IBRAIN

BUILDS YOUR CONFIDIENCE

Test / Exam Name: Ch 9 Standard: 12th Science Subject: Biology

Student Name: Section: Roll No.:
Questions: 244 Time: 03:00 hh:mm Marks: 522

Q1. Given below are the steps carried out to construct a recombinant DNA. Which one of the following gives the correct sequence of these steps? 1 Mark
1. Isolation of genetic material
2. Insertion of recombinant DNA in the host cell/ organism
3. Obtaining the foreign gene product
4. Amplification of gene of interest
5. Downstream processing

A (i) → (iii) → (iv) → (ii) → (v) B (i) → (iv) → (ii) → (iii) → (v)
C (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (iv) → (v) D (ii) → (iv) → (v) → (iii) → (i)
Ans: B (i) → (iv) → (ii) → (iii) → (v)
Q2. The organism used in construction of the first artificial recombinant DNA by Cohen and Boyer in 1972 was: 1 Mark
A E. coli. B Salmonella typhimurium
C Agrobacterium tumefaciens D Bacillus thuringiensis
Ans: B Salmonella typhimurium
Q3. A recombinant DNA molecule can be produced in the absence of the following. 1 Mark
A DNA fragments. B DNA ligase. C [Link].
Ans: C [Link].
Q4. DNA finger-printing refers to: 1 Mark
A Molecular analysis or profiles of DNA samples. B Analysis of DNA samples using imprint- ing device.
C Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA. D Techniques used for identification of finger prints of individuals.
Ans: A Molecular analysis or profiles of DNA samples.
Q5. A bacterial cell was transformed with a recombinant DNA that was generated using a human gene. However, the transformed cells did not produce the desired 1 Mark
protein. Reasons could be:
A Human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot process. B Amino acid codons for humans and bacteria are different.
C Human protein is formed but degraded by bacteria. D All of the above.
Ans: A Human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot process.
Explanation:
Any nucleotide sequence in a gene that is removed by RNA splicing during maturation of final RNA product is called intron. Intron can be different in different
organisms.
Q6. A bioreactor is a _______: 1 Mark
A Fermentation tank B Culture containing radioactive isotopes
C Culture for synthesis of new chemicals D Hybridoma
Ans: A Fermentation tank
Explanation:
The bioreactor is a fermentation tank that allows microorganisms to ferment the media and undergo growth. Bioreactors are considered as vessels in which raw
materials are biologically converted into specific products by microbes, plant and animal cells, or their enzymes.
Q7. What is true about DNA polymerase used in PCR? 1 Mark
A It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells. B It serves as selectable marker.
C It is isolated from a virus. D It is active at high temperature.
Ans: D It is active at high temperature.
Explanation:
DNA polymerase enzyme is an essential component for PCR due to its key role in synthesizing new DNA strands. Taq DNA polymerase ( synthesized from the
thermophilic bacteria Thermus aquaticus) is the most common enzyme used for PCR amplification. This enzyme is extremely heat resistant with a half-life of 40
minutes at 95°C.
Q8. Which of the following has revolutionized the discipline of biotechnology ___________________: 1 Mark
A Restriction endonucleases B Discovery of DNA structure
C Recombinant DNA D All of the above
Ans: D All of the above
Explanation:
Restriction endonucleases have been helpful to cut DNA at specific size and join our DNA of interest to get a recombinant DNA. Also the structure of DNA
revolutionized the whole knoeldge about biotechnology.
Q9. GMO technology is useful for: 1 Mark
A Making crop more tolerant to abiotic stresses. B Making crop more tolerant to abiotic stresses.
C Enhancing nutritional value of food. D All the above.
Ans: D All the above.
Q10. Selective markers in plasmids are used to: 1 Mark
A Identify cancer cellsI B dentify antibiotics
C Identify recombinants from non recombinants D None of these
Ans: C Identify recombinants from non recombinants
Explanation:
Due to the presence of the selective marker, the plasmid becomes useful for the cell. Under the selective conditions, only cells that contain plasmids with the
appropriate selectable marker can survive. Thus it helps in identifying the recombinants from non-recombinants.
Q11. What are GMOs? 1 Mark
A Genetically modified organisms B Gross modified organisms
C Genetically multiplied organisms D All of the above
Ans: A Genetically modified organisms
Explanation:
Plants, animals or micro organisms that have changed through genetic engineering are termed genetically modified organisms or GMOs. Bacteria were the first
organisms to be genetically modified.
Q12. Stirred-tank bioreactors have advantages over shake flasks because they _______________: 1 Mark
A Provide high temperature and pH B Provide better aeration and mixing properties
C Do not allow the entry of CO2​ D Are easy to operate
Ans: B Provide better aeration and mixing properties
Explanation:
Stirred-tank bioreactor is used for processing large volumes of culture. It is a cylindrical tank with a curved base to facilitate the mixing of the reactor contents. The
stirrer facilitates even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor.
Q13. The first Nif genes were isolated from __________________: 1 Mark
A Klebsiella aerogenes B Klebsiella oxytoa C Klebsiella pneumonia D Klebsiella granulonatis
Ans: C Klebsiella pneumonia
Explanation:
Solution: The first nif gene for nitrogen fixation was isolated from Klebsiella pneumonia.
Q14. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for? 1 Mark
A Availability of Oxygen throughout the processA B ddition of preservatives to the product
C Purification of the product D Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
Ans: A Availability of Oxygen throughout the processA
Explanation:
Stirred tank bioreactor is a reactor that consists of the propeller, the mixer and the reactor. In this system, impeller or mixer is used to mix the required atmospheric
oxygen into the aqueous phase and maximizing the interfacial area between the gaseous and aqueous phases for large production of biomass.
Q15. The genetic defect adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by: 1 Mark
A Introducing bone marrow cells producing (ADA) into cells at an early B Administrating adenosine deaminase activators.
embryonic stages.
C Enzyme replacement therapy. D None of these.
Ans: A Introducing bone marrow cells producing (ADA) into cells at an early embryonic stages.
Q16. A doctor while operating on an HIV(+)ve patient accidentally cuts himself with a scalpel. Suspecting himself to have contracted the virus which test will he take to 1 Mark
rule out/confirm his suspicion?
A PCR B Routine urine examination
C TLC D DLC
Ans: A PCR
Explanation:
Very low count of bacteria or viruses (when the symptoms of the disease are not yet visible) can be detected by multiplication of their nucleic acid by PCR, (PCR
can detect very low amounts of DNA). PCR is usually used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
Q17. Select the incorrect Statement regarding DNA replication with respect to the template strand: 1 Mark
A Leading strand is formed in 5 → 3 direction. B Okazaki fragments are formed in 5 → 3 direction.
C DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation in 5 → 3 direction. D DNA polymerase catalyses palymerisation in 3 → 5 direction.
Ans: C DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation in 5 → 3 direction.
Explanation:
Since DNA polymerase requires a free 3' OH group for initiation of synthesis, it can synthesize in only one direction by extending the 3' end of the preexisting
nucleotide chain. Hence, DNA polymerasemoves along the template strand in a 3'–5' direction, and the daughter strand is formed in a 5'–3' direction.
Q18. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Special methods are used for transformation i.e., incorporation of recombinant DNA into molecule.
Reason: DNA is a hydrophilic molecule.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q19. Which scientist obtained interferon through recombinant DNA technology? 1 Mark
A Kohler and Milstein B Charles Weismann C Nathans and Smith D Maurice Wilkins
Ans: B Charles Weismann
Explanation:
Interferons are the glycoproteins that are secreted by a host cell to serve as signalling molecules. They block the multiplication of viruses in the cells by inducing
the immune response of the neighbouring cell. Engineered interferons are used in medicines to treat cancer and other diseases. Charles Weissmann clone the
human interferon a genes and produce interferon in bacteria.
Q20. Gray biotechnology is referred to as: 1 Mark
A Medical process B Industrial process C Agricultural process D Aquatic process
Ans: B Industrial process
Explanation:
White (also called gray) biotechnology involves industrial processes such as the production of new chemicals or the development of new fuels for vehicles, the use
of cells, natural organisms and bio-organic compounds to synthesize materials, instead of petrochemicals or substitution of enzymes for caustic reagents.
Q21. A device in which large volume of living cells are cultured in order to get a specific product is called: 1 Mark
A PCR B Agitator C Bioreactor D Assimilator
Ans: C Bioreactor
Explanation:
A bioreactor is a device in which large volumes (100-1000 litres) of living cells are cultured to get a specific product.
These are the vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted to specific products.
It provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing optimum growth conditions such as pH, substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen content
and enzymes.
Q22. A recombinant DNA molecule can be produced in the absence of the following: 1 Mark
A Restriction endonuclease. B DNA ligase.
C DNA fragments. D [Link].
Ans: D [Link].
Explanation:
Genetic engineering or r-DNA technology can be accomplished only if we have the key tools:
Restriction enzymes.
Polymerase enzymes.
Ligases.
Vectors.
Host organism.
Q23. Utility of fungi for steroid conversion was demonstrated by: 1 Mark
A Pasteur and Jaubert B Kohler and Milstein C Murray and Peterson D Waksman and Woodruff
Ans: C Murray and Peterson
Explanation:
The introduction of oxygen into a steroid molecule by means of Mucorales fungi has been described by Murray and Peterson. They suggested that Rhizopus
stolonifer is capable of hydroxylation, necessary for steroid synthesis.
Q24. Blood stain component to be used for DNA profiling technique is: 1 Mark
A Serum B Leucocytes C Platelets D Erythrocytes
Ans: B Leucocytes
Explanation:
B. leucocytes leucocytes are the only components that have nucleus. Platelets and erythrocytes do not have nucleus. Serum is the solute and solvent component
of blood that does not contain clotting elements and cellular components. The leucocytes are used for the DNA profiling by the DNA isolated from the leucocyte
nucleus.
Q25. The first clinical application of gene therapy over a 4 year old girl was for: 1 Mark
A The first clinical application of gene therapy. B Adenosine deficiency.
C None of these.
Ans: A The first clinical application of gene therapy.
Q26. Science of engineering and technology which is applied to life sciences is: 1 Mark
A Biotechnology B Genetic engineering C Pathology D Conchology
Ans: A Biotechnology
Explanation:
Biotechnology is the science of engineering and technology for industrial and other purposes, especially the genetic manipulation of microorganisms for the
production of antibiotics, hormones, etc.
Bioengineering is the application of the principles of engineering and natural sciences to tissues, cells and molecules. It improves the functions of plants and
animals.
Q27. Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants? 1 Mark
A Agrobacterium tumefaciens. B Penicillium expansum.
C Trichoderma harzianum. D Meloidogyne incognita.
Ans: A Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
Q28. Biotechnology is use of: 1 Mark
A Industries B Microorganisms C Plants D Chemicals
Ans: B Microorganisms
Explanation:
Biotechnology is the use of biological processes, microorganisms, or systems to manufacture products intended to improve the quality of human life.
The earliest biotechnologists were farmers who developed improved species of plants and animals by cross pollination or cross breeding.
Q29. Scaling up in biotechnology means: 1 Mark
A Development of a process in laboratory B Development of a laboratory scale plant for obtaining a product
C Conversion of laboratory scale process to pilot plant scale D Conversion of a laboratory scale plant to manufacturing unit
Ans: D Conversion of a laboratory scale plant to manufacturing unit
Explanation:
Scaling up is the process of expanding a process from small scale to a larger scale. So, here scaling up is defined as the conversion of a laboratory scale plant into
a manufacturing unit.
Q30. Central drug research institute is situated at: 1 Mark
A Lucknow B Madras C Mumbai D Delhi
Ans: A Lucknow
Explanation:
Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is one of the first laboratories established after independence in the year 1951. It is a multidisciplinary institute that works
on synthesis, screening, development studies and clinical studies among others. It has developed around 12 drugs of which, Arteether (Brand name=E-mal) active
against falciparum malaria and Centchroman (Brand name=Sah, a birth control contraceptive pill are developed.
Q31. What is it that forms the basis of DNA Fin- gerprinting? 1 Mark
A The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva. B The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints.
C S ate llite DNA occur r ing a s highly repeated short DNA segments. D The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA.
Ans: C S ate llite DNA occur r ing a s highly repeated short DNA segments.
Q32. Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals because: 1 Mark
A Recombinant genes can be inserted into plant cells by microinjection B A somatic plant cell can grow into a complete plant
C More vectors are available for transferring recombinant DNA into plant cells D Plant genes do not contain introns
Ans: B A somatic plant cell can grow into a complete plant
Explanation:
Plants have the ability to grow into a complete plant from a single cell. While animals are only produced by their species and reproduction. Hence, they are more
readily manipulated by genetic engineering than an animal.
Q33. Lal Bahadur Shastri biotechnological centre is in: 1 Mark
A Bombay B Calcutta C Delhi D Kanpur
Ans: C Delhi
Explanation:
Lal Bahadur Shastri biotechnological centre is also known as 'National Research Centre on Plant Biotechnology' is in Delhi.
It is a prominent organization dedicated to research and innovations in molecular biology and biotechnology.
Q34. Rising of dough is due to: 1 Mark
A Emulsification. B Hydrolysis of wheat flour starch into sugars.
C Production of CO2. D Multiplication of yeast.
Ans: C Production of CO2.
Q35. After completion of the biosynthetic stage in the bioreactors, the product undergoes separation and purification processes, collectively termed as _______________: 1 Mark
A Transformation B Electrophoresis C Downstream processing D Upstream processing
Ans: C Downstream processing
Explanation:
After the formation of the product in bioreactors, it undergoes through some processes before a finished product is ready for marketing. The processes include
separation and purification of products which is collectively called as downstream processing.
Q36. Plasmid is: 1 Mark
 A Fragment of DNA which acts as vector. B A fragment which joins two genes.
C mRNA which acts as carrier. D Autotrophic fragment.
Ans: A Fragment of DNA which acts as vector.
Q37. p DNA is used in biotechnology of ________________: 1 Mark
A Protein synthesis B Gene splicing C Residual DNA D Recombinant DNA
Ans: A Protein synthesis
Q38. Which of the following statements is not true for stirred tank fermentation? 1 Mark
A Buffer needed to control B Batch and feed possible
C Control dissolved oxygen D Easy in process sampling
Ans: C Control dissolved oxygen
Explanation:
Stirred tank fermenter bioreactors (STBRs) are the reactors most widely employed for culturing of biological agents such as cells, enzymes, or antibodies. They are
contractors where the well-mixed among phases is obtained mainly by internal mechanical agitation. It does not control dissolved oxygen.
Q39. Reaction of 1989 was: 1 Mark
A Nicking by restriction endonucleases B Polymerase chain reaction
C Reverse genetics D Splicing
Ans: B Polymerase chain reaction
Explanation:
In 1985 Norm Arnheim, also a member of the development team concluded his sabbatical at Cetus and assumed an academic position at USC. He began to
investigate the use of PCR to amplify samples containing just a single copy of the target sequence. By 1989 his lab developed multiplex-PCR on single sperm to
directly analyze the products of meiotic recombination.
Q40. In which field, application of biotechnology occurs? 1 Mark
A Bio-medicine B Agriculture C Environmetal field D All of these
Ans: D All of these
Explanation:
Application of biotechnology occurs in agriculture, biomedicine and environmental field.
Q41. For transformation with recombinant DNA, the bacterial cells must first be made ‘competent’ which means: 1 Mark
A Should increase their metabolic reactions. B Should decrease their metabolic reactions.
C Increase efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium. D Ability to divide fast.
Ans: C Increase efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium.
Q42. At which of the following stage after fermentation, the desired product is screened and purified? 1 Mark
A Up stream processing B Screening C Down stream processing D Batch-culture
Ans: C Down stream processing
Explanation:
Downstream Processing is the recovery and purification of biochemical products with proper treatment. It is a series of events which includes
cell separation, filtration, product recovery, extraction of product and purification and then treatment of product by chemical, physical and biological means.
Q43. The most important feature in a plasmid to be used as a vector is: 1 Mark
A Origin of replication (ori). B Presence of a selectable marker.
C Presence of sites for restriction endonuclease. D Its size.
Ans: A Origin of replication (ori).
Explanation:
Origin of replication is a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells.
This sequence is also responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA. So, if one wants to recover many copies of the target DNA it should be cloned
in a vector whose origin support high copy number.
Q44. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as 1 Mark
given below.
Assertion: DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in specific regions of DNA sequence.
Reason: DNA fingerprinting is the basis of paternity testing.
A Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of B Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
assertion. of assertion.
C Assertion is true but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: B Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called as repetitive DNA, because in these sequences, a small stretch
of DNA is repeated many times. These sequences normally do not code for any proteins, but they form a large portion of human genome. These sequence show
high degree of polymorphism and form the basis of DNA fingerprinting. As the polymorphisms are inheritable from parents to children, DNA fingerprinting is the
basis of paternity testing in case of disputes.
Q45. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: A gene from Bacillus thuringiensis is incorporated in plant genome to increase yield.
Reason: It is Bt toxin producing gene which kills larvae of insects.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q46. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Plasmids are single-stranded extra chromosomal DNA.
Reason: Plasmids are usually present in eukaryotic cells.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q47. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: “DNA finger printing” has become a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases.
Reason: Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva and dried semen are adequate for DNA analysis.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q48. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Restriction endonucleases are also called 'molecular scissors'
Reason: When fragments generated by restriction endonucleases are mixed, they join together due to their sticky ends.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q49. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Foreign DNA and vector DNA cut with the help of ligase.
Reason: Ligase act on sugar phosphate backbone of DNA.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false.
Q50. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: The uptake of DNA during transformation is an active, energy requiring process.
Reason: Transformation occurs in only those bacteria, which possess the enzymatic machinery involved in the active uptake and recombination.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q51. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: All expression vectors are cloning vectors and vice versa.
Reason: Expression vectors have at least the regulatory sequences i.e., promoters, operators, ribosomal binding sites, etc. having optimum function in the chosen
control but not origin of replication.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q52. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is popular in genetic engineering because this bacterium is associated with roots of all cereals and pulse crops.
Reason: A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets automatically transferred to the crop with which the bacterium is associated.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false.
Q53. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Recognition site should be preferably single and responsive to commonly used restriction enzyme.
Reason: In pBR322 alien DNA is ligated generally in the area of Bam-HI site of tetracycline resistance gene.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q54. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: A bacterial cell with no restriction enzymes will be easily infected and lysed by bacteriophages.
Reason: Restriciton enymes catalyse synthesis of protective coat around bacterial cell that prevents bacteriophage attack.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q55. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Interferons are effective against viruses
Reason: Proteins which can be synthesized only by genetic engineering are effective against viruses.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q56. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Genetic engineering requires both nucleases and ligases.
Reason: Ligases produce the nick in the recombinant DNA molecule.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q57. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: The matrix used in gel electroph- oresis should have controllable pore size.
Reason: Agarose concentration can be changed to change pore sizes.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q58. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: PCR primers must not have self complementary regions.
Reason: Self comeplementary regions result in hairpin structures adversly affecting the PCR.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q59. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: In a chemical engineering process, it is necessary to prepare sterile ambience.
Reason: Sterile ambience inhibits the growth of undesirable microbes during manufacture of products like antibiotics, vaccines and enzymes.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q60. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: A piece of DNA inserted into an alien organism generally does not replicate if not inserted into a chromosome.
Reason: Chromosomes have specific sequences called 'ori' region where DNA replication is initiated
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q61. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Enzyme application in industry is enhanced by its immobilization.
Reason: Immobilization provides protection to enzymes without affecting their activity
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q62. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as 1 Mark
given below.
Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).
Reason: Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge populations which express the desired gene.
A Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of B Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
assertion. of assertion.
C Assertion is true but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: A Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
In recombinant DNA technology, widely used host for replication and amplification of recombinant DNA are prokaryotic E. coli and the eukaryotic yeast. They
replicate very fast to form a large population which expressed desired gene. Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) are important cloning tools for the analysis of
complex genome such as that of humans. They allow the maintenance, propagation and analysis of such genome in an experimentally tractable system, the yeast.
Q63. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria or yeast.
Reason: The selected vectors multiply very fast to form huge population which can express the desired gene.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q64. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are separated.
Reason: DNA is negatively charged, so it moves towards anode under electric field.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q65. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Ethidium bromide (EtBr) under UV radiation gives bright orange coloured bands.
Reason: The separated DNA fragments can be seen after staining the DNA with compound EtBr.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q66. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Origin of replication is an essential part of a vector.
Reason: Ori is responsible for initiating replication.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q67. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA.
Reason: Plasmids are found in bacteria and are useful in genetic engineering.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q68. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Genetic engineering can overcome the drawbacks of traditional hybridization.
Reason: Genetic engineering can create desired DNA sequences to meet specific requirements.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q69. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Asexual reproduction is more important with regard to biotechnology.
Reason: Asexual reproduction preserves the genetic information while sexual reproduction permits variations.
 A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q70. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Use of chitinase enzyme is necessary for isolation of DNA from yeast cells but not in case of Spirogyra.
Reason: Fungal cell wall is made up of fungal cellulose or chitin.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q71. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).
Reason: Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population which express the desired gene.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q72. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Electroporation uses electric pulses for making competent host.
Reason: The electrical pulses induce transient pores in the plasmalemma through which DNA molecules are incorporated.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q73. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Restriction digestion is a process of cutting DNA by restriction enzyme.
Reason: DNA ligase joins two DNAs.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q74. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Superbug gas been biopatented on name of Prof. A Chakrabarty.
Reason: Superbug was created by him with exceptional degradative plasmid to degrade toxic substances.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q75. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Biotechnology deals with techniques that use living organism to produce products useful for humans.
Reason: Biotechnology uses only a unicellular organism.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q76. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA to produce sticky ends.
Reason: Stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q77. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Downstream processing is generally considerd more difficult and costlier in plants than that in microbes.
Reason: Rhizosecretion is used as a method to facilitate easier recoveryof recombinant proteins from plants.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q78. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: All GM organisms are rich in chimeric DNA (rDNA).
Reason: Chimeric DNA constitutes genes of two different organisms.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q79. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Extraction and purification of enzymes is laborious and expensive.
Reason: Protein engineering can be used to produce enzymes at large scale.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q80. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Clones are produced by sexual reproduction.
Reason: These are prepared by group of cells descended from many cells or by inbreeding of a heterozygous line.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
 C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false.
Q81. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a pathogen of several monocot plants.
Reason: Retroviruses in plants have ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cell.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false.
Q82. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Insertion of recombinant DNA within the coding sequence of β-galactosidase results in colourless colonies.
Reason: Presence of insert results in inactivation of enzyme β-galactosidase known as insertional inactivation.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q83. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Restriction enzymes Hind II and Hpa are produced from two different genera of bacteria.
Reason: Hind II is produced from Haemophilus while Hpa is produce from Hematococcus.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false.
Q84. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Ori is a sequence from where replication starts.
Reason: A prokaryotic DNA has a single origin of replication.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q85. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: One application of genetic engineering is the production of human insulin by microbes.
Reason: Gene for production of human insuling can be transferred to Escherichia coli by recombinant DNA technique.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q86. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: The antibodies separted from serum are homogenous.
Reason: Monoclonal antibodies are homogenous immunological reagents.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false.
Q87. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Maintenance of sterile environment is essential for manufacture of biotechnological products.
Reason: This is to enable growth of only desired products.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q88. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Plasmids are tools of genetic engineering
Reason: Virculence plasmids provide pathogenicity to bacteria.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q89. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Phagemid vector is made of plasmid and bacteriophage.
Reason: These vectors accomodate 300-350 kb of foreign DNA.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q90. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Restriction enzymes of different organisms that r ecognize the identical sequences are called isoschizomers.
Reason: They are present only in eukaryotes.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q91. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: [Link] having pBR322 with DNA insert at BamHI site cannot grow in medium containing tetracycline.
Reason: Recognition site for Bam HI is present in tetr region of pBR322
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q92. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Restriction enzymes recognize palindromic sequence.
Reason: Palindromic sequences read same in both directions of the two strands.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q93. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: All endonuclease cut DNA at specific sites.
Reason: Endonucleases are found in viruses.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false.
Q94. Downstream processing involves separation and ______. 1 Mark

