20-11-2025

6201CMD30303125ST12 MD

PHYSICS

1) Figure shows a planet in an elliptical orbit around the sun S. At which place kinetic energy of the

planet is maximum ?

(1) P1
(2) P2
(3) P3
(4) P4

2) Electric potential in a region is given by v = 6x – 8xy2 – 8y + 6yz – 4z2. Then electric force on a 2C
charge placed at origin will be :-

(1) 2N
(2) 6N
(3) 8N
(4) 20N

3) For the isolated charged conductor shown in figure. The potentials at points A, B, C and D are VA,
VB, VC and VD respectively. Then -

(1) VA = VB > VC > VD

(2) VD > VC > VB = VA
(3) VD > VC > VB > VA
(4) VD = VC = VB = VA

4) Charge distribution on a ring in x-y plane is shown in the figure. Then electric field at origin is :
(1)
along – y – axis

(2)
along – x – axis

(3)
along – y – axis

(4)
along + x – axis

5) Which of the following statements are true about acceleration due to gravity?
(a) 'g' decreases when moving away from the centre if r > R
(b) 'g' decreases when moving away from the centre if r < R
(c) 'g' is zero at the centre of earth
(d) 'g' decreases if earth stops rotating about its axis

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) (a), (b) & (c)
(3) (a) & (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)

6) An object is projected vertically up from the earth's surface with velocity where 'R' is the
radius of earth and 'g' is the acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface. The maximum height
reached by the object will be :

(1) R
(2) 2R
(3) 3R
(4) 4R

7) The potential energy of a particle in a field is given as U = , where a and b are constant.
The value of r in terms of a and b where force on the particle is zero will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

8) Assertion : Kepler's law of areas is equivalent to the law of conservation of angular momentum.

Reason : For planetary motion = constant, where is areal speed and L is angular
momentum of planet (mass = m) about the sun.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

9)

The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the
shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from
A to B then :

(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 < t2
(3) t1 = 4t2
(4) t1 = 2t2

10) Assertion : Gravitational potential is maximum at infinite.

Reason : Gravitational potential is the amount of work done by external force in shifting a unit mass
from infinity to a given point in gravitational attraction force field slowly.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false
(4) Assertion are false, but reason is true

11) The escape speed from surface of earth is 11.2 km/s. The escape speed from a planet of mass
twice that of earth and radius half of that of earth will be

(1) 22.4 km/s

(2) 11.2 km/s
(3) 10 km/s
(4) 5 km/s

12) Three identical dipoles are arranged as shown below. What will be the net electric field at M:-
(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

13) What is the electric flux linked with closed surface?

(1) 1011 N-m2/C

(2) 1012 N-m2/C
(3) 1010 N-m2/C
(4) 8.86 × 1013 N-m2/C

14) 3 equal point charges (each of Q) are placed at A, B, C (along arc ABC) if θ = 45° then net force

on B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

15) Orbital velocity of an artificial satellite depends upon

I. Mass of the earth.
II. Mass of the satellite.
III. Radius of the earth.
(1) I & II
(2) I & III
(3) II & III
(4) I, II & III

16) Four charges are placed at corner of a rectangle. Which of the following is true at centre (O) :-

(1) E = 0 & V = 0
(2) E ≠ 0 & V = 0
(3) E = 0 & V ≠ 0
(4) E ≠ 0 & V ≠ 0

17) An electric dipole placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity 2 ×105 N/C
experiences a torque equal to 4 N-m. Calculate the charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm
:-

(1) 4 mC
(2) 6 mC
(3) 8 mC
(4) 2 mC

18) Four point +ve charges of same magnitude (Q) are placed at four corners of a rigid square frame
as shown in figure. The plane of the frame is perpendicular to z-axis. If a –ve point charge is placed

above at distance z away from the frame (z << L) then :-

(1) –ve charge oscillates along the z-axis.

(2) It moves away from the frame.
(3) It moves slowly towards the frame and stays in the plane of the frame.
(4) It passes through the frame only once.

