21-12-2025

0999DMD363103250013 MD

PHYSICS

1) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion (A) : Photodiodes are preferably operated in reverse bias condition for light intensity
measurement.
Reason (R) : The current in the forward bias is more than the current in the reverse bias for a p – n
junction diode.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A is false but R is true

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding measurement of speed of sound by

resonance tube?

(1) Prongs of tuning fork should be kept only in vertical plane just above the upper end of tube.
(2) Readings should be taken for both water level rising and falling.
(3) The result will vary with the nature or density of liquid, filled in tube.
(4) Vibration produced in resonance are forced vibrations.

3) In a P-N junction diode not connected to any circuit -

(1) the potential is same everywhere

(2) the P-type side is at a higher potential then the N-type side
(3) there is an electric field at the junction directed from the N-type side to the P-type side
(4) there is an electric field at the junction directed from the P-type to the N-type side

4) A system of four gates is set up as [Link] ‘truth table' corresponding to this system is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) For the circuit shown in figure, the current through Zener diode is nearly :

(Zener breakdown voltage, Vz = 10 V)

(1) 1.8 mA
(2) 6 mA
(3) 5.5 mA
(4) 0.0 mA

6) A simple harmonic wave train of amplitude 2 cm and time period 0.01 sec is travelling with a
velocity of 10 m/sec in the positive X-direction. The displacement of the particle from the mean
position, the particle velocity and particle acceleration at x = 150 cm from the origin and at t = 3 sec
are :-

(1) 0, 0, 0
(2) 0, 400π cm/sec, 0
(3) 0, 0, 400π cm/sec2
(4) 400π cm, 0, 0

7) The output waveform of the given logical circuit for the following inputs A and B as shown below,

is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) In the given circuit the input voltage Vin is shown in figure. The cut-in voltage of p-n junction diode
(D1 or D2) is 0.6 V. Which of the following output voltage (V0) waveform across the diode is correct?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) An electric field is applied to a semi-conductor. Let the number of charge carriers be n and the
average drift speed be v. If the temperature is increased

(1) Both n and v will increase

(2) n will increase but v will decrease
(3) v will increase but n will decrease
(4) Both n and v will decrease

10) The speed of sound in oxygen (O2) at a certain temperature is 460 ms–1. The speed of sound in
helium (He) at the same temperature will be (assume both gases to be ideal) :-

(1) 1421 ms–1

(2) 650 ms–1
(3) 330 ms–1
(4) 460 ms–1

11) A hole diffuses from the p-side to the n-side in a p-n junction. This means that

A bond is broken on the n-side and the electron freed from the bond jumps to the conduction
(1)
band
(2) A conduction electron on the p-side jumps to a broken bond to complete it
A bond is broken on the n-side and the electron freed from the bond jumps to a broken bond on
(3)
the p-side to complete it
A bond is broken on the p-side and the electron freed from the bond jumps to a broken bond on
(4)
the n-side to complete it.

12) The displacement y of a wave travelling in the x-direction is given by y = 10–4 sin

metre, where x is expressed in metres and t in seconds. The speed of the wave-
motion in ms–1 is :-

(1) 300
(2) 600
(3) 1200
(4) 200

13) In case of heavily doped p-n junction diode used in reverse bias, which type of voltage
breakdown occurs ?

(1) Avalanche breakdown

(2) Zener breakdown
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

14) A wave travelling along the x-axis is described by the equation y(x, t) = 0.005 cos (αx – βt). If the
wavelength and the time period of the wave are 0.08 m and 2.0 s, respectively, then α and β in
appropriate units are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) α = 25.00π, β = π

15) There are three sources of sound of equal intensity with frequencies 400, 401 and 402 vib/s. The
number of beats heard per second is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

16) The forward characteristics of a p–n junction diode is as shown in figure, the dynamic resistance

of diode at applied potential of 0.7 V is :

(1) 5 Ω
(2) 10 Ω
(3) 15 Ω
(4) 20 Ω

17) In the circuit, the logical value of A = 1 or B = 1 when potential at A or B is 5V and the logical

value of A = 0 or B = 0 when potential at A or B is 0 V. The truth table

of the given circuit will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Length of a string tied to two rigid supports is 40 cm. Maximum length (wavelength in cm) of a
stationary wave produced on it, is :-

(1) 20
(2) 80
(3) 40
(4) 120

19) For application of Zener diode in voltage regulator, its primary function is to have :

(1) a p–n junction to operate at high voltages.

(2) any desired current at constant voltage
(3) Constant voltage across applied load.
(4) a p–n junction to operate under constant voltage conditions.

20) In the following figure the half-wave rectifier circuit is shown. Which one of the following wave
forms is true for VCD, if the input is as shown ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) For a group of given components, some observations of each with DC source are recorded and
mentioned in column-A, while possible components are given in column-B. Match the observations
with suitable components.

Column-A Column-B

(A) Shows low resistance in one direction and high in other without any glow. (1) Inductor

(B) Shows glow in forward bias only (2) Capacitor

(C) Shows infinite resistance both ways (3) LED

(D) May give false reading due to stored magnetic energy (4) Diode
(1) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(3) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(4) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

22) The frequency of a fork A is 3% more than the frequency of a standard fork, whereas the
frequency of fork B is 3% less. The forks A and B produce 6 beats per second. The frequency of
standard fork will be :-

(1) 100 Hz
(2) 106 Hz
(3) 103 Hz
(4) 112 Hz

23) Two waves of same frequency and of intensity I0 and 9I0 produce interference. If at a certain
point the resultant intensity is 7I0 then the minimum phase difference between the two sound waves
at that point will be :-

(1) 90°
(2) 100°
(3) 120°
(4) 110°

24) The first two resonance lengths in a resonance tube formed are 16.5 cm and 51 cm. The end
correction for the tube is :-

(1) 0.25 cm
(2) 0.50 cm
(3) 0.75 cm
(4) 1.00 cm

25) In the below given arrangement determine the ammeter reading, if each diodes have a forward

resistance of 50 Ω and infinite backward resistance -

(1) zero
(2) 0.02 A
(3) 0.03 A
(4) 0.036 A

26) The contributions in the total current flowing through a semiconductor due to electrons and

holes are and respectively. If the drift velocity of electrons is times that of holes at this
temperature, then the ratio of the concentrations of electrons and holes is -
(1) 6 : 5
(2) 5 : 6
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 2 : 3

27) In the following, which one of the diodes is reverse biased

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) In given figure when input voltage increases,

(1) the current through RS, RL and zener diode increases

(2) the current through RS and zener diode increases but through RL remains constant
(3) the current through RS and RL increases but through zener diode decreases
(4) the current through RS and RL increases but through zener diode remains constant

29) The time taken by a particle in reaching from trough to crest in a transverse wave of time period
T is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) T

30) A string fixed at its both ends vibrates in 5 loops.