Ans:Downstream processing involves separation and purification.

Q95. Illustrate the design of a bioreactor. Highlight the difference between a flask in your laboratory and a bioreactor which allows cells to grow in a continuous culture 6 Marks
system.

Ans:Small volume cultures cannot yield appreciable quantities of products. To produce in large quantities, the development of bioreactors, where large volumes (100-
1000 litres) of culture can be processed, was required. Thus, bioreactors can be thought of as vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into
specific products, individual enzymes, etc., using microbial plant, animal or human cells. A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired
product by providing optimum growth conditions (temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen).

Structure of Bioreactor:
It is a cylindrical structure with a curved base.
A stirrer is present for even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the reactor.
There is an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system, a foam control system, a temperature control system, etc.
There is a sampling port through which small volumes of culture can be taken out periodically.
A flask in a laboratory cannot be used for producing recombinant DNA on large scale. Unlike a bioreactor; a flask cannot be used to grow culture continuously.
Difference:

Flask Bioreactor
Flask is used to small laboratory sc
i. i. Bioreactor is used for commercial scale production.
ale testing of a culture.
The cells harbouring cloned genes The cells can also be multiplied in a continuous culture system wherein the used medium is drained out from one side while
i i
of interest may be grown on a smal fresh medium is added from the other to maintain the cells in their physiologically most active log/ exponential phase. This t
i. i.
l scale in the laboratory. ype of culturing method produces a larger biomass leading to higher yields of desired protein.
ii Small volume cultures cannot yield ii To produce in large quantities, the development of bioreactors, where large volumes (100–1000 litres) of culture can be proc
i. appreciable quantities of products. i. essed, was required.

Q96. Development of recombinant DNA technology has opened gates to many breakthroughs in the fields of medicine and agriculture. This has enabled scientists to 5 Marks
isolate, sequence and manipulate individual genes obtained from diverse living or dead cells. Given below is a diagram showing the basic steps involved in
genetically modifying an organism. Study the given diagram and answer the questions that follow:

1. Are two different types of restriction endonucleases used, one to cut the vector DNA and another to cut the desired DNA to be cloned? Support your answer,
giving reason.
2. Which enzyme is used at step (X) to integrate the foreign DNA with the vector DNA?
3. What is the term used for step (Y) showing multiple copies of the foreign DNA being formed in transformed E. coli?
4. Draw a diagram of E. coli cloning vector pBR322 to show the following:
Any one restriction endonuclease site in tetracycline resistance gene.
Any one restriction endonuclease site in ampicillin resistance gene.
 ‘ori’ site
5. What does “rop” code for in plasmid pBR322?

Ans:1.
No
Cut with same restriction endonuclease to obtain complementary sticky ends / to obtain DNA fragments with same kind of sticky ends (which can be joined
together end to end).
2. DNA ligase
3. Cloning / Host Cloning / Gene Cloning.

