4) Embryo surrounded by seed coat

37) Assertion :- The spread of livings pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical
areas.
Reason :- Pteridophytes need water for fertilization.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

38) Plant body of Funaria has 12 chromosomes in its spore mother cell. Which structure does not :
have the same number of chromosomes in its cell?

(1) Foot
(2) Zygote
(3) Capsule
(4) Protonema

39) Read the following statements and choose the correct option :
Statement A: Algae are chlorophyll-bearing, simple, thalloid, heterotrophic and largely aquatic
organisms.
Statement B: Asexual reproduction in algae is by the production of different types of spores, the
most common being the zoospores.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

40) Assertion (A) : Bryophyta shows independant alternation of generation in plant kingdom.
Reason (R) : Gametophyte and sporophyte both are multicellular, photosynthetic and independant
in bryophytes.

(1) A is true while R is false.

(2) A and R both are false.
(3) A and R both are true and R explain A.
(4) A and R both are true and R does not explain A.
41) Assertion : Chlorella is used as food supplement by space travellers.
Reason : It is a unicellular alga rich in protein.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

42) Statement-1 : Protonema is the first gametophytic stage present in mosses.

Statement-2 : Protonema is creeping, green branched & frequently filamentous stage.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

43) Assertion : In bryophyte the sporophyte is not free living.

Reason : The sporophyte is differentiated into foot, seta and capsule.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

44) In imperfect fungi, when the sexual forms are discovered they are often moved to

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Deuteromycetes

45) Which of the following is not a feature of pteridophytes ?

(1) When water is required for transfer of antherozoids

(2) Independent sporophyte
(3) Undifferentiated vascular tissues
(4) True roots

46) Which of the following is a correct repersentation of vital capacity ?

(1) IRV + ERV + TV

(2) IC + ERV
(3) EC + IRV
(4) All of the above

47) Fill in the blanks :-

 Respiratory Atmosp-heric Blood Blood
Alveoli Tissue
Gas air (Deoxy) (Oxy)

O2 159 b 40 c 40

CO2 a 40 45 40 d

(1) a–0.3 b–104

(2) b–95 c–45
(3) c–40 d–40
(4) a–0.3 d–40

48) In which disease the alveolar surface area is reduced due to damage of alveolar walls ?

(1) Bronchitis
(2) Asthma
(3) Emphysema
(4) Tuberculosis

49) Respiratory rhythm centre is regulated by :-

(1) Chemosensitive area present in the wall of lungs

(2) Diencephalon and brain stem
(3) Difference between diffusion capacity of gases
(4) Chemosensitive area present in medulla oblongata for and pH

50) A small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place is diagrammatically
represented below. Select the option which represents labelled part (A, B, C or D) correctly
identified along with its function :-

(1) C : Arterial capillary Passes oxygen to tissues

(2) D : Capillary wall Exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here

(3) A : Alveolar cavity Main site of exchange of respiratory gases

(4) B : Red blood cells Transport of CO2 as carboxyhemoglobin

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
51) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) a–systemic arteries, b–systemic veins, c–pulmonary artery, d–pulmonary vein

(2) b–systemic arteries, a–systemic veins, d–pulmonary artery, c–pulmonary vein
(3) c–systemic arteries, d–systemic veins, a–pulmonary artery, b–pulmonary vein
(4) d–systemic arteries, c–systemic veins, b–pulmonary artery, a–pulmonary vein

52) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around how much O2 to tissue under physiological
condition :-

(1) 5 ml
(2) 10 ml
(3) 15 ml
(4) 20 ml

53) During oxygen transport, the oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level, liberates O2 to the cells
because in tissue :-

(1) O2 concentration is low & CO2 is low

(2) O2 concentration is high & CO2 is low
(3) O2 concentration is low & CO2 is high
(4) O2 concentration is high & CO2 is high

54) Air moves into the lungs when-

(1) Atmospheric pressure is less than pressure within the lungs

(2) Atmospheric pressure is equal to the pressure within the lungs.
(3) Intra pulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure
(4) Diaphragm relax

55) Match the following?

Column A Column B

Most abundant cell in

(I) (a) RBC
blood

(II) Most abundant leucocyte (b) Basophils

 Involved
(III) (c) Monocytes
in inflammatory Reaction

Phagocytic cells which

(IV) (d) Neutrophils
destroy foreign organism
(1) I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a
(2) I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d
(3) I – a, II – d, III – b, IV – c, d
(4) I – a, d II – d, III – b, IV – c

56) Match the following :-

Column A Column B

(I) Fibrinogen (a) Serum

Clotting of
(II) Globulin (b)
blood

Defence
(III) Albumin (c) mechanism
of body

Plasma
Osmotic
(IV) without clotting (d)
balance
factor
(1) I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d
(2) I – b, II – c, III – d, IV – a
(3) I – c, II – d, III – a, IV – b
(4) I – d, II – a, III – b, IV – c

57) Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering ___________ ?

