IBRAIN

BUILDS YOUR CONFIDIENCE

Test / Exam Name: Ch 9 Standard: 12th Science Subject: Biology

Student Name: Section: Roll No.:
Questions: 244 Time: 03:00 hh:mm Marks: 522

Q1. Given below are the steps carried out to construct a recombinant DNA. Which one of the following gives the correct sequence of these steps? 1 Mark
1. Isolation of genetic material
2. Insertion of recombinant DNA in the host cell/ organism
3. Obtaining the foreign gene product
4. Amplification of gene of interest
5. Downstream processing

A (i) → (iii) → (iv) → (ii) → (v) B (i) → (iv) → (ii) → (iii) → (v)
C (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (iv) → (v) D (ii) → (iv) → (v) → (iii) → (i)
Q2. The organism used in construction of the first artificial recombinant DNA by Cohen and Boyer in 1972 was: 1 Mark
A E. coli. B Salmonella typhimurium
C Agrobacterium tumefaciens D Bacillus thuringiensis
Q3. A recombinant DNA molecule can be produced in the absence of the following. 1 Mark
A DNA fragments. B DNA ligase. C [Link].
Q4. DNA finger-printing refers to: 1 Mark
A Molecular analysis or profiles of DNA samples. B Analysis of DNA samples using imprint- ing device.
C Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA. D Techniques used for identification of finger prints of individuals.
Q5. A bacterial cell was transformed with a recombinant DNA that was generated using a human gene. However, the transformed cells did not produce the desired 1 Mark
protein. Reasons could be:
A Human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot process. B Amino acid codons for humans and bacteria are different.
C Human protein is formed but degraded by bacteria. D All of the above.
Q6. A bioreactor is a _______: 1 Mark
A Fermentation tank B Culture containing radioactive isotopes
C Culture for synthesis of new chemicals D Hybridoma
Q7. What is true about DNA polymerase used in PCR? 1 Mark
A It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells. B It serves as selectable marker.
C It is isolated from a virus. D It is active at high temperature.
Q8. Which of the following has revolutionized the discipline of biotechnology ___________________: 1 Mark
A Restriction endonucleases B Discovery of DNA structure
C Recombinant DNA D All of the above
Q9. GMO technology is useful for: 1 Mark
A Making crop more tolerant to abiotic stresses. B Making crop more tolerant to abiotic stresses.
C Enhancing nutritional value of food. D All the above.
Q10. Selective markers in plasmids are used to: 1 Mark
A Identify cancer cellsI B dentify antibiotics
C Identify recombinants from non recombinants D None of these
Q11. What are GMOs? 1 Mark
A Genetically modified organisms B Gross modified organisms
C Genetically multiplied organisms D All of the above
Q12. Stirred-tank bioreactors have advantages over shake flasks because they _______________: 1 Mark
A Provide high temperature and pH B Provide better aeration and mixing properties
C Do not allow the entry of CO2​ D Are easy to operate
Q13. The first Nif genes were isolated from __________________: 1 Mark
A Klebsiella aerogenes B Klebsiella oxytoa C Klebsiella pneumonia D Klebsiella granulonatis
Q14. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for? 1 Mark
A Availability of Oxygen throughout the processA B ddition of preservatives to the product
C Purification of the product D Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
Q15. The genetic defect adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by: 1 Mark
A Introducing bone marrow cells producing (ADA) into cells at an early B Administrating adenosine deaminase activators.
embryonic stages.
C Enzyme replacement therapy. D None of these.
Q16. A doctor while operating on an HIV(+)ve patient accidentally cuts himself with a scalpel. Suspecting himself to have contracted the virus which test will he take to 1 Mark
rule out/confirm his suspicion?
A PCR B Routine urine examination
C TLC D DLC
Q17. Select the incorrect Statement regarding DNA replication with respect to the template strand: 1 Mark
A Leading strand is formed in 5 → 3 direction. B Okazaki fragments are formed in 5 → 3 direction.
C DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation in 5 → 3 direction. D DNA polymerase catalyses palymerisation in 3 → 5 direction.
Q18. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Special methods are used for transformation i.e., incorporation of recombinant DNA into molecule.
Reason: DNA is a hydrophilic molecule.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q19. Which scientist obtained interferon through recombinant DNA technology? 1 Mark
A Kohler and Milstein B Charles Weismann C Nathans and Smith D Maurice Wilkins
Q20. Gray biotechnology is referred to as: 1 Mark
A Medical process B Industrial process C Agricultural process D Aquatic process
Q21. A device in which large volume of living cells are cultured in order to get a specific product is called: 1 Mark
A PCR B Agitator C Bioreactor D Assimilator
Q22. A recombinant DNA molecule can be produced in the absence of the following: 1 Mark
 A Restriction endonuclease. B DNA ligase.
C DNA fragments. D [Link].
Q23. Utility of fungi for steroid conversion was demonstrated by: 1 Mark
A Pasteur and Jaubert B Kohler and Milstein C Murray and Peterson D Waksman and Woodruff
Q24. Blood stain component to be used for DNA profiling technique is: 1 Mark
A Serum B Leucocytes C Platelets D Erythrocytes
Q25. The first clinical application of gene therapy over a 4 year old girl was for: 1 Mark
A The first clinical application of gene therapy. B Adenosine deficiency.
C None of these.
Q26. Science of engineering and technology which is applied to life sciences is: 1 Mark
A Biotechnology B Genetic engineering C Pathology D Conchology
Q27. Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants? 1 Mark
A Agrobacterium tumefaciens. B Penicillium expansum.
C Trichoderma harzianum. D Meloidogyne incognita.
Q28. Biotechnology is use of: 1 Mark
A Industries B Microorganisms C Plants D Chemicals
Q29. Scaling up in biotechnology means: 1 Mark
A Development of a process in laboratory B Development of a laboratory scale plant for obtaining a product
C Conversion of laboratory scale process to pilot plant scale D Conversion of a laboratory scale plant to manufacturing unit
Q30. Central drug research institute is situated at: 1 Mark
A Lucknow B Madras C Mumbai D Delhi
Q31. What is it that forms the basis of DNA Fin- gerprinting? 1 Mark
A The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva. B The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints.
C S ate llite DNA occur r ing a s highly repeated short DNA segments. D The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA.
Q32. Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals because: 1 Mark
A Recombinant genes can be inserted into plant cells by microinjection B A somatic plant cell can grow into a complete plant
C More vectors are available for transferring recombinant DNA into plant cells D Plant genes do not contain introns
Q33. Lal Bahadur Shastri biotechnological centre is in: 1 Mark
A Bombay B Calcutta C Delhi D Kanpur
Q34. Rising of dough is due to: 1 Mark
A Emulsification. B Hydrolysis of wheat flour starch into sugars.
C Production of CO2. D Multiplication of yeast.
Q35. After completion of the biosynthetic stage in the bioreactors, the product undergoes separation and purification processes, collectively termed as _______________: 1 Mark
A Transformation B Electrophoresis C Downstream processing D Upstream processing
Q36. Plasmid is: 1 Mark
A Fragment of DNA which acts as vector. B A fragment which joins two genes.
C mRNA which acts as carrier. D Autotrophic fragment.
Q37. p DNA is used in biotechnology of ________________: 1 Mark
A Protein synthesis B Gene splicing C Residual DNA D Recombinant DNA
Q38. Which of the following statements is not true for stirred tank fermentation? 1 Mark
A Buffer needed to control B Batch and feed possible
C Control dissolved oxygen D Easy in process sampling
Q39. Reaction of 1989 was: 1 Mark
A Nicking by restriction endonucleases B Polymerase chain reaction
C Reverse genetics D Splicing
Q40. In which field, application of biotechnology occurs? 1 Mark
A Bio-medicine B Agriculture C Environmetal field D All of these
Q41. For transformation with recombinant DNA, the bacterial cells must first be made ‘competent’ which means: 1 Mark
A Should increase their metabolic reactions. B Should decrease their metabolic reactions.
C Increase efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium. D Ability to divide fast.
Q42. At which of the following stage after fermentation, the desired product is screened and purified? 1 Mark
A Up stream processing B Screening C Down stream processing D Batch-culture
Q43. The most important feature in a plasmid to be used as a vector is: 1 Mark
A Origin of replication (ori). B Presence of a selectable marker.
C Presence of sites for restriction endonuclease. D Its size.
Q44. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as 1 Mark
given below.
Assertion: DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in specific regions of DNA sequence.
Reason: DNA fingerprinting is the basis of paternity testing.
A Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of B Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
assertion. of assertion.
C Assertion is true but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Q45. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: A gene from Bacillus thuringiensis is incorporated in plant genome to increase yield.
Reason: It is Bt toxin producing gene which kills larvae of insects.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q46. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Plasmids are single-stranded extra chromosomal DNA.
Reason: Plasmids are usually present in eukaryotic cells.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q47. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: “DNA finger printing” has become a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases.
Reason: Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva and dried semen are adequate for DNA analysis.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
 C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q48. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Restriction endonucleases are also called 'molecular scissors'
Reason: When fragments generated by restriction endonucleases are mixed, they join together due to their sticky ends.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q49. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Foreign DNA and vector DNA cut with the help of ligase.
Reason: Ligase act on sugar phosphate backbone of DNA.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q50. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: The uptake of DNA during transformation is an active, energy requiring process.
Reason: Transformation occurs in only those bacteria, which possess the enzymatic machinery involved in the active uptake and recombination.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q51. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: All expression vectors are cloning vectors and vice versa.
Reason: Expression vectors have at least the regulatory sequences i.e., promoters, operators, ribosomal binding sites, etc. having optimum function in the chosen
control but not origin of replication.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q52. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is popular in genetic engineering because this bacterium is associated with roots of all cereals and pulse crops.
