BIOTECHNOLOGY – I

90 questions: (ncert based)

SECTION A (30 questions)
1. Recombinant DNA technology is related with
a. C Darwin
b. Stanley Cohen
c. Herbert Boyer
d. Both b and c

2. Which of the following is related with genetic engineering?

D
a. Mutation

S
b. Heterosis

B
c. Plastid
d. Plasmid

3. Known sequence of DNA that is used to find complementary DNA

strands is
a. Recombinant DNA
b. Vector
c. DNA probe
d. Plasmid

4. Select the correct match

a. Endonucleases - Remove nucleotides from
the terminal ends
b. Exonucleases - Cleave DNA at any point
except the terminal end
c. Restriction endonucleases - Cut DNA duplex at
specific points
d. Ligases - Amplify DNA strands
5. Which of the following is a plasmid?
a. pBR 322
b. Bam H1
c. Sal I
d. EcoR I

6. During electrophoresis, charged molecules are separated under the

influence of
a. Electric field

D
b. Magnetic field

S
c. Electromagnetic field

B
d. Both a and b

7. EFB stands for

a. European federation of biomolecules
b. Europe fertilizer board
c. European federation of biotechnology
d. Environmental friendly biomolecules

8. In recombinant DNA technology, the term vector refers to

a. The enzyme that cuts DNA into fragments.
b. The stick end of a DNA fragments.
c. Marker.
d. A plasmid that transfers DNA into a living cell.

9. The technique in which micro-particles coated with foreign DNA

are bombarded into target cells at a very high velocity is
a. Microinjection.
b. Electroporation.
 c. Biolistic method.
d. Chemical mediated gene transfer.

10. Polymerase chain reaction is most useful in

a. DNA synthesis
b. DNA amplification
c. Protein synthesis
d. Amino acid synthesis

11. The technique of genetic engineering include

a. Creation of recombinant DNA
b.
c.
Gene cloning
Gene transfer
S D
d.

12.
All of the above
B
Plant cells can be converted to protoplasts by treating them
with
a. Cellulose.
a1
•

a + pectinase.
b. Cellulose
"
c. Cellulose+
a pectinase+ lipase.
ai
d. Cellulose+ pectinase+ lipase+ protease.

13. The polymerase chain reaction is a technique that

a. Is used for in vivo replication of DNA
b. Is used for in vivo replication of mRNA
c. Is used for in vitro synthesis of mRNA
d. Used for in vitro replication of specific DNA sequence using
thermo stable DNA polymerase.

14. Band pattern of DNA molecule can be studied by

 a. PCR
b. Gel electrophoresis
c. Denaturation
d. Electroporation

15. The enzyme restriction endonuclease

a. Joins the strands of DNA
b. Cuts double strands of DNA
c. Cuts single strand of DNA
d. Cuts RNA strand

16. During “gene cloning” which is called “gene taxi”?

a. Vaccine

D
b. Plasmid

S
c. Bacterium

B
d. Protozoa

17. Genetic engineering is

a. Plastic surgery
b. Addition or removal of genes
c. Study of extra nuclear genes
d. All of the above

18. EcoRI cut the DNA between the bases

a. G and T only
b. G and C only
c. A and T only
d. G and A only

19. First recombinant DNA was constructed in the year

 a. 1963
b. 1974
c. 1981
d. 1972

20. The technique of using live organisms or enzymes from

organisms to produce products and processes useful to humans are
called
a. Biopiracy
b. Biotechnology
c. Bioprospecting
d. Biomagnification

21. Nucleic acid is fragmented by enzyme

D
a. Ligases

S
b. Proteases

B
c. Nucleases
d. Polymerases

22. Selectable markers are present in

a. Vector
b. Host
c. Antibiotic resistance gene
d. Antibiotics

23. In the E coli cloning vector pBR 322, the number of

selectable marker is
a. 4
b. 2
c. 1
 d. 3

24. Ti plasmids transforms cells of

a. Animals
b. Plants
c. Bacteria
d. Fungi

25. While isolating DNA from the bacteria which of the

following enzyme is not used?