(A) total number of nodes are 5
(B) total number of antinodes are 5
(C) string vibrates in 4th overtone
(D) length of string in 5λ
Which of the following statements are incorrect ?

(1) A, C
(2) B, D
(3) A, D
(4) B, C

31) Two sources of sound A and B produces the wave of 350 Hz, they vibrate in the same phase. The
particle P is vibrating under the influence of these two waves, if the amplitudes at the point P
produced by the two waves is 0.3 mm and 0.4 mm, respectively then the resultant amplitude of the
point P will be when AP – BP = 25 cm and the velocity of sound is 350 m/s ?

(1) 0.7 mm
(2) 0.1 mm
(3) 0.2 mm
(4) 0.5 mm

32) While measuring the speed of sound at room temperature using resonance tube of length 120
cm, it was observed that I and II resonance are obtained for the length of air column as 16 cm and
51 cm respectively, when a tuning fork of frequency 500 Hz is sounded just above the tube. The
speed of sound and end correction calculated from above be nearly :

(1) 330 ms–1, 1.5 cm

(2) 350 ms–1, 1.5 cm
(3) 340 ms–1, 2 cm
(4) 351 ms–1, 2.5 cm

33) If doping level of a p–n junction diode is increased, then its breakdown voltage :

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains the same
(4) can't be predicted

34) A wave y = a sin (ωt – kx) on a string superposed with another wave to form stationary wave
such that a node is produce at x = 0. Then the equation of the unknown wave is :-
(1) y = a sin (ωt + kx)
(2) y = –a sin (ωt + kx)
(3) y = a sin (ωt – kx)
(4) y = –a sin (ωt – kx)

35) In an experiment, a resonance tube is used to determine the speed of sound. A 480 Hz tuning
fork produces first resonance at 14 cm and a 240 Hz fork produces first resonance at 32 cm in same
tube. The speed of sound is :

(1) 330 m/s

(2) 335.5 m/s
(3) 345.6 m/s
(4) 351 m/s

36) A uniform rope having mass m hangs vertically from a rigid support. A transverse wave pulse is
produced at the lower end. The speed v of wave pulse varies with height h from the lower end as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) In a voltage regulator circuit as shown, the breakdown voltage of zener diode is 10 V. The

current through zener diode is :

(1) 10 mA
(2) 15 mA
(3) 18 mA
(4) 19 mA

38) Identify the semiconductor devices whose characteristics are given below, in the order (a), (b),
(c), (d):-

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) Zener diode, Solar cell, Simple diode, Light dependent resistance
(2) Simple diode, Zener diode, Solar cell, Light dependent resistance
(3) Zener diode, Simple diode, Light dependent resistance, Solar cell
(4) Solar cell, Light dependent resistance, Zener diode, Simple diode

39) Which of the following circuits correctly represents the following truth table ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
40) Tube A has both ends open while tube B has one end closed, otherwise they are identical. The
ratio of fundamental frequency of tubes A and B is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 4 : 1

41) Equation of a progressive wave is given by . The distance is

expressed in cm and time in second. What will be the minimum distance between two particles
having the phase difference of π/2 ?

(1) 4 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 12.5 cm

42) A 110 cm long wire is to be divided into three segments by two bridges. The ratio of frequencies
of three segments is 1 : 2 : 3. The positions of the bridges will be :-

(1) 30 cm from one end and 60 cm from another end

(2) 60 cm from one end and 20 cm from another end
(3) 30 cm from one end and 70 cm from another end
(4) 40 cm from one end and 50 cm from another end

43) Regarding speed of sound in gas match the following :-

speed
Temperature of gas is made 4
(A) (P) becomes t
times and pressure 2 times
imes

Only pressure is made 4 times speed become

(B) (Q)
without change in temperature 2 times

Only temperature is changed speed remains

(C) (R)
to 4 times unchanged

Molecular mass of the gas is speed become

(D) (S)
made 4 times half
(1) A – Q, B – R, C – Q, D – S
(2) A – Q, B – S, C – Q, D – S
(3) A – S, B –R, C – Q, D – S
(4) A – Q, B – R, C – Q, D – Q

44) Mobility of electron in N-type Ge is 5000 cm2/volt sec and conductivity 5 mho/cm. If effect of
holes is negligible then impurity concentration will be :-

(1) 6.25 × 1015/cm3

(2) 9.25 × 1014/cm3
(3) 6 × 1013/cm3
(4) 9 × 1013/cm3

45) For the forward biased diode characteristics shown in the figure, the dynamic resistance at ID =

3 mA will be___N__Ω. Find out the value of N ?

(1) 25 Ω
(2) 50 Ω
(3) 0.25 Ω
(4) 0.50 Ω

CHEMISTRY

1) Glucose and fructose are ......................... of each other

(1) Homologous
(2) Functional group isomers
(3) Mirror image isomers
(4) Anomer

2) Which of the following does not have hemiacetal group :-

(1) Glucose
(2) Lactose
(3) Maltose
(4) Sucrose

3) A sugar that is not dissacharide among the following is :-

(1) Sucrose
(2) Maltose
(3) Lactose
(4) Galactose

4) Glucose CH2OH–(CHOH)4–CHO on oxidation with HIO4 gives :-

(1) Six moles of HCOOH

(2) Five moles of HCOOH + one mole of HCHO
(3) Four moles of HCOOH + two moles of HCHO
(4) Six moles of HCHO

5) What is the common name of alanine ?

(1) Aminoacetic acid

(2) Glycol
(3) α–Aminopropionic acid
(4) Aminoethanoic acid

6) Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA ?