Reason: A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets automatically transferred to the crop with which the bacterium is associated.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q53. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Recognition site should be preferably single and responsive to commonly used restriction enzyme.
Reason: In pBR322 alien DNA is ligated generally in the area of Bam-HI site of tetracycline resistance gene.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q54. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: A bacterial cell with no restriction enzymes will be easily infected and lysed by bacteriophages.
Reason: Restriciton enymes catalyse synthesis of protective coat around bacterial cell that prevents bacteriophage attack.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q55. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Interferons are effective against viruses
Reason: Proteins which can be synthesized only by genetic engineering are effective against viruses.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q56. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Genetic engineering requires both nucleases and ligases.
Reason: Ligases produce the nick in the recombinant DNA molecule.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q57. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: The matrix used in gel electroph- oresis should have controllable pore size.
Reason: Agarose concentration can be changed to change pore sizes.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q58. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: PCR primers must not have self complementary regions.
Reason: Self comeplementary regions result in hairpin structures adversly affecting the PCR.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q59. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: In a chemical engineering process, it is necessary to prepare sterile ambience.
Reason: Sterile ambience inhibits the growth of undesirable microbes during manufacture of products like antibiotics, vaccines and enzymes.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q60. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: A piece of DNA inserted into an alien organism generally does not replicate if not inserted into a chromosome.
Reason: Chromosomes have specific sequences called 'ori' region where DNA replication is initiated
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q61. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Enzyme application in industry is enhanced by its immobilization.
 Reason: Immobilization provides protection to enzymes without affecting their activity
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q62. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as 1 Mark
given below.
Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).
Reason: Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge populations which express the desired gene.
A Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of B Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
assertion. of assertion.
C Assertion is true but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Q63. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria or yeast.
Reason: The selected vectors multiply very fast to form huge population which can express the desired gene.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q64. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are separated.
Reason: DNA is negatively charged, so it moves towards anode under electric field.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q65. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Ethidium bromide (EtBr) under UV radiation gives bright orange coloured bands.
Reason: The separated DNA fragments can be seen after staining the DNA with compound EtBr.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q66. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Origin of replication is an essential part of a vector.
Reason: Ori is responsible for initiating replication.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q67. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA.
Reason: Plasmids are found in bacteria and are useful in genetic engineering.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q68. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Genetic engineering can overcome the drawbacks of traditional hybridization.
Reason: Genetic engineering can create desired DNA sequences to meet specific requirements.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q69. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Asexual reproduction is more important with regard to biotechnology.
Reason: Asexual reproduction preserves the genetic information while sexual reproduction permits variations.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q70. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Use of chitinase enzyme is necessary for isolation of DNA from yeast cells but not in case of Spirogyra.
Reason: Fungal cell wall is made up of fungal cellulose or chitin.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q71. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).
Reason: Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population which express the desired gene.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q72. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Electroporation uses electric pulses for making competent host.
Reason: The electrical pulses induce transient pores in the plasmalemma through which DNA molecules are incorporated.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q73. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Restriction digestion is a process of cutting DNA by restriction enzyme.
Reason: DNA ligase joins two DNAs.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q74. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Superbug gas been biopatented on name of Prof. A Chakrabarty.
Reason: Superbug was created by him with exceptional degradative plasmid to degrade toxic substances.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q75. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Biotechnology deals with techniques that use living organism to produce products useful for humans.
Reason: Biotechnology uses only a unicellular organism.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q76. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA to produce sticky ends.
Reason: Stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q77. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Downstream processing is generally considerd more difficult and costlier in plants than that in microbes.
Reason: Rhizosecretion is used as a method to facilitate easier recoveryof recombinant proteins from plants.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q78. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: All GM organisms are rich in chimeric DNA (rDNA).
Reason: Chimeric DNA constitutes genes of two different organisms.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q79. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Extraction and purification of enzymes is laborious and expensive.
Reason: Protein engineering can be used to produce enzymes at large scale.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q80. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Clones are produced by sexual reproduction.
Reason: These are prepared by group of cells descended from many cells or by inbreeding of a heterozygous line.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q81. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a pathogen of several monocot plants.
Reason: Retroviruses in plants have ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cell.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q82. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Insertion of recombinant DNA within the coding sequence of β-galactosidase results in colourless colonies.
Reason: Presence of insert results in inactivation of enzyme β-galactosidase known as insertional inactivation.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q83. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Restriction enzymes Hind II and Hpa are produced from two different genera of bacteria.
Reason: Hind II is produced from Haemophilus while Hpa is produce from Hematococcus.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q84. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Ori is a sequence from where replication starts.
Reason: A prokaryotic DNA has a single origin of replication.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q85. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: One application of genetic engineering is the production of human insulin by microbes.
Reason: Gene for production of human insuling can be transferred to Escherichia coli by recombinant DNA technique.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q86. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: The antibodies separted from serum are homogenous.
Reason: Monoclonal antibodies are homogenous immunological reagents.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q87. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Maintenance of sterile environment is essential for manufacture of biotechnological products.
Reason: This is to enable growth of only desired products.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q88. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Plasmids are tools of genetic engineering
Reason: Virculence plasmids provide pathogenicity to bacteria.
 A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q89. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Phagemid vector is made of plasmid and bacteriophage.
Reason: These vectors accomodate 300-350 kb of foreign DNA.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q90. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Restriction enzymes of different organisms that r ecognize the identical sequences are called isoschizomers.
Reason: They are present only in eukaryotes.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q91. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: [Link] having pBR322 with DNA insert at BamHI site cannot grow in medium containing tetracycline.
Reason: Recognition site for Bam HI is present in tetr region of pBR322
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q92. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Restriction enzymes recognize palindromic sequence.
Reason: Palindromic sequences read same in both directions of the two strands.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q93. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) 1 Mark
and (d) as given below.
Assertion: All endonuclease cut DNA at specific sites.
Reason: Endonucleases are found in viruses.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q94. Downstream processing involves separation and ______. 1 Mark
Q95. Illustrate the design of a bioreactor. Highlight the difference between a flask in your laboratory and a bioreactor which allows cells to grow in a continuous culture 6 Marks
system.
Q96. Development of recombinant DNA technology has opened gates to many breakthroughs in the fields of medicine and agriculture. This has enabled scientists to 5 Marks
isolate, sequence and manipulate individual genes obtained from diverse living or dead cells. Given below is a diagram showing the basic steps involved in
genetically modifying an organism. Study the given diagram and answer the questions that follow:

1. Are two different types of restriction endonucleases used, one to cut the vector DNA and another to cut the desired DNA to be cloned? Support your answer,
giving reason.
2. Which enzyme is used at step (X) to integrate the foreign DNA with the vector DNA?
3. What is the term used for step (Y) showing multiple copies of the foreign DNA being formed in transformed E. coli?
4. Draw a diagram of E. coli cloning vector pBR322 to show the following:
Any one restriction endonuclease site in tetracycline resistance gene.
Any one restriction endonuclease site in ampicillin resistance gene.
‘ori’ site
5. What does “rop” code for in plasmid pBR322?
Q97. 1. Plan an experiment and prepare a flow chart of the steps that you would follow to ensure that the seeds are formed only from the desired sets of pollen grains. 5 Marks
Name the type of experiment that you carried out.
2. Write the importance of such experiments.
Q98. 1. Name the type of DNA that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting and mention two features of this DNA. 5 Marks
2. Write the steps carried out in the process of DNA fingerprinting technique, and mention its application.
Q99. 1. Explain the different steps carried out in Polymerase Chain Reaction, and the specific roles of the enzymes used. 5 Marks
2. Mention application of PCR in the field of:
1. Biotechnology.
2. Diagnostics.
Q100. Explain the role of lactose as an inducer in a lac operon. 5 Marks
Q101. Gene of interest/alien gene is introduced by a cloning vector into a host cell to bring about a desired phenotypic expression in a host cell. The cloning vectors used 5 Marks
are plasmid and bacteriophages. Biotechnologists in their labs, for desired results engineered specialised cloning vectors. One such vector is pBR322. Study the
diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow.
 1. What do ‘EcoR I, ‘BamH I and ‘Hind III’ represent ? State their functions.
2. Identify the gene you would select for the role of a selectable marker in pBR322. Explain why.
3. Write the property/characteristic of plasmid and bacteriophage that makes them efficient cloning vectors.
4. Biotechnologists always insert ‘ori’ gene in their engineered cloning vector. Justify the statement.
5. Will the experiment be successful if the alien DNA is ligated at Hind III restriction site?
Q102. Study the schematic representation of the genes involved in the lac operon given below and answer the questions that follow: 5 Marks

pipozya

1. Identify and name the regulatory gene in this operon. Explain its role in ‘switching off’ the operon.
2. Why is the lac operon’s regulation referred to as negative regulation?
3. Name the inducer molecule and the products of the genes ‘z’ and ‘y’ of the operon. Write the functions of these gene products.
Q103. Cloning of genes, play a very significant role in genetic engineering, helping the transfer of desirable foreign genes into different hosts. The scientists, to make this 5 Marks
process easier and effective are creating engineered vectors in such a way that they help easy linking of foreign DNA and selection of recombinants from non
recombinants. 'pBR322' is one such engineered vectors developed by scientists. A diagram of an engineered vector pBR322 is given below:

1. Name the host for this cloning vector.

2. Identify 'Rop' and 'Ori' in the diagram from 'U', 'V', 'W', 'X', 'Y' and 'Z'. Write their functions.
3. Draw the fragments that will be formed by the action of 'Z' (marked in the diagram) on the specific site of the DNA segment given below:
5'-GTACGAATTCCTGA-3'
3'-CATGCTTAAGGACT-5'
Q104. What essential features must be present in a cloning vector? 5 Marks
Q105. Can you list 10 recombinant proteins which are used in medical practice? Find out where they are used as therapeutics (use the internet). 5 Marks
Q106. Answer the following questions: 5 Marks
Describe the temperature treatment that enhances the bacteria to take up the rDNA.
Q107. If a desired gene is identified in an organism for some experiments, explain the process of the following: 5 Marks
1. Cutting this desired gene at specific location.
2. Synthesis of multiple copies of this desired gene.
Q108. Taking examples under each category, discuss upstream and downstream processing. 4 Marks
Q109. No evidence was found on a crime scene, other than only a few hair strands. The inspector wants to proceed for DNA fingerprinting, but the amount of DNA is very 4 Marks
less.
1. In your opinion what could be the solution to this problem?
2. Write the basic steps of this technique.
3. Name the scientist who developed this technique.
4. What values shown by the inspector?
Q110. 1. Write the palindromic nucleotide sequence EcoRI recognises. 3 Marks
2. Draw the vector DNA and a foreign DNA showing the sites where EcoRI has acted to form the sticky ends.
3. Name the enzyme that helps in forming recombinant DNA.
Q111. Causative agents of HIV-AIDS and COVID-19 belong to the same group of viruses. To diagnose and amplify the genetic material for further study of COVID-19 virus, 3 Marks
‘RT-PCR’ test is carried out.
1. What does ‘RT-PCR’ stand for?
2. Explain the various steps of PCR technique.
Q112. Restriction endonucleases have played a very significant role in rDNA technology. Explain the roles of EcoRI and DNA ligase in formation of recombinant DNA. 3 Marks
Q113. 1. Explain the significance of 'palindromic nucleotide sequence' in the formation of recombinant DNA. 3 Marks
2. Write the use of restriction endonuclease in the above process.
Q114. 1. Write the difference between the pro insulin and mature insulin. 3 Marks
2. How did American company Eli Lilly produce human insulin using rDNA technique?
Q115. Enlist the steps involved in inbreeding of cattle. Suggest two disadvantages of this practice. 3 Marks
Q116. Suggest and describe a technique to obtain multiple copies of a gene of interest in vitro. 3 Marks
Q117. With the help of a schematic diagram only, show in three steps, the formation of recombinant DNA by the action of restriction endonuclease - EcoRI and DNA 3 Marks
ligase.
Q118. 1. Why must a cell be made 'competent’ in biotechnology experiments? How does calcium ion help in doing so? 3 Marks
2. State the role of ‘biolistic gun’ in biotechnology experiments.
Q119. Given below is the diagram representing the observations made for separating DNA fragments by Gel electrophoresis technique. Observe the illustration and 3 Marks
answer the questions that follow:

1. Why are the DNA fragments seen to be moving in the direction A → B?

2. Write the medium used on which DNA fragments separate.
3. Mention how the separated DNA fragments can be visualised for further technical use.
Q120. 1. Write the two limitations of traditional breeding technique that led to promotion of micro propagation. 3 Marks
2. Mention two advantages of micro propagation.
3. Give two examples where it is commercially adopted.
Q121. Name any two natural cloning vectors. Give reasons that make them act as cloning vectors. Write the two characteristics the engineered vectors are made to 3 Marks
possess.
Q122. Only with the help of a labelled diagram, show the steps of formation of recombinant DNA by the action of restriction endonuclease enzyme EcoR I. 3 Marks
Q123. With the advent of sophisticated techniques of genetic engineering, we can now readily purify and isolate DNA. Name and explain the different steps involved in 3 Marks
the separation and isolation of DNA fragments once cut by restriction endonucleases.
Q124. Explain the three steps carried out in the formation of recombinant DNA using the enzyme EcoRI. 3 Marks
Q125. How does a restriction endonuclease help in DNA recombinant technology? 3 Marks
Q126. 1. List the two methodologies which were involved in human genome project. Mention how they were used. 3 Marks
2. Expand ‘YAC’ and mention what was it used for.
Q127. Explain the role(s) of the following in Biotechnology: 3 Marks
1. Restriction endonuclease.
2. Gel – electrophoresis.
3. Selectable markers in pBR322.
Q128. Explain three basic steps to be followed during genetic modification of an organism. 3 Marks
Q129. 1. Given below is the stepwise schematic representation of the process of electrophoresis. Identify the ‘alphabets’ representing. 3 Marks
1. Anode end
2. smallest/ lightest DNA strand in the matrix.
3. Agarose gel

2. What is elution? State the importance of elution in this process.

Q130. How is the amplification of a gene sample of interest carried out using Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)? 3 Marks
Q131. 1. Identify steps A and B in a cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction given below. 3 Marks
 2. State the specific characteristic feature of the enzyme in carrying step B.
Q132. Observe the diagram shown below of pBR 322. Answer the questions that follow: 3 Marks

1. What is pBR322?
2. Write the role of ‘rop’.
3. State the significance of ‘ampR’ and ‘tetR’.
Q133. 3 Marks

1. Identify the selectable markers in the diagram of E. coli vector shown above.
2. How is the coding sequence of a-galactosidase considered a better marker than the ones identified by you in the diagram? Explain.
Q134. Explain how recombinant human insulin was prepared in 1983 by Eli Lily an American company. 3 Marks
Q135. Give reasons why: 3 Marks
1. DNA cannot pass into a host cell through the cell membrane.
2. Proteases are added during isolation of DNA for genetic engineering.
3. Single cloning site is preferred in a vector.
Q136. Explain with the help of an example the relationship between restriction endonuclease and a palindromic nucleotide sequence. 3 Marks
Q137. Describe the roles of heat, primers and the bacterium Thermus aquaticus in the process of PCR. 3 Marks
Q138. In an E. coli cloning vector pBR 322, state the role of the following genes: 3 Marks
1. Ori gene.
2. Antibiotic resistance gene.
3. Rop gene.
Q139. Name and describe the technique that helps in separating the DNA fragments formed by the use of restriction endonuclease. 3 Marks
Q140. Name and explain the techniques used in the separation and isolation of DNA fragments to be used in recombinant DNA technology. 3 Marks
Q141. Eco RI is used to cut a segment of foreign DNA and that of a vector DNA to form a recombinant DNA. Show with the help of schematic diagrams. 3 Marks
1. The set of palindronic nucleotide sequence of base pairs the Eco RI will recognise in both the DNA segments. Mark the site at which Eco RI will act and cut
both the segments.
2. Sticky ends formed on both the segments where the two DNA segments will join later to form a recombinant DNA.
Q142. Explain how ‘sticky ends’ are obtained in a DNA segment. Write their importance in DNA technology. 3 Marks
Q143. 1. Name the organism in which the vector shown is inserted to get the copies of the desired gene. 3 Marks
2. Mention the area labelled in the vector responsible for controlling the copy number of the inserted gene.
3. Name and explain the role of a selectable marker in the vector shown.

Q144. Describe the formation of recombinant DNA by the action of EcoRI. 3 Marks
Q145. Why is Agrobacterium tumefaciens a good cloning vector? Explain. 3 Marks
Q146. Describe the process of amplification of "gene of interest" using PCR technique. 3 Marks
Q147. How and why is the bacterium Thermus aquaticus employed in recombinant DNA technology? Explain. 3 Marks
Q148. Study the figure of vector pBR322 given below. 3 Marks

Identify A, B and C and explain their roles in cloning a vector.