D
a. Ribonuclease

S
b. Deoxyribonuclease

B
c. Lysozyme
d. Protease

26. A recombinant DNA molecule can be produced in the

absence of the following
a. Restriction endonuclease
b. DNA ligase
c. DNA fragments
d. E coli

27. Find the correct match for the breaking of the cell wall during
isolation of genetic material in rDNA procedure.
a. Lysozyme- Fungus
b. Cellulose- Plant cell
c. Chitinase- Bacteria
d. All of the above

28. Polymerase chain reaction employs

 a. Primer and DNA ligase
b. DNA ligase only
c. DNA polymerase only
d. Primers and DNA polymerase

29. Bioreactors are used in

a. Separation and purification of a product
b. Microinjection
c. Processing of large volume of culture
d. Isolation of genetic material

30. For large scale production of recombinant product the most

commonly used bioreactors are of
a. Simple type
b. Stirring type

S D
B
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

SECTION B (30questions)

1. Which end of the gel the sample was loaded?

a. Opposite side of cathode slot
b. Opposite side of Anode slot
c. Inside of matrix
d. Both

2. in PCR, DNA is amplified about 109 times, when cycle is repeated

by
a. 30 times
b. 1 time
 c. 1 billion times
d. 1 million times

3. Purified DNA ultimately precipitate out after the addition of

chilled ethanol. This DNA that separates out can be removed by
a. Electrophoresis
b. PCR
c. Down streaming process
d. Spooling

4. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed by temperature.

They are in order of
a. Denaturation, synthesis, annealing.
b. Annealing, synthesis, denaturation.
c. Synthesis, annealing, denaturation
d. Denaturation, annealing, synthesis.

5. The most extensively used bacteria in genetic engineering is

D
a. Bacillus

S
b. Clostridium

B
c. Escherichia
d. Salmonella

6. Match column I with column II, and choose the correct

combination from the options given below.

Column I column II
A. Hind II 1. Recognition sequence
B. PBR322 2. Restriction enzyme
C. GAATTC 3. Antibiotic resistance gene
 D. ampR 4. Cloning vector

A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 1 2 3 4

7. Consider the following two statements and select the correct

options.
Statement I: The convention for naming the restriction enzymes is
the first letter of the name comes from the genes and the second
two letters come from the species of the prokaryotic cell from
which they were isolated.
Statement II: In EcoRI, the letter „R‟ is derived from the order.

a. Both I and II are correct and II explains I

b.
c.
Both I and II are correct and II does not explain I
Statement I is true and statement II is false
S D
d. Both statements I and II are false

8. Match column I with column II, and choose the correct

B
combination from the options given below.

Column I column II
A. Biolistic 1. Animal cell
B. Microinjection 2. Bacterial cell
C. T- DNA 3. Plant cell
D. Heat shock 4. Agrobacterium
 A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 1 2 3 4

9. Which one of the following equipment‟s is essentially required for

growing microbes on a large scale, for industrial production of
enzymes?

D
a. Sludge digester

S
b. Industrial oven

B
c. Bioreactor
d. BOD incubator

10. What is the role of stain in DNA separation technique?

a. Act as matrix
b. For easy separation of DNA
c. For the moment of DNA
d. For the visibility of DNA

11. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is

known as
a. Vector
b. Plasmid
c. Structural gene
d. Selectable marker

12. How many PCR cycle take part for obtaining 16 DNA
molecules from one DNA template molecule?
a. 4
 b. 32
c. 16
d. 30

13. In DNA recombinant technology the vector plasmid means

a. Sticky ends of DNA
b. A virus that transfers gene to bacteria
c. Extra chromosomal autonomously replicating circular DNA
d. Any fragments of DNA carrying desirable gene

14. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmid?