(1) Uracil
(2) Cytosine
(3) Guanine
(4) Thymine

7) Biuret test is used for the detection of :-

(1) Sugar
(2) Proteins
(3) Fats
(4) Starch

8) Which of the followings is not a fat soluble vitamin :-

(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin D
(3) Vitamin C
(4) Vitamin E

9) Thymin is :-

(1) 5-methyl uracil

(2) 4-methyl uracil
(3) 3-methyl uracil
(4) 1-methyl uracil

10) Which of the following match is correct :-

(1) Vitamin B6 – Pyridoxine

(2) Maltose –Reducing sugar
(3) Amino acids – Zwitter ion
(4) All matches are correct

11) β-D-Glucose and α-D-Glucose are:

(1) Anomers
(2) Enantiomers
(3) Tautomers
(4) None of these

12) C4-epimer of glucose is :-

(1) Allose
(2) Mannose
(3) Galactose
(4) Fructose

13) Which of the following can not reduce Tollen's reagent :-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a, b, d only
(2) b, c, d only
(3) b, c only
(4) c, d only

14) Vitamin C is chemically :-

(1) Ascorbic Acid

(2) Citric Acid
(3) Aspirin
(4) Aspartic Acid

15) Which reagent is used to form glucosazone :-

(1) NH2–NH2
(2) C6H5NH–NH2
(3) NH2–OH
(4) NH2NHCONH2
16) Lassaigne's test is not used for the detection of the element_______in the organic compound

(1) N
(2) S
(3) Cl
(4) O

17) While preparing lassaigne solution nitrogen containing organic compound when fused with
sodium metal forms ?

(1) NaNO2
(2) NaCN
(3) NaNH2
(4) NaNC

18) In the Lassaigne's test for nitrogen in an organic compound, the prussian blue color is obtained
due to formation of :-

(1) Na4[Fe(CN)6]
(2) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(3) Fe2[Fe(CN)6]
(4) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4

19) Lassaigne's solution when reacts with sodium nitroprusside, the violet colour appear, it show
presence of which element.

(1) N
(2) P
(3) S
(4) N and S

20) Which of the following will give lassaigne's test for nitrogen :

(1) NH2–NH2
(2) NH4Cl
(3) CH3NH2
(4) NaNO2

21)

Which is wrongly match

Distinguish
Pair
Reagent

Methyl Alcohol and Ethyl

(1) I2 + Base
Alcohol
 (2) Fehling Solution
and CH3CHO

(3) Phenol and Carboxylic Acid NaHCO3

Propan-1-amine and Propan-2-

(4) Hinsberg reagent
amine
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Test) (Compound)

A. Carbylamine test I. phenol

B. Baeyer's test II. acetone

C. Iodoform test III. ethylene

D. Phthalein dye test IV. aniline

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

23) The compound that gives blood red colour in Lassaigne's test is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

24) Find out the reaction in which obtained product give positive isocyanide test :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25)

Product 'P' is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) An organic compound on reaction with Nitrous acid give alcohol. Then the organic compound
can be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The product is :

(1) Only o-bromoaniline

(2) 2,4,6-tribromoaniline
(3) o and p-bromoaniline
(4) Only p-bromoaniline

28) Which of the following test can be used to distinguish, Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one :-

(1) Tollen's test

(2) 2, 4- DNP test
(3) Benedict test
(4) Iodoform test

29) Which of the following gives soluble complex in base after reacting with Hinsberg's reagent:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) Which of the following amine gives positive test with CS2 and HgCl2 ?

(1) CH3CH2NH2

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) How many moles of KOH is used in carbylamine reaction.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) None of these

32) Aniline is reacted with HNO2 at 0°C. This solution was added dropwise to equimolar mixure of
aniline and phenol in mild acidic medium.
The structure of major product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33)

Glucose Product

(1) Hexanol
(2) Hexanal
(3) n-Hexane
(4) n-Pentane

34) Enzyme are :-

(1) Proteins
(2) Minerals
(3) Oils
(4) Fatty acids

35) Which of the following does not give sodium bisulphite (NaHSO3) test

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36)

Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of vitamin :

(1) C
(2) B2
(3) B12
(4) D

37)

Which of the following will produce silver mirror with Tollen's reagent (ammonical AgNO3)

(1)

(2) HCOOH
(3) Glucose
(4) All of these

38) Which of the following does not give iodoform test.

(1) CH3CH2OH
(2) CH3CH2CH2OH
(3)

(4)

39)

The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with dilute HNO3 before testing for halogens because

(1) Silver halides are soluble in HNO3

(2) Ag2S is soluble in HNO3
(3) AgCN is soluble in HNO3
(4) Na2S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO3

40) An aromatic compound 'X' with molecular formula C9H10O gives the following chemical tests :
(i) forms 2, 4-DNP derivative
(ii) reduces Tollens' reagent
(iii) undergoes Cannizzaro reaction and
(iv) on vigorous oxidation, 1,2-benzenedicarboxylic acid is obtained.
Identify structure of X :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A carbonyl compound 'X' on reaction with NH2OH forms Compound that can show geometrical
isomerism and 'X' give reddish brown precipitate on reaction with Fehling's solution. Then X can be
:-

(1) Formaldehyde
(2) Acetaldehyde
(3) Benzaldehyde
(4) Acetone
42) In Victor Meyer’s test, red colour is given by–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which of the following compound does not liberate CO2 gas on reaction with NaHCO3 ?

(1) Benzoic acid

(2) Picric Acid
(3) Phenol
(4) Benzene Sulphonic Acid

44)

Phenol and ethanol can be distinguished by :

(a) Br2/H2O
(b) Neutral FeCl3
(c) Na

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b only
(3) a, c only
(4) b, c only

45) Which of the following alcohols reacts most readily with Lucas reagent.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY
1) Plant follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kind
of structures. This ability is called :

(1) Plasticity
(2) Senescence
(3) Expansion
(4) Plasmatic growth

2) Match the following and select the correct option :-

(A) Auxin (i) Stress hormone

(B) Cytokinin (ii) Apical hook formation

(C) Ethylene (iii) Coconut milk

(D) Abscisic acid (iv) Weed-free lawns

(E) Gibberellin (v) Delay senescence

(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i, E-v
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i, E-v
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-v, D-i, E-ii
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v

3) Which of the conditions are correct for following diagram :

rt
(1) Arithmetic growth rate, W1 = W0e
(2) Geometric growth rate, Lt = L0 + rt
(3) Arithmetic growth rate, Lt = L0 + rt
rt
(4) Geometric growth rate, W1 = W0e

4) How many of the following function/effects are related to cytokinins :-

Bolting, lateral shoot growth, nutrient mobilisation, apical dominance, internode elongation, delay of
leaf senscence, breaking seed dormancy.

