IBRAIN

BUILDS YOUR CONFIDIENCE

Test / Exam Name: Ch 7 Standard: 12th Science Subject: Biology

Student Name: Section: Roll No.:
Questions: 320 Time: 03:00 hh:mm Marks: 607

Q1. The main barrier that prevents the entry of micro-organisms into our body is: 1 Mark
1. Antibodies.
2. Macrophages.
3. Monocytes.
4. Skin.
A Antibodies. B Macrophages. C Monocytes. D Skin.
Ans: D Skin.
Q2. Which of the following sexually transmitted disease is not caused by a virus? 1 Mark
A Genital herpes B Gonorrhoea C Genital warts D Hepatitis-B
Ans: B Gonorrhoea
Q3. Opioids act as: 1 Mark
A Depressants. B Pain killers. C Euphoria providers. D Stimulants.
Ans: A Depressants.
Q4. AIDS virus contains or Human immuno deficiency (HIV) virus has protein coat and genetic material which is: 1 Mark
A Single stranded RNA with protein. B Double stranded RNA.
C Single stranded DNA with protein. D Double stranded DNA.
Ans: A Single stranded RNA with protein.
Explanation:
HIV virus is a retrovirus which contains single stranded RNA surrounded by protein coat (core shell) as genetic material. It causes AIDS.
Q5. The term ‘humulin’ is used for: 1 Mark
A Human insulin. B Powerful antibiotic. C Isoenzyme. D Hydrolytic enzyme.
Ans: A Human insulin.
Q6. Anti venom against snake poison contains. 1 Mark
A Antigen-antibody complexes. B Antigens.
C Antibodies. D Enzymes.
Ans: C Antibodies.
Q7. Carcinoma refers to: 1 Mark
A Malignant tumours of the colon. B Benign tumours of the connective tissue.
C Malignant tumours of the connective tissue. D Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane.
Ans: D Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane.
Q8. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity ? 1 Mark
A The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T- B Antibodies are protein molecules each of which has four light
lymphocytes. chains.
C Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes. D Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a
viper snake.
Ans: D Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
Q9. Reason of lung cancer is: 1 Mark
A Coal mining. B Calcium fluoride. C Cement factory. D Bauxite mining.
Ans: C Cement factory.
Q10. The term active immunity means: 1 Mark
A Resistance developed after disease. B Resistance developed before disease.
C Resistance rate of heart beat. D Increasing quantity of blood.
Ans: A Resistance developed after disease.
Explanation:
Active immunity occurs when the person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease and becomes immune as a result of the primary
immune response.
When B cells and T cells are activated by a pathogen, memory B-cells, and T- cells develop, and the primary immune response results.
Throughout the lifetime of an animal, these memory cells will “remember” each specific pathogen encountered, and are able to mount a
strong secondary response if the pathogen is detected again.
Q11. Haemozoin is: 1 Mark
A A precursor of hemoglobin. B A toxin from Streptococcus.
C A toxin from Plasmodium species. D A toxin from Haemophilus species.
Ans: C A toxin from Plasmodium species.
Explanation:
Haemozoin a toxin which is responsible for episode of chill and fever in a malaria patient.
Q12. HIV infection can be detected through: 1 Mark
A Electron microscopy B Endoscopy C ELISA test D Litnotrophy
Ans:
C ELISA test
Explanation:
ELISA test is enzyme linked immunosorbant essay, it is used to detect the HIV antibody.
It detects the antibodies that the body makes in response to the virus.
Q13. The organisms which cause diseases in plants and animals are called: 1 Mark
A Vectors. B Pathogens. C Insects. D Worms.
Ans: B Pathogens.
Q14. Wuchereria bancrofti is transmitted by: 1 Mark
A Sandfly B Tsetse fly C Anopheles mosquito D Culex
Ans: D Culex
Explanation:
Filariasis, commonly called as elephantiasis, is a parasitic infection that causes extreme swelling in the arms and the legs.
The disease is caused by a filarial worm, which is transmitted from human to human via female mosquito when it takes a blood meal.
Wuchereria bancrofti is one such nematode parasite, that causes filariasis and is transmitted by female Culex.
Q15. Which of the following, stimulates the heart? 1 Mark
A Mescaline B Epinephrine C LSD D Hashish
Ans: B Epinephrine
Explanation:
Mescalin, LSD and hashish are hallucinogens and they affect the regions of the brain that are responsible for coordination, thought processes,
hearing and sight.
Epinephrine is a hormone and a neurotransmitter. It binds to beta-adrenergic receptors on heart muscle cells. This causes the contraction rate
of the heart to increase.
