23-06-2024

1016CMD303002240005 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) If momentum of a particle is given by

P = (4t2 – 2t) N-sec then find the force acting on it, at t = 1 sec :-

(1) 8 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 6 N
(4) – 2 N

2) For the given momentum-time (P – t) graph find ratio of force on particles A & B :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

3) A machine gun fire bullets of mass 20 gm each with the velocity of 500 m/sec. If average force is
exerted on the gun is 100 N, then find the no. of bullets fired per minute.

(1) 600
(2) 40
(3) 60
(4) 100

4) A force of 20N acts on a body of mass 5 kg for 5 seconds. The change in momentum is :-

(1) 50 kg–m/s
(2) 100 kg–m/s
(3) 200 kg–m/s
(4) 250 kg–m/s
5) A force-time graph for the motion of a body is shown in the figure. The
change in the momentum of the body between 0 to 10 sec. is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 4 kg m/s
(3) 5 kg m/s
(4) 3 kg m/s

6) A rocket having initial mass of 1000 kg burns fuel at a rate of 4 kg/sec. If the speed of the exhaust
gases relative to the rocket is 3000 m/s, find the initial acceleration of the rocket (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 10 m/s2
(2) 12 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2

7) Gravels are dropped on a conveyor belt at the rate of 0.5 kg/sec. The extra force required (in
newtons) to keep the belt moving at 2 m/sec is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 0.5

8) There are two bodies A & B of same mass body A is at rest while body B is under going uniform
motion which is correct statements :

(1) Inertia of A > inertia of B

(2) Inertia of B > inertia of A
(3) Inertia of A = inertia of B
(4) Either 1st, 2nd or 3rd depending upon the shape of body

9) Match the following :

List-I List-II

Gives the magnitude

(a) Newton's third law (i)
of force

Law of conservation
(b) Newton's first law (ii)
of momentum
 Defines inertia and
(c) Newton's second law (iii) gives the concept
of force
The correct option is :
(1) a → ii; b → iii; c → i
(2) a → iii; b → ii; c → i
(3) a → i; b → ii; c → iii
(4) a → ii; b → i; c → iii

10) The direction cosines of a vector are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The angle between the two vectors and will be :-

(1) 90°
(2) 0°
(3) 60°
(4) 45°

12) A vector is represented by . Its length in x-y plane is :-

(1) 2
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Position of a particle in rectangular co-ordinate system is (3, 2, 5). Then its position vector will
be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) A diwali rocket is ejecting 0.05 Kg of gases per second at a velocity of 400 m/s. The thrust force
on the rocket is :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 100 N

15) A player caught a ball of mass 150 gm moving at the rate of 20 m/s, if the catching process is
completed in 0.1 sec, then the force exerted by the ball on the hands of player is :-

(1) 0 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 30 N

16) A ball of mass 1 Kg hits a wall as shown in figure. Calculate the magnitude of change in

momentum of the ball ?

(1) 10 Kg m/s
(2) 5 Kg m/s
(3) 2 Kg m/s
(4) 20 Kg m/s

17) Find the value of normal reaction force on the block ?

(1) 50 N
(2) 70 N
(3) 85 N
(4) 100 N

18) Force-time graph for the motion of a body is shown in figure. If momentum of body at t = 0 sec is

2 Kg m/s, then find momentum at t = 4 sec ?

(1) 6 Kg m/s
(2) 4 Kg m/s
(3) 8 Kg m/s
(4) 9 Kg m/s

19) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 speed, then
average speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20)

A person travels along the path OAB, then average velocity of person in this trip :-

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 1 m/s
(4) 4 m/s

21) A truck travelling towards North with velocity 20 m/s turns East and travels at the same speed.
The change in its velocity is :-

(1) 20 m/s North-East

(2) 20 m/s South-East
(3) 40 m/s North-East

(4)
m/s North-West

22) The position x of a body changes with time t as x = at2 – bt3; find the time when its acceleration
is zero

(1)

(2) zero

(3)

(4)
23) A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of
the particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3. How long would the particle travel before coming
to rest ?

(1) 24 m
(2) 40 m
(3) 56 m
(4) 16 m

24)

A particle is moving on x-axis according to equation v = x2 + x. Then acceleration of the particle at x

= 2m is :

(1) 0 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 11 m/s2
(4) 30 m/s2

25) A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6 km with a speed of 2.5 km/h and walks back with a
constant speed by 4 km/h. His average speed for round trip expressed (in km/h) is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 8
(4) 4.8

26) Displacement of a particle is proportional to time to the power three. Magnitude of acceleration
for it :-

(1) Increases with time

(2) decrease with time
(3) constant but not zero
(4) zero

27) If velocity of particle is given by v = 2t + 3 where 't' is time. find average velocity for interval 0
≤ t ≤ 3 sec.

(1) 6 m/s
(2) 12 m/s
(3) 18 m/s
(4) 24 m/s

28) y = (x + a) (x – b) then, find ?

(1) 2x – b + a
(2) 2x + 1
(3) 2x
(4) None of these

29) If y = 3x2 + 6x + 10 then find slope at x = 0 ?

(1) Slope = 3
(2) Slope = 0
(3) Slope = 12
(4) Slope = 6

30) If find the sum of ∞ term ?

(1)

(2)

(3) ∞

(4)

31)

(1) e2 – e + 7/3
(2) e + 7/3
(3) e2 + e + 7/3
(4) e2 + e

32) Find the graph between velocity v/s time, if v = 2e2t :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

33) Find the value of log10 64 = ?

(1) 1
(2) 6
(3) 1.806
(4) 2.608

34) In the above question, find average acceleration from t = 0 to t = 4.

(1) 13 m/s2
(2) 14 m/s2
(3) 11 m/s2
(4) 10 m/s2

35) The displacement of a particle moving in a straight line is described by the relation S = 6 + 12t –
2t2. Here S is in meters and t is in second. The distance covered by the particle in first 5sec is :-

(1) 20m
(2) 32m
(3) 24m
(4) 26m

SECTION-B

1) A cricket ball of mass 250 g collides with a bat with velocity 10 m/s and returns with the same
speed within 0.01 second. The force acted on bat is :–

(1) 25 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 250 N
(4) 500 N

2) If = 2 and = 4, then match the relation in Column-I with the angle θ between and in
Column-II.