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

5) How many of the given below are the product of redifferentiation?

Phellogen, Phellem, Wood, Phelloderm, Secondary phloem, Interfascicular cambium.

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Four

6) Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids ?

(1) Abscisic acid

(2) Indolebutyric acid
(3) Indole-3-acetic acid
(4) Gibberellic acid

7) (I) C2H4 promotes leaf senescence

(II) C2H4 speed up the ripening of fruits
(III) C2H4 causes apical hook formation
(IV) C2H4 promotes horizontal growth of seedling and swelling of axis
(V) C2H4 promotes male flowers in cucumber, thereby increasing the yield
Which one is false ?

(1) All of these

(2) I and V
(3) II and IV
(4) V

8) Assertion (A) : ABA increases the tolerance of plants to water stress.

Reason (R) : ABA stimulates the closure of stomata.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

9) Assertion (A) : ABA plays an important role in seed development and maturation.
Reason (R) : ABA induces dormancy.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A are R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect
10) Read the following roles of plant hormones carefully
(A) It acts as an antagonist to GAs.
(B) It acts as a general plant growth inhibitor and an inhibitor of plant metabolism.
(C) It promotes seed germination.
(D) It stimulates the closure of stomata and increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of
stresses.
How many above related with ABA :-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

11) Plant hormone hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples and accelerates abscission in
flowers and fruits (thinning of cotton, cherry, walnut)

(1) Ethylene
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Auxin
(4) Gibberellin

12) Cytokinin were discovered as kinetin (a modified form of adenine, a purine) from

(1) Corn kernel

(2) Coconut Milk
(3) Herring sperm DNA
(4) Spinach

13) Assertion (A) : Ethylene help the plants to increase their absorption surface.
Reason (R) : Ethylene promotes root growth and root hair formation,
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

14) Assertion (A) : Ethylene is highly effective in fruit ripening.

Reason (R) : Ethylene enhances the respiration rate during ripening of the fruits.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

15) Read the following roles of plant hormones carefully

(A) It is synthesised in large amounts by tissues undergoing senescence and ripening fruits
(B) It promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs especially of leaves and flowers.
(C) It breaks seed and bud dormancy, initiates germination in peanut seeds, sprouting of potato
tubers.
(D) It induces flowering in mango
How many above related with ethylene.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

16) Plant hormone have specific effects on cytokinesis :-

(1) Ethylene
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Auxin
(4) Gibberellin

17) Gibberellins promotes internode elongation just prior to flowering in :-

(1) Plants with rosette habit

(2) Pineapple
(3) Mango
(4) Apple

18) Which one of the following is a role of Cytokinin

(1) Control xylem differentiation

(2) Overcome apical dominance
(3) Induce parthenocarpy
(4) Hasten leaf fall at early stage

19) Assertion (A) : Cytokinin helps in the delay of leaf senescence.

Reason (R) : Cytokinin promote nutrient mobilisation.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

20) Read the following roles of plant hormones carefully

(A) Produce new leaves
(B) Produce chloroplasts in leaves
(C) Lateral shoot growth
(D) Adventitious shoot formation
How many above related with cytokinin

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

21) Which one of the first gibberellins to be discovered and remains the most intensively studied
form

(1) GA 1
(2) GA 2
(3) GA 3
(4) GA 4

22) Read the following functions carefully

(A) Increase the length of grapes stalks
(B) Cause fruits like apple to elongate and improve its shape
(C) Delay senescence
(D) Speed up malting process
How many above are related with Gibberellin

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

23) Which one of the following is a role of Gibberellin

(1) Hasten leaf fall at early stage

(2) Induce parthenocarpy
(3) Responsible for apical dominance
(4) Control xylem differentiation

24) Assertion (A) : By the spraying Gibberellin fruits can be left on the tree longer so as to
extend the market period
Reason (R) : Gibberellin cause delay in senescence
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

25) Statement-1 : Gibberellin hastens the maturity period, thus leading to early seed production
Statement-2 : Gibberellins promotes bolting
(1) Only statement 1 is correct
(2) Only statement 2 is correct
(3) Both the statement are correct
(4) Both the statement are incorrect

26) Which of the following applications of auxins is widely used for plant propagation ?

(1) Selective killing of weeds to prepare weed free lawns

(2) Initiation of rooting in stem cuttings
(3) Promotion of flowering in pineapple
(4) Induction of parthenocarpy

27) Removal of shoot tips (decapitation) usually results in the growth of lateral buds. It is related to
the removal of effect of which plant hormone:

(1) Ethylene
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Auxin
(4) Gibberellic acid

28) Which one of the following is not a synthetic auxin

(1) IBA
(2) 2,4 D
(3) 2,4,5 T
(4) NAA

29) Which one of the following is not a role of auxin

(1) Responsible for apical dominance

(2) Control xylem differentiation
(3) Hasten leaf fall at early stage
(4) Induce parthenocarpy

30) Read the following roles of plant hormone

(A) Control xylem differentiation
(B) Overcome apical dominance
(C) Induce early seed production in conifers
(D) Hasten leaf fall at mature stage
How many above are related with auxin

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
31) The ‘bakanae’ (foolish seedling) disease of rice seedlings, was caused by a

(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungus
(3) Virus
(4) Mycoplasma

32) Scientist who reported the appearance of symptoms of the disease in rice seedlings when they
were treated with sterile filtrates of the fungus

(1) [Link]
(2) F.W. Went
(3) Darwin
(4) Miller

33) Scientist who identified and crystallised the cytokinesis promoting active substance that
they termed kinetin ?

(1) E. Kurosawa
(2) F.W. Went
(3) Darwin
(4) Miller

34) Scientist who confirmed the release of a volatile substance from ripened oranges that hastened
the ripening of stored unripened bananas.

(1) E. Kurosawa
(2) F.W. Went
(3) H.H. Cousins
(4) Miller

35) Scientist who observed that the coleoptiles of canary grass responded to unilateral
illumination by growing towards the light source ?