(1) Anti–Rh antigen to mother immediate after delivery of first child

(2) Anti–Rh antibody to foetus immediate after delivery
(3) Anti–Rh antibody to mother during subsequent pregnancies
(4) Anti–Rh antibody to mother immediately after delivery of first child

58) The part starting from external nostrils upto terminal bronchioles is not associated with

(1) Gaseous exchange

(2) Clearing air from foreign particles
(3) Humidification of air
(4) Bringing air to body temperature

59) Which of the following factors shift oxygen dissociation curve to right?

+
(1) High pO2, low pCO2, lesser H concentration
+
(2) Low pO2, high pCO2, high H concentration
 +
(3) High temperature, low pCO2, lesser H concentration.
+
(4) Low pO2, less temperature, High H concentration

60) What type of dimensional changes occurs to the thorax when you inhale and what muscles are
responsible?

Dorso ventral axis → EICM

(1)
Anterio posterior axis → IICM
Dorso ventral axis → Diaphragm
(2)
Anterio posterior axis → EICM
Dorso ventral axis → EICM
(3)
Anterio posterior axis → Diaphragm
Dorso ventral axis → Diaphragm
(4)
Anterio posterior axis → IICM

61) In the given statements, choose the incorrect for pleura :-

(1) Pleural fluid of pleura reduces friction on the lung surface

(2) Inner-parietal pleural membrane is in contact with the lung surface
(3) Outer parietal pleural membrane is in close contact with the thoracic lining .
(4) It is double layered, which covers the lungs.

62) In the given diagram what does A, B and C depicts?

A-Entry of air into the lungs

(1)
B-Ribs and sternum returned to original position C- Diaphragm contracted
A-Entry of air into the lungs
(2)
B-Ribs and sternum go upwards C- Diaphragm contracted
A-Expulsion of air from lungs.
(3)
B-Ribs and sternum returning to original position, C-Relaxation of diaphragm
A-Air expulsion from lungs
(4)
B-Ribs and sternum go upwards C- Diaphragm relaxed

63) Observe the below graph and select the correct statement regarding with curve A and B labelled
in the graph :
(1) Value of P50 is decreased in curve A while increased in curve B
(2) Value of P50 is increased in curve A while decreased in curve B
(3) Curve A shows the condition of low PCO2 at tissue devel.
(4) Curve B shows the condition of high concentration of H+ at tissue level.

64) A neural centre present in pons region of brain called __(A)__ which can morderate the function
of the __(B)__ :-

(A) (B)

(I) Chemosensitive area Carotid bodies

Respiratory rhythm
(II) Pneumotaxic centre
centre

Respiratory rhythm
(III) Pheumotaxic centre
centre

(IV) Pneumotaxic centre Chemosensitive area

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

65) Identify the wrong differences between inspiration, and expiration :-

Inspiration Expiration

(a) EICM Contract Relax

Size of thoracic
(b) Decreases Increases
cavity

Shape of Dome
(c) Flat
Diaphragm shaped

Movement of Atmosphere Lungs to

(d)
Air to lungs atmosphere
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) b, d
(4) c, d

66) Arrange the following in order of decreasing volume :-

(A) Vital capacity (B) Tidal volume
(C) IRV (D) Residual volume

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) C > D > B > A
(3) A > C > D > B
(4) D > C > B > A

67) If a person living at sea level, migrates to about 8000 feet high hill, his blood after about 200
days will

(1) increase in volume

(2) have fewer WBCs
(3) have more plasma
(4) have greater number of RBCs and more haemoglobin

68) Trachea divides at the level of which vertebra:

(1) 6th thoracic vertebra

(2) 5th thoracic vertebra
(3) 5th lumbar vertebra
(4) 6th lumbar vertebra

69) Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased. One of the major causes of this is cigarette smoking :-

(1) Asthma
(2) Emphysema
(3) Bronchitis
(4) Fibrosis

70) In Erythroblastosis foetalis condition A from the mother can leak into the blood of the foetus.
This can be avoided by administering B to the mother immediately after the delivery of the first
child.
In the above paragraph A and B are :-

A B

1 Rh-antigen Rh-antibody

2 Rh-antibody Rh-antigen

3 Rh-antibody Anti-Rh antibodies

4 Anti-Rh antibodies Rh-antigen

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71)

Which one of the following statements is incorrect

A. Trachea divides at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra into a right and left primary bronchi.
B. Initial bronchioles are supported by complete cartilaginous rings.
C. Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to a number of very thin, irregular walled and vascularised
bag-like structure called bronchi.