Column - I Column - II
 (p) =0 (i) θ = 0°

(q) =+8 (ii) θ = 90°

(r) =4 (iii) θ = 180°

(s) =–8 (iv) θ = 60°

Now, mark the correct choice from the given codes -
(1) p-ii, q-i, r-iv, s-iii
(2) p-iv, q-iii, r-i, s-ii
(3) p-i, q-iii, r-iv, s-ii
(4) p-iii, q-iv, r-i, s-ii

3) Statement-1: The minimum number of unequal non coplanar vectors whose sum can be zero is 4.
Statement-2: It is possible that the resultant of two vectors of unequal magnitude is zero.

Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and the statement 2 is the correct explanation of the
(1)
statement 1.
Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(4) Statement 1 and statement 2 both are false.

4) The torque of a force acting at the point is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) 100 coplanar forces each equal to 10 N act on a body. Each force makes angle with the
preceding force. What is the resultant of the forces.

(1) 1000 N
(2) 500 N
(3) 250 N
(4) Zero

6) A ball of mass 2 Kg dropped from 80 m height, strikes the ground and rebounds to a height of 5
m. If the time of contact between ball and ground is 0.4 sec, then find the average force by ground
on the ball ?

(1) 250 N
(2) 125 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 50 N
7) In the given figure. Find the value of contact force between 1 Kg and 2 Kg block ?

(1) 0 N
(2) 60 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 100 N

8) In which case displacement is least?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9)

A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by :-
s = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4 meters

The velocity when the acceleration is zero is :-

(1) 3 ms–1
(2) –12 ms–1
(3) 42 ms–1
(4) –9 ms–1

10) The x and y coordinates of a particle at any time t are given by

x = 7t + 4t2 and y = 5t
where x and y are in m and t in sec, then acceleration of the particle at 5 s is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 8 m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2
(4) 40 m/s2

11) Find the appropriate option from column-II for column-I, if position of a particle is described by x
= 3 + 8t – 4t2.

Column-I Column-II
(a) Initial acceleration (i) –16 unit
(b) Velocity at end of 3s (ii) 8 unit
(c) distance travelled in 2s (iii) 4 unit
(d) displacement at 1s (iv) –8 unit
(1) (a)-(iv) ; (b)-(iii) ; (c)-(ii) ; (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv) ; (b)-(i) ; (c)-(ii) ; (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii) ; (b)-(iii) ; (c)-(iv) ; (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(ii) ; (b)-(iii) ; (c)-(i) ; (d)-(iv)

12) A drunkard is walking along a straight road. He takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward,
followed by 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward and so on. Each step is one meter long and takes
one second. There is a pit on the road 13 meters away from the starting point. the drunkard will fall
into the pit after :

(1) 29 s
(2) 21 s
(3) 37s
(4) 31 s

13) Find the value of

(1) 0
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 2

14) Total distance covered by the particle in 10 sec :-

(1) 20 m
(2) 40 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 60 m
15) Position of a particle is given by x = t3+ t2 + t then, find average velocity from t = 0 to t = 4 :-

(1) 22 m/s
(2) 21 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 19 m/s

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following is an endothermic reaction ?

(1) N2 + O2 → 2NO
(2) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
(3) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O

(4)

2) 1.7 g NH3 is present in a vessel of 5L capacity then find out the active mass of NH3 gas :-

(1) 0.01 M
(2) 0.02 M
(3) 0.05 M
(4) 1 M

3) The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by

(1)

2
(2) [N2][H2O]

(3)

(4)

4) For the reaction, 2NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + 3H2(g) the unit of Kp will be :–

(1) atm
(2) (atm)3
(3) (atm)–2
(4) (atm)2

5) PCl5, PCl3 and Cl2 are at equilibrium at 500 K in a closed container and their concentrations
are 0.8 × 10–3 molL–1, 1.2 × 10–3 molL–1 and 1.2 × 10–3 molL–1 respectively. The value of Kc for the
reaction PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) will be:-

(1) 1.8 × 103 molL–1

(2) 1.8 × 10–3 molL–1
(3) 1.8 × 10–3 Lmol–1
(4) 0.55 × 104 molL–1

6) For which of the following reactions the numerical value of Kp and KC are the same ?

(1) H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g)

(2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
(3) 2NOCl(g) 2NO(g) + Cl2(g)
(4) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

7) For the reaction;

A(g) + 2B(g) 3C(g) + D(g); Kp = 0.05 atm at 1000 K. The value of Kc is represented by :-

(1) 5 × 10–5 R

(2)

(3) 5 × 10–4 R

(4)

8) The relationship between KC and KP is

KP = KC(RT)Δng

What would be the value of Δng for the reaction

NH4Cl(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + HCl(g)

(1) 1
(2) 0.5
(3) 1.5
(4) 2

9) Choose correct statement for following equilibrium at 300 K

H2(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ 2HCl(g) ; KC = 4.0 × 1031

(1) The reaction proceeds rarely

(2) The reaction proceeds nearly to completion
(3) Appreciable concentrations of H2, Cl2 and HCl are present
(4) At equilibrium [H2] >> [HCl]

10) On increasing temperature, the equilibrium constant of exothermic and endothermic reactions
respectively:-
(1) Increases and Decreases
(2) Decreases and Increases
(3) Increases and Increases
(4) Decreases and Decreases

11) For N2 + 3H2 2NH3 equilibrium constant is K, then equilibrium constant for 2N2 + 6H2 4NH3
is :-

(1)
(2) K2
(3) K/2
(4)

12) How these following equilibrium constants are related:-

(1) A(g) + 2B(g) C(g); Keq = K1
(2) C(g) + D(g) 3A(g); Keq = K2
(3) 6B(g) + D(g) 2C(g); Keq = K3

(1) K3 = 3K1K2
3
(2) K3 = K1 K2
3 2
(3) K3 = K1 K2
3
(4) K3 = K1K2

13) The number of atoms present in 16 g of oxygen gas is

(1) 6.02 × 1015

(2) 3.01 × 1023
(3) 3.01 × 1015
(4) 6.02 × 1023

14) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(P) 8 g of O2 (A) 2 mole

(Q) 4 g of H2 (B) 13 mole

(R) 52 g of He (C) 0.25 mole

(S) 35.5 g of Cl2 (D) 0.5 mole

Correct match will be :-

(1) P-C, Q-A, R-B, S-D
(2) P-C, Q-A, R-D, S-A
(3) P-D, Q-A, R-B, S-D
(4) P-B, Q-A, R-D, S-C
15) In a compound element A (Atomic weight = 12.5) is 25% and element B (Atomic weight = 37.5)
is 75% by weight. The Empirical formula of the compound is :