(1) Charles Darwin and Francis Darwin

(2) F.W. Went
(3) H.H. Cousins
(4) Miller

36) A substance isolated by F.W. Went from tips of coleoptile of oat seedlings was -

(1) Kinetin
(2) Auxin
(3) Gibberellin
(4) Cytokinin

37) Fill in the blank

Miller et al identified and crystalised the cytokinesis promoting active substance that they termed
_________ .
Select the correct option :

(1) Auxin
(2) Kinetin
(3) Abscisic acid
(4) Zeatin

38) The chemical which help to initiate rooting in stem cuttings and widely used in plant propagation
is -

(1) Gibberellin
(2) Auxin
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Abscisic acid

39) Statement-1 : Charles Darwin and Francis Darwin observed that the coleoptiles of canary grass
responded to unilateral illumination by growing against the light source.
Statement-2 : In 1960's, H.H. Cousins confirmed the release of volatile substance from ripened
oranges that hastened the ripening of stored unripened bananas.
Select the correct option :-

(1) Only statement 1 is correct

(2) Only statement 2 is correct
(3) Both the statement are correct
(4) Both the statement are incorrect

40) Statement-1 : Natural cytokinins are synthesized in regions where rapid cell division occurs.
Statement-2 : Cytokinins promotes nutrient metabolism which helps in the delay of leaf
senescence.
Select the correct option.

(1) Only statement 1 is correct

(2) Only statement 2 is correct
(3) Both the statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
(4) Both statement-1 and 2 are correct.

41) Which of the following is related to discovery of Gibberellins ?

(1) H.H. Cousins

(2) F. Skoog
(3) E. Kurosawa
(4) F.W. Went
42)
Above diagram is related to the discovery of -

(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Cytokinins
(4) Ethylene

43) Which of the following are synthetic auxins ?

(1) NAA
(2) 2, 4-D
(3) IAA
(4) 1 & 2 both

44) Statement-I :- Auxin was isolated by H.H. Cousins from tips of coleoptiles of oat seedlings.
Statement-II :- The term kinetin was given by F. Skoog.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

45) __________ cause fruits like apple to elongate and improve its shape.

(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Cytokinins
(4) Ethylene

46) Assertion (A) :- Schwann cells are present in myelinated & unmyelinated axon.
Reason (R) :- Schwann cell has functions of myelinogenis in PNS & function as packaging cell in
autonomous neural system and somatic neural system.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

47) Assertion (A) :- Electrical synapse is always faster than chemical synapse.
Reason (R) :- In electrical synapse the membrane of pre and post synaptic neurons are in very close
proximity.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

48) Major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling is :-

(1) e
(2) f
(3) d
(4) i

49)

Arrange the following diagram according to the conduction speed in increasing order :-

(Note : Diameter and length of all the three a,b,c are same)

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, a, c
(3) c, a, b
(4) c, b, a

50) Following diagram shows / represents conduction of nerve impulse in A and B segments :-

What would be the direction of Na+ ions in the I.C.F ?

(1) B to A
(2) A to B
(3) In any direction
(4) Direction less

51) Collection of nerve fibre in peripheral nervous system is called :-

(1) Nuclei
(2) Ganglia
(3) Tract
(4) Nerve

52) The nervous strip connecting both the cerebral hemispheres in the human is :-

(1) Corpus callosum

(2) Corpus albicans
(3) Corpus stratum
(4) Corpus spongiosum

53) Nissl’s granules are made up of :-

(1) Endoplasmic Reticulum & Mitochondria

(2) Golgi body & ribosome
(3) Golgi body & Mitochondria
(4) Endoplasmic Reticulum & Ribosome

54)

Part of the brain which is concerned with olfaction & regulation of sexual behaviour ?

(1) Thalamus
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Limbic system
(4) Reticular formation

55)

A deep cleft divides the cerebrum longitudinally into two halves termed as

(1) Rolandic sulcus

(2) Lateral sulcus
(3) Median fissure
(4) Sylvian sulcus

56) Cholinesterase enzyme is found in :-

(1) Synaptic knob

(2) Synaptic cleft
(3) Synaptic vesicle
(4) Node of Ranvier

57) Integrative system in the body are:

(1) Blood vascular system

(2) Endocrine system
(3) Nervous system
(4) Both (2) and (3)

58) The neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus are responsible for the ______ function.
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank

(1) Exocrine
(2) Endocrine
(3) Protective
(4) Insulation

59) Read the given descriptions and recognize the respective part of the human neural system
(i) Makes up the command and control system
(ii) Site for processing of speech, vision etc. are present
Choose the correct option

(1) Spinal cord

(2) ANS
(3) Brain
(4) Brain stem

60) From the parts mentioned in the box, which are not a part of the forebrain ?

Cerebrum, Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Corpora Quadrigemina

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

61) The division of our nervous system which is the site of information processing and control-

(1) Central Nervous system

(2) Autonomic Nervous system
(3) Peripheral Nervous system
(4) Somatic Nervous system

62) Dendrites transmit impulses towards

(1) Axon
(2) Cell body
(3) Axon terminal
(4) Synaptic knob

63) The axonal membrane is _____ to negatively charged proteins present in the axoplasm

(1) Selectively permeable

(2) Permeable
(3) Semipermeable
(4) Impermeable

64) Part of brain which is associated with fine and skillful voluntary movement.

(1) Diencephalon
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Olfactory lobe

65) In the exciting stage of neuron, where threshold stimulus is applied which structure is
responsible for rapid influx of Na+ ions.

(1) Na+ – K+ – Active pump

(2) K+ – V.G.C
(3) Na+ – K+ – Ions channels
(4) Na+ – V.G.C

66) The electrical potential difference across the axolemma at the site of depolarisation is called :-

(1) Graded potential

(2) Resting potential
(3) Action potential
(4) Dormant potential

67) Match the column-I with column-II and identify the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

impermeable to
(A) Axoplasm (i)
–ve charged proteins

(B) Axolemma (ii) Low K+ and high Na+

(C) Fluid outside axon (iii) Active transport

(D) Na+ – K+ pump (iv) High K+ and low Na+

A B C D
 (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68) Mid brain has centre for reflex action of -

(1) Visual and tactile only

(2) Visual, tactile and auditory
(3) Auditory and tactile only
(4) Visual and auditory only

69) A synapse is formed by

(1) Only pre-synaptic neuron

(2) Only post-synaptic neuron
(3) Pre-synaptic neuron and post synaptic neuron both
(4) By Axon

70) Gray matter is composed of :-

(A) Cyton
(B) Myelinated axon
(C) Non myelinated axon
(D) White fibres
Choose the correct option :-

(1) A, B
(2) Only A
(3) A, D
(4) A, C

71) Synaptic vesicles are found in -

(1) Presynaptic neuron

(2) Post synaptic neuron
(3) Synaptic cleft
(4) Dendron

72) Which part of brain help in maintaining 37°C temperature of human body.