D. Larynx is a cartilaginous box which help in sound production and hence called the sound box.
(1) A only
(2) B and C only
(3) A, D and C
(4) B, C and D

72) Read the following statements.

(a) High H⊕ concentration and higher temperature are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from
oxyhaemoglobin.
(b) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is higher than in Tissue.
(c) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is vital capacity
(d) In alveoli low PCO2 and high PO2 are responsible for dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-
haemoglobin.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

73) Which of the following statement is not correct?

(1) Formation of oxyhaemoglobin is a process of oxidation.

Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to tissue under normal
(2)
physiological condition.
Dissociation curve is curve between percentage saturation of Hb with oxygen and partial
(3)
pressure of oxygen.
(4) High concentration of CO2 activates dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin is called Bohr's effect.

74)

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC.
B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma.
C- Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the tissues
D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.
(1) A, B and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A

75) What would happen when blood is acidic ?

(1) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin increases

(2) White blood cells are formed in higher number
(3) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin decreases
(4) There is no change in oxygen binding nor number of RBC

76)

Match the column I with column II :

Column-I Column-II

A Tracheal tubes I Scorpion

B Gills II Frog

C Moist skin III Insect

D Book lungs IV Aquatic arthropods

A B C D

(1) III IV II I

(2) III I IV II

(3) IV III II I

(4) IV II I III
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Thoracic chamber is formed by

Dorsally Ventrally Laterally

(1) Sternum Ribs Ribs

Vertebral
(2) Sternum Diaphragm
column

Vertebral
(3) Sternum Ribs
column

Vertebral
(4) Sternum Ribs
column
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78)

(A) inspiratory capacity

(B) expiratorycapacity
(C) functional residual capacity

Choose the correct option for A , B and C

(1) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+IRV,C–ERV+RV
(2) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+ERV,C–TV+IRV
(3) A–TV+IRV,B–TV+ERV,C–ERV+RV
(4) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+IRV,C–ERV+RV+TV

79)

How many factors in the list given below does not favours the dissociation of O2 from HbO2 ?
pO2↓, pO2 , H+ concentration , temperature ,

CO2 , CO2↓ ,pH , pH↓

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three

80) Read the following four (a-d) statements.

(a) The partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in atmosphere air is 1.59 mmHg and 0.3 mmHg respectively.
(b) The total thickness of diffusion membrane is much more than a millimetre.
(c) Solubity of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than that of O2
(d) The partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in oxygenated blood is 95 mmHg and 40 mmHg respectively.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

81) In a normal adult man vital capacity of lungs is 4600 ml. Tidal volume is 500 ml and expiratory
reserve volume is1000 ml. Then inspiratory capacity will be :-

(1) 3000 ml
(2) 3600 ml
(3) 1600 ml
(4) 3500 ml
82) Match the column I with column II.

Column-I Column-II
2500-3000 ml
(1) Tidal volume (a)
of air
Inspiratory 1000-1100 ml
(2) (b)
reserve volume of air
Expiratory 500 ml
(3) (c)
reserve volume of air
3400-4800 ml
(4) Residual volume (d)
of air
1100-1200 ml
(5) Vital capacity (e)
of air
(1) 1–c, 2–d, 3–b, 4–a, 5–e
(2) 1–c, 2–a, 3–b, 4–e, 5–d
(3) 1–c,2–a, 3–d,4–e, 5–b
(4) 1–e, 2–a, 3–b, 4–e, 5–d

83) Given here are the steps involved in the process of respiration:
A. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation
B. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.
C. Transport of O2 and CO2 by blood.
D. Utilization of O2 by cells for catabolic respiration.
E. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 across alveolar membrane.
Choose the correct option that represents the correct sequence of events that occur during
respiration:

(1) A, C, E, B, D
(2) A, B, C, D, E
(3) A, E, C, B, D
(4) A, D, E, C, B

84) Blood of humans are grouped into A, B, AB and O system based on the presence or absence of :-

(1) Based on three Antigens on the RBCs

(2) Based on two Antibody on the RBCs
(3) Based on two Antigens on the RBCs
(4) Based on three Antibody on the RBCs

85) Identify incorrect option from given columns I and II :-

Column-I Column-II

1 RBC 5.5 millions/mm3

20-25% of TLC (Total

2 Neutrophils
leucocytes count)

3 Platelets 1.5-3.5 lakh/mm3

 Total Leucocytes
4 6000-8000/mm3
Count
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) How many statements is/are incorrect ?