Q16. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA? 1 Mark
A Reverse transcriptase B DNA dependent RNA polymerase
C DNA polymerase D RNA polymerase
Ans: A Reverse transcriptase
Explanation:
DNA polymerase carries out the process of copying parental DNA to form daughter DNA molecules with identical nucleotide sequences,
called replication.
RNA polymerase is the enzyme of transcription which is the process by which parts of the genetic information encoded in DNA are copied
precisely into RNA.
The RNA polymerase that synthesizes RNA using DNA strands as the template is called DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, it is the enzyme
that catalyzes the transcription process.
On the other hand, the enzyme which synthesizes DNA using an RNA template is called reverse transcriptase because the process goes in
just the opposite direction to normal transcription.
Reverse transcription is carried out by RNA viruses.
Q17. Which of the following symptoms indicate radiation sickness? 1 Mark
A Red and ulcerated skin. B Nausea and anaemia.
C Nausea and loss of hair. D Ulcerated skin, nausea and loss of hair.
Ans: D Ulcerated skin, nausea and loss of hair.
Q18. Which of the following are infectious diseases: 1 Mark
A Chickenpox, tuberculosis B Dengue. Down syndrome
C Chikungunya, cleft palate D Cancer, tuberculosis
Ans: A Chickenpox, tuberculosis
Q19. The genes causing cancer are: 1 Mark
A Regulatory genes. B Expressor genes. C Oncogenes. D Structural genes.
Ans: C Oncogenes.
Q20. Which one of the following is correct match? 1 Mark
A Reserpine - Tranquiliser. B Cocaine - Opiatic narcotic.
C Morphine - Hallucinogenic. D Bhang - Analgesic.
Ans: A Reserpine - Tranquiliser.
Q21. Who has developed the concept of phagocytosis in immunity? 1 Mark
A T.H. Huxley B Strasburger C Ernst Haeckel D E. Metchnikoff
Ans: D E. Metchnikoff
Explanation:
Elie Metchnikoff won the 1908 Nobel prize in physiology and medicine for the concept of phagocytosis.
The process involves the engulfing of the dead cells.
Q22. ................. in the life cycle of Wuchereria bancrofti causes infection in humans: 1 Mark
A Microfilaria B 1st stage larva C 2nd stage larva D 3rd stage larva
Ans: D 3rd stage larva
Explanation:
Once male and female nematodes mate the female viviparously produces microfilariae (first stage larvae or L1) which then move through the
circulatory system and collect in arterioles of the lung during the day and emerge at night (if nocturnally periodic) when night biting
mosquitoes are most active.
Once, the microfilariae have entered an appropriate mosquito host through its blood meal they penetrate the insect's gut wall and move to the
thoracic muscles where they mature (through two life stages) into third-stage infective larvae.
Following infection with third stage larvae there is usually a period of vigorous immune response to the invading larvae. If the larvae are not
cleared from the body during this period then the various pathologies associated with filarial infection can develop.
Most of these conditions do not appear to arise from the effects of the nematodes themselves but from immune reactions to their presence.
The most pronounced of these is the damage to the lymphatic vessels which is mediated by the immune system's response to the adult
worms living in them.
These immune responses (Lymphangitis) are characterized by inflammation of the affected area (which are usually extremities) and fever.
Q23. An ovoviviparous parasite is: 1 Mark
A Taenia B Wuchereria C Ascaris D Plasmodium
Ans: B Wuchereria
Explanation:
Ovoviviparous organism is the one in which the eggs hatch in the uterus and the free young ones are released from the female.
Females of Wuchereria are ovoviviparous and can produce thousands of juveniles known as micofilariae.
Q24. In AIDS, which kind of tumour is common? 1 Mark
A Lymphoma B Sarcoma C Adenocarcinoma D Carcinoma
Ans: A Lymphoma
Explanation:
Since, HIV causes AIDS. It affects the T-lymphocytes in the body and thus, cancer of lyphmatic system is more likely to occur in AIDS.
So, the correct answer is 'Lymphoma'
Q25. Which one is not a symptoms of malaria? 1 Mark
A High fever B Vomiting C Diarrhoea D Headache
Ans: C Diarrhoea
Explanation:
Malaria causes symptoms that typically include fever, fatigue, vomiting, and headaches.
In severe cases, it can cause yellow skin, seizures, coma, or death.
The disease is transmitted by the biting of female Anopheles mosquitoes, and the symptoms usually seen ten to fifteen days after being bitten.
Q26. A person showing unpredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others is suffering from: 1 Mark
A Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD). B Mood disorders.
C Schizophrenia. D Addictive disorders.
