20-12-2025

2701CJA101021250128 JM

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) The bulk modulus of a liquid is 3 × 1010 Nm–2. The pressure required to reduce the volume of
liquid by 2% is :

(A) 3 × 108 Nm–2

(B) 9 × 108 Nm–2
(C) 6 × 108 Nm–2
(D) 12 × 108 Nm–2

2) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In an uniform magnetic field, speed and energy remains the same for a moving
charged particle.
Reason (R) : Moving charged particle experiences magnetic force perpendicular to its direction of
motion.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

3) Two identical cells each of emf 1.5 V are connected in parallel across a parallel combination of
two resistors each of resistance 20Ω. A voltmeter connected across the cell in the circuit measures
1.2 V. The internal resistance of each cell is

(A) 2.5Ω
(B) 4Ω
(C) 5Ω
(D) 10Ω

4) Identify the pair of physical quantities which have different dimensions :

(A) Wave number and Rydberg’s constant

(B) Stress and Coefficient of elasticity
(C) Coercivity and Magnetisation
(D) Specific heat capacity and Latent heat

5) A projectile is projected with velocity of 25 m/s at an angle θ with the horizontal. After t seconds
its inclination with horizontal becomes zero. If R represents horizontal range of the projectile, the
value of θ will be : [use g = 10 m/s2]

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6) A block of mass 10 kg starts sliding on a surface with an initial velocity of 9.8 ms–1. The coefficient
of friction between the surface and block is 0.5. The distance covered by the block before coming to
rest is : [use g = 9.8 ms–2]

(A) 4.9 m
(B) 9.8 m
(C) 12.5 m
(D) 19.6 m

7) A boy ties a stone of mass 100 g to the end of a 2 m long string and whirls it around in a
horizontal plane. The string can withstand the maximum tension of 80 N. If the maximum speed with

which the stone can revolve is . The value of K is : (Assume the string is massless and
unstretchable)

(A) 400
(B) 300
(C) 600
(D) 800

8) A vertical electric field of magnitude 4.9 × 105 N/C just prevents a water droplet of a mass 0.1 g
from falling. The value of charge on the droplet will be : (Given g = 9.8 m/s2)

(A) 1.6 × 10-9 C

(B) 2.0 × 10-9 C
(C) 3.2 × 10-9 C
(D) 0.5 × 10-9 C

9) A particle experiences a variable force in a horizontal x-y plane. Assume distance

in meters and force is newton. If the particle moves from point (1, 2) to point (2, 3) in the x-y plane,
the Kinetic Energy changes by

(A) 50.0 J
(B) 12.5 J
(C) 25.0 J
(D) 0 J

10) The approximate height from the surface of earth at which the weight of the body becomes of
its weight on the surface of earth is :
[Radius of earth R = 6400 km and = 1.732]

(A) 3840 km
(B) 4685 km
(C) 2133 km
(D) 4267 km

11) A resistance of 40 Ω is connected to a source of alternating current rated 220 V, 50 Hz. Find the
time taken by the current to change from its maximum value to rms value :

(A) 2.5 ms
(B) 1.25 ms
(C) 2.5 s
(D) 0.25 s

12) The equations of two waves are given by :

These waves are simultaneously passing through a string. The amplitude of the resulting wave is

(A) 2 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 5.8 cm
(D) 8 cm

13) A plane electromagnetic wave travels in a medium of relative permeability 1.61 and relative
permittivity 6.44. If magnitude of magnetic intensity is 4.5 × 10–2 Am–1 at a point, what will be the
approximate magnitude of electric field intensity at that point ? (Given : permeability of free space μ
= 4π × 10–7 NA–2, speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1)

(A) 16.96 Vm–1

(B) 2.25 × 10-2 Vm–1
(C) 8.48 Vm–1
(D) 6.75 × 106 Vm–1

14) If ground state of Hydrogen atom is taken as zero potential energy reference, total energy of 2nd
exited state is