(A) Blood is a special epithelial tissue
(B) Albumins are needed for clotting
(C) Plasma with the clotting factors is called serum
(D) Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

87) Read the following statements (A-D) :-

(A) Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid constituting nearly 45 percent of the blood.
(B) 90-92 percent of plasma is water.
(C) Proteins contribute 6-8 percent of plasma.
(D) Globulins primarly are involved in coagulation of blood.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

88) Select the incorrect one :

Antibodies
Blood Group Donor's Group
in plasma

(1) A anti-B A,O

(2) O anti-A,B O

(3) B anti-A A,O

(4) AB nil AB, A, B, O

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

89) A reduction in number of which formed element of blood can lead to clotting disorders?
(1) Ca2+
(2) Vit. K
(3) Platelets
(4) Haemophilia

90) Which of the following is the correct descending order of percentage proportion of WBCs in
human blood ?

(1) Neutrophils → basophils → Lymphocytes → Acidophils → Monocytes

(2) Neutrophils → basophils → Monocytes → Acidophils → Lymphocytes
(3) Neutrophils → Lymphocytes → Monocytes → Acidophils → Basophils
(4) Neutrophils → Monocytes → Lymphocytes → Acidophils → Basophils
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 1 4 3 3 1 4 3 2 3 3 2 2 4 4 2 1 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 2 1 4 1 4 1 1 3 3 4 1 1 4 3 2 2 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 4 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 2 3 3 4 3 4 4 4 4 3 3 3 2 4 2 2 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 4 1 1 4 1 1 4 1 3 2 2 1 1 2 2 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 2 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 3 1 2 4 1 1 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 3 3 4 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 3 1 3 3 3 1 1 4 2 1 4 4 1 2 4 4 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 2 3 3 1 1 3 4 3 3 1 3 3 3 2 4 1 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 2 II 2 3 4 2 2 3 2 4 1 1 3 1 3 3 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given equations can represent an ellipse.
The task is to analyze each equation and determine whether it fits the standard form of an
ellipse's equation.

Underlying Concept: An ellipse is a type of conic section defined by the equation

, where and are positive constants. The equation describes all points whose
weighted sums of squares equal 1. Special cases include circles, where . Equations that
do not fit this quadratic form do not represent ellipses.

Relevant Formulas: Standard form of the ellipse equation: \[ \frac{x^2}{a^2} +

\frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1, \] where and are constants representing the squares of
the ellipse's semi-axis lengths.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. For , divide both sides by 5: \[ \frac{x^2}{5} +

\frac{y^2}{5} = 1, \] which matches the ellipse form with .
2. For , it fits directly with .
3. For , divide both sides by 5: \[ \frac{2x^2}{5} + \frac{3y^2}{5} = 1 \implies
\frac{x^2}{\frac{5}{2}} + \frac{y^2}{\frac{5}{3}} = 1, \] with positive denominators and

, which forms an ellipse.

4. For , this is linear, so it is not an ellipse.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that a circle is a special case of an ellipse where the two
denominators are equal. Also, equations without quadratic terms in both variables or that
don't equal 1 cannot be ellipses.

Common Mistakes: Confusing a linear equation (like ) as an ellipse, or forgetting

to divide through by the constant on the right to normalize the equation to equal 1.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: The equation is of a straight line because it
is linear in and without any squared terms. Therefore, it cannot represent an ellipse. The
other equations have quadratic terms and can be manipulated into the ellipse standard form.

2)
3)

a = –8 m/s2

4) =

= –1–1
= –2

5) A = 8 B=6

tanα =

6) = ecosx(–sinx)

= – sinx ecosx

7) Graph of (cos x) at line y = +1

8)

9)

Graph is parabola.

10) cos480° + cos540°

⇒ cos(450° + 30°) + cos(540°)
⇒ cos(5 × 90° + 30°) + cos(6 × 90° + 0°)
⇒ sin30° –1
 11) As V =

⇒V=

⇒
at t = 2

12)

Given = 0.25 m/s and r =

Area, A = πr2

= (0.25) = 2 m2/s

13)

(y)max = 4 – 2(cos θ)min

=4+2=6

14)

Ans.

15)

Let y = asin(kθ)
maximum value of y, ymax = a = 2

At θ = , kθ = ⇒k× ⇒k=4
So y = 2sin(4θ)

16)
=

17) P =

=
By Binomial (r << 2)

P=

18) Question Explanation :

Find the sum of the given infinite series.

3+1+ +......

Concept :
sum of an infinite geometric progression (G.P.)