(1) AB
(2) A2B
(3) A2B2
(4) A2B3

16) 7.5 g of a gas occupy 5.6 L of volume at STP. The gas is

(1) CO2
(2) N2O
(3) CO
(4) NO

17) Calculate weight of CO2(g) produced from complete combustion of 2 moles of C3H8 :-
C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O

(1) 200 g
(2) 264 g
(3) 244 g
(4) 256 g

18) Calculate the molarity of NaOH in the solution prepared by dissolving its 0.4 g in water to make
solution of 500 ml.

(1) 0.02 M
(2) 2 M
(3) 0.2 M
(4) 0.002 M

19) Which of the following has maximum number of molecules?

(1) 7 gm N2
(2) 2 gm H2
(3) 16 gm NO2
(4) 16 gm O2

20) For a gaseous reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
If 20 mL of N2(g) completely react with H2(g) then find out volume of produced NH3(g) :-

(1) 40 mL
(2) 60 mL
(3) 20 mL
(4) 90 mL
21) If mol of O2 combine with Mg to form MgO. Find mass of Mg that has combined :
2Mg + O2 → 2MgO

(1) 72 g
(2) 36 g
(3) 24 g
(4) 96 g

22) Carbon is 40% by mass in a compound having molar mass 180 g/mol. What is the number of C-
atoms in one molecule of the compound ?

(1) 4
(2) 12
(3) 6
(4) 8

23) The elements which are cited as an example to prove the validity of mendeleev's periodic law are
:-

(1) Ga, Sc, Ge, I

(2) Ga, Cs, Ge, Tc
(3) Ga, Sc, Ge, Tc
(4) Ga, Tc, Ge, Mn

24) Which of the following is not a triad ?

(1) Fe, CO, Ni

(2) C, N, O
(3) Na, K, Rb
(4) All of these

25) The IUPAC name of the element which is placed after 106 in the periodic table, will be :-

(1) Unnilhexium
(2) Unnilunium
(3) Ununnilium
(4) Unnilseptium

26) Which of the following is a d-block element but not considered as a transition element ?

(1) Zn
(2) Mn
(3) Cr
(4) Mg
27) If an orbital can accomodate maximum 3e–, then number of elements in 4th period would be :-

(1) 18
(2) 27
(3) 36
(4) 45

28) The element with atomic number Z = 115 will be placed in :-

(1) 7th period, I A group

(2) 8th period, IVA group
(3) 7th period, VA group
(4) 6th period, VB group

29) Match the following Column-I (Element) to Column-II (Electronic configuration).

Column-I Column-II

(A) 3rd Alkali metal (P) 1s22s22p63s23p63d24s2

(B) 2nd Transition element (Q) 1s22s22p63s23p5

(C) 2nd Noble gas (R) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1

(D) 2nd Halogen element (S) 1s22s22p6

(1) (A)–(S); (B)–(R); (C)–(Q); (D)–(P)
(2) (A)–(S); (B)–(P); (C)–(R); (D)–(Q)
(3) (A)–(R); (B)–(Q); (C)–(P); (D)–(S)
(4) (A)–(R); (B)–(P); (C)–(S); (D)–(Q)

30) Zinc and copper have similarity in their -

(1) Group number

(2) Electronic configuration
(3) Number of electron present in their 'd' subshells
(4) Both are transition metals

31) Transition elements are -

(1) Alkali metals

(2) Metals of A - Subgroup
(3) Metals of P - Block
(4) Metals of B - Subgroup

32) The number of d-electrons in Fe+2 (Z = 26) is not equal to the number of electrons in which one
of the following ?

(1) p - electrons in Cl
(2) d - electrons in Fe
(3) p - electrons in Ne
(4) s - electrons in Mg

33) Be+2 is isoelectronic with which of the following ions ?

(1) H+
(2) Li+
(3) Na+
(4) Mg+2

34) Which of the following is an amphoteric hydroxide -

(1) Ba(OH)2
(2) Be(OH)2
(3) Mg(OH)2
(4) Ca(OH)2

35) Which of the following type of elements were introduced in Moseley periodic table :-

(1) Transition elements

(2) Transuranic elements
(3) Inert gases elements
(4) Lanthanides

SECTION-B

1) Statement -I : At equilibrium, rate of forward reaction is equal to rate of backward reaction.

Statement -II : It is due to static equilibrium that there is no change in concentration of various
species in reaction mixture.

(1) Both I and II statement is correct

(2) Both I and II statement is wrong
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

2) The value of Kb of a reversible reaction is 2 × 10–4 and the value of equilibrium constant Kc is 3.
Then find out the value of Kf :-

(1) 2 × 10–4
(2) 3 × 10–4
(3) 6 × 10–4
(4) 1 × 10–4

3) For the reaction H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI if volume is doubled at equilibrium then equilibrium constant will
be :-

(1) Doubled
(2) Halfed
(3) Becomes 4 times
(4) Does not change

4) For the reaction A(s) ⇌ 3B(g) + C(g) if concentration of B is doubled at equilibrium then
concentration of C becomes :-

(1) 8 times

(2)

(3) 4 times

(4)

5) For a reaction value of KC = 10–2, then what will be the value of KC for
:

(1) 104
(2) 1
(3) 10–4
(4) 2 × 10–2

6) Number of molecule in 5 ml volume of each of O2, H2 and N2 at STP are :-

(1) In the order H2 < N2 < O2

(2) In the order O2 < N2 < H2
(3) the same
(4) N2 = O2 < H2

7) 24 L of H2 and 22.4 L of Cl2 are mixed and exploded. The composition by volume of mixture is :-

(1) 0.8 L of H2(g) and 22.4 L HCl(g)

(2) 22.4 L HCl(g)
(3) 1.6 L Cl2(g) and 44.8 L HCl(g)
(4) 1.6 L H2(g) and 44.8 L HCl(g)

8) The mass of CO2 that shall be obtained by heating 10 kg of 80% pure lime stone (CaCO3) is:-

(1) 4.4 kg
(2) 6.6 kg
(3) 3.52 kg
(4) 8.8 kg
9) A compound is found to contain 24g C, 4g of H and 32g oxygen. It’s empirical formula is :-

(1) C2H4O2
(2) CH2O2
(3) C2H8O2
(4) CH2O

10) How many moles of NaCl are present in 5L of 0.5M NaCl solution :

(1) 5
(2) 1
(3) 2.5
(4) 25

11) Identify d-block element :

(1) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2

(2) [Xe] 4f14 5d1 6s2
(3) [Rn] 5f14 6d1 7s2
(4) All of above

12) Assertion :- Li and Mg show diagonal relationship.