(A) 24.7 eV
(B) 1.5 eV
(C) – 1.5 eV
(D) – 13.6 eV

15) Nucleus A is having mass number 220 and its binding energy per nucleon is 5.6 MeV. It splits in
two fragments 'B' and 'C' of mass numbers 105 and 115. The binding energy of nucleons in 'B' and
'C' is 6.4 MeV per nucleon. The energy Q released per fission will be :

(A) 0.8 MeV

(B) 275 MeV
(C) 220 MeV
(D) 176 MeV

16) In the following circuit, the reading of the ammeter will be (Take Zener breakdown voltage = 4
V)

(A) 24 mA
(B) 80 mA
(C) 10 mA
(D) 60 mA

17) A Carnot engine whose heat sinks at 27°C, has an efficiency of 25%. By how many degrees
should the temperature of the source be changed to increase the efficiency by 100% of the original
efficiency ?

(A) Increases by 18°C

(B) Increase by 200°C
(C) Increase by 120°C
(D) Increase by 73°C

18) A uniform ring of mass m and radius R is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface. Find
the radius of curvature of the trajectory traced out by the point A in the position shown in figure.

(A) 3R
(B) 4R
(C) 2R
(D)
19) The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r, due to current I flowing through it,

is B. The magnetic field at a point along the axis at a distance from the centre is :

(A) B/2
(B) 2B

(C)

(D)

20) Two metallic blocks M1 and M2 of same area of cross-section are connected to each other (as
shown in figure). If the thermal conductivity of M2 is K then the thermal conductivity of M1 will be :

[Assume steady state heat conduction]

(A) 10 K
(B) 8 K
(C) 12.5 K
(D) 2 K

SECTION-II

1) 0.056 kg of Nitrogen is enclosed in a vessel at a temperature of 127°C. The amount of heat

required to double the speed of its molecules is _____ k cal. (Take R = 2 cal mole-1K-1)

2) Two identical thin biconvex lenses of focal length 15 cm and refractive index 1.5 are in contact
with each other. The space between the lenses is filled with a liquid of refractive index 1.25. The
focal length of the combination is ______ cm.

3) As shown in the figure an inductor of inductance 200 mH is connected to an AC source of emf 220
V and frequency 50 Hz. The instantaneous voltage of the source is 0 V when the peak value of

current is The value of a is _______.

4) When light of frequency twice the threshold frequency is incident on the metal plate, the
maximum velocity of emitted election is v1. When the frequency of incident radiation is increased to
five times the threshold value, the maximum velocity of emitted electron becomes v2. If v2 = xv1, the
value of x will be ______.

5) A galvanometer gives full scale deflection with 0.006 A current. By connecting it to a 4990 Ω
resistance, it can be converted into a voltmeter of range 0–30 V. If connected to a resistance, it
becomes an ammeter of range 0 - 1.5 A. The value of n is :-

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) If a rocket runs on a fuel (C15 H30) and liquid oxygen, the weight of oxygen required and CO2
released for every litre of fuel respectively are: (Given: density of the fuel is 0.756 g/mL)

(A) 1188 g and 1296 g

(B) 2376 g and 2592 g
(C) 2592g and 2376 g
(D) 3429 g and 3142 g

2) Consider the following pairs of electrons (A) (a) n = 3, 1 = 1, m1 = 1, ms = +

(b) n = 3, 1 = 2, m1 = 1, ms = +

(B) (a) n = 3, 1 = 2, m1 = – 2, ms = –

(b) n = 3, 1 = 2, m1 = –1, ms = –

(C) (a) n = 4, 1 = 2, m1 = 2, ms = +

(b) n = 3, 1 = 2, m1 = 2, ms = +
The pairs of electron present in degenerate orbitals is/are:

(A) Only A
(B) Only B
(C) Only C
(D) (B) and (C)

3) Match List – I with List – II

List – I List – II

(A) (I) sp3d

(B) (II) d2sp3

(C) (III) dsp2

(D) (IV) sp3d2

(A) (A)→(II), (B)→(IV), (C)→(I), (D)→(III)