Formula :

Solution :

Sum of ∞ terms

Final Answer :
Option (1)

19) cos 4θ = cos22θ – sin22θ

cos 4θ = 2 cos2 2θ – 1

=
= 2 cos θ.

20) y = sin2x + cos2x = 1

thus =0

21)

for

so, can not be parallel to

where as values of and can be zero.

22)

Let is added,
Now,

23)

Concept:

(i) magnitude of addition of two vectors

(ii) magnitude of subtraction of two vectors

Formula:

| + |=

Where Q is angel between &

| – |=

Where Q is angel between &

Calculation:

Given:

| + |= | – |

( = 1, = 1)

by squaring both sides

1 + 1 + 2cosθ = 3(1 + 1 – 2cosθ)

2 + 2cosθ = 6 – 6cosθ

8cosθ = 4

⇒ cosθ = =

θ = 60°

24)

25) Total angle = 100 ×

So all the force will pass through one point and all forces will be balanced. i.e., their resultant
will be zero.

26) A + B = 18, R = 12
where R2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ

and

A = 5 unit, B = 13 unit

27) ......(1)

.....(2)
Square and add equation (1) & (2)

28) Three forces A, B, C are acting on a body which is in equilibrium position then,

+ + =0
or
=

29)
 Thus and are in same direction.

30) R =

31)

32)

33)

34) ΣFx = sum of x-component of forces

=2+ cos 30° + 5 cos 60° – 2 sin 30°

ΣFy = sum of y-component of forces

= sin 30° + 5 sin 60° + + 2 cos 30°

35)
If K +ve
If K –ve

36)

sin2α + sin2β + sin2γ

= 1– cos2γ + 1 – cos2γ + 1 – cos2γ
= 3 – (cos2α + cos2β + cos2γ)
=3–1=2

37) Now,

38) Given,

Let ..…(1)
Given that
Or (7 + b1) + (6 + b2) =
So, 7 + b1 = 11 and 6 + b2 = 9
⇒ b1 = 4 and b2 = 3
So from eq (1)

39) ⇒ α = 60°

⇒ β = 60°

⇒ γ = 45°

40) Question explanation: To find the types of vectors out of a given quantity.
Solution: Torque is the rotational equivalent of force, and it causes an object to rotate around
an axis. It is considered an axial vector because it has both magnitude and direction, where
the direction is determined by the right-hand rule and represents the axis of rotation.
Concept: Types of vector
Formula: Not required

41) 1. Explanation (30 words):

We need to find the unit vector along the direction of .A unit vector has magnitude 1; so
we need to normalize the given vector.
2. Concept (20 words):
To find the unit vector, divide the vector by its magnitude. The unit vector has a magnitude of
1.
3. Formula:
The unit vector in the direction of a vector is given by:

Where is the magnitude of the vector.

4. Calculation (minimum steps):
Given vector , its magnitude is:

The unit vector is

42) ∴ x = 10 sin30° = 5 m

y = 10cos30° = m

43)

Question Explanation :
To check option which is perpendicular to vector (a cosθ) + (bsinθ)

Concept :
Application of dot product.

Solution :
If and is perpendicular to each other then . = 0 So we will check every options
Option (1) : ab sin θ cos θ – ab sin θ cos θ = 0
Option (2) : sin θ cos θ – sin θ cos θ = 0
Option (3) :

Final Answer :
Option (4)

44)
10 + 14 + 3α = 0
α=–8

45) By triangle law of vector addition. All the options are correct
CHEMISTRY

46) Explanation: The question asks what drives atoms to form chemical bonds.

Concept : (Drives atoms to form chemical bonds)

Atoms combine to lower their energy state, achieving greater stability.
They also strive for a noble gas electron configuration (full valence shell). Therefore, both
minimum energy and noble gas configuration drive chemical combinations.

Final Answer - Option (3)

47) x kJ/mol

Li(s)
↓161 ↓ 76
Li(g) F(g)
–e– ↓531 +e– ↓–328

So x = 161 + 531 + 79 – 328

= 443 kJ/mol.

48)

49)

Explanation -
The question asks which pair of molecules deviates from the octet rule, meaning their central
atoms don't have eight valence electrons.
Concept - (Octect Rule)
The pair that does not follow the octet rule is: BCl3, PCl5

Here's why:

A. BCl3 (Boron Trichloride):

A. Boron has only 6 electrons around it in BCl3 (3 bonds), making it electron-deficient or
hypovalent.
B. PCl5 (Phosphorus Pentachloride):
A. Phosphorus has 10 electrons around it in PCl5 (5 bonds), exceeding the octet rule,
making it hypervalent.