BamH1 or SalI
Pvul or Pst1
Ori
4. Codes for the proteins involved in replication of the plasmid.
Q97. 1. Plan an experiment and prepare a flow chart of the steps that you would follow to ensure that the seeds are formed only from the desired sets of pollen grains. 5 Marks
Name the type of experiment that you carried out.
2. Write the importance of such experiments.

Ans:1. Selection of flowers from desired plants → emasculation → bagging → dusting of the pollens on the stigma of the flowers that were bagged → flower
rebagged → fruit formed.
Artificial Hybridisation.
2. Production of superior/improved varieties of plants.
Q98. 1. Name the type of DNA that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting and mention two features of this DNA. 5 Marks
2. Write the steps carried out in the process of DNA fingerprinting technique, and mention its application.

Ans:1. Satellite DNA/ repetitive DNA.

These sequences normally do not code for any proteins, these sequence show high degree of polymorphism.
2.
1. Isolation of DNA.
2. Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases.
3. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.
4. Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes such as nitrocellulose or nylon.
5. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.
6. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.
Application Forensic science/ determining population and genetic diversities/ paternity test.
Q99. 1. Explain the different steps carried out in Polymerase Chain Reaction, and the specific roles of the enzymes used. 5 Marks
2. Mention application of PCR in the field of:
1. Biotechnology.
2. Diagnostics.

Ans:1.
Enzyme DNA polymerase/ Taq polymerase, the enzyme extends the primers using nucleotide provided in the reaction.
2.
1. Multiple copy of gene of interest can be made in vitro/ gene amplification.
2. Early detection of disease at a time when the symptoms are not yet visible/ or the toxin is in low concentration/ used to detect mutations in genes in suspected
cancer patients/ a powerful technique to identify many other genetic disorders.
Q100. Explain the role of lactose as an inducer in a lac operon. 5 Marks

Ans:Lactose/inducer binds with repressor protein, inactivates it, frees operator gene, RNA polymerase freely move over structural genes/RNA polymerase access to the
promoter, transcribing to, lac mRNA, which on translation, produce transacetylase, permease, β galactosidase.

Q101. Gene of interest/alien gene is introduced by a cloning vector into a host cell to bring about a desired phenotypic expression in a host cell. The cloning vectors used 5 Marks
are plasmid and bacteriophages. Biotechnologists in their labs, for desired results engineered specialised cloning vectors. One such vector is pBR322. Study the
diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow.
 1. What do ‘EcoR I, ‘BamH I and ‘Hind III’ represent ? State their functions.
2. Identify the gene you would select for the role of a selectable marker in pBR322. Explain why.
3. Write the property/characteristic of plasmid and bacteriophage that makes them efficient cloning vectors.
4. Biotechnologists always insert ‘ori’ gene in their engineered cloning vector. Justify the statement.
5. Will the experiment be successful if the alien DNA is ligated at Hind III restriction site?

Ans:1. All are restriction endonucleases.

act as a molecular scissors/ cut at a specific site within DNA.
2. R amp/ R tet, help in identification and selection of transformants from non-transformants/ identification of recombinant from non recombinant.
3. Have the ability to replicate within bacterial cells independent of the control of chromosomal DNA/ Autonomously replicating/ bacteriophages and some bacteria
have high copy number per cell, can replicate the desirable gene into large number of copies, presence of selectable marker, presence of cloning sites,
presence of ori.
4. No, identification and selection of transformants from nontransformants/ identification of recombinant from non recombinant would not be possible.
Q102. Study the schematic representation of the genes involved in the lac operon given below and answer the questions that follow: 5 Marks

pipozya

1. Identify and name the regulatory gene in this operon. Explain its role in ‘switching off’ the operon.
2. Why is the lac operon’s regulation referred to as negative regulation?
3. Name the inducer molecule and the products of the genes ‘z’ and ‘y’ of the operon. Write the functions of these gene products.

Ans:1. ‘i’ gene, produces repressor that binds to the operator, prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon.
2. Repressor binds to the operator, to switch off the operon.
3. Lactose/ Allolactose, z = β − galactosidase (β − gal) hydrolyses lactose/ disaccharide into glucose and galactose, y = permease, increases the permeability of the
cell to lactose/ beta galactosides.
Q103. Cloning of genes, play a very significant role in genetic engineering, helping the transfer of desirable foreign genes into different hosts. The scientists, to make this 5 Marks
process easier and effective are creating engineered vectors in such a way that they help easy linking of foreign DNA and selection of recombinants from non
recombinants. 'pBR322' is one such engineered vectors developed by scientists. A diagram of an engineered vector pBR322 is given below:

1. Name the host for this cloning vector.

2. Identify 'Rop' and 'Ori' in the diagram from 'U', 'V', 'W', 'X', 'Y' and 'Z'. Write their functions.
3. Draw the fragments that will be formed by the action of 'Z' (marked in the diagram) on the specific site of the DNA segment given below:
5'-GTACGAATTCCTGA-3'
3'-CATGCTTAAGGACT-5'

Ans:1. [Link]/ Escherichia coli.

2.
rop—‘W’,— code for the proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid.
ori—‘U’,— this is a sequence from where replication starts/ control the copy number of the linked DNA.
3.

5’-GTACG 3’ 5’ AATTCCTGA-3’
3’-CATGCTTAA 5’3’ GGACT-5’

Q104. What essential features must be present in a cloning vector? 5 Marks

Ans:Most commercial cloning vectors have key features that have made their use in molecular biology so widespread.
Control of Expressions: In the case of expression vectors, the main purpose of these vehicles is the controlled expression of a particular gene inside a convenient
host organism (e.g. E. coli). Control of expression can be very important; it is usually desirable to insert the target DNA into a site that is under the control of a
particular promoter. Some commonly used promoters are T7 promoters, lac promoters and cauliflower mosaic virus's 35s promoter (for plant vectors).
Selectable Marker: To allow for convenient and favorable insertions, most cloning vectors have had nearly all their restriction sites engineered out of them and a
synthetic multiple cloning site (MCS) inserted that contains many restriction sites. MCSs allow for insertions of DNA into the vector to be targeted and possibly
directed in a chosen orientation. A selectable marker, such as an antibiotic resistance is often carried by the vector to allow the selection of positively transformed
cells. All plasmids must carry a functional origin of replication (ori).
Q105. Can you list 10 recombinant proteins which are used in medical practice? Find out where they are used as therapeutics (use the internet). 5 Marks

Ans:
Recombinant Proteins Therapeutic uses
(a)Insulin Used for diabetes mellitus
(b)OKT-3 Therapeutic antibody, used for reversal of transplantation rejection
(c) DNase Treatment of cystic fibrosis
(d)Reo Pro Prevention of blood clots
(e)Blood clotting factor VIII Treatment of haemophilia A
(f) Blood clotting factor IX Treatment of haemophiiia B
(g)Tissue plasminogen activator For acute myocardial infarction
(h)Interferon alpha (INF alpha) Used for hepatitis C
(i) Interferon beta (INF beta) Used for multiple sclerosis
(j) Interferon gamma (INF gamma)Used for granulomatous disease

Q106. Answer the following questions: 5 Marks

Describe the temperature treatment that enhances the bacteria to take up the rDNA.

Ans:1. Host cells are incubated with rDNA on ice.

2. Followed by placing them briefly at 42°C.
3. Then transfer them back on ice.
This enables the host cells (bacteria) to take up the rDNA.
Q107. If a desired gene is identified in an organism for some experiments, explain the process of the following: 5 Marks
1. Cutting this desired gene at specific location.
2. Synthesis of multiple copies of this desired gene.

Ans:1. The desired gene is cut by using the enzymes restriction endonucleases. Firstly, the restriction endonucleases that recognise the palindromic nucleotide
sequence of the desired gene is identified. The endonuclease inspects the entire DNA sequences to find and recognise the site. It cuts each of the double helix
at a specific point, which is a little away from the centre of the palindromic site. The cutting site is between the same two bases on the opposite strands. This
results in over-hanging of single stranded stretches, which act as sticky ends.

2. Multiple copies of the desired gene is synthesised by Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) method. In this method, the desired gene is synthesised in vitro. The
double-stranded DNA is denatured using high temperature of 95°C and the strands are separated. Each separated strand acts as a template. Two sets of
oligonucleotide primers are annealed to the denatured DNA strands. The thermostable taq polymerase extends the primers using nucleotides provided in the
reaction mixture. Finally, the amplified fragments are ligated into recipient cells.
Q108. Taking examples under each category, discuss upstream and downstream processing. 4 Marks

Ans:Upstream processing: Biotechnological processes can be separated into upstream processes and downstream processes. The upstream process is defined as the
entire process from DNA isolation and culture expansion of the cells until final product.
Downstream processing: After completion of the biosynthetic stage, the product has to be subjected through a series of processes before it Is ready for marketing
as a finished product. The processes include separation and purification, which are collectively referred to as downstream processing. The product has to be
formulated with suitable preservatives. Such formulation has to undergo through clinical trials as in case of drugs. Strict quality control testing for each product is
also required. The downstream processing and quality control testing vary from product to product.
Q109. No evidence was found on a crime scene, other than only a few hair strands. The inspector wants to proceed for DNA fingerprinting, but the amount of DNA is very 4 Marks
less.
1. In your opinion what could be the solution to this problem?
2. Write the basic steps of this technique.
3. Name the scientist who developed this technique.
4. What values shown by the inspector?

Ans:1. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR is required.

2. Denaturation, annealing and extension are the basic steps of PCR.
3. Kary Mull is developed PCR in 1985.
4. Honesty and sense of responsibility towards his duty.
Q110. 1. Write the palindromic nucleotide sequence EcoRI recognises. 3 Marks
2. Draw the vector DNA and a foreign DNA showing the sites where EcoRI has acted to form the sticky ends.
3. Name the enzyme that helps in forming recombinant DNA.

Ans:1. 5’ _____ GAATTC _____ 3’.

3’ _____ CTTAAG _____ 3’.
2.

3. DNA ligase.
Q111. Causative agents of HIV-AIDS and COVID-19 belong to the same group of viruses. To diagnose and amplify the genetic material for further study of COVID-19 virus, 3 Marks
‘RT-PCR’ test is carried out.
1. What does ‘RT-PCR’ stand for?
2. Explain the various steps of PCR technique.

Ans:1. Real Time-Polymerase Chain Reaction/ Reverse Transcriptase- Polymerase Chain Reaction.
2. Denaturation by heating/ DNA strands are separated by heating, Annealing of two primers to complementary region of DNA/ Joining of primer to complementary
region of DNA, Extension of primers, using thermostable DNA Polymerase or Taq Polymerase.

Q112. Restriction endonucleases have played a very significant role in rDNA technology. Explain the roles of EcoRI and DNA ligase in formation of recombinant DNA. 3 Marks

Ans:Recombinant DNA Technology implies engineering an organism's DNA to host a gene of interest that imparts to it the desired characteristic. For the said need, it is
required to isolate the gene from the source organism and amalgamate it with the vector that will carry the gene to the host.
EcoRI: EcoRI is a restriction endonuclease. It is an enzyme that is able to cut the DNA at a specific palindromic recognition sequence (GAATTC). We use this to cut
both the desired gene and the vector's DNA. Because of the specificity, both will be cut at the same sequence, and given complementarity, will be attracted to the
other segments as they are sticky ends. We can expect a fair probable attraction between the desired gene and the vector's DNA which was cut by the same
enzyme.
DNA: DNA Ligase is another enzyme that joins these segments by creating phosphodiester bonds between the segments, thereby creating our recombinant DNA.
Hence, we can see both the enzymes have pivotal roles in recombinant DNA technology.

Q113. 1. Explain the significance of 'palindromic nucleotide sequence' in the formation of recombinant DNA. 3 Marks
2. Write the use of restriction endonuclease in the above process.

Ans:1. Palindromic nucleotide sequence is the recognition (specific) sequence present both on the vector and on a desired/alien DNA for the action of the
same(specific) restriction endonuclease to act upon.
2. Same restriction endonuclease binds to both the vector and the foreign DNA, cut each of the two strands of the double helix at specific points in their sugar
phosphate backbone of recognition sequence for restriction endonucleases/palindromic sequence of vector and foreign DNA, to cut strand a little away from the
centre of the palindrome sites, creates overhanging stretches/sticky ends.
Q114. 1. Write the difference between the pro insulin and mature insulin. 3 Marks
2. How did American company Eli Lilly produce human insulin using rDNA technique?

Ans:1. Pro insulin/ Pro hormone has peptide chain A and chain B along with peptide chain C in the middle.
Mature insulin has only peptide chain A and chain B linked together by disulphide bond.
2. Prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to chains A and B of human insulin, and introduced them into plasmids of [Link] to produce insulin chains, A and B
were produced separately, extracted and combined creating disulphide bonds (to form human insulin).
Q115. Enlist the steps involved in inbreeding of cattle. Suggest two disadvantages of this practice. 3 Marks

Ans:Inbreeding involves mating of closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 generations.
Superior males and superior females are identified and mated in pairs, the progeny are evaluated, superior males and females among them are selected for further
mating.
Disadvantages: Inbreeding depression, reduction in fertility, reduction in productivity.
Q116. Suggest and describe a technique to obtain multiple copies of a gene of interest in vitro. 3 Marks

Ans:PCR/polymerase chain reaction.

Separation/denaturation of two strands of two dsDNA, using two sets of primers/small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides complementary to regions of DNA
and (thermostable) DNA polymerase/Taq polymerase, extension of the primers, by enzyme using nucleotides replicates the DNA and if the process of replication is
repeated many times multiple copies of DNA are produced.
The following diagram can be considered in lieu of the explanation.