Reason :- Li and Mg are diagonal to each other in the periodic table.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

13) Which two elements are in same period as well as same group of modern periodic table :-

(1) Z = 23, Z = 31
(2) Z = 65, Z = 66
(3) Z = 52, Z = 87
(4) Z = 58, Z = 46

14) The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1 what is the atomic
number of last element of the same group which is recently discovered.

(1) 20
(2) 119
(3) 111
(4) None

15) Which is the correct order of increasing energy of listed orbitals in the atom of titanium ?
(1) 3s 3p 4s 3d
(2) 3s 3p 3d 4s
(3) 3s 4s 3p 3d
(4) 4s 3s 3p 3d

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following statement is correct for monera ?

(1) Fungi are the sole members of monera kingdom.

(2) All members of kingdom monera are prokaryotes.
(3) They are the most abundant macro organism.
(4) Hundreds of bacteria are present in a cup of distilled water.

2) The main criterias for Five Kingdom classification used by R.H. Whittaker are :-
(A) Cell structure
(B) Thallus organization
(C) Mode of nutrition
(D) Reproduction
(E) Phylogenetic relationships

(1) Only (A), (B) & (D)

(2) Only (A), (B) & (E)
(3) Only (A), (C) & (D)
(4) All (A), (B), (C), (D) & (E)

3) The major ecological role of kingdom plantae, fungi and animalia respectively :-

(1) Decomposer, producer and consumer

(2) Producer, Decomposer and consumer
(3) Consumer, producer and decomposer
(4) Producer, consumer and decomposer

4) Bryopsida, Lycopsida and Sphenopsida are taxon of which rank :-

(1) Division
(2) Class
(3) Order
(4) Tribe

5) How many are the examples of species in the list given below ?
Angiosperms, Wheat, Rice, Lion, Animals, Dog, Cat, Mango, Reptiles, Amphibians, Man, Diptera,
Insecta, Convolvulaceae.
(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Four

6) Which of the following organisms are most closely related :-

(1) Organism that share a domain.

(2) Organism that share a family.
(3) Organism that share a genus.
(4) Organism that share a order.

7) How many of the followings are taxa ?

Dogs, Cats, Mammals, Wheat, Leaves, Three pairs of legs, Rice, Plants and Animals.

(1) Eight
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Nine

8) Find out one with repest to taxa belonging to different levels in hierarchy :-

(1) Lion, Tiger, Leopard

(2) Wheat, Monocots, Plants
(3) Felis, Panthera, Homo
(4) Dicotyledonae, Monocotyledonae

9) Some members are given here. They all belong to how many genus, species and kingdom.
Lion, Tiger, Potato, Brinjal, Mango, Wheat.

Genus Species Kingdom

(1) Four Six Two

(2) Five Four One

(3) Five Six Two

(4) Three Six Three

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) How many bacterial cells will be produced in 4 hrs, if the bacterium is dividing every 30 minutes
:-

(1) 256
(2) 128
(3) 512
(4) 64

11) In R.H. Whittaker classification, which kingdom have producer, decomposed and consumer :-

(1) Kingdom-monera
(2) Kingdom-protista
(3) Kingdom-fungi
(4) Kingdom-animalia

12) R.H. whittaker is famous for :-

(1) Two kingdom classification

(2) Three kingdom classification
(3) Five kingdom classification
(4) Four kingdom classification

13)

Carolus Linnaeus is credited for all except :-

(1) Coining the term systematics

(2) Giving binomial nomenclature
(3) Developing two kingdom system
(4) Using main criterion "mode of nutrition" for classifying the organisms

14) Statement-I :- Cytotaxonomy is based on cytological information like centromere number,

chromosome structure and centrosome behaviour.
Statement-II :- Chemotaxonomy is based on chemical constituents of plants like protein structure
and function.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

15) Which of the following true for wheat ?

(1) Order - poales, class - dicotyledonae

(2) Order - poales, class - monocotyledonae
(3) Order - sapindales, class - monocotyledonae
(4) Order - sapindales, class - dicotyledonae

16) Panthera leo and Canis familiaris belongs to same :-

(1) Species
(2) Genus
(3) Family
(4) Order

17) Read the following statements. Find out how many is/are correct.
(A) The order of housefly is primata
(B) Ernst Mayr proposed binomial system
(C) Aristotle is known as father plant and animal taxonomy
(D) Carolus Linnaeus wrote the book "Genera plantarum"
(E) Scientific name of human is Homo Sapiens.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

18) Read the following statements. Find out which are correct.
(A) Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are related and included in sapindales.
(B) Solanum, Petunia and Datura are placed in the family solanaceae
(C) Genera are aggregates of closely related species
(D) Sapindales and polymoniales are related so they are included in one class dicotyledonae

(1) A, B, C and D are correct

(2) A, C and D are correct
(3) A and D are correct
(4) B, C and D are correct

19) Find out incorrect statement.

(1) Linnaeus used 'systema naturae' as a title of his publication

(2) Protonema of moss is reproduce by fragmentation
(3) Growth from inside can not be taken as difining property
(4) Numerical classification is based on all observable characteristics

20) Anacardiaceae is :-

(1) Order of Mango

(2) Family of Wheat
(3) Family of Housefly
(4) Family of Mango

21) Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, Solanum melongena, Solanum nigrum, Panthera leo,
Panthera pardus, Panthera tegris, Canis familiaris, Triticum aestivum.
In the above given scientific name, how many are specific epithet and genera respectively.