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Medulla
(4) Pons

73) A list of events occuring in the transmission of nerve impulse across the synapse is given below
in a random order.
(i) Opening of specific ion channels allow the entry of ions, a new action potential is generated in the
post-synaptic neuron.
(ii) Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on post synaptic membrane.
(iii) Synaptic vesicle fuses with pre-synaptic membrane neurotransmitter release into synaptic cleft.
(iv) Arrival of action potential at axon terminal.
Which of the following options represents these events in a correct order.

(1) (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)

(2) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv)
(3) (i) → (ii) → (iv) → (iii)
(4) (iv) → (iii) → (i) → (ii)

74) The duramater and piamater are referred as ?

(1) Peritoneal epithelium

(2) Serosa
(3) Endothelium
(4) Meninges

75) Vomiting centre is located in :-

(1) Pons
(2) Medulla
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Cerebrum

76) Read the following statements.

(a) Endocrine system provides chemical integration through hormones.
(b) Nervous system provides an organised network of point to point connection for quick
coordination.
(c) The neural organisation is very complex in lower invertebrates.
(d) Neuron can detect receive but can not transmit different kind of stimuli.
How many above statements are true.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

77) The type of fibres which carry nerve impulses from central nervous system to target organ or to
neuromuscular junction are known as :-
(1) Sensory fibres
(2) Afferent fibres
(3) Muscle fibres
(4) Efferent fibres

78) Involuntary control of voluntary muscles is under the control of which part :-

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Midbrain

79) Hypothalamus is not participate in :-

(1) Temperature regulation

(2) Autonomus nervous system regulation
(3) Regulation of anterior pituitary gland hormone
(4) Body posture regulation

80) No significant role of working of Na – K - ATPase pump can be noticed during :-

(1) Polarisation
(2) Depolarisation
(3) Repolarisation
(4) Hyperpolarisation

81) Mark the incorrect statement regarding somatic neural system ?

(1) Relays impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles.

(2) Unmyelinated fibres enclosed by schwann cells that doesn't form myelin sheath.
(3) Contains both myelinated and non-myelinated fibres.
(4) Myelin is synthesised by oligodendrocytes in myelinated nerve fibres.

82) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

(1) Unipolar neuron - cell body with one dendron only

(2) Multipolar neuron - many axon with one dendron.
(3) Bipolar neuron - Amacrine cell
(4) Multipolar neuron - in cerebral cortex

83) Which of the following statement is true :-

(1) The new potential developed on post synaptic membrane is always stimulatory.
(2) Arachnoid is inner most layer and in close contact of brain tissue.
The mid brain is located between the thalamus/ Hypothalamus of the forebrain and pons of the
(3)
midbrain.
 The pons contains centres which control respiration / cardiovascular reflexes and gastric
(4)
secretions.

84) Consider the following four statement (a-d) and select the option which include all incorrect one
only :-
(a) Duramater is innermost layer which is thick, very strong and non-elastic.
(b) Arachnoid is a middle layer.
(c) Piamater is outermost thin layer which is highly vascular.
(d) Arachnoid is found only in Amphibia.

(1) Statement a, b, c
(2) Statement a and c
(3) Statement a, c and d
(4) Statement b only

85) Which of the following statement is correct for node of ranvier in nerve.

(1) Neurilemma is discontinuous

(2) Covered by myelin sheath
(3) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
(4) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous

86) Which is correct regarding generation of nerve impulse ?

(1) During resting stage only passive diffusion occurs.

(2) Sodium-potassium pump transport 3K+ outside the axon and 2Na+ inside the axon
(3) Sodium ions influx is responsible for nerve impulse generation.
(4) Neuron membrane is least permeable for K+ ions.

87) A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through a junction, that junction is
known as :-

(1) Synaptic knob

(2) Synaptic vesicles
(3) Synapse
(4) Synaptic cleft

88) Hunger and thirst centre is located in :-

(1) Pons
(2) Cerebrum
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Hypothalamus

89) Cerebral aqueduct is found in :-

(1) Forebrain
(2) Midbrain
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Medulla

90) Na+, K+ ion channels is an example of :-

(1) Passive transport

(2) Transportation of ion against a concentration gradient
(3) Active transport
(4) Osmosis
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 3 4 4 2 4 4 2 1 3 1 2 4 3 4 1 2 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 3 3 2 1 2 2 2 3 4 2 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 1 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 4 2 3 1 2 3 1 4 1 3 3 1 2 4 2 2 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 4 1 1 3 2 4 2 1 1 1 3 1 3 1 4 2 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 3 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 3 4 4 1 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 2 1 3 2 3 1 3 3 2 1 4 3 1 2 2 2 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 4 4 2 1 4 4 2 2 4 1 4 3 3 2 4 2 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 4 3 4 3 3 2 3 4 1 2 1 4 2 2 4 3 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 4 4 3 3 3 4 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Photodiodes are operated in reverse bias as fractional change in current due to light is more
easy to detect in reverse bias.

2) The positions of resonance and result of experiment are independent of the nature or
density of liquid inside tube.

3) Due to diffrence in concentration of majority carriers of P and N, electrons diffused from N

into P

4)

= · (A + B) = ·B

=
=
=
OR

=
= AB +

5) Vmax = = 9V
Vmax < Vz, So current through Zener diode will be zero.
6)
y = Asin(ωt – kx)
y = 2sin(200πt – 20πx)
For t = 3 sec, x = 150 cm,
y = 0, v = Aω = 400π cm/s, a = ω2y = 0

7)

OR Gate

8) In +ve half cycle

0 – 0.6 V
Vout same as Vin
In -ve half cycle

0 to (–0.6 V)
Vout same as Vin

9) On increasing the temperature, there are increasing the number of free charges i.e. n but
drift velocity decreases because relaxation time decreases.