Q117. With the help of a schematic diagram only, show in three steps, the formation of recombinant DNA by the action of restriction endonuclease - EcoRI and DNA 3 Marks
ligase.

Ans:

Q118. 1. Why must a cell be made 'competent’ in biotechnology experiments? How does calcium ion help in doing so? 3 Marks
2. State the role of ‘biolistic gun’ in biotechnology experiments.

Ans:1.
1. To take up the (hydrophilic) DNA from the external medium.
2. Divalent calcium ions increase the efficiency of DNA entering the cell through pores in the cell wall.
2. To introduce alien DNA into the plant cell by bombarding them with high-velocity microparticles. (gold or tungsten coated with DNA)
Q119. Given below is the diagram representing the observations made for separating DNA fragments by Gel electrophoresis technique. Observe the illustration and 3 Marks
answer the questions that follow:

1. Why are the DNA fragments seen to be moving in the direction A → B?

2. Write the medium used on which DNA fragments separate.
3. Mention how the separated DNA fragments can be visualised for further technical use.
Ans:1. Because the DNA fragments are negatively charged.
2. Agarose gel.
3. After staining DNA with ethidium bromide, followed by exposure to UV rays.

Q120. 1. Write the two limitations of traditional breeding technique that led to promotion of micro propagation. 3 Marks
2. Mention two advantages of micro propagation.
3. Give two examples where it is commercially adopted.

Ans:1. Failed to keep pace with demand, failed to provide fast and efficient system of crop improvement.
2. Large number of plants can be developed in a short duration/production of genetically identical plants/somaclones/healthy plants can be recovered from
diseased plants.
3. Tomato/banana/apple.
Q121. Name any two natural cloning vectors. Give reasons that make them act as cloning vectors. Write the two characteristics the engineered vectors are made to 3 Marks
possess.

Ans:Plasmids and Bacteriophages are two natural closing vector. Plasmids have the ability to replicate within bacterial cells independent of the control of chromosomal
DNA. Bacteriophages because of their high number per cell, have very high copy numbers of their genome within the bacterial cells.
Two features that the engineered vectors made to posses are:
1. ORI.
2. Selectable marker.
Q122. Only with the help of a labelled diagram, show the steps of formation of recombinant DNA by the action of restriction endonuclease enzyme EcoR I. 3 Marks

Ans:
Q123. With the advent of sophisticated techniques of genetic engineering, we can now readily purify and isolate DNA. Name and explain the different steps involved in 3 Marks
the separation and isolation of DNA fragments once cut by restriction endonucleases.

Ans: Gel electrophoresis

Negatively charged DNA fragments (produced by restriction endonuclease) move towards anode through agarose gel, smaller fragments move further,
separated fragments are stained with ethidium bromide, followed by exposure to UV radiation, extraction of DNA bands by elution.
Q124. Explain the three steps carried out in the formation of recombinant DNA using the enzyme EcoRI. 3 Marks

Ans:
Eco R1 cuts vector DNA, foreign DNA/ gene of interest, at pallindromic site,
3'CTTAAG 5'
5'GAATTC 3'
(between bases G & A only), sticky end (over hanging stretch of bases) formed at each strand, Joining of sticky ends from DNA fragments by enzyme DNA Ligase,
Recombinant DNA(rDNA) is formed.
Q125. How does a restriction endonuclease help in DNA recombinant technology? 3 Marks

Ans:Restriction endonuclease(EcoRI) inspects length of DNA and recognises specific palindromic nucleotide sequence, binds with DNA, cuts each of the two strands of
double helix at specific points.
Q126. 1. List the two methodologies which were involved in human genome project. Mention how they were used. 3 Marks
2. Expand ‘YAC’ and mention what was it used for.

Ans:1. Expressed Sequence Tags, Identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNA.
Sequence Annotation, sequencing the whole set of genome coding or non-coding sequences and later assigning different region with functions.
2. Yeast Artificial Chromosome used as cloning vectors. (cloning/amplification)
Q127. Explain the role(s) of the following in Biotechnology: 3 Marks
1. Restriction endonuclease.
2. Gel – electrophoresis.
3. Selectable markers in pBR322.

Ans:1. Cuts at specific position within the DNA/cuts DNA at specific nucleotide/cuts at palindromic nucleotide sequence.
2. Separation of DNA fragments. (under the influence of electric field)
3. Helps in Identifying and eliminating non-transformants from transformants/selection of transformants.
Q128. Explain three basic steps to be followed during genetic modification of an organism. 3 Marks

Ans:1. Identification of DNA with desirable genes, so that the genetically modified organism has largely desirable genes.
2. Introduction of the DNA with desirable genes, into the host using vector
3. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host, and transfer of the DNA to its progeny through cloning.
Q129. 1. Given below is the stepwise schematic representation of the process of electrophoresis. Identify the ‘alphabets’ representing. 3 Marks
1. Anode end
2. smallest/ lightest DNA strand in the matrix.
3. Agarose gel
 2. What is elution? State the importance of elution in this process.

Ans:1.
1. S
2. R
3. T
2.
Process of cutting of separated bands of DNA, and extracting from the agarose gel.
Purified DNA is used in rDNA technology/ genetic experimen.
Q130. How is the amplification of a gene sample of interest carried out using Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)? 3 Marks

Ans:dsDNA is denatured at high temperature to unzip them, Annealing, using two sets of primers, amplification in the direction of 5' → 3' using Taq polymerase, this
enzyme is thermostable, (source is Thermus aquaticus) 1 billion times amplified in 30 cycles.
Labelled illustration to be evaluated in lieu of the explanation.
Q131. 1. Identify steps A and B in a cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction given below. 3 Marks

2. State the specific characteristic feature of the enzyme in carrying step B.

Ans:1. A = Annealing; B = Extension.

2. Thermostable (DNA Polymerase)/ remains active at high temperature.
Q132. Observe the diagram shown below of pBR 322. Answer the questions that follow: 3 Marks
 1. What is pBR322?
2. Write the role of ‘rop’.
3. State the significance of ‘ampR’ and ‘tetR’.

Ans:1. [Link] cloning vector/ plasmid (accept only if cloning vector/ plasmid is mentioned).
2. ‘rop’ - codes for proteins involved in the replication of plasmid.
3. Selectable markers which helps in identifying and eliminating non transformants, and permitting the growth of transformants.
Q133. 3 Marks

1. Identify the selectable markers in the diagram of E. coli vector shown above.
2. How is the coding sequence of a-galactosidase considered a better marker than the ones identified by you in the diagram? Explain.

Ans:1. a = ampicillin, b = EcoR-I, c = Hind-III, d = tetracycline.

2. Insertion of alien gene into coding sequence of a-galactosidase, results into inactivation of the enzyme// (insertion inactivation), these colonies do not produce
any colour (in the presence of chromogenic substrate) hence are identified as recombinant colonies.
Q134. Explain how recombinant human insulin was prepared in 1983 by Eli Lily an American company. 3 Marks

Ans:Two DNA sequences corresponding to chain A, and chain B of human insulin were prepared using rDNA technology, Introduced separately in plasmids of E. coli to
produce insulin chains, Chains A and B were separately produced, Extracted the chains, Combined by creating disulphide bonds to form human insulin.
Q135. Give reasons why: 3 Marks
1. DNA cannot pass into a host cell through the cell membrane.
2. Proteases are added during isolation of DNA for genetic engineering.
3. Single cloning site is preferred in a vector.

Ans:1. DNA is a hydrophilic molecule (cell membrane is hydrophobic).

2. Proteases are added to remove the proteins.
3. Presence of more than one recognition site will generate several fragments which will complicate the gene cloning.
Q136. Explain with the help of an example the relationship between restriction endonuclease and a palindromic nucleotide sequence. 3 Marks

Ans:Restriction endonuclease recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence, in the DNA, Restriction endonuclease cuts the strand of DNA a little away from
the centre of palindromic nucleotide sequence but between the same two bases on the opposite strands, leaving single stranded portions at the end/sticky ends.

Q137. Describe the roles of heat, primers and the bacterium Thermus aquaticus in the process of PCR. 3 Marks

Ans:Heat- Denaturation/separation of DNA into two strands.

Primer- Enzyme DNA Polymerase extend the primers using the nucleotides provided in the reaction and the genomic DNA as template.
Thermus aquaticus- source of thermostable DNA polymerase/Taq polymerase.
Q138. In an E. coli cloning vector pBR 322, state the role of the following genes: 3 Marks
1. Ori gene.
2. Antibiotic resistance gene.
3. Rop gene.

Ans:1. Ori-gene: The sequence from where replication start/ any piece of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cell, this
sequence control the copy number of linked DNA.
2. Antibiotic resistance genes: Help in identifying and eliminating non transformant from transformant/ acts as selectable marker/ helps in ligation of alien DNA at
recognition site (present in one of the two antibiotic resistance gene).
3. Rop: Codes for proteins, involved in the replication of plasmids.
Q139. Name and describe the technique that helps in separating the DNA fragments formed by the use of restriction endonuclease. 3 Marks

Ans:Gel electrophoresis. DNA are negatively charged, forced to move towards the anode, An electric field in agarose gel matrix, separate according to their size/sieving
effect, smaller fragments move faster and further than the larger.
Q140. Name and explain the techniques used in the separation and isolation of DNA fragments to be used in recombinant DNA technology. 3 Marks

Ans:Gel Electrophoresis.
DNA fragments on the agarose gel are negatively charged molecules, and they move towards the anode (The fragments separate according to their size) The
separated DNA fragments can be visualised after staining with ethidium bromide.
Followed by exposure to UV radiation Separated fragments are extracted from the gel by elution.
Q141. Eco RI is used to cut a segment of foreign DNA and that of a vector DNA to form a recombinant DNA. Show with the help of schematic diagrams. 3 Marks
1. The set of palindronic nucleotide sequence of base pairs the Eco RI will recognise in both the DNA segments. Mark the site at which Eco RI will act and cut
both the segments.
2. Sticky ends formed on both the segments where the two DNA segments will join later to form a recombinant DNA.

Ans:Palindronic sequence GAATTC,

Q142. Explain how ‘sticky ends’ are obtained in a DNA segment. Write their importance in DNA technology. 3 Marks

Ans:Restriction enzymes cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindrome site, between the same two bases on the opposite strands, this leaves the
single stranded portions at the ends, these overhanging stretches are sticky ends.
Sticky ends help in joining (using DNA ligase) the foreign DNA, with the plasmid to form a recombinant.
Q143. 1. Name the organism in which the vector shown is inserted to get the copies of the desired gene. 3 Marks
2. Mention the area labelled in the vector responsible for controlling the copy number of the inserted gene.
3. Name and explain the role of a selectable marker in the vector shown.

Ans:1. Escherichia coli/[Link].

2. ori.
3. ampR is the marker gene that helps in identification and elimination of the non transformant growing in ampicillin medium/selectively permitting the growth of the
transformant resistant to ampicillin // tetR is the marker gene that helps in identification and elimination of the non transformant growing in tetracycline
medium/selectively permitting the growth of the transformant resistant to tetracyline.
Q144. Describe the formation of recombinant DNA by the action of EcoRI. 3 Marks

Ans:Restriction endonuclease enzyme EcoRI is used in the molecular biology to cut the foreign DNA and vector DNA to form overhangs (called sticky ends). These
sticky ends then form hydrogen bonds with their complementary counterparts. The segments with the help of DNA ligases are joined to produce recombinant DNA.

Q145. Why is Agrobacterium tumefaciens a good cloning vector? Explain. 3 Marks

Ans:
If any desired/foreign gene is linked with, Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens, The bacterium is modified into non-pathogenic, Plasmid is cloned into multiple
copies, Can delivered into a variety of plants, Desired chemical will be produced.
Q146. Describe the process of amplification of "gene of interest" using PCR technique. 3 Marks

Ans:To amplify the gene segment of the interest we should know the sequence of the gene of interest. Primers are designed for amplifying the gene of interest. Two
sets of primers (chemically synthesized oligonucleotide stretches) that are complementary to the gene of interest, DNA polymerase enzyme, and deoxynucleotides
are added. PCR can then be carried out for its amplification.
PCR consists of 3 steps:
1. Denaturation: Double-helical DNA is denatured by providing high temperature (95-degree Celsius). DNA polymerase does not get degraded in such high
temperatures. The DNA polymerase used in this reaction is thermostable and is isolated from the thermophilic bacteria, Thermus aquaticus (Taq).
2. Annealing: It is the step in which primers are annealed to single-stranded DNA templates. Two sets of primers are used. The temperature of the reaction mixture
is lowered to 50-65°C for some seconds to allow annealing of primers. DNA polymerase extends the primer in 5' to 3' direction.
3. Extension: Replication of DNA occurs in vitro.

4. This cycle is repeated several times to generate up to 1 billion identical copies of the DNA.
Q147. How and why is the bacterium Thermus aquaticus employed in recombinant DNA technology? Explain. 3 Marks

Ans:Bacterium is a source of enzyme Taq polymerase,

Which is isolated from bacterium Thermus aquaticus, and is used to amplify DNA in vitro (by PCR),
It remains active even under high temperature at which DNA denatures.
Q148. Study the figure of vector pBR322 given below. 3 Marks

Identify A, B and C and explain their roles in cloning a vector.

Ans:
A: ampR (ampicillin resistance gene) - It acts as selectable marker which provides resistance against antibiotic ampicillin.
B: ori (origin of replication) - This sequence acts as site from where replication starts. This sequence also controls copy number of linked DNA.
C: rop (repressor of primer) - It is responsible for restricting the plasmid copy number.
D: tetR (tetracycline resistance gene) - It acts as selectable marker which provides resistance against antibiotic tetracyclin.
Q149. Describe the roles of (a) high temperature, (b) primers, and (c) bacterium Thermus aquaticus in carrying the process of polymerase chain reaction. 3 Marks

Ans:1. High temperature: Denaturation of double stranded DNA.