D
a. Transferable

S
b. Single stranded

B
c. Independent replication
d. Circular structure

15. Why Agrobacterium tumifaciens used as a vector for plants

in genetic engineering?
a. It is an artificial genetic engineer
b. It is easy carrier vector
c. It is a natural genetic engineer
d. Both b and c

16. The commonly used selectable markers in genetic

engineering are
a. Proteins
b. Enzymes
c. Antibiotics
d. Antibodies
17. Specific metal micro particles used in genetic engineering for
the
a. Bombardment of desired gene into host animal
b. Bombardment of desired gene into host bacteria
c. Bombardment of desired gene into host plant
d. Bombardment of desired gene into host virus

18. For ensuring the proper/luxuriant growth of desired modified

organism in large quantity with minimum time, which type of
condition/method is preferred
a. Aerobic condition ensuring in a cultural vessel
b. Anaerobic condition ensuring in a cultural vessel
c. Simple stirred-tank bioreactor
d. Stirred-tank bioreactor through which sterile air bubbles

D
are sparged

19. The following figure shows

B S

a. Slicing process
b. Splicing process
c. Spooling process
d. Eluting process
20. Which among the following part of bioreactor ensures the
withdrawal of sample culture periodically?
a. An agitator system
b. An oxygen delivery system
c. Foam control system
S D
21.
d. Sampling ports
B
Assertion (A) Modern biotechnology using genetically
modified organisms.
Reason (R) It was made possible only when man learnt to alter the
chemistry of DNA and construct recombinant DNA.

a. Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. Both A and R are false

22. Assertion (A) Biotechnology deals with large scale

production and marketing of products by
Reason (R) Processes using live organisms, cells or enzymes.

a. Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. Both A and R are false

23. Arrange the order of the key process of recombinant DNA

technology or genetic engineering.
A. Purification of the gene product, i.e., the functional protein.
B. Finally making a suitable formulation for marketing.
 C. To isolate and ferry the foreign DNA into host organisms.

a. A B C
b. C B A
c. C A B
d. B A B

24. In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid during

transformation because,
a. DNA is hydrophilic molecule

D
b. DNA is hydrophobic molecule

S
c. DNA is lipophilic molecule

B
d. Both b and c

25. The bacterial cells must be made „competent‟ to take up

DNA because,
A. DNA is lipophilic molecule
B. It cannot pass through cell membranes
C. DNA is lipophobic molecule
D. It can pass through cell membranes

a. Both A and B
b. Both B and C
c. Both C and D
d. Both A and D

26. The efficiency of DNA enters into the bacterium through

pores, this is done by treating them with a specific concentration of
a…A…cation such as…B…

a. A- Monovalent, B- Chlorine
b. A- Divalent, B- Chlorine
c. A- Monovalent, B- Calcium
d. A- Divalent, B- Calcium
27. Select the correct order, after the competent of host cell for
the transformation with recombinant DNA.
A. Again the cell putting back on ice.
B. Placing them briefly at 420C (heat shock)
C. Incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on ice

a. A B C
b. C B A
c.
d.
C A B
B A B
S D
28.
B
Select the correct order of processes of recombinant DNA
technology.
A. Insertion of Recombinant DNA into the Host Cell/Organism
B. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
C. Isolation & cutting of DNA at Specific Locations
D. Obtaining the Foreign Gene Product

a. A B C D
b. C B A D
c. C A B D
d. B A B D

29. The processes of recombinant DNA technology commonly

called
a. Hybridization technique
b. Down streaming process
c. Buildup process
d. Up streaming process

30. The functional protein and finally making a suitable

formulation for marketing from product to product known as
 a. Hybridization technique
b. Down streaming process
c. Buildup process
d. Up streaming process

Section C (30 questions)

1. In bacteria (Escherichia coli) the activity of restriction enzyme

itself-prevented by

D
a. Origin of replication.

S
b. Antibiotic sites of DNA.

B
c. Methyl group of DNA.
d. Both a and c

2. Which among the following enzyme restricted the growth of

bacteriophage in Escherichia coli?
a. Ligase
b. Alkaline phosphatase
c. Restriction endonuclease
d. Polymerase

3. Which among the following statements are incorrect relate with

the action of restriction endonuclease?
a. It functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
b. It binds to the DNA only its specific recognition site.
c. It cuts two strands at specific points of sugar phosphate back
bones.
d. These actions take place in DNA, only with the absence of
palindromic sequence.
4. Which among the following statements are correct?
A. Restriction enzyme belongs to the class exonucleases.
B. RE cut the strand of DNA far away from the center of
palindromic sequences.
C. The cutting takes place in DNA, between the same two bases on
the same strands.
D. Sticky ends form hydrogen bonds with their complementary cut
counterparts.