10)

11)

Motion of holes is actually the motion of bounded e– from one site to another site.

12)

13) Avalanche breakdown → Light doping

Zener breakdown → Heavy doping

14)

15) The beat frequency heared is the difference between the frequencies of the two waves that
are farthest apart beat frequency = |fmax–fmin| = |402 – 400| = 2 beats/s

16) Dynamic resistance at 0.7 V

17) When both A and B have logical value '1' both diode are reverse bias and current will flow
in resistor hence output will be 5 volt i.e. logical value '1'.
In all other case conduction will take place, hence output will be zero volt i.e. logical value '0'.
So truth table is

(AND gate)

18)

For maximum wavelength of stationary wave

= length of string

19) The main purpose of Zener diode in voltage regulator is to maintain constant voltage
across applied load.

20)

For first half cycle diode is in forward bias so o/p occur.

In next half cycle diode is in reverse bias so o/p = 0.

21)

Diode shows low resistance in F.B. and high resistance in R.B, with no glow,
So, A → 4
LED glows in forward bias only, so, B → 3
A capacitor shows infinite resistance for D.C. when connected in both ways in circuit.
So, C → 2
An inductor may give false reading due to stored magnetic energy in it.
So, D → 1

22)

Let frequency of standard tunning fork is 100

fA = 103
fB = 97
BF = 103 – 97 = 6
23) cosϕ

24)

25)

I = 0.02

26)

I = Ie + Ih

Ie = I, Ih = I

Ve = Vh

27)

In option (2) p side connect to zero volt and N side connect to high voltage w.r. to p side so it
is in reverse bias.

28) In the regulating region, VO​ = VZ​ = constant, so IL​ = VZ​/RL​ is constant.
As Vin​↑, the voltage drop across RS​ increases, so IS​ = (Vin​ − VZ​)/RS​ increases.
Since IZ​ = IS​ − IL​, and IS​↑ and IL​ is constant, IZ​ increases.
So, the current through RS​ increases, zener increases but through RL​ remains constant
Voltage across zener diode = constant
∴ = const ⇒ IL = const.
so, if Vin ↑, increases
∴ I↑

29)

– A to + A (–A trough & +A creast)

30)
A = 5, N = 6,
Harmonic = 5th, overtone 4th
ℓ = 5λ/2

31)

Δx = AP–BP = 25cm =

32) ℓ1 = length of air column for Ist resonance = 16 cm

ℓ2 = length of air column for II resonance = 51 cm

v = fλ = f × 2(ℓ2 – ℓ1) = 500 × = 350 m/s

end correction = 1.5 cm

33) A higher doping level leads to stronger electric field within diode, making it more
susceptible to breakdown at lower reverse voltages.

34)

Kx must be with sin so that at x = 0, there is a node.

35) Let 'e' be the end correction in tube.

For 480 Hz fork : = 14 + e

⇒ λ1 = 56 + 4e

For 240 Hz fork : = 32 + e

⇒ λ2 = 128 + 4e
Since speed of sound remains same in both the above two cases.
V = f1λ1 = f2λ2
v = (480)(56 + 4e) ⇒ 240 (128 + 4e)
⇒ 112 + 8e = 128 + 4e
⇒ 4e = 16 ⇒ e = 4cm

v = f1λ1 = = 345.6 m/s

36)
⇒

37) Rs = 250 Ω; RL = 1 KΩ
VS = (15 – 10) = 5V

IL = = 10 mA,

Is = = 20 mA
Iz = Is – IL = 10 mA

38) (a) Simple diode

(b) Zener diode
(c) Solar cell
(d) Light dependent resistance

39)

Out put
C=
C=A⋅
C=
C=

40)

41)

where λ =

=
= 100 cm
So, Δx = 25 cm

42)

ℓ1 : ℓ2 : ℓ3 =

43)
 Speed of sound,
T → absolute temperature
Mw → Molecular mass

44)

σ = neeµe
5 = ne(1.6 × 10–19)(5000)
ne = 6.25 × 1015 / cm3

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Glucose and fructose are functional group isomers of each other

47)
is hemiacetal group and sucrose not having this group.

48)

Galactose (C6H12O6) is an example of monosaccharide.

 49)

50)

51)

NCERT-XII, Article No: 10.5.1, Pg No: 298, Edition : 2023 - 24.

52) Asking About :- Biuret test is used for which biomolecule.

Concept :- Chemical test of Biomolecules.
Sol. /Explanation :-
Biuret test is used for deflection of proteins

53)

Vitamin C is water soluble

OR Explain Question : Fat-soluble vitamin is.

Concept : This question is based on vitamin.

Solution :
Fat-soluble vitamins:

A. Stored in body fat and liver.

B. Include: Vitamin A, D, E, and K

Water-soluble vitamins:

A. Not stored in the body; excess is excreted.

B. Include: Vitamin B-complex and Vitamin C

Final answer : option (3)

54) NCERT-XII, Part-II, Page # 420

55)
NCERT, class 12th, part-2, Article No: 10.1.3, 10.2.2, 10.4.1, Pg No: 287, 291, 296, Edition -
2023 - 24.

56) NCERT XII II part Pg.# 355

57)

Common epimers of glucose: mannose is the C-2 epimer, and galactose is the C-4 epimer.

58)

Structure having hemiacetal group in one end reduce tollen's reagent

Structure (b) and (c) not having hemiacetal group so answer will be option no. (3).

59)

Ascorbic acid is chemical name of vitamin C.

60) NCERT-XII/Part-II/Page-414

61)

N, S Halogen (Cl, Br & I) & P can be detected by lassaigne's test

62) Na + C + N → NaCN

63) 6CNϴ + Fe+2 → [Fe(CN)6]–4

3[Fe(CN)6]–4 + 4Fe+3 → Fe4 [Fe(CN)6]3

64)

Lassaigne's solution [Fe(CN)5NOS]4– Violet Colour.

Violet colour indicate the presence of sulphur.

65)

Test is given by nitrogenous org. compound.

66)
Propane - 1 - amine & Propane - 2- amine, both are 1o Amine. Hence Cannot be distinguished
by Hinsberg reagent.