2. Primers: Initiates the process of polymerization.
3. Bacterium Thermus aquaticus: Source of thermo stable DNA polymerase/ Taq polymerase which remain active during the high temperature.
Q150. 1. What are “molecular scissors”? Give one example. 3 Marks
2. Explain their role in recombinant DNA technology.

Ans:1. Restriction enzymes EcoRI/Hind II,

2. They recognise and cut at a specific sit on DNA.
Q151. What are satellite DNA in a genome? Explain their role in DNA fingerprinting. 3 Marks

Ans:DNA sequences which are repeated many a times, show a high degree of polymorphism, and form a bulk of DNA in a genome, called as satellite DNA.
DNA from every tissue from an individual, shows the same degree of polymorphism and is heritable, hence very useful in DNA finger printing.
Q152. What are plasmids? How are they different from cloning vectors? Give one example each for a viral and a bacterial cloning vector. 3 Marks

Ans:1. Plasmids are extra chromosomal self-replicating (double stranded) circular DNA molecules (generally found in bacterial cell)
2. Plasmid is circular extra chromosomal DNA of bacterial cells whereas cloning vector is a vehicle that carries foreign DNA into another cell.
3. Bacteriophage, pBR322
Q153. Explain the importance of (a) ori, (b) ampR and (c) rop In the [Link] vector shown below: 3 Marks
Ans:1. ori - origin of replication.
2. ampR - ampicillin antibiotic resistant gene.
3. rop - gene to produce the proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid.
Q154. Draw a labelled sketch of sparged-stirred tank bioreactor. Write its application. 3 Marks

Ans:

Application: These bioreactors are used to produce large quantities of products enzymes, etc., using microbial, plant, animal or human cells.
Q155. Mention the role of the following in [Link] cloning vector pBR 322. 3 Marks
1. Selectable marker.
2. ori.
3. rop.

Ans:1. It helps in identifying or selecting transformants and eliminating non-transformants by Selectively permitting the growth of the trarsformants.
2. This is a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of DNA, when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells. This
sequence is also responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA.
3. Rop codes for the protein involved in the replication of the plasmid.
Q156. A schematic representation of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) up to the extension stage is given below. Give answers of the following questions. 3 Marks
 1. Name the process A.
2. Identify B.
3. Identify C and mention its importance in PCR.

Ans:1. A - Denaturation process

2. B - Primers
3. C - Taq DNA polymerase. Tag polymerase is a thermostable enzyme, which remains active during the high temperature and induces denaturation of DNA,
Q157. Rahul introduced Ronit to his uncle and told him that Ronit is pursuing a course in biotechnology in America. 3 Marks
His uncle had never heard of this term earlier and was curious to know about this term. Ronit pointed towards a big tree at the base of which were present
numerous tumour-like structures and said that this is the example of natural biotechnology:
1. What is biotechnology?
2. How these crown gall tumours are formed?
3. What are the values shown by Rahul's uncle?

Ans:1. Biotechnology deals with the techniques of using live organisms or enzymes from organisms to produce products and processes useful to human.
2. These are formed by integration of a segment of DNA of the bacterium Agrobacterium tumifaciens into the host DNA.
3. Rahul's uncle has a positive desire to know about latest discoveries and developments in the field of science.
Q158. What is a bioreactor used for? Name a commonly used bioreactor and any two of its components. 3 Marks

Ans:1. A bioreactor is used for obtaining a desired gene product in large quantities by processing large volumes of cultures of microbial, plant or animal cells.
2. The stirring type of bioreactors (Simple stirred-tank bioreactor or sparged stirred-tank bioreactor) are commonly used.
3. The components of simple stirred-tank bioreactor include:
A stirrer.
Flat-bladed impeller.
An oxygen delivery system.
A foam control system.
pH control system.
Sampling port.
Q159. In a Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), give the temperature required for the steps: 3 Marks
1. Denaturation.
2. Annealing.
3. Extension, respectively.

Ans:Three main steps involved in the PCR technique are:

Step I Denaturation: The double-stranded DNA is denatured by using high temperature of 95°C for 15 seconds. Now each separated single strand acts as a
template for DNA synthesis.
Step II Annealing: Two sets of oligonucleotide primers are annealed (hybridised) to the separated single-strands. This step is carried out at a slightly lower
temperature (40-60°C).
Step III Extension: The thermostable enzyme Taq DNA polymerase is used in this reaction, extends the primers by adding dNTPs (deoxynucleoside triphosphates)
complementary to those of the template DNA. Mg2+ is required as a cofactor for thermostable DNA polymerase.
These steps are repeated many times in order to obtain several copies of desired DNA.
Application of PCR are in rDNA technology, DNA sequencing, DNA fingerprinting, early diagnosis of infections, disease, etc.
Q160. List in proper sequence the processes involved in recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology. 3 Marks

Ans:The steps are:

1. Isolation of DNA.
2. Fragmentation of DNA by restriction endonucleases.
3. Isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
4. Amplification of the desired DNA fragment.
5. Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector.
6. Transferring the recombinant DNA into the host.
7. Culturing the host cells and extraction of the desired gene product on a large scale.
8. Downstream processing, i.e. separation and purification.
Q161. How are 'sticky ends' formed on a DNA strand? Why are they so called? 3 Marks

Ans:Restriction enzymes cut the strands of the DNA, a, little away from the centre of the palindromic sites, but between the same two bases on opposite strands. This
leaves sticky single stranded position at the ends. These overhanging stretches are called 'sticky ends'.
These are named so because they form hydtogen bonds with their complementary cut counter parts.
Q162. 1. How are recombinant vectors created? 3 Marks
2. For creating one recombinant vector only one type of restriction endonuclease is required. Give reason.

Ans:1. The vector DNA is cut at a particular restriction site using a restriction enzyme (to cut the desired DNA segment). The alien DNA is then linked with the plasmid
DNA using an enzyme called ligase to form the recombinant vector.
2. A restriction enzyme recognizes and cuts the DNA at a particular sequence, called recognition site. If more than one restriction enzymes are present, they will
generate several segments and will complicate gene cloning.
Q163. Shubham was taught in the biotechnology class about the production of recombinant protein with the help of bioreactor. He was surprised by this new information. 3 Marks
In the evening he discussed it with his elder brother, who is a biotechnologist. He smiled and explained him in detail.
1. What is recombinant protein?
2. Why is bioreactors useful in industries?
3. What are the values shown by Shubham?

Ans:1. Any protein encoded gene when expressed in a heterologous host, it is called as recombinant protein.
2. For the large scale production of industrial products.
3. He is curious, inquisitive and having interest in science.
Q164. What are bioreactors? List five growth conditions that a bioreactor provides for obtaining the desired product. 3 Marks

Ans: Bioreactors are the large vessels in which the raw materials are biologically converted into specific products in large quantities, i.e. on commercial scale.
The bioreactors provide optimum conditions of (i) pH, (ii) substrate concentration, (ii) mineral salts, (iv) vitamins, (v) temperature and (vi) oxygen.
Q165. Besides better aeration and mixing properties, what other advantages do stirred tank bioreactors have over shake flasks? 3 Marks

Ans:The shake flask method is used for a small-scale production of biotechnological products in a laboratory. whereas stirred tank bioreactors are used for a large-
scale production of biotechnology products.
Stirred tank bioreactors have several advantages over shake flasks:
1. Small volumes of culture can be taken out from the reactor for testing.
2. It has a foam breaker for regulating the foam.
3. It has a control system that regulates the temperature and pH.
Q166. Describe a palindrome with the help of an example. 3 Marks

Ans: A palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base pairs that reads the same on the two strands, when orientation of reading is kept the same.
The palindromic sequence, which is recognised by the restriction enzyme, EcoRI is given below, along with the sites where it cuts the DNA strands.

It is seen that the restriction enzyme cuts the two strands between the same two bases, a little away from the centre of the palindrome sequence.
Q167. Both a wine maker and a molecular biologist who had developed a recombinant vaccine claim to be biotechnologists. Who in your opinion is correct? 3 Marks

Ans:Both. As biotechnology is a very wide area which deals with techniques of using a ‘natural’ organism (or its parts) as well as genetically modified organism to
produce products and processes useful for mankind. A wine maker employs a strain-of yeast to produce wine by fermentation (a natural phenomenon), while the
molecular biologist has cloned gene for the antigen (that is used as vaccine) in an organism which allows the production of the antigen in large amount.
Q168. 1. Why was a bacterium used in the first instance of the construction of an artificial recombinant DNA molecule? 3 Marks
2. Name the scientists who accomplished this and how?

Ans:1. The bacterium is used as a host for cloning the recombinant DNA molecule.
2.
Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer accomplished this.
They isolated an antibiotic-resistant gene, using a restriction endonuclease.
This gene was linked with the plasmid of the
bacterium, Salmonella typhimurium to make a recombinant DNA.
The recombinant DNA was introduced into [Link] bacterium, for making multiple copies, i.e., cloning.
Q169. 1. Mention the number of primers required in each cycle of polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Write the role of primers and DNA polymerase in PCR. 2 Marks
2. Give the characteristic feature and source organism of the DNA polymerase used in PCR.

Ans:1. 2 sets of primers, DNA polymerisation/extends the primers using the nucleotides.
2. Thermostable/remain active during high temperature induced denaturation of DNA, Thermus aquaticus.
Q170. All cloning vectors do have a ‘selectable marker’. Describe its role in recombinant DNA-technology. 2 Marks

Ans:It helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants (non-recombinants), and selectively permitting the growth of transformants (recombinants).
Q171. Why is the introduction of genetically engineered lymphocytes into an ADA deficiency patient not a permanent cure? Suggest a possible permanent cure. 2 Marks

Ans:Lymphocytes not immortal/short lived, hence patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes, however if a gene producing ADA is
isolated from marrow cells, and introduced into the cells at early embryonic stages it could be a permanent cure.
Q172. How does EcoRI specifically act on DNA molecule? Explain? 2 Marks

Ans: 5 ′ GAATTC3 ′
Inspects the length of a DNA sequence, finds its specific recognition sequence as , binds to the DNA, and cut each of the two strands of the double
3 ′ CTTAAG5 ′
helix at specific points in their sugar-phosphate backbones.
Q173. How can DNA segments, separated by gel electrophoresis, be visualised and isolated? 2 Marks

Ans:Visualised by staining the DNA fragments with ethidium bromide, exposing them to UV radiation (Appear as bright orange bands).
Bands are cut out from agarose gel, extracted from gel piece.
Q174. List the key tools used in recombinant DNA technology. 2 Marks

Ans:Restriction enzymes/Polymerase enzymes/Ligase enzymes/Vectors/Host organizms/[Link]/Agrobacterium.

Q175. How does a restriction nuclease function? Explain. 2 Marks

Ans:Restriction nuclease cut DNA at specific sites exonuclease cuts DNA at the ends, endonuclease cuts at specific position within DNA./Restriction endonuclease cuts
the DNA at specific pallindromic sequence.
Q176. Write the basis of naming the restriction endonuclease EcoR-I. 2 Marks

Ans:The first letter comes from the (genus) Escherichia, and the second two letters from the (species) coli of prokaryotic cell from which the enzyme is isolated, In
EcoRI the letter R is derived from the name of strain, Roman number indicate the order in which enzyme was isolated (from the strain of bacteria).
Q177. Explain with the help of a suitable example the naming of a restriction endonuclease. 2 Marks

Ans:EcoRI.
Eco stands for the genus and species of the prokaryotic cell from which the enzyme was isolated, i.e. [Link].
R stands for strain.
‘I’ follows order in which enzyme was isolated.
Q178. What are recombinant proteins? How do bioreactors help in their production? 2 Marks

Ans:Any protein produced by genetically altered gene in a host.

Bioreactors can be thought of as vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products// A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for
achieving the desired product by providing optimum growth conditions (temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen).
Q179. How is DNA isolated in purified form from a bacterial cell? 2 Marks

Ans:Lysozyme added to remove the cell wall; Ribonuclease added to remove RNAs; Proteases added to remove proteins, chilled ethanol added to precipitate DNA.
Q180. Describe the responsibility of GEAC, set up by the Indian Government. 2 Marks

Ans:(Genetic Engineering Approval Committee) GEAC checks the validity of genetic engineering research and checks the safety of introducing any GMO (genetically
modified organisms) because sometimes the GMO results could be unpredictable.
Q181. 2 Marks
 Study the linking of DNA fragments shown above.
1. Name ‘a’ DNA ‘b’ DNA.
2. Name the restriction enzyme that recognises this palindrome.
3. Name the enzyme that can link these two DNA fragments.

Ans:1. ‘a’ - Vector DNA, ‘b’ - Foreign DNA.

2. - EcoRI.
3. - DNA ligase.
Q182. How is ‘Rosie’ considered different from a normal cow? Explain. 2 Marks

Ans:Rosie is a transgenic cow,

Rosie produced human protein enriched milk, containing human alpha-lactalbumin.
Q183. Explain the contribution of Thermus aquaticus in the amplification of a gene of interest. 2 Marks

Ans:Thermus aquaticus produces a thermostable, DNA polymerase, when DNA is denatured at high temperature, this enzyme remains active.
Q184. 1. State the role of DNA ligase in biotechnology. 2 Marks

Ans:Linking of DNA fragment is done by DNA ligase/linking of Okazaki fragments or discontinuous synthesis fragments/linking of desired genewith plasmid to form
recombinant DNA.
Q185. 1. Identify and name the structures 'A' and 'B' marked in the image given below: 2 Marks

2. State their importance in various biotechnology experiments.

Ans:1. ‘A; Circular DNA/Plasmid ‘B’ Bacteriophage.