Q149. Describe the roles of (a) high temperature, (b) primers, and (c) bacterium Thermus aquaticus in carrying the process of polymerase chain reaction. 3 Marks
Q150. 1. What are “molecular scissors”? Give one example. 3 Marks
2. Explain their role in recombinant DNA technology.
Q151. What are satellite DNA in a genome? Explain their role in DNA fingerprinting. 3 Marks
Q152. What are plasmids? How are they different from cloning vectors? Give one example each for a viral and a bacterial cloning vector. 3 Marks
R
Q153. Explain the importance of (a) ori, (b) amp and (c) rop In the [Link] vector shown below: 3 Marks
Q154. Draw a labelled sketch of sparged-stirred tank bioreactor. Write its application. 3 Marks
Q155. Mention the role of the following in [Link] cloning vector pBR 322. 3 Marks
1. Selectable marker.
2. ori.
3. rop.
Q156. A schematic representation of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) up to the extension stage is given below. Give answers of the following questions. 3 Marks

1. Name the process A.

2. Identify B.
3. Identify C and mention its importance in PCR.
Q157. Rahul introduced Ronit to his uncle and told him that Ronit is pursuing a course in biotechnology in America. 3 Marks
 His uncle had never heard of this term earlier and was curious to know about this term. Ronit pointed towards a big tree at the base of which were present
numerous tumour-like structures and said that this is the example of natural biotechnology:
1. What is biotechnology?
2. How these crown gall tumours are formed?
3. What are the values shown by Rahul's uncle?
Q158. What is a bioreactor used for? Name a commonly used bioreactor and any two of its components. 3 Marks
Q159. In a Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), give the temperature required for the steps: 3 Marks
1. Denaturation.
2. Annealing.
3. Extension, respectively.
Q160. List in proper sequence the processes involved in recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology. 3 Marks
Q161. How are 'sticky ends' formed on a DNA strand? Why are they so called? 3 Marks
Q162. 1. How are recombinant vectors created? 3 Marks
2. For creating one recombinant vector only one type of restriction endonuclease is required. Give reason.
Q163. Shubham was taught in the biotechnology class about the production of recombinant protein with the help of bioreactor. He was surprised by this new information. 3 Marks
In the evening he discussed it with his elder brother, who is a biotechnologist. He smiled and explained him in detail.
1. What is recombinant protein?
2. Why is bioreactors useful in industries?
3. What are the values shown by Shubham?
Q164. What are bioreactors? List five growth conditions that a bioreactor provides for obtaining the desired product. 3 Marks
Q165. Besides better aeration and mixing properties, what other advantages do stirred tank bioreactors have over shake flasks? 3 Marks
Q166. Describe a palindrome with the help of an example. 3 Marks
Q167. Both a wine maker and a molecular biologist who had developed a recombinant vaccine claim to be biotechnologists. Who in your opinion is correct? 3 Marks
Q168. 1. Why was a bacterium used in the first instance of the construction of an artificial recombinant DNA molecule? 3 Marks
2. Name the scientists who accomplished this and how?
Q169. 1. Mention the number of primers required in each cycle of polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Write the role of primers and DNA polymerase in PCR. 2 Marks
2. Give the characteristic feature and source organism of the DNA polymerase used in PCR.
Q170. All cloning vectors do have a ‘selectable marker’. Describe its role in recombinant DNA-technology. 2 Marks
Q171. Why is the introduction of genetically engineered lymphocytes into an ADA deficiency patient not a permanent cure? Suggest a possible permanent cure. 2 Marks
Q172. How does EcoRI specifically act on DNA molecule? Explain? 2 Marks
Q173. How can DNA segments, separated by gel electrophoresis, be visualised and isolated? 2 Marks
Q174. List the key tools used in recombinant DNA technology. 2 Marks
Q175. How does a restriction nuclease function? Explain. 2 Marks
Q176. Write the basis of naming the restriction endonuclease EcoR-I. 2 Marks
Q177. Explain with the help of a suitable example the naming of a restriction endonuclease. 2 Marks
Q178. What are recombinant proteins? How do bioreactors help in their production? 2 Marks
Q179. How is DNA isolated in purified form from a bacterial cell? 2 Marks
Q180. Describe the responsibility of GEAC, set up by the Indian Government. 2 Marks
Q181. 2 Marks

Study the linking of DNA fragments shown above.

1. Name ‘a’ DNA ‘b’ DNA.
2. Name the restriction enzyme that recognises this palindrome.
3. Name the enzyme that can link these two DNA fragments.
Q182. How is ‘Rosie’ considered different from a normal cow? Explain. 2 Marks
Q183. Explain the contribution of Thermus aquaticus in the amplification of a gene of interest. 2 Marks
Q184. 1. State the role of DNA ligase in biotechnology. 2 Marks
Q185. 1. Identify and name the structures 'A' and 'B' marked in the image given below: 2 Marks
 2. State their importance in various biotechnology experiments.
Q186. 1. What is a plasmid? 2 Marks
2. What is meant by ADA deficiency? How is gene therapy a solution to this problem? Why is it not a permanent cure?
Q187. 1. Name the nematode that infests and damages tobacco roots. 2 Marks
2. How are transgenic tobacco plants produce to solve this problem?
Q188. Vectors are DNA molecules that can carry a foreign DNA segment into the host cell. 2 Marks
1. Write the significance of ‘ori’ in this vector.
2. Give one example each of vectors used for cloning genes in plants and animals.
Q189. 1. Mention the role of vectors in recombinant DNA technology. Give any two example. 2 Marks
2. With the help of diagrammatic representation only, show the steps of recombinant DNA technology.
Q190. What is ‘Ori’? State its importance during cloning of a vector. 2 Marks
Q191. State the difference between simple stirred-tank bioreactor and sparged stirred-tank bioreactor. What are the advantages of these bioreactors? 2 Marks
Q192. Give the name of the type of bioreactor shown. Write the purpose for which it is used. 2 Marks

Or
How can the desire products formed after genetic engineering be produced on a commercial scale?
Q193. List five growth conditions that a bioreactor should provide for obtaining the desired product? 2 Marks
Q194. Discuss with your teacher and find out how to distinguish between: 2 Marks
RNA and DNA
Q195. Write the use of the following in biotechnology. 2 Marks
Bioreactor.
Q196. Write the use of the following in biotechnology. 2 Marks
Plasmid.
Q197. Is there any difference between recombinant DNA and recombinant protein? Support your answer. 2 Marks
Q198. Describe briefly the following: 2 Marks
Downstream processing
Q199. 1. Explain how to find whether an [Link] bacterium has transformed or not, when a recombinant DNA bearing ampicillin-resistant gene is transferred into it. 2 Marks
2. What does the ampicillin-resistant gene act as, in the above case?
Q200. Differentiate between rDNA and cDNA. 2 Marks
Q201. A wine maker and a molecular biologist who has developed a recombinant vaccine, both claim themselves to be biotechnologist. Who in your opinion is right? 2 Marks
Q202. Write the use of the following in biotechnology. 2 Marks
Chilled ethanol.
Q203. 1. What is the advantage of bubbling air into the sparged stirred-tank bioreactors? 2 Marks
2. Name the two main processes involed in down stream processing.
Q204. Describe briefly the following: 2 Marks
 Bioreactors
Q205. Identify and explain steps ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in the PCR diagram given below. 2 Marks