Final Answer - Option (3)

 50)

Explanation

A. Lewis Acid: An electron pair acceptor. It has an empty orbital that can accommodate a
pair of electrons.

B. Lewis Base: An electron pair donor. It has a lone pair of electrons that it can donate.

Concept

A. When a Lewis acid and a Lewis base react, the base donates its lone pair to the empty
orbital of the acid, forming a coordinate covalent bond. In this bond, both electrons of
the shared pair are provided by one atom (the Lewis base).

Answer option 3, (Coordinate).

51)

(a) PbI2 - yellow - white

(b) H.E > L.E - soluble
(c) HgCl2 is more covalent then ZnCl2
(d) NaCl is more soluble then KCl

52)
In other cases oxide is basic.

53)

(1) Solubility : LiCl < NaCl < KCl < RbCl < CsCl (solubility)
(2) M.P. : NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl3 (melting point)
(3) Ionic character AgF > AgCl > AgBr > AgI
(4) Polarizability : N3- < p3-
Covalent char: Ca3N2 < Ca3P2

54)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks you to identify which given statement about formal
charges, bond orders, and covalency in certain molecules and ions is correct.

Underlying Concept: The core concepts involved are formal charge calculation in resonance
structures, bond order determination in molecules, and the concept of covalency which relates
to the number of bonds an atom can form based on its valence electrons and period.
Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. For NO₃⁻: Total formal charge on oxygen atoms = -2 (since
the negative charge is spread over 3 oxygens). Average formal charge = -2/3 ≈ -0.67, not
-1/3. 2. For COâ‚‚: Carbon forms two double bonds with oxygen, so bond order for each C-O
bond = 2. Average bond order = 2. 3. For Si: Being a third-period element, Si can have
expanded octet forming up to 6 bonds, so maximum covalency is 6, not 4. 4. For PO₄³⁻:
Total charge is -3 spread over 4 oxygens, average formal charge per oxygen = -3/4 = -0.75, not
-2/3.

Tips and Tricks: Remember: Bond order for double bonds is 2; elements in period 3 (like Si
and P) can exceed octet; average formal charge equals total charge divided by the number of
equivalent atoms.

Common Mistakes: Assuming all oxygen atoms have an average formal charge of -1/3 in
NO₃⁻ without considering total charge, confusing maximum covalency of Si with that of
second period elements, or miscalculating average formal charges in polyatomic ions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: 1. NO₃⁻ statement is incorrect because the average
formal charge per oxygen is -2/3, not -1/3. 3. The maximum covalency of Si is 6 (e.g.,
SiF₆²⁻), not 4. 4. The average formal charge on O in PO₄³⁻ is -0.75, not -2/3.

55)

Question is Asking About :-

We have to find the element in which valency is not equal to valence election.

Na Mg C O
Valency 1 2 4 2
valence e⊝ 1 2 4 6

Hence, option (4) is correct.

56)

57)

58)

% Ionic chr. ∝

59)

(Melting Point) :
NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl > LiCl
60)

Li+ - ion H2O (polar) dipole

61)

Solubility order : LiOH < NaOH < KOH < RbOH

62) The conditions required for the formation of an ionic bond.

(i) Ionization enthalpy [M(g) → M+(g) + e–] of electropositive element must be low.
(ii) Negative value of electron gain enthalpy [X (g) + e– → X–(g)] of electronegative element
should be high.

63) Lattic energy ∝ q1q2

64)

(II) (A) + Sulphate (solubility decreases in group)

(I) (A) + Floride (solubility increases in group)
(II) (A) + Hydroxide (solubility increases in group)

65)

66)

Ionic compounds are good conductors in H2O

67)

(Ionic Pot) : Sn+4 > Sn+2

Covalent Char : SnCl4 > SnCl2
M.P : SnCl4 < SnCl2

68)

Hydrated Radius :

69)
Molar Mass = Mass of 1 atom × NA

70)

LR has minimum Stoichiometric amount.

71)

VD=Molar Mass/2

72)

n=5.6/22.4=1/4 and n=20/MM. Equate and find MM

73)

Since C5H10 has 5 C atoms in it, the moles produced of CO2 would be 50

74)

CaCl2 → Ca + Cl-, so the ions of Ca2+ would be NA and Cl- would be 2NA
2+

75)

Use combustion reaction for Hydrocarbons

76)

One gram mol means one mol of Ag and it's mass would be 107g

77)

1 CaCO3 has 50 protons. So, 1 mol will have 50 NA protons and 0.1 will have 0.1 × 50 NA.

78) Moles of C=2.5/22.4 and moles of H = 2×3/22.4. Find simplest ratio. The MF will be
multiple of EF

79)

One CH4 has 4 H atoms so one mole will have 4 moles H atoms

80)
 Find moles in all options and multiply with NA.