S D
a. 1 b. 3 c. 2
B d. All statements are correct.

5. Read the following portion and fill the correct sequences

Restriction enzymes cut the palindromic sequence and leaves
….A…. portions at the ends. These are overhanging ends on each
stand form ….B….with their….C….cut counterparts.

a. A- Double stranded, B- phospho ester bonds, C- anti

complementary.
b. A- Single stranded, B- phospho diester bonds, C- anti
complementary.
c. A- Single stranded, B- hydrogen bonds, C- complementary.
d. A- Double stranded, B- phospho diester linkage, C-
complementary.

6. Which among the following option satisfy the formation of

recombinant DNA in genetic engineering?
a. The use of same restriction enzyme provide the different kind of
„sticky-ends‟; these can be joined to form „recombinant‟
molecules of DNA, using DNA ligases.
 b. The use of same restriction enzyme provide the same kind of
‘sticky-ends’; these can be joined to form ‘recombinant’
molecules of DNA, using DNA ligases.
c. The use of different restriction enzyme provide the same kind of
„sticky-ends‟; these can be joined to form „recombinant‟
molecules of DNA, using DNA ligases.
d. The use of different restriction enzyme provide the different
kind of „sticky-ends‟; these can be joined to form „recombinant‟
molecules of DNA, using DNA ligases.

7. Assertion (A) Hind II, its function depends on a specific DNA

nucleotide sequence.
Reason (R) Its specific sequence has eight base pairs.

a. Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. Both A and R are false
S D
8. Which among the following statements are correct?
A. Hind II cuts the DNA at specific sequence have 8 bp
B
palindromes.
B. This specific sequence known as the non-recognition sequence.
C. Each restriction enzyme has more than one recognition sites.
D. At present we know more than 900 REs, over 280 strains.

a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. All statements are correct.

 Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the

following questions (9-16), which are related with the first
 instance of the construction of an artificial hybrid genome
molecule.

Cut an antibiotic resistant gene from a bacterium, it was

accomplished by two scientists in 1972. The cutting of genetic
material with the help of a specific enzyme. The cut piece of DNA
was then linked with a specific vector. The linking of desire gene
with the vector became possible with another enzyme. This makes
a new combination of circular autonomous replicating DNA. When
this DNA is transferred into bacterium (host).

9. First isolated native plasmid which encodes an antibiotic resistant

D
gene from

S
a. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella typhimurium.
c. Bacillus subtilis
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

10.
B
The first instance of the construction of an artificial
recombinant DNA molecule was done by
a. Stanley Cohen
b. H G Khorana
c. Herbert Boyer
d. Both a and c

11. The cutting of specific sites of genetic material with the help
of
a. Exonucleases
b. Endonucleases
c. Nucleases
d. Restriction endonucleases

12. The desired gene is linked with a specific vector, it is

commonly
 a. Chromosome
b. Protein
c. Ribosomes
d. Plasmid DNA

13. The linking of desire gene with the vector is possible with an
enzyme called
a. Endonucleases
b. Polymerases
c. Lysing enzymes
d. Ligases

14. Select the correct order of recombinant DNA technology.

D
I. Transformation.

S
II. Cloning.

B
III. Ligation.
IV. Slicing.

a. IV III II I

b. I II III IV
c. IV III I II
d. II I IV III

15. The new combination of circular autonomous replicating

DNA after ligation known as
a. Recombinant DNA
b. Chimeric DNA
c. Hybrid DNA
d. All of the above
16. The newly formed alter genome is transferred into a bacteria,
a. Bacillus subtilis
b. Thiobacillus
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Escherichia coli

17. The branch in which the formation of hybrid DNA by

ligating different source of genes, known as
a. Biotechnology
b. Genetic engineering
S D
B
c. Chemical engineering
d. rDNA technology