67) (A) Carbyl amine test (IV) Aniline

(B) Bayer's test (III) Ethylene
(C) Iodoform test (II) Acetone
(D) Phthalein dye test (I) Phenol

68)

69)
Primary amine give positive isocyanide test.

70)

71)

Primaryamine give alcohol with nitrous acid.

72)

73)
2–Pentanone is an example of methyl ketone and methyl ketone give positive iodoform test.

74)
75)

Only primary amines give hoffmann mustard oil reaction (HMO-reaction) and CH3CH2NH2 is an
example of primary amine.

76)
3 Moles of KOH used in this reaction.

77)

78)

79)

Explain Question : The question asks about the chemical nature of enzymes.
Concept : This question is based on Enzyme Structure, Biomolecules
Solution :

A. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up biochemical reactions.

B. Almost all enzymes are proteins made of amino acids, folded into specific 3D structures.

C. Minerals, oils, and fatty acids are not catalytic macromolecules.

Final answer : 1

80)

Aromatic methyl ketone does not show NaHSO3 test.

81)

NCERT XII / Part II / Pg.#426

82) Explain the question : Identify compound which will produce silver mirror with tollen's
reagent.
Concept : This question is based on tollen's reagent.
Solution : Aldehydes along with formic acid can give tollen's test.
hint : Glucose contains aldehyde functional group.
Final answer : 4

83)

The alcohol which unable to form methyl ketonic group ( ) does not give lodo form
test

CH3–CH2–CH2–OH

84)

85)

86)

87) In victor meyer test, red colouration is given by primary alcohol.

88) Phenol is less acidic than H2CO3 ∴ do not liberate CO2 gas on reaction with NaHCO3

89)

Phenol & ethanol both react with Na.

 90) Reactivity with Lucas reagent is 3°>2°>1°>CH3OH

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XI, Pg. # 173

92) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

93) NCERT XI, Pg. # 170

94) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

95) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

96) NCERT XI, Pg. # 177

97) NCERT XI, Pg. # 177

98) NCERT XI, Pg. # 177

99) NCERT XI, Pg. # 177

100) NCERT XI, Pg. # 177

101) NCERT XI, Pg. # 177

102) NCERT XI, Pg. # 177

103) NCERT XI, Pg. # 177

104) NCERT XI, Pg. # 177

105) NCERT XI, Pg. # 177

106) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

107)
NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

108) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

109) NCERT XI, Pg. # 177

110) NCERT XI, Pg. # 177

111) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

112) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

113) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

114) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

115) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

116) NCERT XI, Pg. # 174

117) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

118) NCERT XI, Pg. # 175

119) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

120) NCERT XI, Pg. # 175

121) NCERT XI, Pg. # 174

122) NCERT XI, Pg. # 175

123) NCERT XI, Pg. # 175

124) NCERT XI, Pg. # 175

125) NCERT XI, Pg. # 175

126) NCERT XI, Pg. # 174

127) NCERT XI, Pg. # 175

128) NCERT XI, Pg. # 175

129) NCERT XI, Pg. # 175

130) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176, 177

131) NCERT XI, Pg. # 175

132) NCERT XI, Pg. # 174

133) NCERT XI, Pg. # 175

134) NCERT XI, Pg. # 175

135) NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

136)

NCERT XI, Pg # 232

137)

NCERT XI, Pg # 234

138)

NCERT. Pg. # 320,321

139)

If myelin sheath is continous there will be no nerve impulse conduction in nerve fibres.

140)

NCERT XI, Pg # 233

141) Collection of cyton in CNS → Nuclei

Collection of cyton in PNS → Ganglia
Collection of nervefibre in PNS → Nerve
Collection of nervefibre in CNS → Tract

142)

NCERT XI, Pg # 236

143)

NCERT XI, Pg # 231

144)

NCERT XI, Pg # 236

145)

NCERT XI, Pg # 236

146)

Cholinetrase enzyme, which is found in synaptic cleft.

This enzyme decomposes the Ach into choline and Acetate.

147)

NCERT XI, Pg # 230

148)

NCERT XI, Pg # 236

149)

NCERT XI, Pg # 235

150)

NCERT XI, Pg # 235, Fig No. 18.4

151) NCERT Pg # 316

152)
Module-5 Page No. # 316

153)

Module-7 Pg#11

154) The cerebellum integrates information received from the semicircular canals of the ear
and the auditory system and also by this portion of hind brain impulses are received from
different voluntary muscles and joints.
Due to this region, coordination of voluntary muscle through involuntary regulation is more
developed in human compared to another animals i.e. body balance.

155) NCERT XI, Pg. # 233

156) NCERT XI, Pg. # 233

157) NCERT XI, Pg. # 232,233

158)

The midbrain receives and integrates visual, tactile and auditory inputs.

159) NCERT XI, Pg. # 234

160) NCERT XI, Pg. # 232

161) NCERT XI, Pg. # 234

162) NCERT XI, Pg. # 236

163) NCERT XI, Pg. # 234, 235

164) NCERT XI, Pg. # 235

165)

Medulla oblongata is the most important part of brain which controls all the involuntary
activities of the body. As we know it is also concerned with cranial reflex action.
Vomiting is involuntary action. So it centre is located in medulla oblongata.

166) NCERT XI, Pg. # 230

167) NCERT XI, Pg. # 231

168) The cerebellum integrates information received from the semicircular canals of the ear
and the auditory system and also by this portion of hind brain impulses are received from
different voluntary muscles and joints. Due to this region, coordination of voluntary muscle
through involuntary regulation is more developed in human compared to another animals i.e.
body balance.

169) NCERT XI, Pg. # 236

170)

Na – K - ATPase pump is used to catalyze ATP.

ATP come in play for driving Na+ – K+ pump. During depolarisation, Na+ – K+ pump doesnot
play role.

171) NCERT XI, Pg. # 231,232

172) NCERT XI, Pg. # 232

173) NCERT XI, Pg. # 234,235,236

174) NCERT XI, Pg. # 235

175)

At node of ranvier myelin sheath is discontinous.

176)

NCERT XI, Pg # 233

177) NCERT XI, Pg. # 234

178) NCERT XI, Pg. # 236

179) NCERT XI, Pg. # 236

180)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 232-233