(B) (A)→(III), (B)→(IV), (C)→(I), (D)→(II)
(C) (A)→(III), (B)→(I), (C)→(IV), (D)→(II)
(D) (A)→(II), (B)→(I), (C)→(IV), (D)→(III)

4) For a reaction at equilibrium

the relation between dissociation constant (K), degree of dissociation (α) and equilibrium pressure
(p) is given by :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5) Enthalpy of neutralization of H3PO3 acid is –106.68 kJ/mol using NaOH. Enthalpy of neutralization
of HCl by NaOH is –55.84 kJ/mol. Calculate ΔHionization of H3PO3 into its ions:

(A) 50.84 kJ/mol

(B) 5 kJ/mol
(C) 2.5 kJ/mol
(D) None of these

6) Which of the following process is/are endothermic in nature ?

(A) F → F–
(B) Be → Be+
(C) O+ → O
(D) O → O2–

7) Which one amongst the following are good oxidizing agents?

A. Sm2+ B. Ce2+ C. Ce4+ D. Tb4+
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A) C only
(B) D only
(C) A and B only
(D) C and D only
8)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

9) How many of the following statements is/are incorrect?

1. Correct order of 2nd I.E. is O > N > C > B
2. Correct order of EA is O > C > B > Li > N
3. Element with Z = 72 belongs to 6th period & p-block
4. I.E. order for 13th group element is B > Tℓ > Al > Ga > In

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1

10) Identify the correct statement for B2H6 from those given below.
(A) In B2H6, all B-H bonds are equivalent.
(B) In B2H6 there are four 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
(C) B2H6 is a Lewis acid.
(D) B2H6 can be synthesized form both BF3 and NaBH4.
(E) B2H6 is a planar molecule.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A) (A) and (E) only

(B) (B), (C) and (E) only
(C) (C) and (D) only
(D) (C) and (E) only

11) Consider the following statements

a. o-nitrophenol forms intramolecular hydrogen bond
b. Boiling point of H2S is greater than H2O
c. Hydrogen bond is stronger than covalent bond
The incorrect statement(s) is/are

(A) a only
(B) a and c only
(C) a and b only
(D) b and c only

12) In transition metal carbonyls, the metal-carbon π bond is formed by electron pair donation from :

(A) Filled d-orbital of metal into vacant σ of CO.

(B) Filled p-orbital of metal into vacant π* of CO.
(C) Filled p-orbital of metal into vacant σ* of CO.
(D) Filled d-orbital of metal into vacant π* of CO.

13) In the given reactions sequence, the major product ‘C’ is :

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

14) Two statements are given below :

Statement I: The melting point of monocarboxylic acid with even number of carbon atoms is higher
than that of with odd number of carbon atoms acid immediately below and above it in the series.
Statement II : The solubility of monocarboxylic acids in water decreases with increase in molar
mass.
Choose the most appropriate option:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

15) Which of the following is an example of conjugated diketone ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

16)
The major product of the above reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

17) Which one of the following reactions will not form acetaldehyde? [JEE (Main) 2021]

CH3CH2OH
(A)

(B)
CH3CN
(C)
CH2=CH2 + O2

(D) CH CH OH
3 2

18) A polysaccharide 'X' on boiling with dil.H2SO4 at 393 K under 2-3 atm pressure yields 'Y'.
'Y' on treatment with bromine water gives gluconic acid. 'X' contains β-glycosidic linkages only.
Compound 'X' is :

(A) starch
(B) cellulose
(C) amylose
(D) amylopectin

19) N2O5 → 2NO2 + O2

When N2O5 decomposes, its t1/2 does not change with its changing pressure during the reaction, so
which one of the following options is the correct representation for “pressure of NO2” vs “time”
during the reaction when initial is equals to P0

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

20) During the qualitative analysis of salt with cation y2+ , addition of a reagent (X) to alkaline
solution of the salt gives a bright red precipitate. The reagent (X) and the cation (y2+) present
respectively are:

(A) Dimethylglyoxime and Ni2+

(B) Dimethylglyoxime and Co2+
(C) Nessler’s reagent and Hg2+
(D) Nessler’s reagent and Ni2+

SECTION-II

1)
At 300 K, ozone is fifty percent dissociated. The standard free energy change at this temperature
and 1 atm pressure is (–) __J mol –1 (Nearest integer)
[Given: ln 1.35 = 0.3 and R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1]

2) The osmotic pressure of blood is 7.47 bar at 300 K. To inject glucose to a patient intravenously, it
has to be isotonic with blood. The concentration of glucose solution in gL–1 is _____(Molar mass of
glucose = 180 g mol–1 R = 0.083 L bar K–1 mol–1) (Nearest integer)

3) The cell potential for the following cell

is 0.576 V at 298 K. The pH of the solution is ___. (Nearest integer)

4) In the cobalt-carbonyl complex: [Co2(CO)8], number of Co-Co bonds is "X" and terminal CO ligands
is "Y". X + Y =____

5) Number of electrophilic centre in the given compound is ____

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
 SECTION-I

1) If then at is :

(A) 4

(B)

(C)

(D) –4

2) Let the function, f : [–7, 0] → R be continuous on [–7, 0] and differentiable on (–7, 0). If f(–7) = –3
and f' (x)≤2, for all x∈ (–7, 0), then for all such functions f, f(–1) + f (0) lies in the interval :

(A) [–6, 20]

(B) (–∞, 20]
(C) ( –∞, 11]
(D) [–3, 11]

3)

The solutions of the equation

are

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

4)

If α, β are natural numbers such that 100α – 199(β) = (100)(100) + (99)(101) + (98)(102) +.....+
(1)(199), then the slope of the line passing through (α,β) and origin is :

(A) 540
(B) 550
(C) 530
(D) 510
5)

The sum of all the 4-digit distinct numbers that can be formed with the digits 1, 2, 2 and 3 is:

(A) 26664
(B) 122664
(C) 122234
(D) 22264

6) Let x2 + y2 + Ax + By + C = 0 be a circle passing through (0, 6) and touching the parabola y = x2

at (2, 4). Then A + C is equal to______ .

(A) 16
(B) 88/5
(C) 72
(D) –8

7) f(x) = 4 loge(x – 1) –2x2 + 4x +5, x > 1, which one of the following is NOT correct ?

(A) f is increasing in (1, 2) and decreasing in (2,∞)

(B) f(x)= –1 has exactly two solutions
(C) f′(e) –f′′ (2) < 0
(D) f(x) = 0 has a root in the interval (e, e +1)

8) If x = x(y) is the solution of the differential equation ; then x(e) is

equal to :

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

9) If z ∈ C then area enclosed by the curve 2|z2 + |z|2| + 3|z2 – |z|2| = 6|z|, z ≠ 0 is
(Where C denotes set of complex number)

(A) 3 unit2
(B) 6 unit2
(C) 3p unit2
(D) 6p unit2

10) Let .Then is equal to:

(A) 10 loge 2 – 6
(B) 10 loge 2 + 6
(C) 5 loge 2 + 3
(D) 5 loge 2 – 3

11) A pair of dice is thrown 5 times. For each throw, a total of 5 is considered a success. If the

probability of at least 4 successes is , then k is equal to

(A) 82
(B) 123
(C) 164
(D) 75

12) If , then the ratio (n2 + 3n) : (n2 – 3n + 4) is

(A) 35: 16
(B) 65:37
(C) 27:11
(D) 2:1

13) Let A = [aij]2×2 where aij ≠ 0 for all i, j and A2 = I. Let a be the sum of all diagonal elements of A
and b = |A|, then 3a2 + 4b2 is equal to

(A) 7
(B) 14
(C) 3
(D) 4

14) If the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes 2x – y + z = 3,

4x– 3y +5z + 9 = 0 and parallel to the line is ax + by + cz + 6 = 0. then a + b

+ c is equal to

(A) 14
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 15

15) The sum of all the roots of the equation is:

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16) Let the position vectors of the points A, B, C and D

be and . Let the set The points A, B, C and D are coplanar}. Then

is equal to

(A) 41
(B) 25
(C) 13

(D)

17) Define a relation R over a class of n × n real matrices A and B as "ARB iff there exists a non-
singular matrix P such that PAP–1 = B". Then which of the following is true ?