(1) 5, 8
(2) 5, 9
(3) 9, 9
(4) 9, 5

22) Statement-I :- The sum total of all chemical reactions occuring in a living body is metabolism.
Statement-II :- In unicellular organism like bacteria, reproduction and growth are inclusive event.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both Statement are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

23) Read the following characters :

(a) Eukaryotic cell
(b) Have cell wall
(c) Nuclear member is present
(d) Body have loose tissue
(e) Mode of nutrition is heterotrophic
Above characters are belongs to :-

(1) Kingdom - Animalia

(2) Kingdom - Plantae
(3) Kingdom - Protista
(4) Kingdom - Fungi

24) Eubacteria, Diatom, BGA, Dinoflagellates, Mycoplasma, Slime moulds and Archaebacteria.
In given above organism, how many are belong to kingdom monera.

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 4
(4) 5

25) Read the following statements :-

(A) Bentham and Hooker wrote the "Genera Plantarum".
(B) In five kingdom classification viruses, viroids and lichens are not mentioned.
(C) As we go higher from species to kingdom, number of common characters increases
(D) Linnaeus gave the two kingdom classification
In the above statements, how many is/are incorrect.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

26) Identify incorrect statement from below :

(1) Phylum chordata is divided into 3-subphyla

(2) Subphyla urochordata and cephalo chordata often called as euchordata
(3) In urochordata notochord present only in larval tail
(4) Amphioxus is a cephalochordate

27) Which one of the following pairs of animals Comprises "Jawless fishes"?

(1) Rana and hag fishes

(2) Lampreys and Rohu
(3) Mackerels and Rohu
(4) Lampreys and hag fishes

28) Buoyancy in a fish body is maintained with the help of :-

(1) Streamlined body

(2) Paired fins
(3) Swim bladder / Air baldder
(4) All of the above

29) Operculum and air bladder are present in :-

(1) Clarias
(2) Pristis
(3) Trygon
(4) Carcharodon

30) Find correct match from below :

(1) Chondrichthyes - Poikilothermous

(2) Osteichthyes - Trygon
(3) Amphibia - Exocoetus
(4) Cyclostomata - Salamandar

31) Birds are not characterised by :-

(1) Fore limbs modified into wings

(2) Fully ossified endoskeleton
(3) Skin dry without glands
(4) Oviparous & external fertilisation

32) Which of the following set of animals has additional chambers, crop and gizzard, in their
alimentary canal?

(1) Struthio, Alligator, Rattus

(2) Struthio, Alligator, Rana
(3) Corvus, Columba, Psittacula
(4) Aptenodytes, Neophron, Salamandra
33) Amniotes include all except :-

(1) Amphians
(2) Reptiles
(3) Birds
(4) Mammals

34) Choose the incorrect match with respect to general characters.

(1) Amphibia - 3 chambered heart

(2) Mammalia - Hair on body
(3) Osteichthyes - Cartilaginous endoskeleton
(4) Amphibia - External fertilisation

35) Which cells get specialised for secretion and are called glandular epithelium :-

(1) Columnar
(2) Cuboidial
(3) Spherical
(4) Both (1) and (2)

SECTION-B

1) r–RNA is used as basis of classification in :-

(1) 5 kingdom system

(2) 3 kingdom system
(3) 4 kingdom system
(4) 3 domain system

2) Find the "C" from the shows figure :- Select the answer :-

(1) Chemosynthesis
(2) Photosynthesis
(3) Absorption
(4) Ingestion
3) In given diagram, identify the A, B, C & D :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

A B C D

(1) Coccus Spirillum Bacillus Vibrio

(2) Bacillus Spirillum Coccus Vibrio

(3) Coccus Bacillus Spirillum Vibrio

(4) Spirillum Vibrio Coccus Bacillus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Two plants x and y are different in morphological characters when correlated they should be :-

(1) One Taxonomic species

(2) One biological species
(3) Two taxonomic species
(4) Two biological species

5) Consider the following statements (A to D) :-

(A) Numerical taxonomy gives equal improtance to each character.
(B) Cytotaxonomy is based on cytological information like chromosome number, structure and
behaviour.
(C) At present phylogenetic classification systems, which are based on evolutionary relationship
between the various organisms are most accepted.
(D) Artifical classifications are based on a few characteristics.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Zero

6) The correct sequence of taxonomic category is:

(1) Division → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species
(2) Order → Division → Class → Family → Genus → Species
(3) Genus → Species → Family → Order → Class → Division
(4) Division → Order → Class → Family → Genus → Species

7) Which taxa is not associated with Mango ?

(1) Mangifera
(2) Muscidae
(3) Sapindales
(4) Dicotyledonae

8) What is scientific name of Pea ?

(1) Pinus sativum

(2) Triticum aestivum
(3) Solanum tuberosum
(4) Pisum sativum

9) Which one is correct for scientific name of mango ?

(1) Mangifera Indica Linn

(2) Mangifera indica Linn
(3) mangifera indica linn
(4) Mangifera indica Linn

10) (i) Classification is not a single step process but involves hierarchy of steps in which each step
represent a ___A____ or category.
(ii) Category is a part of overall taxonomic arrangement, it is called ____B____
(iii) All category together constitute the ____C_____
(iv) Each category, refered to as a unit of classification represent a rank and is commonly termed as
____D___.
Find out the A, B, C and D and choose the correct option :-

A - Rank, B - Taxonomic categories,

(1)
C - Taxonomic hierarchy, D - Taxon
A - Taxon, B - Taxonomic hierarchy,
(2)
C - Rank, D - Taxonomic categories
A - Taxonomic hierarchy, B - Rank,
(3)
C - Taxon, D - Taxonomic categories
A - Taxonomic categories, B - Taxon,
(4)
C - Taxonomic hierarchy, D - Rank

11) Statement I : Cyclostomata is a class of division Gnathostomata.

Statement II : Ganthostomata lacks jaw.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; statement-2 is a correct explanation for statement-1
 Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is False

12) Statement I : Pristis is a member of chondrichthyes.

Statement II : They have three pairs of gills which are covered by an operculum on each side.

(1) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True; statement-II is a correct explanation for statement-I
Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True ; statement-II is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
statement-I
(3) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is False
(4) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is True

13) Which of the following are not amphibians ?