18. Select the pattern of cutting which takes place in the

following palindromic sequence by a specific restriction enzyme.
5' —— GAATTC —— 3'
3' —— CTTAAG —— 5'

a. 5' —— GAA……TTC —— 3' - BamHI

3' —— CTT……AAG —— 5'

b. 5' —— G……AATTC —— 3' - EcoRII

3' —— CTTAA……G —— 5'

c. 5' —— GA……ATTC —— 3' - HindIII

3' —— CTTA……AG —— 5'

d. 5' —— G……AATTC —— 3' - EcoRI

3' —— CTTAA……G —— 5'
19. Which among the number following statements satisfied
the term ‘origin of replication’?
A. A piece of alien DNA would not be able to multiply if the
absence of this site.
B. Alien DNA gets integrated and inherited along with the host
DNA.
C. This is because the alien piece of DNA becomes the part of
host DNA/ chromosome.
D. This is responsible for initiating replication.

a. 2 statements

S D
B
b. 1 statements
c. 4 statements
d. 3 statements
20. The manufacturing of antibiotics, vaccines, enzymes, [Link]
large quantities accompanied by
A. Maintenance of sterile (microbial contamination-free)
ambience.
B. It enables the growth of only the desired
microbe/eukaryotic cell.

a. Both A and B are true, B is not the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and B are true, B is the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but B is false.
d. Both A and B are false

21. What are the limitations which overcome genetic engineering

over traditional hybridization?
a. Opportunities for variations and formulation.
b. Trite combinations of genetic setup.
c. Preserves the genetic information.
d. The use of only desired genes.
22. Arrange the basic steps in genetically modifying an
organism.

(i) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the

DNA to its progeny.
(ii) Identification of DNA with desirable genes.
(iii) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host.

a.
b.
i  ii  iii
iii ii  i
S D
B
c. ii iii i
d. ii i iii

23. A- Unless one cuts the vector and the source DNA with the
same restriction enzyme, B- the recombinant vector molecule
cannot be created.

a. Both A and B are true, B is not the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and B are true, B is the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but B is false.
d. Both A and B are false

 The following questions (24- 30) are related with the technique
of separation and isolation of DNA fragments. Read each
question carefully and select the appropriate answer.

24. The cutting of DNA by…A… results in the fragments can be

separated by a technique known as…B...
a. A- Restriction endonucleases, B- Chromatography.
b. A- Restriction exonucleases, B- Chromatography.
c. A- Restriction exonucleases, B-Gel electrophoresis.
d. A- Restriction endonucleases, B-Gel electrophoresis.
25. DNA fragments are …A…molecules they can be separated
by forcing them to move towards the …B... under an electric field
through a…C...
a. A- Positively charged, B- anode, C- matrix.
b. A- Negatively charged, B- cathode, C- matrix.
c. A- Negatively charged, B- anode, C- non matrix.
d. A- Negatively charged, B- anode, C- matrix.

26. During separation and isolation of DNA fragments agarose

D
gel provide

S
a. Electric effect
b. Centrifugal effect
c. Sieving effect
d. Both a and c

27.
B
The commonly used matrix in DNA separation technique is
…A… gel which is a …B... polymer extracted from …C...

a. A- Carrageen, B- natural, C- sea weeds.

b. A- Algin, B- artificial, C- land weeds.
c. A- Agarose, B- natural, C- sea weeds.
d. A- Agarose, B- artificial, C- sea weeds.

28. The DNA fragments resolve according to their …A…

through a medium, the …B...the fragment size, the farther it
moves.

a. A- Size, B- larger.
b. A- Charge, B- smaller.
c. A- Size, B- smaller.
d. A- Charge, B- larger.

29. A student can try to separate DNA fragments in his

experimental lab, after it, he try to visualize the separated
 fragments. Which among the following options are he followed to
visualize the fragments.

a. He can see pure DNA fragments in the UV light without

staining.
b. He cannot see pure DNA fragments in the UV light with
staining.
c. He can see pure DNA fragments in the visible light with
staining.
d. He can see pure DNA fragments in the UV light with
staining.

30. The following figure is the technique (electrophoresis) to

separate fragments of genetic material, and which is commonly
used in rDNA technology.

S D
B
In this technique, the lane 1 and lane (2-4) shows the migration of,

a. Digested and undigested RNA fragments.

b. Digested and undigested DNA fragments.
c. Undigested and digested RNA fragments.
d. Undigested and digested DNA fragments.