Q206. What is the role of lysing enzyme in biotechnology? 2 Marks

Q207. Name two commonly used bioreactors. State the importance of using a bioreactor. 2 Marks
Q208. Illustrate briefly downstream processing. 2 Marks
Q209. Name the enzymes that are used for the isolation of DNA from bacterial and fungal cells for recombinant DNA technology. 1 Mark
Q210. Suggest a technique to a researcher who needs to separate fragments of DNA. 1 Mark
Q211. How can bacterial DNA be released from the bacterial cell for biotechnology experiments? 1 Mark
Q212. How is the action of exonuclease different from that of endonuclease? 1 Mark
Q213. Explain the steps involved in the production of genetically engineered insulin. 1 Mark
Q214. Mention the name of the specific sequence of DNA found in a plasmid that the gene of interest ligates with to enable it to replicate. 1 Mark
Q215. Expand the terms rDNA and cDNA. 1 Mark
Q216. What are palindromes? 1 Mark
Q217. Expand EFB? 1 Mark
Q218. Write the names of the enzymes that are used for isolation of DNA from bacterial and fungal cells respectively for recombinant DNA technique. 1 Mark
Q219. Can you recall meiosis and indicate at what stage a recombinant DNA is made? 1 Mark
Q220. Write the two components of the first artificial recombinant DNA molecule constructed by Cohen and Boyer. 1 Mark
Q221. What is a bioreactor? 1 Mark
Q222. Write the function of a bioreactor. 1 Mark
Q223. Give any two microbes that are useful in biotechnology. 1 Mark
Q224. Write the importance of the bacterium Thermus aquaticus in polymerase chain reaction. 1 Mark
Q225. What are the sampling port in a bioreactor? 1 Mark
Q226. Rearrange the following in the correct sequence to accomplish an important biotechnological reaction: 3 Marks
1. In vitro synthesis of copies of DNA of interest.
2. Chemically synthesised oligonucleotides.
3. Enzyme DNA-polymerase.
4. Complementary region of DNA.
5. Genomic DNA template.
6. Nucleotides provided.
7. Primers.
8. Thermostable DNA-polymerase (from Thermus aquatics).
9. Denaturation of ds-DNA.
Q227. Read the following and answer any four questions from 6(i) to 6(v) given below: 5 Marks
Rama lives in a society where a robbery occurred last night. Robbers came into the flat and murdered the old lady residing there. Police came and restricted the
entry into the flat. They took samples from the room, where the dead body was found. While examining, they found that there is some blood and tissue in the nails
of old lady. According to their observation, police filtered out their inspection to three suspects viz. servant, cook and milkman. Finally after two days of robbery,
police caught the criminal. It was the old lady's cook. Rama was amazed to see that how quickly police completed and shut the case. She asked the inspector that
how they did it? The police man told her that it become possible due to the sample collected from the victim, that lead them to the criminal. TI1e sample taken from
nail scraping was amplified using PCR and then tested.
1. What technique was used by the police to identify the criminal?
1. DNA fingerprinting.
2. Gel electrophoresis.
3. Molecular diagnosis.
4. Clonning.
2. In PCR, the temperature used to denature the DNA is about:
1. 76º
2. 25º
3. 95º
4. 40º
3. Which of the following statements regarding PCR is correct?
1. Taq polymerase, which is isolated from bacterium Thermus aquaticus is stable at low temperature only.
2. With the help of DNA ligase, the complementary sticky ends of the DNA are joined to produce a rDNA.
3. Since the sequence of primers are complementary to 5' end of the template DNA, they anneal to it.
4. DNA purified from the cell is precipitated by adding hot ethanol.
4. Taq polymerase synthesises DNA region between the primers using:
1. Mg2+
2. dNTPs
3. DNA ligase
 4. Both (a) and (b).
5. Given below are steps of polymerase chain reaction.

Select the option that correctly mention the sequence in which they occur.
1. (ii) → (iii) → (i)
2. (i) → (ii) → (iii)
3. (iii) → (i) → (ii)
4. (ii) → (i) → (iii)
Q228. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: 5 Marks
The DNA, which is transferred from one organism into another by joining it with the vehicle DNA is called passenger or foreign DNA. Generally three types of
passenger DNAs are used. These are complementary DNA (cDNA), synthetic DNA (sDNA) and random DNA. Complementary DNA (cDNA) is synthesized on RNA
template (usually mRNA) with the help of reverse transcriptase. Synthetic DNA (sDNA) is synthesized on DNA template or without a template. Random DNA are
small fragments fanned by breaking a chromosome of an organism in the presence of restriction endonucleases.

1. Reverse transcriptase enzyme was discovered by:

1. Temin and Baltimore.
2. Cohen and Boyer.
3. Arber and Nathan.
4. Paul Berg.
2. During cDNA formation, what would happen if DNA formed by reverse transcriptase is not treated with the alkali?
1. cDNA will not be digested.
2. mRNA will not be digested.
3. Hydrogen bonds will not form between base pairs.
4. rnRNA will not be formed.
3. Enzyme that helps in the formation of double stranded cDNA is:
1. DNA synthetase
2. Ligase
3. DNA polymerase
4. Helicase.
4. DNA polymerase can be obtained form:
1. Retrovirus.
2. Agrobacteriurn.
3. Tobacco mosaic virus.
4. Thermus aquaticus.
5. DNA synthesised without a template is referred to as:
1. Complementary DNA.
2. Random DNA.
3. Synthetic DNA.
4. Z-DNA..
Q229. Read the following and answer any four questions from 9(i) to 9(v) given below: 5 Marks
 Bioreactors are considered as vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products by microbes, plant and animal cells or their enzymes.
They are used for large scale production as they provide optimum growth conditions such as temperature, pH, substrate, vitamins, oxygen and salts for obtaining
desired product. Most commonly used bioreactors are of stirring type which include simple stirred tank bioreactor and sparged stirred-tank bioreactor.
1. Bioreactor are useful in:
1. Amplifying a gene.
2. Isolation of genetic material.
3. Processing large volume of culture.
4. Infecting DNA in a cell.
2. Which of the following is essential to obtain desired product in a bioreactor?
1. Size of the bioreactor.
2. Sterile condition.
3. Quantity of the raw material.
4. All of these.
3. Assertion: The stirred-tank is well suited for large scale production of microorganisms under aseptic conditions.
Reason: In sparged stirred tank bioreactor, surface area for oxygen transfer is increased.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.
4. Growth condition that could affect the quality of obtained product in a bioreactor are:
1. Temperature and pH only.
2. pH and oxygen supply only.
3. Temperature and oxygen supply only.
4. Temperature, pH and oxygen supply.
5. Vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products are.
1. Bioreactors.
2. Fermentors.
3. Gene guns.
4. Both (a) and (b).
Q230. Read the following and answer any four questions from S(i) to S(v) given below: 5 Marks
Rajat is a student of biotechnology. His professor tells him that for transformation with recombinant DNA the bacterial cells must be made capable of taking up DNA
as DNA do not pass through membrane. While doing experiment in the lab, Rajat noticed that bacterial cells were not taking up the foreign DNA even after treating
it with sodium ion. He asked his professor, the reason behind this. His professor explained that he should check the valency and charge of the ion that he is using
for the treatment.
1. It is difficult for DNA to pass through the membrane as
1. It is a hydrophilic molecule.
2. It is a hydrophobic molecule.
3. It is a circular molecule.
4. It changes its shape when it comes in contact with host cell.
2. What type of ions are used for DNA mediated gene transfers?
1. Divalent anions.
2. Divalent cations.
3. Monovalent cations.
4. Monovalent anions.
3. rDNA stands for,
1. reduced DNA
2. red DNA
3. recombinant DNA
4. related DNA.
4. Which of the following statements with regard to DNA is correct?
1. DNA is a positively charged molecule having two polynucleotide chains.
2. Nitrogen bases of two polynucleotide chain form complementary pairs, i.e., A opposite G and T opposite C.
3. Backbone of DNA chain is built up of alternate deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group.
4. Both (a) and (c)
5. Assertion: Competent host is essential for transformation with rDNA.
Reason: Transfer of DNA in a prokaryotic cell is called transfection.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Q231. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: 5 Marks
Tools used in the formation of recombinant DNA are of three types. These are enzymes, cloning vectors and competent host. lysing enzymes are used to extract
DNA for experimental purpose from the cells. Cleaving enzymes break the DNA molecules. TI1ey are of three types : exonucleases, endonucleases and restriction
endonucleases. A competent host is required for transformation with recombinant DNA and cloning vectors help to propagate DNA.
1. Which of the following is an example of natural Iysing activity in a human body?
1. Lysozyme present in tears dissolve the bacterial cell wall.
2. Conversion of starch to maltose in the buccal cavity
3. Absorption of digested food into the intestinal cells.
4. Conversion of protein molecules into amino acids in the stomach.
2. Which of the following depicts exonuclease activity?
1.