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) B and C

14) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Amphioxus (1) Hag fish

(B) Petromyzon (2) Lamprey

(C) Trygon (3) Stingray

(D) Myxine (4) Ascidia

(5) Branchiostoma
Option:
(1) A-l B-5 C-2 D-4
(2) A-3 B-l C-2 D-5
(3) A-5 B-4 C-l D-2
(4) A-5 B-2 C-3 D-l

15) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) (1) Scoliodon

(B) (2) Pristis

(C) (3) Catla

(D) (4) Petromyzon

Option:
(1) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-l
(2) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-l
(3) A-l, B-3, C-4, D-2
(4) A-l, B-4, C-2, D-3

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following help to check substances from leaking across a tissue :-

(1) Tight junctions

(2) Adhering junctions
(3) Desmosomes
(4) Gap junctions

2) The stretching ability is found in following :

(1) All stratified epithelium

(2) Transitional epithelium
(3) Simple epithelium
(4) All of these

3) Air sac of alveoli is an example of following:

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium

(2) Simple squamous epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) Simple stratified epithelium

4) A connective tissue in which cells and fibres are loosely arranged in a semi fluid
ground substance, present below the skin, serve as a support framework for epithelium is called :-

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Spongy tissue
(3) Dense regular tissue
(4) Both (l) & (2)

5) Collagen and elastin fibres are secreted by which type of tissue cells ?

(1) Loose connective only

(2) Dense connective tissue only
(3) Fluid connective tissue only
(4) All connective tissue except blood

6) Among given below is not a function of Gap Junction ?

(1) Rapid transfer of ions

(2) To check leakage across tissue
(3) Connect cytoplasm of adjacent cells
(4) Facilitates communication between cells

7) When there is no air in initial bronchioles, they do not collapse. it is due to :-

(1) Presence of complete cartilagenous ring

(2) Presence of incomplete cartilagenous rings
(3) Presence of bony rings
(4) Presence of mucous

8)

Select the correct option for conducting system of respiratory system ?

(1) It is non collapsable part

(2) It is actual site for diffusion of oxygen and CO2 between blood and atmospheric air
(3) It cleans the air from foreign particles and humidifies
(4) Both 1 and 3

9)

Respiration result in ?

(1) Release of O2
(2) Anabolic reactions
(3) Transfer of CO2
(4) Release of CO2

10) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) The conducting part of the respiratory system transports the atmospheric air to alveoli
Conducting part of the respiratory system clears the air from foreign particles, humidifies and
(2)
brings it to the body temperature.
Exchange part of the respiratory system is the actual site at which O2 and CO2 exchange takes
(3)
place
(4) Trachea is present in mid-dorsal thoracic cavity, which divides at the 4 thoracic vertebra

11) A person suffers punctures in his chest cavity in an accident, without any damage to the lungs.
Its effect could be-

(1) Reduced breathing rate

(2) Rapid increase in breathing rate
(3) No change in respiration
(4) Cessation of breathing

12) Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing.

(1) Inspiration is a passive process whereas expiration is active

(2) Inspiration is a active process whereas expiration is passive
(3) Inspiration and expiration are active processes
(4) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes.

13)

Which of the following contains largest quantity of extracellular material ?

(1) Tendon
(2) Ligament
(3) Aereolar connective tissue
(4) Bones

14) By the contraction of EICM, rib and sternum shifts upwards and outwards to increase thoracic
volume in :-

(1) Anterio - Posterior axis

(2) Lateral sides only
(3) No change in thoracic volume
(4) Dorso-ventral axis

15) Select the correct statement from the following given statements ?
 Group of similar cells along with intracellular substance perform a specific function called
(1)
tissue.
(2) Complex organism like humans consist of only three types of tissue.
(3) Splitting of work exhibit the division of labour.
(4) Heart consist of all three types of tissues.

16) Non cellular layer that connects epithelial tissue to connective tissue is ?

(1) Basement membrane

(2) Epidermis
(3) Dermis
(4) Either (2) or (3)

17) Ptylin (salivary amylase) secreting glands cells have which type of epithelium ?

(1) Exocrine glandular epithelium

(2) Compound epithelium
(3) Endocrine glandular epithelium
(4) Columnar epithelium

18) Tissue which covers outside of body and also lines the organ like heart, vessels and cavities ?

(1) Connective tissue

(2) Epithelial tissue
(3) Blood
(4) Muscular tissue

19) Choose the incorrect match ?

(1) Annelida → Moist skin

(2) Insects → Tracheal tubes
(3) Tad pole → Buccopharangeal cavity
(4) Arachnida → Book lungs

20) Exchange zone (respiratory tree) include ?

(1) Respiratory branchiole

(2) Alveolar duct & atria
(3) Alveolar sac and alveoli
(4) All of above

21) The type of cartilage present in the epiglottis, pinna and tip of the nose is :-

(1) Elastic
(2) Hyaline
(3) Fibrous
(4) Calcified

22) Which of the following is division :-

(1) Acraniata
(2) Tetropoda
(3) Vertebrata
(4) Gnathostomata

23) In chordates, nerve chord is :-

(1) Dorsal, solid, double, tubular

(2) Ventral, hollow, single, cylindrical
(3) Ventral, solid, single, tubular
(4) Dorsal, hollow, single, tubular

24) Which among the following is Ist typical chordates animals :-

(1) Ascidia
(2) Branchiostoma
(3) Loligo
(4) Salpa

25) Choose how many statements are correct for cyclostomata :

(A) Elongated body without scales.
(B) Notochord and cartilaginous vertebral column both present.
(C) Petromyzon shows anadromous migration.
(D) 6-15 gills slits.
(E) Members are endoparasite in large fishes.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Five

26) How many of these are examples of cartilagenous fishes :-

Scoliodon, Trigon, Carcharodon, Exocoetus, Pristis, Torpedo

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) One

27) Select the wrong statement from following with respect to chondrichthyes :-

(1) Air bladder is absent.

(2) 5-7 pairs of gills slits without operculum.
(3) Notochord and vertebral column both present.
(4) Cycloid scales present.

28) Select the correct statement with respect to osteichthyes :-

(1) Exclusively marine.

(2) Cycloid, ctenoid and ganoid scales present.
(3) Gills are 3 pairs with operculum.
(4) Excretory material is urea.

29) Select the incorrect statement for amphibians from following :-

(1) They show hibernation and aestivation.