2. (Plasmid)- Can carry foreign gene into the host cell/ acts as cloning vector/has selectable marker/ independent of the control of chromosomal DNA/ high copy
number (Bacteriophage) -Cloning vector have the ability to replicate in bacterial cells/ independent of the control of chromosomal DNA/ high copy number per
cell.
Q186. 1. What is a plasmid? 2 Marks
2. What is meant by ADA deficiency? How is gene therapy a solution to this problem? Why is it not a permanent cure?

Ans:1. Plasmid is an autonomously replicating circular extra chromosomal DNA of a bacterium.

2. Adenosine deaminase deficiency, ADA cDNA IS Introduced into these lymphocytes, subsequently returned to the patient Cell could now produce ADA,
deficiency overcome, Because these genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal.
Q187. 1. Name the nematode that infests and damages tobacco roots. 2 Marks
2. How are transgenic tobacco plants produce to solve this problem?

Ans:1. Meloidegyne incognita.

2. Nematode specific genes isolated cloned and introduced into tobacco plants, ds RNA are produced and RNAi interference initiated, mRNA translation
silenced, survival of the nematode not possible in the host plant.
Q188. Vectors are DNA molecules that can carry a foreign DNA segment into the host cell. 2 Marks
1. Write the significance of ‘ori’ in this vector.
2. Give one example each of vectors used for cloning genes in plants and animals.

Ans:1. ‘ori’ – a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells, this sequences
is also responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA
2. Plants – Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Animals – Retrovirus
Q189. 1. Mention the role of vectors in recombinant DNA technology. Give any two example. 2 Marks
2. With the help of diagrammatic representation only, show the steps of recombinant DNA technology.
Ans:1. To deliver alien/foreign/desired piece of DNA into the host organism,so that the foreign gene can be amplified,
Example - Plasmids, Viruses.

Q190. What is ‘Ori’? State its importance during cloning of a vector. 2 Marks

Ans:Origin of Replication (Ori): This is a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the
host cells.
Importance of Ori:
1. It is responsible for controlling the copy number & the linked DNA.
2. In cloning if one wants to recover many copies of the target DNA it should be cloned in a vector whose origin supports high copy number.
Q191. State the difference between simple stirred-tank bioreactor and sparged stirred-tank bioreactor. What are the advantages of these bioreactors? 2 Marks

Ans:
S.N
Simple stirred-tank bioreactor Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor
o
A simple stirred-tank bioreactor is usually cylindrical or with a curved bas The sparged-stirred-tank bioreactor also facilitates the mixing of components and e
1.
e to facilitate even mixing of reactor contents. nsures oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor.

Q192. Give the name of the type of bioreactor shown. Write the purpose for which it is used. 2 Marks

Or
How can the desire products formed after genetic engineering be produced on a commercial scale?

Ans:The given bioreactor shown in the figure is the simple stirred-tank type bioreactor.
Its purpose is large scale Production of recombinant protein enzymes, using microbial plants, animals and human cells.
Q193. List five growth conditions that a bioreactor should provide for obtaining the desired product? 2 Marks

Ans:A bioreactor provides optimum growth conditions like temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins and oxygen to get desired products.
Q194. Discuss with your teacher and find out how to distinguish between: 2 Marks
RNA and DNA

Ans:RNA and DNA

RNA is a single stranded molecule. DNA is a double stranded molecule.

It contains ribose sugar. It contains deoxyribose sugar.
The pyrimidines in RNA are adenine and [Link] pyrimidines in DNA are adenine and thymine.
RNA cannot replicate itself. DNA molecules have the ability to replicate.
It is a component of the ribosomes. It is a component of the chromosomes.

Q195. Write the use of the following in biotechnology. 2 Marks

Bioreactor.

Ans:It is the set up to culture large volumes of transgenic bacteria to get large quantities of the product protein.
Q196. Write the use of the following in biotechnology. 2 Marks
Plasmid.
Ans:It is the vector to transform a foreign gene.
Q197. Is there any difference between recombinant DNA and recombinant protein? Support your answer. 2 Marks

Ans:rDNA is the plasmid vector containing the foreign DNA whereas recombinant protein is the product of transgenic gene in the host body or cell.
Q198. Describe briefly the following: 2 Marks
Downstream processing

Ans:Downstream processing: After completion of the biosynthetic stage, the product is subjected through a series of processes before it is ready for marketing as a
finished product. The processes include separation and purification, which are collectively referred to as downstream processing. The product has to be
formulated with suitable preservatives. Such formulation has to undergo thorough clinical trials as in the case of drugs. Strict quality control testing for each
product is also required. Downstream processing and quality control testing vary from product to product.
Q199. 1. Explain how to find whether an [Link] bacterium has transformed or not, when a recombinant DNA bearing ampicillin-resistant gene is transferred into it. 2 Marks
2. What does the ampicillin-resistant gene act as, in the above case?

Ans:1. The recombinant/ transformant can be selected out from the non-recombinants/ non-transformants by plating the transformants on ampicillin-containing
medium. The transformants will grow in it, while the non-transformants will not grow.
2. It acts as a selectable marker.
Q200. Differentiate between rDNA and cDNA. 2 Marks

Ans:
rDNA cDNA
It is the DNA which is formed by joining together the DNA from two different o It is the DNA which is obtained from RNA template catalysed by reverse transcriptas
rganisms. e enzyme.

Q201. A wine maker and a molecular biologist who has developed a recombinant vaccine, both claim themselves to be biotechnologist. Who in your opinion is right? 2 Marks

Ans:Both are right because biotechnology is a very wide area which deals with techniques of using a ‘natural’ organism (or its parts) as well as genetically modified
organism to produce products and processes useful for mankind. A wine maker employs a strain of yeast to produce wine by fermentation (a natural phenomenon),
while the molecular biologist has cloned gene for the antigen (that is used as vaccine) in an organism which allows the production of the antigen in large amount.
Q202. Write the use of the following in biotechnology. 2 Marks
Chilled ethanol.

Ans:It is added to precipitate the purified DNA to isolate it.

Q203. 1. What is the advantage of bubbling air into the sparged stirred-tank bioreactors? 2 Marks
2. Name the two main processes involed in down stream processing.

Ans:1. The air bubbles dramatically increase the surface area for oxygen transfer.
2. Separation and purification.
Q204. Describe briefly the following: 2 Marks
Bioreactors

Ans:Bioreactors: Bioreactors are vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products, individual enzymes etc. using microbial plant, animal
or human cells. A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing optimum growth conditions (temperature, pH,
substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen). The most commonly used bioreactors are of stirring type. A biogas plant is a good example of a bioreactor.
Q205. Identify and explain steps ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in the PCR diagram given below. 2 Marks

Ans:1. Denaturation.
2. Annealing.
3. Extension.
Q206. What is the role of lysing enzyme in biotechnology? 2 Marks

Ans:Lysing enzymes are used to open up the cell to obtain DNA along with other macromolecules for genetic experiments. Bacterial cells are treated with lysozyme,
plant cells are treated with cellulase, and fungal cells are treated with chitinase for lysing.
Q207. Name two commonly used bioreactors. State the importance of using a bioreactor. 2 Marks

Ans:1. Simple stirred-tank bioreactor.

2. Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor.
Large volumes of culture can be plocessed in bioreactors for commercial production of the product.
Q208. Illustrate briefly downstream processing. 2 Marks

Ans:Downstream processing:
All the processes to which a product is subjected to before being marketed as a finished product are called downstream processing.
It includes:
1. Separation of the product from the reactor.
2. Purification of the product.
3. Formulation of the product with suitable preservatives.
4. Quality control testing and clinical trials in case of drugs.
Q209. Name the enzymes that are used for the isolation of DNA from bacterial and fungal cells for recombinant DNA technology. 1 Mark

Ans:Bacteria: Lysozyme, fungi: chitinase.

Q210. Suggest a technique to a researcher who needs to separate fragments of DNA. 1 Mark
Ans:(Gel) electrophoresis.
Q211. How can bacterial DNA be released from the bacterial cell for biotechnology experiments? 1 Mark

Ans:(Breaking the cell open) Treating with lysozyme.

Q212. How is the action of exonuclease different from that of endonuclease? 1 Mark

Ans:Exonuclease: removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA molecules.

Endonuclease: makes cut at specific position within a DNA.
Q213. Explain the steps involved in the production of genetically engineered insulin. 1 Mark

Ans:Gen for chain A and gene for chain B of insulin are prepared, inserted, into plasmid, of [Link] separately, [Link] cultured and chain extracted, combined by
disulphide bonds (to produce human insulin).
Q214. Mention the name of the specific sequence of DNA found in a plasmid that the gene of interest ligates with to enable it to replicate. 1 Mark

Ans:Origin of replication (ori).

Q215. Expand the terms rDNA and cDNA. 1 Mark

Ans:rDNA - Recombinant DNA. cDNA-Complementary DNA.

Q216. What are palindromes? 1 Mark

Ans:Palindromes are group of letters (sequences) that read same both in forward and backward direction.
Q217. Expand EFB? 1 Mark

Ans:European Federation of Biotechnology.

Q218. Write the names of the enzymes that are used for isolation of DNA from bacterial and fungal cells respectively for recombinant DNA technique. 1 Mark

Ans:For bacteria- lysozyme.

For fungus- chitinase.
Q219. Can you recall meiosis and indicate at what stage a recombinant DNA is made? 1 Mark

Ans:Meiosis I- Pachytene- When recombination nodule appear after synaptonemal complex formation.
Q220. Write the two components of the first artificial recombinant DNA molecule constructed by Cohen and Boyer. 1 Mark

Ans:Antibiotic resistance gene and plasmid.

Q221. What is a bioreactor? 1 Mark

Ans:It is generally a 100-1000 litre cylindrical metal container with a curved base to facilitate mixing of contents. In bioreactors, raw materials are biologically converted
into products.
Q222. Write the function of a bioreactor. 1 Mark

Ans:A bioreactor is a large vessel in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products individual enzymes, etc., using microbial, plant, animal or
human cell.
Q223. Give any two microbes that are useful in biotechnology. 1 Mark

Ans:E. coli and Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Q224. Write the importance of the bacterium Thermus aquaticus in polymerase chain reaction. 1 Mark

Ans:It is the source of thermostable DNA-polymerase enzyme.

Q225. What are the sampling port in a bioreactor? 1 Mark

Ans:The main function of sampling port is to withdraw culture periodically.

Q226. Rearrange the following in the correct sequence to accomplish an important biotechnological reaction: 3 Marks
1. In vitro synthesis of copies of DNA of interest.
2. Chemically synthesised oligonucleotides.
3. Enzyme DNA-polymerase.
4. Complementary region of DNA.
5. Genomic DNA template.
6. Nucleotides provided.
7. Primers.
8. Thermostable DNA-polymerase (from Thermus aquatics).
9. Denaturation of ds-DNA.

Ans:Correct sequence is-

Q227. Read the following and answer any four questions from 6(i) to 6(v) given below: 5 Marks
Rama lives in a society where a robbery occurred last night. Robbers came into the flat and murdered the old lady residing there. Police came and restricted the
entry into the flat. They took samples from the room, where the dead body was found. While examining, they found that there is some blood and tissue in the nails
of old lady. According to their observation, police filtered out their inspection to three suspects viz. servant, cook and milkman. Finally after two days of robbery,
police caught the criminal. It was the old lady's cook. Rama was amazed to see that how quickly police completed and shut the case. She asked the inspector that
how they did it? The police man told her that it become possible due to the sample collected from the victim, that lead them to the criminal. TI1e sample taken from
nail scraping was amplified using PCR and then tested.
1. What technique was used by the police to identify the criminal?
1. DNA fingerprinting.
2. Gel electrophoresis.
3. Molecular diagnosis.
4. Clonning.
2. In PCR, the temperature used to denature the DNA is about:
1. 76º
2. 25º
3. 95º
4. 40º
3. Which of the following statements regarding PCR is correct?
1. Taq polymerase, which is isolated from bacterium Thermus aquaticus is stable at low temperature only.
 2. With the help of DNA ligase, the complementary sticky ends of the DNA are joined to produce a rDNA.
3. Since the sequence of primers are complementary to 5' end of the template DNA, they anneal to it.
4. DNA purified from the cell is precipitated by adding hot ethanol.
4. Taq polymerase synthesises DNA region between the primers using:
1. Mg2+
2. dNTPs
3. DNA ligase
4. Both (a) and (b).
5. Given below are steps of polymerase chain reaction.

Select the option that correctly mention the sequence in which they occur.
1. (ii) → (iii) → (i)
2. (i) → (ii) → (iii)
3. (iii) → (i) → (ii)
4. (ii) → (i) → (iii)

Ans:1. (a) DNA fingerprinting.