2.
 3.

4. All of these
3. Cloning vectors are the DNA molecules that.
1. Carry foreign DNA segment but do not replicate inside the host cell.
2. Carry foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host cell.
3. Transfer nuclear DNA form nucleus to the cytoplasm of the same cells.
4. Help in sealing gaps in DNA segments.
4. Transfer of DNA into a eucaryotic cell is called:
1. Transformation.
2. Transduction.
3. Transfection.
4. Electroporation.
5. Assertion: Type I restriction enzymes are not used in rDNA technology.
Reason: Biotechnology mostly involves cutting and pasting of desired DNA fragments.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Q232. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
Restriction endonuclease was isolated for the first time by W. Arber in 1962 in bacteria. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA duplex at specific points; therefore,
they are also called molecular scissors or biological scissors. There are three types of restriction endonucleases: Type I, Type II, and Type III. However, only Type II
restriction endonucleases are used in recombinant DNA technology. One well-known restriction endonuclease, EcoRI, recognizes the base sequence GAATTC in a
DNA duplex and cuts the strands between G and A.
1. Who isolated the first restriction endonuclease and in which year?
2. Which restriction endonuclease type is commonly used in recombinant DNA technology?
3. Explain why restriction endonucleases are referred to as 'molecular scissors'.
OR
3. Describe the specific recognition and cutting action of the EcoRI restriction endonuclease.
Q233. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments have the same kind of ‘sticky-ends,’ allowing them to be joined together (end-to-end) using
DNA ligases. The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in DNA fragments that can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis. Since
DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules, they can be separated by forcing them to move towards the anode under an electric field through a
medium/matrix. Nowadays, the most commonly used matrix is agarose, a natural polymer extracted from seaweeds. The DNA fragments separate (resolve)
according to their size through the sieving effect provided by the agarose gel. Hence, the smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves. The separated DNA
fragments can only be visualized after staining with ethidium bromide and exposure to UV radiation. Bright orange-colored bands of DNA appear in an ethidium
bromide-stained gel exposed to UV light.
The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece, a step known as elution. The DNA fragments purified in this way
are used in constructing recombinant DNA by joining them with cloning vectors.
1. What role does ethidium bromide play in gel electrophoresis?
2. Why do smaller DNA fragments move farther in an agarose gel during electrophoresis?
3. Explain how agarose gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments of different sizes.
OR
3. Describe the process of elution in gel electrophoresis and its significance.
Q234. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass through cell membranes. To facilitate the uptake of DNA by bacterial cells, they must be made ‘competent’ to
take up DNA. This is achieved by treating them with a specific concentration of a divalent cation, such as calcium, which enhances the efficiency of DNA entry
through pores in the cell wall. The process involves incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on ice, followed by a brief heat shock at 42°C, and then returning
them to ice. This treatment enables bacteria to incorporate the recombinant DNA.
For introducing DNA into animal cells, the micro-injection method involves directly injecting recombinant DNA into the nucleus of the cell. In plant cells, the gene
gun method uses high-velocity micro-particles coated with DNA to bombard the cells. Another approach involves using ‘disarmed pathogen’ vectors that transfer
recombinant DNA into the host cell when they infect it.
1. Why is DNA unable to pass through cell membranes naturally?
2. What role does calcium play in the process of making bacterial cells competent?
3. Describe the process of heat shock used to facilitate DNA uptake by bacterial cells.
OR
3. Compare the methods used for introducing recombinant DNA into animal cells and plant cells.
Q235. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
 Vijay lives in a building where a robbery occurred last night. Tragically, the thieves also murdered an old lady who lived alone in the flat next to Vijay. The police
arrived and collected samples from the crime scene. Among these samples were blood and tissue from under the old lady's nails. The police suspected three
people: the cook, the maid, and the milkman. A few days later, the police managed to catch the real culprit—the milkman. Vijay was curious about how the police
solved the case so quickly. At the police station, he learned that the investigation was greatly aided by using the PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) technique to
amplify the DNA from the samples collected from the victim's nails, which then helped in identifying the suspect.
1. What is the purpose of using PCR in the investigation described in the case?
2. How did the amplification of DNA help in solving the crime?
3. Explain the role of DNA analysis in criminal investigations, using the case as an example.
OR
3. Describe the process of PCR and its significance in forensic science, referring to the case study.
Q236. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
The DNA, which is transferred from one organism into another by joining it with the vehicle DNA is called passenger or foreign DNA. Generally, three types of
passenger DNAs are used. These are complementary DNA (cDNA), synthetic DNA (sDNA) and random DNA. Complementary DNA (cDNA) is synthesized on RNA
template (usually mRNA) with the help of reverse transcriptase. Synthetic DNA (sDNA) is synthesized on DNA template or without a template. Random DNA are
small fragments formed by breaking a chromosome of an organism in the presence of restriction endonucleases.
1. What is passenger DNA?
2. How is complementary DNA (cDNA) synthesized?
3. Describe the synthesis of synthetic DNA (sDNA).
OR
3. Explain the process of creating random DNA fragments.
Q237. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
In recombinant DNA technology, the fragments of DNA generated after cutting the DNA by restriction enzymes are separated according to their size or length by
gel electrophoresis. Gel electrophoresis is performed in a gel matrix so that molecules of similar electric charges can be separated on the basis of size. Most
commonly used matrix in gel electrophoresis is agarose. The fragments are separated under the influence of electric field. The separated DNA fragments can be
seen only after staining the DNA with compound known as ethidium bromide (EtBr) followed by exposure to UV radiation as bright orange band.
1. Why is agarose gel matrix preferred for gel electrophoresis in recombinant DNA technology?
2. What is the purpose of staining DNA fragments with ethidium bromide (EtBr) during gel electrophoresis?
3. Explain the principle behind the separation of DNA fragments during gel electrophoresis.
OR
3. Describe the role of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology.
Q238. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