(A) R is symmetric, transitive but not reflexive

(B) R is reflexive, symmetric but not transitive
(C) R is an equivalence relation
(D) R is reflexive, transitive but not symmetric

18) Let ƒ : R → R be a function defined as

If ƒ is continuous at x = 0, then the value of a + b is equal to :

(A)

(B) –2
(C) –3

(D)

19) Let the foci of a hyperbola H coincide with the foci of the ellipse E : and
the eccentricity of the hyperbola H be the reciprocal of the eccentricity of the ellipse E. If the length
of the transverse axis of H is α and the length of its conjugate axis is β, then 3α2 + 2β2 is equal to :

(A) 242
(B) 225
(C) 237
(D) 205

20) Two vertices of a triangle ABC are A(3, –1) and B (–2, 3), and its orthocentre is P(1, 1). If the
coordinates of the point C are (α, β) and the centre of the circle circumscribing the triangle PAB is
(h, k), then the value of (α + β) + 2 (h + k) equals :
(A) 51
(B) 81
(C) 5
(D) 15

SECTION-II

1) If the variance of the first n natural numbers is 10 and the variance of the first m even
natural numbers is 16, then m + n is equal to ________.

2)

If and , then the value of K is

3) The number of one-one function f : {a, b, c, d} → {0, 1, 2, … .,10} such that 2f(a) – f(b) + 3f(c) +
f(d) = 0 is _____ .

4) Let I be an identity matrix of order 2 × 2 and . Then the value of n ∈ N for which Pn
= 5I – 8P is equal to _______.

5) For a differentiable function f : IR → IR, suppose

f '(x) = 3f(x) + a, where a ∈ R, f(0) = 1 and
f (x) = 7. Then 9f (–loge3) is equal to______.
 ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. C A C D D B C B C B A A C A D C B B C B

SECTION-II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 12 10 242 2 5

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. C B B B B D D D C C D D B A C D D B C A

SECTION-II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 747 54 5 7 3

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. A B D B A A C A A A B D D A A A C D B C

SECTION-II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 18 4 31 6 61
 SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

1)

B = 3 × 1010

2)

Work done =
Work done = 0

3)

V = E – ir/2

1.2 = 1.5 – i

10i = 1.5 – 0.3

i = 0.12 A

4)
5)

6)

= 9.8 m

7)

T = Mω 2R
T = 80 N M = 0.1 ω=? R = 2m
80 = 0.1 ω2(2)
ω2 = 400
ω = 20
2πf = 20

8) Mg = qE

9)
WD = ΔKE
10)

11)

Considering sinusoidal AC.

Phase at maximum value

Phase at rms value =

Thus phase change

Now ω = 2πf
= 2π × 50
= 100 π

time taken t =
t = 2.5 × 10–3 = 2.5 ms

12)

= 2cm

13)
E=?

14) 24.7 eV

15)
= 176 MeV

16)

here, V1 > Vz , (Vz = Zener Voltage)

So, Zener breakdown will be take place
So, voltage across 400Ω will be 4V

17)

T = 400K
If efficiency increased by 100% then new efficiency ⇒ n’ = 50%

T' = 600 K
Increase in temp = 600 – 400
= 200 K or 200°C

18) Acceleration of point A = ω2R

Velocity of point A = ω(2R)
Therefore, Radius of curvature at A

19) At
20)

21)

0.056 kg N2 = 56 gm of N2 = 2 mole of N2
T1 = 400 K, so

f=5
Q = 12 k cal

22)

= 10

23)
 24)

....(1)

....(2)

25)
V = Ig(R + g)
30 = 0.006 (R + g)