Explanation:
DNA fingerprinting is one of highly accurate application of biotechnology. It is helpful in solving crime, legal disputes, establishing identity of criminal or parents,
etc.
2. (c) 95º
Explanation:
In PCR, during denaturation, the target DNA is heated at high temperature resulting in the separation of the two strands.
3. (b) With the help of DNA ligase, the complementary sticky ends of the DNA are joined to produce a rDNA.
Explanation:
Taq polymerase isolated from bacterium Thermus aquaticus is stable at high temperature. Sequence of primers are complementary to 3' end of the template.
Purified DNA is precipitated by adding chilled ethanol.
4. (d) Both (a) and (b).
5. (a) (ii) → (iii) → (i)
Explanation:
Three steps of PCR are : denaturation, annealing and extension.
Q228. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: 5 Marks
The DNA, which is transferred from one organism into another by joining it with the vehicle DNA is called passenger or foreign DNA. Generally three types of
passenger DNAs are used. These are complementary DNA (cDNA), synthetic DNA (sDNA) and random DNA. Complementary DNA (cDNA) is synthesized on RNA
template (usually mRNA) with the help of reverse transcriptase. Synthetic DNA (sDNA) is synthesized on DNA template or without a template. Random DNA are
small fragments fanned by breaking a chromosome of an organism in the presence of restriction endonucleases.

1. Reverse transcriptase enzyme was discovered by:

1. Temin and Baltimore.
2. Cohen and Boyer.
3. Arber and Nathan.
4. Paul Berg.
2. During cDNA formation, what would happen if DNA formed by reverse transcriptase is not treated with the alkali?
 1. cDNA will not be digested.
2. mRNA will not be digested.
3. Hydrogen bonds will not form between base pairs.
4. rnRNA will not be formed.
3. Enzyme that helps in the formation of double stranded cDNA is:
1. DNA synthetase
2. Ligase
3. DNA polymerase
4. Helicase.
4. DNA polymerase can be obtained form:
1. Retrovirus.
2. Agrobacteriurn.
3. Tobacco mosaic virus.
4. Thermus aquaticus.
5. DNA synthesised without a template is referred to as:
1. Complementary DNA.
2. Random DNA.
3. Synthetic DNA.
4. Z-DNA..

Ans:1. (a) Temin and Baltimore.

2. (b) mRNA will not be digested.
The cDNA formation involves the alkaline denaturation of the mRNA-cDNA hybrid. The double stranded DNA molecule formed after the activity of
reversetranscriptase is treated with alkali to digest mRNA.
In a bioreactor, all operations must be carried under sterile conditions to avoid contamination.
3. (c) DNA polymerase
Explanation:
A cDNA strand is formed on the separated single stranded DNA template with the help of DNA polymerase enzyme.
4. (d) Thermus aquaticus.
5. (c) Synthetic DNA.
Q229. Read the following and answer any four questions from 9(i) to 9(v) given below: 5 Marks
Bioreactors are considered as vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products by microbes, plant and animal cells or their enzymes.
They are used for large scale production as they provide optimum growth conditions such as temperature, pH, substrate, vitamins, oxygen and salts for obtaining
desired product. Most commonly used bioreactors are of stirring type which include simple stirred tank bioreactor and sparged stirred-tank bioreactor.
1. Bioreactor are useful in:
1. Amplifying a gene.
2. Isolation of genetic material.
3. Processing large volume of culture.
4. Infecting DNA in a cell.
2. Which of the following is essential to obtain desired product in a bioreactor?
1. Size of the bioreactor.
2. Sterile condition.
3. Quantity of the raw material.
4. All of these.
3. Assertion: The stirred-tank is well suited for large scale production of microorganisms under aseptic conditions.
Reason: In sparged stirred tank bioreactor, surface area for oxygen transfer is increased.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.
4. Growth condition that could affect the quality of obtained product in a bioreactor are:
1. Temperature and pH only.
2. pH and oxygen supply only.
3. Temperature and oxygen supply only.
4. Temperature, pH and oxygen supply.
5. Vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products are.
1. Bioreactors.
2. Fermentors.
3. Gene guns.
4. Both (a) and (b).

Ans:1. (c) Processing large volume of culture.

Explanation:
Bioreactors are considered as vessels in which raw molecules are biologically converted into specific products.
2. (b) Sterile condition.
Explanation:
In a bioreactor, all operations must be carried under sterile conditions to avoid contamination.
3. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
4. (d) Temperature, pH and oxygen supply.
Explanation:
A bioreactor provides the optimal growth conditions such as temperature,pH, substrate, vitamins, oxygen and salts for obtaining the desired product.
5. (d) Both (a) and (b).
Q230. Read the following and answer any four questions from S(i) to S(v) given below: 5 Marks
Rajat is a student of biotechnology. His professor tells him that for transformation with recombinant DNA the bacterial cells must be made capable of taking up DNA
as DNA do not pass through membrane. While doing experiment in the lab, Rajat noticed that bacterial cells were not taking up the foreign DNA even after treating
it with sodium ion. He asked his professor, the reason behind this. His professor explained that he should check the valency and charge of the ion that he is using
for the treatment.
1. It is difficult for DNA to pass through the membrane as
1. It is a hydrophilic molecule.
2. It is a hydrophobic molecule.
3. It is a circular molecule.
4. It changes its shape when it comes in contact with host cell.
2. What type of ions are used for DNA mediated gene transfers?
1. Divalent anions.
2. Divalent cations.
3. Monovalent cations.
4. Monovalent anions.
3. rDNA stands for,
 1. reduced DNA
2. red DNA
3. recombinant DNA
4. related DNA.
4. Which of the following statements with regard to DNA is correct?
1. DNA is a positively charged molecule having two polynucleotide chains.
2. Nitrogen bases of two polynucleotide chain form complementary pairs, i.e., A opposite G and T opposite C.
3. Backbone of DNA chain is built up of alternate deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group.
4. Both (a) and (c)
5. Assertion: Competent host is essential for transformation with rDNA.
Reason: Transfer of DNA in a prokaryotic cell is called transfection.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.

Ans:1. (a) It is a hydrophilic molecule.

Explanation:
DNA is a hydrophilic molecule therefore it cannot pass through membrane.
2. (b) Divalent cations.
Explanation:
Divalent cations, such as calcium increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacteria through pores in its walls.
3. (c) recombinant DNA
4. (c) Backbone of DNA chain is built up of alternate deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group.
Explanation:
DNA is a negatively charged molecule and in a DNA molecule nitrogen bases form complementary pairs, i.e., A opposite T and C opposite G.
5. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Explanation:
Transfer of DNA in a prokaryotic cell is called transformation.
Q231. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: 5 Marks
Tools used in the formation of recombinant DNA are of three types. These are enzymes, cloning vectors and competent host. lysing enzymes are used to extract
DNA for experimental purpose from the cells. Cleaving enzymes break the DNA molecules. TI1ey are of three types : exonucleases, endonucleases and restriction
endonucleases. A competent host is required for transformation with recombinant DNA and cloning vectors help to propagate DNA.
1. Which of the following is an example of natural Iysing activity in a human body?
1. Lysozyme present in tears dissolve the bacterial cell wall.
2. Conversion of starch to maltose in the buccal cavity
3. Absorption of digested food into the intestinal cells.
4. Conversion of protein molecules into amino acids in the stomach.
2. Which of the following depicts exonuclease activity?
1.

2.

3.

4. All of these
3. Cloning vectors are the DNA molecules that.
1. Carry foreign DNA segment but do not replicate inside the host cell.
2. Carry foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host cell.
3. Transfer nuclear DNA form nucleus to the cytoplasm of the same cells.
4. Help in sealing gaps in DNA segments.
4. Transfer of DNA into a eucaryotic cell is called:
1. Transformation.
2. Transduction.
 3. Transfection.
4. Electroporation.
5. Assertion: Type I restriction enzymes are not used in rDNA technology.
Reason: Biotechnology mostly involves cutting and pasting of desired DNA fragments.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.

Ans:1. (a) Lysozyme present in tears dissolve the bacterial cell wall.
Explanation:
Conversion of starch into maltose and protein into amino acids is due to hydrolysis.
2. (a)

Explanation:
Exonuclease removes nucleotides from the terminal ends (either 5' or 3') of DNA in one strand of duplex.
3. (b) Carry foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host cell.
4. (c) Transfection.
5. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Explanation:
In 1972, Paul Berg was able to introduce a gene of SV-40 virus into a bacterium with the help of lambda phage.
Q232. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
Restriction endonuclease was isolated for the first time by W. Arber in 1962 in bacteria. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA duplex at specific points; therefore,
they are also called molecular scissors or biological scissors. There are three types of restriction endonucleases: Type I, Type II, and Type III. However, only Type II
restriction endonucleases are used in recombinant DNA technology. One well-known restriction endonuclease, EcoRI, recognizes the base sequence GAATTC in a
DNA duplex and cuts the strands between G and A.
1. Who isolated the first restriction endonuclease and in which year?
2. Which restriction endonuclease type is commonly used in recombinant DNA technology?
3. Explain why restriction endonucleases are referred to as 'molecular scissors'.
OR
3. Describe the specific recognition and cutting action of the EcoRI restriction endonuclease.

Ans:1. W. Arber isolated the first restriction endonuclease in 1962.

2. Type II restriction endonucleases are commonly used in recombinant DNA technology.
3. Restriction endonucleases are called 'molecular scissors' because they cut the DNA duplex at specific locations. This precise cutting allows for the manipulation
and analysis of DNA, akin to how scissors cut paper at exact spots.
OR
3. EcoRI is a restriction endonuclease that recognizes the base sequence GAATTC in a DNA duplex. It cuts the DNA strands between the G and A of this sequence,
resulting in sticky ends that can be used in various applications of recombinant DNA technology.
Q233. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments have the same kind of ‘sticky-ends,’ allowing them to be joined together (end-to-end) using
DNA ligases. The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in DNA fragments that can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis. Since
DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules, they can be separated by forcing them to move towards the anode under an electric field through a
medium/matrix. Nowadays, the most commonly used matrix is agarose, a natural polymer extracted from seaweeds. The DNA fragments separate (resolve)
according to their size through the sieving effect provided by the agarose gel. Hence, the smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves. The separated DNA
fragments can only be visualized after staining with ethidium bromide and exposure to UV radiation. Bright orange-colored bands of DNA appear in an ethidium
bromide-stained gel exposed to UV light.
The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece, a step known as elution. The DNA fragments purified in this way
are used in constructing recombinant DNA by joining them with cloning vectors.
1. What role does ethidium bromide play in gel electrophoresis?
2. Why do smaller DNA fragments move farther in an agarose gel during electrophoresis?
3. Explain how agarose gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments of different sizes.
OR
3. Describe the process of elution in gel electrophoresis and its significance.

Ans:1. Ethidium bromide is used to stain the DNA fragments so that they can be visualized under UV light.
2. Smaller DNA fragments move farther because they travel through the gel matrix more easily than larger fragments, which are impeded more by the gel’s sieving
effect.
3. Agarose gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on size through the gel's sieving effect. When an electric field is applied, DNA fragments, which
are negatively charged, migrate towards the anode. Smaller fragments navigate through the gel more easily and thus move further, while larger fragments
encounter more resistance and move shorter distances.
OR
3. Elution is the process of cutting out the separated DNA bands from the agarose gel and extracting the DNA from the gel piece. This step is significant because it
purifies the DNA fragments, allowing them to be used in constructing recombinant DNA by joining them with cloning vectors.
Q234. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass through cell membranes. To facilitate the uptake of DNA by bacterial cells, they must be made ‘competent’ to
take up DNA. This is achieved by treating them with a specific concentration of a divalent cation, such as calcium, which enhances the efficiency of DNA entry
through pores in the cell wall. The process involves incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on ice, followed by a brief heat shock at 42°C, and then returning
them to ice. This treatment enables bacteria to incorporate the recombinant DNA.
For introducing DNA into animal cells, the micro-injection method involves directly injecting recombinant DNA into the nucleus of the cell. In plant cells, the gene
gun method uses high-velocity micro-particles coated with DNA to bombard the cells. Another approach involves using ‘disarmed pathogen’ vectors that transfer
recombinant DNA into the host cell when they infect it.
1. Why is DNA unable to pass through cell membranes naturally?
2. What role does calcium play in the process of making bacterial cells competent?
3. Describe the process of heat shock used to facilitate DNA uptake by bacterial cells.
OR
3. Compare the methods used for introducing recombinant DNA into animal cells and plant cells.

Ans:1. DNA is hydrophilic and cannot pass through the hydrophobic lipid bilayer of cell membranes naturally.
2. Calcium helps increase the efficiency of DNA uptake by bacterial cells by making them more permeable.
3. The bacterial cells, incubated with recombinant DNA on ice, are subjected to a brief heat shock at 42°C. This sudden increase in temperature causes the cell
membranes to become more permeable, allowing the DNA to enter the cells. The cells are then returned to ice to stabilize the membranes.
OR
3. In animal cells, recombinant DNA is introduced via micro-injection, where DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of the cell. In contrast, for plant cells, the gene
gun method is used, where high-velocity micro-particles coated with DNA are shot into the cells. Both methods aim to integrate recombinant DNA into the host
cells, but they use different techniques suited to the cell types.
Q235. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
Vijay lives in a building where a robbery occurred last night. Tragically, the thieves also murdered an old lady who lived alone in the flat next to Vijay. The police
arrived and collected samples from the crime scene. Among these samples were blood and tissue from under the old lady's nails. The police suspected three
people: the cook, the maid, and the milkman. A few days later, the police managed to catch the real culprit—the milkman. Vijay was curious about how the police
solved the case so quickly. At the police station, he learned that the investigation was greatly aided by using the PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) technique to
amplify the DNA from the samples collected from the victim's nails, which then helped in identifying the suspect.
1. What is the purpose of using PCR in the investigation described in the case?
2. How did the amplification of DNA help in solving the crime?
3. Explain the role of DNA analysis in criminal investigations, using the case as an example.
OR
3. Describe the process of PCR and its significance in forensic science, referring to the case study.