19) A spherical charged conductor has surface charge density σ. The potential at centre is V. If the
radius of sphere is doubled keeping σ constant then potential at centre of sphere becomes.

(1) Unchanged
(2) Half
(3) Doubled
(4) One fourth

20)

For the given fig. potential difference between points X and Y is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21)

Two charges 'q' each are placed as shown in figure. Then flux passing through the cube is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) In the electric field of a point charge q, where q is at center of circle, a certain charge is carried

from point A to B, C, D and E. then the work done by electric force :-

(1) Is least along the path AB.

(2) Is least along the path AD.
(3) Is zero along all the paths AB, AC, AD and AE.
(4) Is least along AE

23)

A charge q is given to ring of radius a. Then the electric field intensity at an axial point ' a'
distance apart from the centre of ring will be –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Metamer of the compound X is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

2) Which of the following molecules is expected to rotated the plane of plane-polarised light ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Correct relationship between I and II is

(1) Chain isomerism

(2) Metamerism
(3) Ring chain isomerism
(4) Position isomerism

4) Which of the following is not the correct relationship :

(1) I & II are functional isomers
(2) II & IV are metamers
(3) I & IV are positional isomerism
(4) I & III are chain isomerism

5)

Pair Relationship

(p) Chain

(a)

(q) Position
(b)

(r) Functional

(c)

(s) Metamerism

(d)
(1) a → q; b → p; c → q; d → s
(2) a → s; b → p; c → q; d → q
(3) a → s; b → q; c → p; d → s
(4) a → r; b → p; c → q; d → r

6) Degree of unsaturation of benzene is

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) None of these

7) Select the pair which are homologous to each other

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Assertion: At dihedral angle of , ethylene glycol is stable.

Reason: is the most stable form due to intramolecular hydrogen

bonding.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

9)

The minimum number of carbon atoms required in an alkane to show positional isomerism is:

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 4

10) Statement-I: Cis-but-2-ene has higher melting point than trans-but-2-ene.

Statement-II: Cis-but-2-ene has higher dipole moment than trans-but-2-ene.

(1) Both the statements are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect.

11) Select a correct statement :

(A) cis and trans isomers are separated by fractional distillation.
(B) C=C, C=N, N=N groups can show geometrical isomerism.
(C) cis-but-2-ene has higher boiling point than trans-but-2-ene.

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B
(3) B, C
(4) All are incorrect

12) Number of chiral atoms in the below mentioned structure :

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

13) Which of the given compound is optically active ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

14) In which of the following, internal compensation happens?

(1) Racemic mixture

(2) Meso compounds
(3) Epimers
(4) Diastereomers

15) Resolution means :

(1) Separation of d &

(2) Separation of D & L
(3) Separation of R & S
(4) Separation of meso compounds.

16) Total number of stereo isomers for the given compound :

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 2

17) Which are metamers :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)
18) & are

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Homologous
(3) Position isomer
(4) None

19) How many structural isomers are possible for C5H8 having one triple bond?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 1

20) Exhibits:-

(1) Tautomerism
(2) Optical isomerism
(3) Geometrical isomerism
(4) Geometrical and optical isomerism

21) Meso–tartaric acid is optically inactive due to the presence of:-

(1) Molecular symmetry

(2) Molecular asymmetry
(3) External compensation
(4) Two asymmetric carbon atoms

22) Among the following structure I to III

It is true that:-

(1) All three are chiral compounds

(2) Only I and II are chiral compounds
(3) Only II is chiral compound
(4) Only I and III are chiral compounds

BOTANY

1) The phenotype of any character will not be affected if the modified allele produces -

(1) Normal enzyme

(2) Non-functional enzyme
(3) No-enzyme at all
(4) Both (2) and (3)

2) If mother has blood group AB, father has A group then which of the following blood group will not
be found in the offspring?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) AB
(4) O

3) Alleles are :

(1) Different chromosomes

(2) Identical genes
(3) Alternative forms of a gene
(4) Homologous chromosomes

4) Choose the incorrect statement from the following:

(1) Humans knew from very early that sexual reproduction is one of the causes of variation.
They exploited the variation to obtain plants and animals of desirable characters through
(2)
selective breeding.
Sahiwal cows were obtained through artificial selection and domestication from ancestral wild
(3)
cows.
Our ancestors were very well aware about the scientific basis of inheritance of characters and
(4)
variation.