81)

Use PV=nRT and Find moles. Then from moles, find Molar Mass.

82)

Use law of equivalents

83)

NCERT, chapter - Mole Concept

84) Write a balanced reaction and find moles of CaCO3 from moles of CO2. To find percentage,
divide the mass of CaCO3 with the mass given in question.

85)

Use law of equivalents

86)

One molecule has 45 atoms so one mole will have 45×NA atoms

87)

Use the formula of percentage composition

88)

LR has minimum Stoichiometric amount

89)

Ammonium Dichromate is (NH4)2 Cr2O7. One molecule of it has 19 atoms.

90) One mol of it has 18 mol of water, so half mol of it has 9 mol of water. So, the number of
molecules of water would be 9×NA molecules

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 24 para 2.3.3

92) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 23

93) NCERT XI
Page No. 22, 2.3

94)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 23, 24 Para-2.3.2

95) NCERT-XIth,Pg.# 23,24/para-2.3.3

96) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about which of the following is incorrect statement?

Concept :
This question is based on in fungi the reserved food material is Glycogen.

Solution :
If Fungi the reserved food material is Glycogen.
So the incorrect statement among the given option is : Starch is reserved food in penicillium
So, The correct answer is (4)

Final Answer :
Option (4)

97) NCERT Page No. 22

98) NCERT Pg. # 24

99) Question Explanation:

You need to determine how many of these spores are produced endogenously.

Concept:
Fungal reproduction

Solution:
1. Ascospores : inside the asues
2. Basidiospores : inside the basidium
3. Aplanospores: inside in sporangium

Correct option: (2)

100) Explain Question: select the group that includes organisms belonging to the
Basidiomycetes class of fungi.
Concept: This question is based on basidiomycetes
Explanation: Basidiomycetes are fungi characterized by:
- Club-shaped basidia that produce basidiospores.
- Mushroom, Ustilago, Agaricu
Final answer: 3: Mushroom, Ustilago, Agaricus

101) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes called plasmogamy.
Fusion of two nuclei called karyogamy.

102) NCERT-XI Pg#18

103) NCERT Pg. # 16

104)

NCERT Pg. # 24

105) NCERT XI pg.# 32, 33

106) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 31

107) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 33 & 34

108) The correct answer is 4. Volvox, Chlamydomonas, Chara

Explanation : Volvox and Chlamydomonas belong to Chlorophyceaes (green algae) and are
unicellular or colonial algae. Chara is a macroscopic green alga belonging to Charophyceae,
which is closely related to land plants.

109)

NCERT XI, Pg # 27

110) NCERT XI, Pg. # 34

111) NCERT Pg.#32,33 Para-3.1.1, 3.1.2, 3.1.3

112) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 35, 36

113)

NCERT XI, Pg # 29

114) NCERT XI, Page # 39, para-3

115) NCERT XI, Pg. # 37,34

116)

NCERT XI Pg. # 35

117)

NCERT XI Pg. # 35 & 36

118) NCERT Page # 35

119) NCERT XI Pg. # 34 to 36

120) NCERT Pg.#35 Para-3.2

121) NCERT Pg. # 35

122) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 36, IIIrd Para

123)

NCERT Pg. # 33,34,3.1.3

124) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 32

125)

NCERT XI Pg. # 3.2

126) NCERT XI, Pg. # 38

127) NCERT-XI Pg.# 30

128) [NCERT Pg. 36 & Concept of Ploidy]

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 30 (English)

130) NCERT XI Pg. # 43

131) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 32

132) NCERT-(XI), Pg. # 36
Protonema is first gametophytic stage in mosses because in mass haploid spore not directly
germinate firstly germinate to form protonema & then protonema form gametophyte It is a
correct explanation of given Assertion given Reason also correct but not correct explanation.

133) NCERT Page No. 35, 36

134) NCERT-Page No. 24

135) NCERT Page No. # 30

136)

IRV + ERV + TV

137)

Option (1) : a–0.3 b–104

138) NCERT XIth Pg.#275, 17.6

139) NCERT XI Pg # 275

140)

Option (3) is Answer

141)

Option (3) : c–systemic arteries, d–systemic veins, a–pulmonary artery, b–pulmonary vein

142)

Option (1) : 5 ml

143) NCERT, Page#274,275

144)

Option (3) : Intra pulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure

145)
Option (3) : I – a, II – d, III – b, IV – c, d

146)

I – b, II – c, III – d, IV – a

147)

Anti–Rh antibody to mother immediately after delivery of first child

148) [NCERT Pg. 270]

149)

Low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration

150)

Dorso ventral axis → EICM

Anterio posterior axis → Diaphragm

151) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 270, Para-1(E)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 270, Para-2(H)

152) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 186, Fig. 14.2

153)

Option (2) : Value of P50 is increased in curve A while decreased in curve B

154)

Option (2) is answer

155)

Explaining: Identify the wrong difference Between Inspiration and Expiration?