(2) Shows, Cutaneous, Bronchial and Buccopharygeal respiration.
(3) Skin is dry and cornified.
(4) Scales are absent.

30) Select the correct statement with respect to reptiles ?

(1) Skull is dicondylic with two-occipital bones.

(2) Ear pinna is present as external ear.
(3) Calotis, Hemidactylus, Naja, Vipera are reptiles.
(4) Scales are dermal in origin.

31) What are the two additional chambers that are present in digestive system of birds :-

(1) Mouth, Anus

(2) Buccaldiverticulum, Anus
(3) Crop, Gizzard
(4) Oesophagus, intestine

32) Which among the following is only class having all three middle ear ossicles :-

(1) Pisces
(2) Amphibian
(3) Mammalia
(4) Aves

33) Neither the trachea nor the bronchi contain :-

(1) Hyaline cartilage

(2) Goblet cells
(3) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(4) Simple squamous epithelium

34) How many types of tissue are present in heart of mammals. Select from the options :-
(1) Epithelial
(2) Nervous
(3) Muscular and connective
(4) All of these

35) Wall of intestine, gall bladder and PCT here what modification in their cells ?

(1) Stereocilia
(2) Cillia
(3) Microvilli
(4) Kinocilia

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following statement are correct about given figure? (a) Creeping
and crawling mode of locomotion
(b) Dry and cornified skin with epidermal scales or scutes.
(c) Oviparous with direct development.
(d) External ear opening absent.

(1) c and d only

(2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) all are correct

2) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) (1) Sturthio

(B) (2) Pavo

 (C) (3) Aptenodytes

(D) (4) Columba

(5) Psittacula

(6) Neophron
Option:
(1) A-5, B-4, C-6, D-l
(2) A-3, B-2, C-l, D-4
(3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-l
(4) A-5, B-2, C-6, D-l

3) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer.

Statement-A :- In birds air sacs connected to lungs supplement respiration.
Statement-B :- Air sacs are highly vascular structure and participate in gaseous exchange.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

4) The following features belong to

(A) Exoskeleton include hairs on body, horns and nail.
(B) Pinna is present.
(C) Heart is four chambered.
(D) Warm-blooded (homotherm).
(E) Thecodont and heterodont teeth

(1) Reptilians
(2) Aves
(3) Mammals
(4) Amphibians

5) Statement-I : Goblet cells is the example of unicellular glandular epithelium.

Statement-II : Exocrine gland secrete mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk, digestive enzymes.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement I is correct Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

6) Read the following four statements (A–D) :-

(A) Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment.
(B) Nervous tissue is ectodermal in origin
(C) Hollow organs are lined by ciliated epithelium
(D) Simple epithelium is composed of a single layer of cells.
How many of the above statements are correct.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

7) Which of the following is an example of dense connective tissue ?

(a) Tendons
(b) Areolar tissue
(c) Adipose tissue
(d) Ligaments
Options :-

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a and d
(4) a and c

8) Assertion : Bone has non pliable and solid matrix whereas cartilage has pliable matrix.
Reason : Bone has calcium salts in its matrix whereas cartilage has chondrotin salts in its matrix

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

9) Assertion : Tendons and ligaments are examples of dense regular tissue.

Reason : In tendon and ligament collagen fibres are present in rows between many parallel bundles
of fibres.

(1) Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) Read the following four statements A to D

(A) Power of regeneration is highest in epithelium tissue
(B) Basement membrane is secreted by both epithelial and muscular tissue.
(C) During embryonic development, epithelium originate first
(D) Blood circulation is abundant in epithelium tissue.
How many of the above statement are correct ?

(1) four
(2) one
(3) two
(4) three

11) How many characterstic feature given below are related to pleura.
(I) Double layered
(II) Fluid contained in it reduces the friction on the lung surface
(III) Its outer layer is in contact with thoracic wall
(IV) Its inner layer is in contact with lungs
Choose correct option.

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) III and IV
(4) All of these

12) Correct the order of the given steps of respiration mechanism as they occur in the human body.
(I) Breathing or pulmonary ventilation
(II) Diffusion across the alveolar membrane
(III) Transport of gases by blood
(IV) Utilization of O2 by cells
(V) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues
Choose the correct option

(1) I → II → III → IV → V
(2) I → II → III → V → IV
(3) I → III → II → IV → V
(4) I → V → III → IV → II

13) Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals ?

(1) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon

(2) Whales, Dolphins, Seals
(3) Trygon, Whales, Seals
(4) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks

14) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- Increase in intrapulmonary pressure above atmospheric pressure causing expulsion
of air during expiration.
Statement-II :- In expiration there is reduction in thoracic volume occurs.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-I is correct.
(3) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement-I and II are correct.

15) Which of the following is an incorrect match ?

(1) Doliolum - Urochordata - phylum

(2) Scoliodon - Pisces - superclass
(3) Bufo - Gnathostomata - division
(4) Myxine - cyclostomata - class
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 2 4 3 1 3 1 2 1 3 2 2 4 2 2 3 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 1 4 4 2 1 1 1 4 1 1 3 3 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 1 3 4 4 1 4 2 4 2 2 3 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 2 2 4 2 1 2 4 2 2 2 2 4 1 1 4 2 1 2 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 3 4 4 1 2 3 4 3 4 1 2 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 3 4 2 1 3 4 3 4 3 1 2 2 3 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 2 2 4 4 4 3 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 4 3 3 2 4 3 1 1 4 3 1 3 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 3 3 4 1 2 4 4 1 4 3 4 4 1

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 2 4 4 2 2 4 4 4 4 2 3 4 3 1 1 2 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 4 4 2 2 3 4 2 3 3 3 3 4 4 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 4 3 3 1 1 3 1 1 3 4 2 2 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
at t = 1 sec, F = 8 – 2 = 6 N

2)

3)

F = nmv
where n is no. of bullets per sec.
100 = n (20 × 10–3) × 500
⇒ n = 10 bullets per sec.
Bullets per minute = 10 × 60 = 600

4)

I = FΔt = 20 × 5 = 100 kg–m/s

5)

ΔP = area under the F-t graph

6) Fthrust =
Fthrust = 4 × 3000
Fthrust = 12000

7)

8) inertia mass

9) By theory
 10)