R + G = 5000
⇒ G = 10Ω
IgG = (I – Ig)g
(.006)(10) = (1.494)(S)

S= ⇒∴n=5

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

26) C15 H30 + → 15CO2 + 15H2O

 Mass of fuel = 0.756 × 1000 g

No. of moles of fuel =

Wt. of oxygen = = 2592g

Wt. of CO2 = = 2376 g

27) Based on “n + l” rule only (B) has pair of electron in degenerate orbitals

28)

List – I List – II

(A) (III) dsp2

(B) (IV) sp3d2

(C) (I) sp3d

(D) (II) d2sp3

29) A(g) B(g) + C (g)

Initial : Pi 0 0

At eq.:
Now, equilibrium pressure (p) ,

P = Pi ×

30) H3PO3 → 2H+ + ; ΔrH = ?

+ –
2H + 2OH → 2H2O ;
ΔrH = –55.84 × 2 = –111.68
–106.68 = ΔionH – 55.84 × 2
ΔionH = 5 kJ/mol
31)

Correct answer is (D)

32)

Ce+4 and Tb+4 act as oxidising agent.

33) New Solution

Old Solution
34) (A) O > N > B > C.
(B) O > C > Li > B > N.
(C) 6th period & d-block.
(D) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In.

35)
(A) (B)
Two 3 centre – 2 – electron bonds
(C) B2 H6 is e– deficient species
(E) B2H6 is non – Planar molecule
(D) BF3 + LiAlH4 → 2B2H6 + 3LiF + 3AlF3
NaBH4 + I2 → B2H6 + 2NaI + H2

36)

Answer
37) The M-C π bond is formed by the donation of a pair electrons from a filled d orbital of
metal into the vacant antibonding π* of carbon monoxide.

38) DU = 9 –5 = 4

39) I . Better packing efficiency of monocarboxylic acids with even number of carbon atoms
results in higher M.P
II. As molar mass increases hydrophobic part size increase hence solubility decreases.

40) is a conjugated diketone

41)
42)

43) Cellulose contains β – glycosidic linkages only

44)

For 1st order reaction

45) Ni2+ + DMG– → [Ni (DMG)2] ↓

(Bright red precipitate)

46)

= –747 J/mol

47)
7.47= C × 0.083 × 300
C = 0.3 M
= 0.3 ×180 gL–1
= 54 gL–1

48)

Ecell =

0.576 = 0.34 –
+ 3.93
 49) X=1
Y=6

50)

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

51) ,

=
= – 1 – cotα
y' (α) = cosec2α

52) Using LMVT in [–7, –1]

f(–1) – f (–7) ≤ 12
⇒ f (–1) ≤ 9 ....(1)
Using LMVT in [–7, 0]

f(0) – f (–7) ≤ 14
f(0) ≤ 11 ....(2)
from (1) and (2)
f(0) + f (–1) ≤ 20

53)
use R1 → R1 + R2 + R3

⇒ (2 + 4sin2x)

54)

S = (100)(100) + + .....
...

α=3 β = 1650

slope

55)

Digits are 1, 2, 2, 3

total distinct numbers .

total numbers when
1 at unit place is 3.
2 at unit place is 6
3 at unit place is 3.
So, sum = (3 + 12 + 9) (103 + 102 + 10 + 1)
= (1111) × 24 = 26664

56)
is passing through (0,6)
⇒ 6B + C = – 36
The tangent of the parabola y = x2 at (2, 4) is
4x –y –4 = 0 .....(1)
The tangent of circle
at (2, 4) is
(4 + A) x + (8 + B)y + 2A + 4B +2C = 0 ....(2)
From Equation (1) and (2)

....(3)
....(4)
From equation (3) and (4)
A+ C = 16

57)

f(x) = 4 loge(x – 1) –2x2 + 4x +5, x > 1

For
For (option A is correct)
has two solution (option B is correct)

(option D is correct)

(option C is incorrect)

58)