5) A plant with genotype AABbCC is selfed. Phenotypic ratio in the next generation would be :
(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 3 : 1

6) Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel, was a recessive feature :

(1) Axial position

(2) Green seed colour
(3) Green pod colour
(4) Round seed shape

7) Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hyrbridization experiments ?

(1) 1856 - 1863

(2) 1840 - 1850
(3) 1857-1869
(4) 1870 - 1877

8) In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use :-

(1) Flower position

(2) Seed colour
(3) Pod length
(4) Seed shape

9) Multiple alleles are present :-

(1) In different chromosomes

(2) At different loci on chromosome
(3) At the same locus on homologous chromosomes
(4) At the non-homologous chromosome

10) The term inheritance refers to:

(1) Appearance of new traits in a population

(2) Transmission of genetic material from one generation to the next
(3) Differences between individuals of the same species
(4) None of these

11) Variation is important because it:

(1) Leads to disease

(2) Helps in evolution
(3) Prevents reproduction
(4) Causes uniformity
12) Who is known as the “Father of Genetics” ?

(1) Charles Darwin

(2) Hugo de Vries
(3) Gregor Johann Mendel
(4) Morgan

13) Mendel selected pea plant for his experiments because:

(1) It was a tall plant

(2) It had a long life cycle
(3) It showed distinct contrasting traits and self-pollinates naturally
(4) It was easily available and cross-pollinated naturally

14) True-breeding line refers to:

(1) Plants showing segregation in F1

(2) Plants producing offspring with parental traits on self-pollination
(3) Plants maintain stable traits for 1 generation only
(4) Plants with heterozygous traits

15) In Mendel’s monohybrid cross, the F1 generation showed:

(1) Both parental traits

(2) Only recessive trait
(3) Only dominant trait
(4) Intermediate trait

16) The genotypic ratio obtained in a monohybrid F2 generation is:

(1) 1 : 1 : 2
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) 2 : 1 : 2

17) The cross between an individual with unknown genotype and a recessive parent is called:

(1) Out cross

(2) Test cross
(3) Monohybrid cross
(4) Dihybrid cross

18) According to the Law of Segregation:

(1) Factors separate during gamete formation

(2) Both alleles pass together
(3) Only dominant alleles are inherited
(4) Characters blend permanently

19) Incomplete dominance was observed in:

(1) Mango
(2) Snapdragon
(3) Maize
(4) Rice

20) In incomplete dominance, the phenotype of F1 hybrid is:

(1) Similar to dominant parent

(2) Similar to recessive parent
(3) Intermediate between the two parents
(4) Totally different from both

21) An organism with two identical alleles called

(1) Homozygous
(2) Heterozygous
(3) Dominant
(4) Recessive

22) What type of gametes will be formed by genotype RrYy ?

(1) RY, Ry, rY, ry

(2) RY, Ry, ry, ry
(3) RY, Ry, Yy, ry
(4) Rr, RR, Yy, YY

23) Assertion: In the case of incomplete dominance, phenotypic ratio changed from 3 : 1 to 1 : 2 : 1.
Reason: R was not completely dominant over r.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

ZOOLOGY

1) Origin of earth dates back to

(1) 10,000–15,000 million years ago

(2) 4000–4600 million years ago
(3) 500–1000 million years ago
(4) 2000–3000 million years ago

2) Evolutionary biology is the study of

(1) Civilisations
(2) History of life forms on earth
(3) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
(4) Reproductive success

3)

Who finally refuted the theory of spontaneous generation and experimentally disproved it ?

(1) Thomas Malthus

(2) Alfred Wallace
(3) Louis Pasteur
(4) Charles Darwin

4)

An experiment to prove that organic compounds were the basis of life, was performed by

(1) Van Helmont

(2) Oparin
(3) S. Miller
(4) Fox

5)

Which of the following theory is related to transfer of life from one planet to another ?