Concept: Mechanism of Breathing
Solution: The wrong difference are -
(b) Size of Thoracic cavity Increases during Inspiration and decreases during Expiration
(c) shape of Diaphragm is flat during inspiration While it is of Dome shaped during Expiration
Final Answer: (2)

156)
 A>C>D>B

157)

have greater number of RBCs and more haemoglobin

158) NCERT Pg. # 269

159)

A. Question: Identify the chronic respiratory disorder described.

B. Given Data:

A. Alveolar walls damaged.

B. Reduced respiratory surface.

C. Major cause: Cigarette smoking.

C. Concept: Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases (COPD).

D. Explanation: The disorder described is emphysema. Emphysema is a chronic lung

condition characterized by the destruction of the alveolar walls, leading to a decrease in the
surface area available for gas exchange. This makes breathing difficult, particularly
exhalation. Cigarette smoking is a major risk factor for emphysema.

The other options are related but distinct conditions:

A. Asthma: Involves inflammation and narrowing of the airways, but not necessarily
alveolar wall destruction in early stages.

B. Bronchitis: Inflammation of the bronchi (airways), often with mucus production. Can
contribute to lung damage over time.

C. Fibrosis: Thickening and scarring of lung tissue, which also reduces respiratory surface
area.

E. Final Answer: The chronic disorder described is emphysema. Therefore, the correct option is 2.

160)

Option (3) is answer

 161)

B, C and D

162) NCERT XI, Pg # 189

163)

Formation of oxyhaemoglobin is a process of oxidation.

164)

A. Question: Identify the correct statements regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood.
B. Given Data: Four statements (A, B, C, and D) about CO2 transport are provided.
C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of the physiological mechanisms of carbon dioxide
transport in the blood.
D. Explanation:

A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC: This is correct. Red

blood cells (RBCs) contain a high concentration of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is
crucial for the rapid conversion of CO2 and water into bicarbonate ions (HCO3–) and protons
(H+). This facilitates the transport of CO2.
​ B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma: This is also correct.
While the majority of carbonic anhydrase is in RBCs, small amounts are also present in
plasma, contributing to CO2 conversion there as well, though to a lesser extent.
C- Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO 2 to the tissues: This is
incorrect. 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the lungs (not
tissues). The tissues produce CO2, which is then picked up by the blood.
D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin: This is correct.
About 20-25% of CO2 binds to hemoglobin, forming carbaminohaemoglobin. This is one of the
ways CO2 is transported in the blood.
E. Final Answer: The correct answer is 1: A, B and D.

165)

A. Question: What would happen when blood is acidic?

B. Given Data: Options about oxygen binding and blood cell counts.
C. Concept: Bohr effect and the influence of pH on hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen.
D. Explanation: Blood pH is a tightly regulated physiological parameter. A decrease in pH
means an increase in acidity (more H+ ions). This affects the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin.

Bohr Effect: The Bohr effect describes the relationship between blood pH and hemoglobin's affinity
for oxygen. When blood pH decreases (becomes more acidic), hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen
decreases. This means that hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily into the tissues. This is
important because metabolically active tissues produce more CO2, which lowers the pH, and these
tissues also need more oxygen.
E. Final Answer: 3. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin decreases

166) NCERT XI, Page # 286, para-2

167) NCERT XI, Page # 271, para-2

168) NCERT XI, Page # 272, para-2,3,4

169) NCERT XI, Page # 274, para-2

170) Pg. No. 188 XI-NCERT

171)

Option (2) : 3600 ml

172)

1–c, 2–a, 3–b, 4–e, 5–d

173)

A, E, C, B, D

174)

NCERT XI Page # 195

175)

Option (2) is answer

176) NCERT-XI Pg. # 278,279

177) NCERT Page No. # E-278/279, H-279

B and C are correct
(A) Plasma is nearly 55 percent of blood
(B) Fibrinogen primarly are involved in coagulation of blood.

178) NCERT Page No. # E-280, H-281

179)

Option (3) : Platelets

180)
Neutrophils → Lymphocytes → Monocytes → Acidophils → Basophils