Direction cosines cos α = , cos β =

cos γ =
A= = =3

∴ cos α = , cos β = , cos γ =

11)

= 9 + 16 – 25 = 0
=0⇒
∴ θ = 90°

12) Length in x-y plane =

13)

14)

F= = 400 × 0.05 = 20 N

15)

F=

F= = 30 N

16)

ΔP = 2 mV cos 60° = 2 × 1 × 5 × 1/2

ΔP = 5 Kg m/s

17)

N + 60 sin 30° = 100

N = 100 – 30
N = 70 N

18)
ΔP = × 4 × 3 = 6
ΔP = Pf – Pi ⇒ Pf = 6 + 2 = 8 Kg m/s

19)

20)
Displacement = OB =

21)
m/s S - E

22)

x = at2 – bt3

if

2a – 6bt = 0

23) x = 40 + 12t – t3
t = 0, xi = 40
v = 12 – 3t2
v = 0 at t = 2
t = 2, xF = 56
Δx = 16m

24)

at x = 2m

25)

For equal distance

vavg = km/hr

26)

S = kt3

⇒a=
⇒a∝t

27)

vav =

= = 6 m/s

28) y = (x + a) (x – b)
y = x2 – xb + xa – ab

29) slope =
put x = 0
slope = 6

30)

31)

e2 – e + 7/3

33) log10 64 = log10 26 = 6 log10 2 = 6 × 0.301 = 1.806

 34)

35)

S = 6 + 12t – 2t2
V = 12 – 4t = 0
t=3
St=0 = 6
St=3 = 6 + 36 – 18 = 24
St=5 = 6 + 60 – 50 = 16
distance = 26m

36) Force = m = 25 × 20 = 500 N

37)

Given = 2 and =4
(p) = AB cosθ = 0 ⇒ 2×4 cosθ = 0
⇒ cosθ = 0 = cos90° ⇒ θ = 90°
Thus, option (p) matches with option (ii).
(q) = AB cosθ = 8 ⇒ 2×4 cosθ = 8
⇒ cosθ = 1 = cos 0° ⇒ θ = 0°
Thus, option (q) matches with option (i).
(r) = AB cosθ = 4 ⇒ 2×4 cosθ = 4

⇒ cosθ = = cos 60° ⇒ θ = 60°

Thus, option (r) matches with option (iv).
(s) = AB cosθ = –8 ⇒ 2×4 cosθ = –8
⇒ cosθ = –1 = cos 180° ⇒ θ = 180°
Thus, option (s) matches with option (iii).

38) Resultant of two vectors of unequal magnitude which is given by,

cannot be zero for any value of .

39)

40)
By theory of coplanar vectors.

41)

v1 = = –40 m/s
v2 = = +10 m/s

F= = 250 N

42)

a= = 20 m/s2
N12 = 5 × 20 = 100 N

43)

(1) AB = 2r (2) AB = r
(3) AB = r (4) AB = r

44) S = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4
v = 3t2 – 12t + 3
a = 6t – 12
a = 0 at t = 2 sec
(v)t=2 = – 9 m/s

45)

x = 7t + 4t2
velocity in x direction

=7+8t
acceleration
ax = 8 m/s2
y = 5t
velocity in y direction
vy = 5 m/s
acceleration
ay = 0
Net acceleration
a = axi + ayj
a = 8 m/s2

46) Position of particle, x = 3 + 8t – 4t2

Velocity of particle, v = 8 – 8t
acceleration of particle, a = – 8
Therefore,
Initial acceleration, a = – 8 unit
Velocity at the end of 3s,
v = 8 – 8 × 3 = –16unit
distance travelled in 2 seconds.
 = Distance in 1st second + Distance in 2nd second = 4 + 4 = 8 unit
Displacement in 1 second = 4 unit

47)

Let 1 cycle = 5 step forward & 3 step backwards

then
Net displacement in 1 cycle = (+5) + (–3) = +2m
Net displacement in 4 cycle = 8 m
So he will fall down in the pit after completing
4 cycles & 5 forward steps.
Total time = 4(5 + 3) + 5(1) = 37 sec.

48)
= log10 10 = 1

49)

distance = 40 + 20 = 60 m

50)

CHEMISTRY

53) NH4NO2(s) ⇌ N2(g) + 2H2O(g)

↑
Active mass = 1
By LOMA
Kc = [N2]1 [H2O]2

59)

NCERT(2022)-XI, Part-1, Pg # 205

62) Reaction (3) = reaction (1) × 3 + reaction (2)

K3 = K13 × K2

64) mole
 mole

69)

(1) 7g N2 =

(2) 2g H2 = =1

(3) 16g NO2 =

(4) 16g O2 =

70) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

1 ml N2 produces 2 ml NH3
20 ml N2 produces 40 ml NH3

85)

Inert gases elements were introduced in Moseley or modern periodic table.

86) Conceptual

89) Keq = [B]3 [C]

Keq does not change by changing the concentration so if (B) is doubled then keep Keqn same the

concentration. of (C) becomes times

90) Flip the reaction & multiply by 2.

93)

CaCO3(s) CO2(g) + CaO(s)

100 kg → 44 kg

→ = 3.52 kg

97)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 90

BIOLOGY-I

101) NCERT, Pg. # 12

 102)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 17

106)

NCERT, Pg. # 7

107) NCERT, Pg. # 5

108) NCERT, Pg. # 8

109) Pg. No. 6 & 7 - XI NCERT

111)

NCERT, Pg. # 11, 12

112) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 11

113)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 10, 4, 5

114)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 24

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 8

116)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 7

117)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 8, 6

118)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 7, 8

119)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 24

120)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 8

121)
NCERT XI, Pg. # 4

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 11

124)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 12, 13

125)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 8, 9, 11, 12

126)

NCERT, Pg. # 55

128)

NCERT, Pg. # 57

129)

NCERT, Pg. # 57

130)

NCERT, Pg. # 56

131)

NCERT, Pg. # 58

133)

NCERT, Pg. # 58-60

134)

Class XI, NCERT pg. no. 57 to 59

136)

NCERT Supliments

138)

NCERT XI Pg# 18, fig.-2.1

140)

NCERT XI (E/H) Page # 29, 30

142)
NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 11 (Table)

144)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 5

145)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 6

BIOLOGY-II

164)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 271

199)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 270-71