(1) Theory of special creation

(2) Theory of biogenesis
(3) Theory of spontaneous generation
(4) Cosmozoic theory

6)

Stanley Miller had put the Oparin-Haldane theory to test in 1953 by creating in the laboratory, the
probable conditions on the primitive earth. In the experiment simple aminoacids were synthesized
from which of the following mixtures, as observed after eighteen days ?

(1) H2, O2, N2 and H2O

(2) CH4, CN, H2 and O2
(3) H2, NH3, CH4 and water vapour
(4) NH3, CH4 and O2
7) The proponent of the theory of spontaneous generation was

(1) Louis Pasteur

(2) Van Helmont
(3) Spallanzani
(4) Francisco Redi

8) The England scientist who worked on the origin of life and settled in India ?

(1) A. I. Oparin
(2) J. B. S. Haldane
(3) Louis Pasteur
(4) Van Helmont

9) Russian scientist who proposed the theory of origin of life was

(1) Oparin
(2) Haldane
(3) Miller
(4) None of these

10) The temperature maintained by Miller in his experiment is

(1) 900° C
(2) 800° C
(3) 700° C
(4) 600° C

11)

The first non-cellular would be giant molecules, those are

(1) RNA
(2) Proteins
(3) Polysaccharides
(4) All the above

12) What did S.L. Miller observe in his experimental set-up ?

(1) Formation of sugars and nitrogenous bases

(2) Formation of amino acids
(3) Formation of pigments
(4) Formation of fats

13) [Link] conducted an experiment in 1953 to support the

(1) Theory of spontaneous generation

(2) Biogenesis
(3) Chemical evolution of life
(4) Natural selection

14) The scientist related with the theory of biogenesis and experiments with swan-necked flasks is

(1) Van Helmont

(2) Louis Pasteur
(3) Miller
(4) Haeckel

15) All of the following conditions were present on early earth, except

(1) High temperature

(2) Volcanic storms
(3) Oxidising atmosphere
(4) Reducing atmosphere

16) Which of the following breakup water into hydrogen and oxygen on early earth ?

(1) Visible light

(2) Infrared radiations
(3) Sunlight
(4) UV radiations

17) One of the following appeared on the earth with the coming of the plants and was absent in the
past

(1) Carbon dioxide

(2) Methane
(3) Ammonia
(4) Oxygen

18) The atmosphere became oxidising with the appearance of

(1) Autotrophic bacteria

(2) Autotrophic cyanobacteria
(3) Land plants
(4) Algae

19) Select the correct statement among the following:-

(1) Some scientists believe that life came from outside.

Early Greek thinkers thought units of life called spores were transferred to different planets
(2)
including earth.
(3) ‘Panspermia’ is still a favourite idea for some astronomers.
(4) All of these

20) The theory of spontaneous generation says that

(1) Life originated from the decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud etc.
(2) Life came on the earth from outer space
(3) Life comes from pre-existing life only
(4) Life started with the replication of self replicating metabolic capsules

21) Louis Pasteur by careful experimentation demonstrated that/the

(1) Phenomenon of chemical evolution

(2) There is spontaneous generation of life
(3) Life comes from pre-existing life
(4) Abiogenic origin of life

22) The first non-cellular form of life could have originated about _______ years ago.

(1) 3 million
(2) 2 million
(3) 3 billion
(4) 2 billion
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 4 2 3 2 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 2 2 4 1 3 3
Q. 21 22 23
A. 2 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
A. 1 1 4 3 2 1 2 1 2 3 1 1 2 2 1 1 1 3 2 2
Q. 44 45
A. 1 2

BOTANY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 3 4 4 2 1 3 3 2 2 3 3 2 3 1 2 1 2 3
Q. 66 67 68
A. 1 1 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88
A. 2 2 3 3 4 3 2 2 1 2 4 2 3 2 3 4 4 2 4 1
Q. 89 90
A. 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Angular momentum is constant

2)

Conceptual

3)

Theoritical

4) By applying reduction

Eres =

Eres =

5)
'g' increases, if rotation of earth stops at all the points expect poles.