Ans:1. PCR was used to amplify the DNA from the blood and tissue samples found under the old lady's nails to help identify the suspect.
2. Amplified DNA allowed the police to compare the victim's DNA with the suspects' DNA, leading to the identification of the milkman as the culprit.
3. DNA analysis plays a crucial role in criminal investigations by providing a way to identify suspects based on genetic material found at the crime scene. In the
case, DNA from the victim's nails was amplified using PCR, which allowed for accurate comparison with the suspects' DNA, leading to the identification of the
milkman.
OR
3. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a technique used to amplify specific DNA sequences, making them easier to analyze. In forensic science, PCR is significant
as it allows for the amplification of small amounts of DNA from crime scenes, such as those found under the victim's nails in the case. This amplification helps in
creating sufficient DNA samples for comparison and identification of suspects.
Q236. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
The DNA, which is transferred from one organism into another by joining it with the vehicle DNA is called passenger or foreign DNA. Generally, three types of
passenger DNAs are used. These are complementary DNA (cDNA), synthetic DNA (sDNA) and random DNA. Complementary DNA (cDNA) is synthesized on RNA
template (usually mRNA) with the help of reverse transcriptase. Synthetic DNA (sDNA) is synthesized on DNA template or without a template. Random DNA are
small fragments formed by breaking a chromosome of an organism in the presence of restriction endonucleases.
1. What is passenger DNA?
2. How is complementary DNA (cDNA) synthesized?
3. Describe the synthesis of synthetic DNA (sDNA).
OR
3. Explain the process of creating random DNA fragments.

Ans:1. Passenger DNA is the DNA that is transferred from one organism into another by joining it with vehicle DNA.
2. Complementary DNA (cDNA) is synthesized on an RNA template (usually mRNA) with the help of reverse transcriptase.
3. Synthetic DNA (sDNA) can be synthesized either on a DNA template or without any template at all. When synthesized without a template, the sequence is
artificially created based on desired specifications.
OR
3. Random DNA fragments are formed by breaking a chromosome of an organism in the presence of restriction endonucleases. These enzymes cut the DNA at
specific sequences, resulting in small, random fragments.
Q237. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
In recombinant DNA technology, the fragments of DNA generated after cutting the DNA by restriction enzymes are separated according to their size or length by
gel electrophoresis. Gel electrophoresis is performed in a gel matrix so that molecules of similar electric charges can be separated on the basis of size. Most
commonly used matrix in gel electrophoresis is agarose. The fragments are separated under the influence of electric field. The separated DNA fragments can be
seen only after staining the DNA with compound known as ethidium bromide (EtBr) followed by exposure to UV radiation as bright orange band.
1. Why is agarose gel matrix preferred for gel electrophoresis in recombinant DNA technology?
2. What is the purpose of staining DNA fragments with ethidium bromide (EtBr) during gel electrophoresis?
3. Explain the principle behind the separation of DNA fragments during gel electrophoresis.
OR
3. Describe the role of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology.

Ans:1. Agarose gel matrix is preferred because it forms a porous network that allows DNA fragments to migrate based on size under the influence of an electric field.
2. Ethidium bromide stains DNA fragments so that they become visible under UV light, appearing as bright orange bands, facilitating their visualization and
analysis.
3. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on their size. When an electric current is applied, DNA fragments move through the agarose gel matrix.
Smaller fragments move faster and migrate farther, while larger fragments move slower and stay closer to the point of origin.
OR
3. Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific recognition sequences, generating DNA fragments of varying sizes. These fragments can then be analyzed or
combined with other DNA fragments from different sources to create recombinant DNA molecules.
Q238. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
Biotechnology deals with techniques of using live organisms or enzymes from organisms to produce products and processes useful to humans. In this sense,
making curd, bread, or wine, which are all microbe-mediated processes, could also be thought of as a form of biotechnology. However, it is used in a restricted
sense today to refer to processes that use genetically modified organisms to achieve the same on a larger scale. Additionally, many other processes/ techniques
are included under biotechnology. For example, in vitro fertilisation leading to a ‘test-tube’ baby, synthesising a gene and using it, developing a DNA vaccine, or
correcting a defective gene are all part of biotechnology.
The European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB) has provided a definition of biotechnology that encompasses both traditional and modern molecular
biotechnology. The definition given by EFB is as follows: ‘The integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and molecular analogues for
products and services’.
1. Define biotechnology as per the European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB).
2. Name two traditional biotechnological processes mentioned in the case study.
3. Explain the difference between traditional biotechnology and modern biotechnology.
OR
3. Describe two modern applications of biotechnology mentioned in the case study.

Ans:1. Biotechnology is defined by the EFB as ‘The integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and molecular analogues for products and
services.’
2. Making curd and brewing wine are two traditional biotechnological processes.
3. Traditional biotechnology involves using live organisms or their products for processes like making curd, bread, or wine. Modern biotechnology, however,
involves the use of genetically modified organisms and advanced techniques such as in vitro fertilisation, gene synthesis, DNA vaccines, and gene correction for
more complex and large-scale applications.
OR
3. Two modern applications of biotechnology include in vitro fertilisation, which helps in creating 'test-tube' babies, and the development of DNA vaccines, which
are used to prevent diseases by introducing a genetic material to provoke an immune response.
Q239. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
 In the field of biotechnology, the discovery of restriction enzymes has revolutionized genetic engineering. These enzymes are integral to the Restriction
Modification (RM) system found in bacteria, where they play a crucial role in protecting the bacterial cell from foreign DNA. Let's explore the components and
functions of this system.
Information: The RM system consists of two main components:
Restriction Enzymes (Restriction Endonucleases): These enzymes recognize specific sequences of foreign DNA and cleave them at precise points, enabling the
bacteria to destroy incoming viral DNA or plasmids.
Modification Enzymes (Methylases): Methylases protect the bacterial DNA by adding methyl groups to specific sites within the recognition sequence. This
methylation prevents the restriction enzymes from cleaving the bacterial DNA.
1. What is the primary function of restriction enzymes in the RM system?
2. Who first explained the molecular basis of the Restriction Modification system, and when?
3. Explain the role of methylases in the RM system.
OR
3. How have restriction enzymes contributed to the field of biotechnology?

Ans:1. Restriction enzymes cleave foreign DNA at specific sites to defend the bacterium against viral infections.
2. Werner Arber elucidated the molecular basis of the RM system in 1962.
3. Methylases add methyl groups to specific sites on bacterial DNA, protecting it from being cleaved by restriction enzymes.
OR
3. Restriction enzymes are essential tools in genetic engineering, enabling scientists to cut and splice DNA from different sources, facilitating the creation of
recombinant DNA molecules.
Q240. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
In the year 1963, two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in Escherichia coli were isolated. One of these enzymes added methyl
groups to DNA, while the other cut DNA. The latter was named restriction endonuclease. The first restriction endonuclease, Hind II, was isolated and characterized
five years later. Hind II always cut DNA molecules at a specific point by recognizing a specific sequence of six base pairs, known as the recognition sequence.
Today, over 900 restriction enzymes have been isolated from more than 230 bacterial strains, each recognizing different sequences. Restriction enzymes are
named based on the genus and species of the bacteria they were derived from, with Roman numerals indicating the order of isolation. These enzymes are part of a
larger class called nucleases, which include exonucleases and endonucleases. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA, while endonucleases cut
DNA at specific internal positions.
1. What is the primary function of restriction endonucleases in DNA?
2. How are restriction enzymes named?
3. Explain the difference between exonucleases and endonucleases.
OR
3. Why are restriction enzymes significant in biotechnology?

Ans:1. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific internal positions based on a recognition sequence.
2. Restriction enzymes are named using the first letter of the genus, the next two letters of the species, and Roman numerals indicating the order of isolation.
3. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA, while endonucleases cut DNA at specific internal positions within the DNA strands.
OR
3. Restriction enzymes are crucial in biotechnology because they allow for the precise cutting and manipulation of DNA at specific sequences, enabling various
applications such as cloning, gene editing, and DNA sequencing.
Q241. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
The techniques of genetic engineering, such as the creation of recombinant DNA, gene cloning, and gene transfer, enable us to isolate and introduce specific
genes without incorporating unwanted genes into the target organism. A piece of DNA that initially cannot replicate on its own can multiply if integrated into the
host's genome. This occurs because the foreign DNA becomes part of a chromosome, which contains an origin of replication. This origin is essential for initiating
DNA replication. By linking the alien DNA to the origin of replication, it can replicate and multiply within the host organism. The process of cutting DNA at specific
locations is facilitated by restriction enzymes, known as "molecular scissors."
1. What is the role of the 'origin of replication' in genetic engineering?
2. What is the function of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering?
3. Explain how the integration of alien DNA into a chromosome enables its replication and inheritance in a host organism.
OR
3. Discuss the importance of gene cloning in the context of genetic engineering and its impact on biotechnology.

Ans:1. The 'origin of replication' is a specific DNA sequence in a chromosome that initiates the replication process, allowing the alien DNA to multiply and be inherited in
the host organism.
2. Restriction enzymes act as 'molecular scissors' to cut DNA at specific locations, facilitating the creation of recombinant DNA.
3. Alien DNA integrated into a chromosome gains the ability to replicate because the chromosome contains an origin of replication, a sequence crucial for initiating
DNA replication. Once integrated, the foreign DNA is replicated along with the host DNA during cell division, allowing it to be inherited by progeny cells.
OR
3. Gene cloning is crucial in genetic engineering as it allows for the creation of multiple identical copies of a specific gene or DNA sequence. This technique
enables precise study and manipulation of genes, facilitating the development of genetically modified organisms, production of therapeutic proteins, and
advancements in research and agriculture, thus significantly impacting biotechnology.
Q242. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
Tools used in the formation of recombinant DNA include enzymes, cloning vectors, and competent hosts. Lysing enzymes extract DNA from cells. Cleaving
enzymes, such as exonucleases, endonucleases, and restriction endonucleases, break DNA molecules. A competent host is essential for transforming cells with
recombinant DNA, and cloning vectors are used to propagate DNA.
1. Name two types of cleaving enzymes used in recombinant DNA technology.
2. What is the role of a competent host in recombinant DNA technology?
3. Explain the function of cloning vectors in recombinant DNA technology.
OR
3. Differentiate between exonucleases and endonucleases in terms of their action on DNA molecules.

Ans:1. Endonucleases and restriction endonucleases.

2. A competent host is necessary for the transformation of cells with recombinant DNA.
3. Cloning vectors are used to propagate recombinant DNA by inserting it into the host organism and replicating it along with the host's genome.
OR
3. Exonucleases degrade DNA from the ends (exonucleolytic activity), while endonucleases cleave DNA internally at specific sequences (end nucleolytic activity).
Q243. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
In biotechnology, DNA is transferred from one organism to another using different types of passenger DNAs: complementary DNA (cDNA), synthetic DNA (sDNA),
and random DNA fragments. Each type serves specific purposes in genetic engineering processes.
1. Define complementary DNA (cDNA) and explain its synthesis process.
2. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in the synthesis of cDNA?
3. Describe the process of synthesizing synthetic DNA (sDNA) both with and without a template.
OR
3. Explain how random DNA fragments are generated and their significance in genetic engineering.

Ans:1. Complementary DNA (cDNA) is synthesized using reverse transcriptase enzyme, which copies the mRNA (messenger RNA) template into DNA. It lacks introns
and represents only the exons of the gene expressed in the original organism.
2. Reverse transcriptase catalyzes the synthesis of cDNA by using an mRNA template. It converts the single-stranded mRNA into a single-stranded cDNA molecule,
which is then converted into double-stranded DNA by DNA polymerase.
3. Synthetic DNA (sDNA) can be synthesized with a DNA template using automated synthesizers that sequentially add nucleotides according to the specified
sequence. Without a template, sDNA synthesis involves chemically assembling short DNA sequences in a stepwise manner.
OR
3. Random DNA fragments are produced by breaking chromosomes of an organism using restriction endonucleases. These fragments contain various genes and
regulatory sequences, facilitating the study of gene function and enabling the creation of recombinant DNA molecules for genetic engineering purposes.
Q244. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
Gene manipulation is a rapidly advancing field that began with the development of recombinant DNA technology. This technology, also known as genetic
engineering, involves the manipulation of DNA molecules to introduce desired genetic material into organisms. The key discoveries of plasmids and restriction
endonucleases in bacteria paved the way for this groundbreaking science. Paul Berg's successful introduction of an SV-40 gene into bacteria and Cohen and
Boyer's development of inserting foreign DNA into E. coli plasmids marked significant milestones in the field.
1. What are the two key discoveries in bacteria that laid the foundation for recombinant DNA technology?
2. Who were the scientists credited with the initial breakthroughs in gene manipulation and what were their contributions?
3. Explain the significance of plasmids in the context of genetic engineering.
OR
3. Describe the process of inserting foreign DNA into a bacterial plasmid, highlighting the role of restriction endonucleases and DNA ligase.

Ans:1. The key discoveries in bacteria that laid the foundation for recombinant DNA technology are the presence of plasmids and restriction endonucleases.
2. Paul Berg successfully introduced an SV-40 gene into bacteria, demonstrating the feasibility of genetic manipulation. Cohen and Boyer pioneered the technique
of inserting foreign DNA into E. coli plasmids, marking the birth of recombinant DNA technology.
3. Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules found in bacteria that can replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome. They serve as vectors for
introducing foreign DNA into host organisms during genetic engineering processes.
OR
3. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that cut DNA at specific recognition sites. They are used to cleave both the plasmid DNA and the foreign DNA containing
the desired gene. DNA ligase then seals the DNA strands together, creating a recombinant DNA molecule. This molecule can then be introduced into bacterial
cells, where it replicates along with the host DNA.