Biotechnology deals with techniques of using live organisms or enzymes from organisms to produce products and processes useful to humans. In this sense,
making curd, bread, or wine, which are all microbe-mediated processes, could also be thought of as a form of biotechnology. However, it is used in a restricted
sense today to refer to processes that use genetically modified organisms to achieve the same on a larger scale. Additionally, many other processes/ techniques
are included under biotechnology. For example, in vitro fertilisation leading to a ‘test-tube’ baby, synthesising a gene and using it, developing a DNA vaccine, or
correcting a defective gene are all part of biotechnology.
The European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB) has provided a definition of biotechnology that encompasses both traditional and modern molecular
biotechnology. The definition given by EFB is as follows: ‘The integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and molecular analogues for
products and services’.
1. Define biotechnology as per the European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB).
2. Name two traditional biotechnological processes mentioned in the case study.
3. Explain the difference between traditional biotechnology and modern biotechnology.
OR
3. Describe two modern applications of biotechnology mentioned in the case study.
Q239. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
In the field of biotechnology, the discovery of restriction enzymes has revolutionized genetic engineering. These enzymes are integral to the Restriction
Modification (RM) system found in bacteria, where they play a crucial role in protecting the bacterial cell from foreign DNA. Let's explore the components and
functions of this system.
Information: The RM system consists of two main components:
Restriction Enzymes (Restriction Endonucleases): These enzymes recognize specific sequences of foreign DNA and cleave them at precise points, enabling the
bacteria to destroy incoming viral DNA or plasmids.
Modification Enzymes (Methylases): Methylases protect the bacterial DNA by adding methyl groups to specific sites within the recognition sequence. This methylation
prevents the restriction enzymes from cleaving the bacterial DNA.
1. What is the primary function of restriction enzymes in the RM system?
2. Who first explained the molecular basis of the Restriction Modification system, and when?
3. Explain the role of methylases in the RM system.
OR
3. How have restriction enzymes contributed to the field of biotechnology?
Q240. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
In the year 1963, two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in Escherichia coli were isolated. One of these enzymes added methyl
groups to DNA, while the other cut DNA. The latter was named restriction endonuclease. The first restriction endonuclease, Hind II, was isolated and characterized
five years later. Hind II always cut DNA molecules at a specific point by recognizing a specific sequence of six base pairs, known as the recognition sequence.
Today, over 900 restriction enzymes have been isolated from more than 230 bacterial strains, each recognizing different sequences. Restriction enzymes are
named based on the genus and species of the bacteria they were derived from, with Roman numerals indicating the order of isolation. These enzymes are part of a
larger class called nucleases, which include exonucleases and endonucleases. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA, while endonucleases cut
DNA at specific internal positions.
1. What is the primary function of restriction endonucleases in DNA?
2. How are restriction enzymes named?
3. Explain the difference between exonucleases and endonucleases.
OR
3. Why are restriction enzymes significant in biotechnology?
Q241. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
The techniques of genetic engineering, such as the creation of recombinant DNA, gene cloning, and gene transfer, enable us to isolate and introduce specific
genes without incorporating unwanted genes into the target organism. A piece of DNA that initially cannot replicate on its own can multiply if integrated into the
host's genome. This occurs because the foreign DNA becomes part of a chromosome, which contains an origin of replication. This origin is essential for initiating
DNA replication. By linking the alien DNA to the origin of replication, it can replicate and multiply within the host organism. The process of cutting DNA at specific
locations is facilitated by restriction enzymes, known as "molecular scissors."
1. What is the role of the 'origin of replication' in genetic engineering?
2. What is the function of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering?
3. Explain how the integration of alien DNA into a chromosome enables its replication and inheritance in a host organism.
OR
3. Discuss the importance of gene cloning in the context of genetic engineering and its impact on biotechnology.
Q242. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
 Tools used in the formation of recombinant DNA include enzymes, cloning vectors, and competent hosts. Lysing enzymes extract DNA from cells. Cleaving
enzymes, such as exonucleases, endonucleases, and restriction endonucleases, break DNA molecules. A competent host is essential for transforming cells with
recombinant DNA, and cloning vectors are used to propagate DNA.
1. Name two types of cleaving enzymes used in recombinant DNA technology.
2. What is the role of a competent host in recombinant DNA technology?
3. Explain the function of cloning vectors in recombinant DNA technology.
OR
3. Differentiate between exonucleases and endonucleases in terms of their action on DNA molecules.
Q243. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
In biotechnology, DNA is transferred from one organism to another using different types of passenger DNAs: complementary DNA (cDNA), synthetic DNA (sDNA),
and random DNA fragments. Each type serves specific purposes in genetic engineering processes.
1. Define complementary DNA (cDNA) and explain its synthesis process.
2. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in the synthesis of cDNA?
3. Describe the process of synthesizing synthetic DNA (sDNA) both with and without a template.
OR
3. Explain how random DNA fragments are generated and their significance in genetic engineering.
Q244. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
Gene manipulation is a rapidly advancing field that began with the development of recombinant DNA technology. This technology, also known as genetic
engineering, involves the manipulation of DNA molecules to introduce desired genetic material into organisms. The key discoveries of plasmids and restriction
endonucleases in bacteria paved the way for this groundbreaking science. Paul Berg's successful introduction of an SV-40 gene into bacteria and Cohen and
Boyer's development of inserting foreign DNA into E. coli plasmids marked significant milestones in the field.
1. What are the two key discoveries in bacteria that laid the foundation for recombinant DNA technology?
2. Who were the scientists credited with the initial breakthroughs in gene manipulation and what were their contributions?
3. Explain the significance of plasmids in the context of genetic engineering.
OR
3. Describe the process of inserting foreign DNA into a bacterial plasmid, highlighting the role of restriction endonucleases and DNA ligase.