6) {Energy Conservation}
⇒ 2R + 2h = 3h

7)

Conceptual

8)

Conceptual

9)

Kepler's 2nd law

equal area in equal time

10)

Theoretical.

11)

12) (Ep)net = 0

13)

14)
Fnet = FA cos θ + FC cos θ

15)

Dependency of orbital velocity.

=
So it depends on mass of earth & radius of the earth.

Concept & Formula:- .

16)

Concept:

(i) Superposition principle (for net electric field)

(ii) Scalar sum of potential

Formula:

(i) and

(ii) V = , Vnet = V1 + V2 + V3 + ......

Visual Diagram:
Calculation:

The net electric field at the centre due to four charge will be (see diagram)

Enet = E, where E =

Enet =
Enet ≠ 0
For Potential

Vnet =
Vnet = 0

Correct Option (2).

17)
18)
Net force is always directed towards mean position.

19)

Vcentre = Vsurface =
⇒V∝R
⇒ V2 = 2V.

20)

Hence, Vx – Vy =

21)

Flux of cube centred charge is flux of edge centred charge is .

Total flux through the cube =

22)
The initial and final points have same electric potential.
 The net work done 64 electric force is zero.

23)

At axial point, electric field intensity is given by

Here,

CHEMISTRY

24)

25) Has chiral centre present.

26)

Due to change in position of substitutent & OH group.

27)

I & IV are functional isomers.

28)

As per definition.

29) Combining 1 ring & 3 double bond

DU = 1 + 3 = 4

30) Same functional group differ in –CH2.

31)

Due to intramolecular H-bonding Gauche is more stable than anti form.

32)
33)

Trans exhibit higher M.P

34)

cis and trans differ in properites due to diastereomers.

35)
Three chiral centres.

36)

Due to steric repulsion at ortho position of biphenyl.

37)

Meso compounds exhibit internal compensation.

38)

Racemic mixture (d & ) can be separated by resolution process.

39)

No. of stereo isomer = 2n

n = no. of chiral carbon
+ [Link] = bond.

40)

Due to change in alkyl length.

41)

Differ in position of bond.

42)
 43)

Due to one chiral carbon, optical isomerism.

44)

Due to molecular symmetry.

45)

I & II contain chiral carbon.

BOTANY

46)

NCERT Page no. 60

47)

NCERT Page no. 61

48) NCERT Page no. 56

Alleles are different versions of a gene on the same locus.

49)

NCERT Page no. 53

50)

NCERT Page no. 56

51)

NCERT Page no. 55

52)

NCERT Page no. 54

53)

NCERT Page no. 54

 54)

NCERT Page no. 62

55) NCERT Page no. 53

56) NCERT Page no. 53

57) NCERT Page no. 54

58) NCERT based

59) NCERT Page no. 54

60) NCERT Page no. 55

61) NCERT Page no. 55

62) NCERT Page no. 58

63) NCERT Page no. 59

64) NCERT Page no. 60

65) NCERT Page no. 60

66) NCERT Page no. 56

67) NCERT Page no. 63

68) NCERT Page no. 60

ZOOLOGY

69) NCERT Page no. 110

Origin of universe = 20 billion years ago
Origin of earth = 4.5 billion years ago

70)
NCERT Page no. 110

71)

NCERT Page no. 111

72)

NCERT Page no. 112

73)

NCERT Page no. 111

74)

NCERT Page no. 111

75)

Allen module

76)

NCERT Page no. 111

77)

NCERT Page no. 111

78)

NCERT Page no. 111

79)

NCERT Page no. 111

80)

NCERT Page no. 111

81)

NCERT Page no. 111

82)

NCERT Page no. 111

83)

NCERT Page no. 111

84) NCERT Page no. 111

Lighter H2 escaped. O2 combined with ammonia and methane to form water, CO2 and others.

85)

NCERT Page no. 111

86)

NCERT Page no. 111

87)

NCERT Page no. 111

88)

NCERT Based.

89)

NCERT Page no. 111

90)

NCERT Page no. 111