I.f =

For x = 0, y = 1 ⇒ c = –e

59) 2|z2 + |z|2| + 3|z2 – |z|2| = 6|z|

2|z (z + )| + 3 |z(z – )| = 6|z|
2|z| |z + | + 3|z| |z – | = 6|z|
2|z + | + 3|z – | = 6
4|x| + 6|y| = 6

Area
2
⇒ 3 unit
60)

……..(1)

replace

……(2)

Eq. (1) × 5 – eq. (2) × 4

I= = 10 loge 2 – 6

61)

Probability of success = =p

Probability of failure

P(at least 4 success) = P (4 success) + P (5 success)

= =
k = 123

62)

⇒
n=8

So

63) Let

(1) (3)
(2) (4)
Equation (1) – equation (2)

Now 3a2 + 4b2

=

= 3.0 + 4

64) Equation of family of plane

(2x – y + z – 3) + λ (4x – 3y + 5z + 9) = 0
x (2 + 4λ) – y(1 + 3λ) + z(1 + 5λ) – 3 + 9λ = 0
Parallel to the line

5λ = 3

equation of plane
11x – 7y + 10z + 6 = 0
a + b + c = 14

65) For
x2 – 8x + 15 – 2x + 7 = 0

For 3 < x < 5, x2 – 8x + 15 + 2x – 7 = 0

x=4
Hence sum =

66)

Since A, B, C, D are coplanner

Hence

Hence

67) A and B are matrices of n × n order & ARB iff there exists a non singular matrix P(det(P)≠
0) such that PAP–1 = B
For reflexive
ARA ⇒ PAP–1 = A ...(1) must be true
for P = I, Eq.(1) is true so 'R' is reflexive
For symmetric
ARB ⇔ PAP–1 = B ...(1) is true
–1
for BRA iff PBP = A ...(2) must be true
∵ PAP–1 = B
P–1PAP–1 = P–1B
IAP–1P = P–1BP
A = P–1BP ...(3)
from (2) & (3) PBP–1 = P–1BP
can be true some P = P–1 ⇒ P2 = I (det(P) ≠ 0)
So 'R' is symmetric
For transitive
ARB ⇔ PAP–1 = B... is true
BRC ⇔ PBP–1 = C... is true
now PPAP–1P–1 = C
P2A(P2)–1 = C ⇒ ARC
So 'R' is transitive relation
⇒ Hence R is equivalence

68) ƒ(x) is continuous at x = 0

...(1)
ƒ(0) = b ...(2)

...(3)

...(4)
Use (2), (3) & (4) in (1)

⇒ , a = –2

a+b=

69)

e1 =
e2 = 2
F1 (6, 1), F2 (–4, 1)

2ae2 = 10 ⇒ a =
⇒α=5

4=1+

b=
b=5
3α2 + 2β2 = 3 × 25 + 2 × 25 × 3
= 225

70)

MAB = ⇒ MDP =

Equation of PC is y – 1 = .........(1)

MAP = ⇒ MBC = + 1
Equation of BC is y – 3 = (x + 2) .........(2)
On solving (1) and (2)

x+4= ⇒ 4x + 16 = 5x – 5 ⇒ a = 21
⇒ β = y = x + 5 = 26
α + β = 47
Equation of ⊥ bisector of AP
y – 0 = (x – 2) .........(3)
Equation of ⊥ bisector of AB

y–1= .........(4)
On solving (3) & (4)

(x – 3)4 = 5x –

x=

y=
⇒ 2(h + k) = –42

71) Variance of first 'n' natural numbers =

⇒ n = 11
and variance of first 'm' even natural numbers

=
m + n = 18

72)
Let x–5 + x–7 + 2 = t
(–5x–6 – 7x–8)dx = dt

73)

2f(a) + 3f(c) = f(d) – f(b)

Using fundamental principle of counting
Number of one-one function is 31

74)

⇒ = Pn
⇒n=6

75)

– 3y = a
If = = e–3x

∴ y – e–3x =

y e–3x =
(* e3x)
on substituting x = 0, y = 1
x → –∞, y = 7
we get y = 7 – 6e3x
9f(–loge3) = 61