Ans: C Schizophrenia.
Q27. Salmonella is related with: 1 Mark
A Typhoid. B Polio. C TB. D Tetanus.
Ans: A Typhoid.
Q28. One of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm. 1 Mark
A Macrosporum. B Epidermophyton. C Trichophyton. D Microsporum.
Ans: A Macrosporum.
Q29. In an alcohol addict: 1 Mark
A The blood sugar level is low. B The blood sugar level is high.
C The blood sugar level is normal. D The sugar absorption is impaired.
Ans: B The blood sugar level is high.
Explanation:
Excessive alcohol consumption causes chronic inflammation of the pancreas i.e. pancreatitis, which impairs its ability to secrete insulin. Insulin
is a hormone necessary for maintaining the normal concentration of glucose in the blood.
It promotes the conversion of glucose to glycogen i.e. glycogenesis for storage in liver and muscle cells. Deficiency of insulin raises the blood
sugar glucose and may lead to insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus.
Q30. A non-specific immunity is: 1 Mark
A Passive immunity B Active immunity C Auto immunity D Innate immunity
Ans: D Innate immunity
Explanation:
Innate immunity refers to non-specific defense mechanisms that are present in the human body by birth to protect against the antigen.
These mechanisms include physical barriers such as skin, chemicals in the blood and immune system cells that attack foreign cells in the
body.
Q31. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. The component causing this could be: 1 Mark
A Nicotine. B Tannic acid. C Curaimin. D Catechin.
Ans: A Nicotine.
Explanation:
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline. The component causing this could be nicotine.
Morphine, cocaine, codeine and nitotine are all alkaloids.
Q32. Many diseases can be diagnosed by observing the symptoms in the patient. Which group of symptoms are indicative of pneumonia? 1 Mark
A Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache. B Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots.
C Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat, headache. D High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite and
constipation.
Ans: A Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache.
Q33. Which is not a technique for prevention of malaria? 1 Mark
A Use of mosquito net and repellents. B Use of insecticide
C Well cooked food D None of these
Ans: C Well cooked food
Explanation:
Use mosquito net and repellents. Spray insecticides and control breeding of mosquitoes by not allowing water to collect in the surroundings.
Q34. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS? 1 Mark
A The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus, B The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an
reducing their numbers. infected person.
C Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection. D AIDS patients are being fully cured cent percent with proper care
and nutrition.
Ans: A The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus, reducing their numbers.
Explanation:
HIV enters macrophages and CD4+ T cells and starts replicating its genetic material by using cell's machinery and thus, reducing the number
os cells.
Q35. Leukaemia is a cancer caused due to: 1 Mark
A Excessive production of WBCs B Excessive production of RBCs
C Excessive production of platelets D All of the above
Ans: A Excessive production of WBCs
Explanation:
Leukaemia is cancer of blood-forming cells. Leukaemia usually causes large numbers of white blood cells to be made. These abnormal cells
usually cannot carry out the normal functions of white blood cells.
They crowd the bone marrow and spill into the blood and may then spread into organs such as the liver, spleen, lungs and kidneys.
Sometimes, they may also spread into the fluid around the brain and spinal cord. Because there are so many abnormal white cells crowded
into the bone marrow, the marrow sometimes cannot make enough normal red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets.
Q36. ____________prepares our immune system to fight against the microbe. 1 Mark
A Vaccine B Blood C Lymph D Cerebral fluid
Ans: A Vaccine
Q37. The cells of immune response are produced in: 1 Mark
A Liver B Spleen C Bone marrow D Lymph nodes
Ans: C Bone marrow
Explanation:
T cells (thymus cells) and B cells (bone marrow-derived cells) are the major cellular components of the adaptive immune response.
T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, whereas B cells are primarily responsible for humoral immunity (relating to antibodies).
The function of T cells and B cells is to recognize specific “non-self” antigens, during a process known as antigen presentation.
Once they have identified an invader, the cells generate specific responses that are tailored to maximally eliminate specific pathogens or
pathogen-infected cells.
Q38. ................... is as important as nutrition and exercise for a healthy lifestyle. 1 Mark
A Adequate sleep B Insufficient sleep C Continuous work D Eating fried food
Ans: A Adequate sleep
Explanation:
Sleep is an essential component to maintain a healthy life. Insufficient sleep may increase the risk of developing high blood pressure and
cardiovascular disease.
Poor sleep has been linked to many medical conditions, including obesity. Many experts suggest that quality sleep is as important to your
health and well-being as good nutrition and exercise.
Q39. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by: 1 Mark
A Eating imperfectly cooked pork. B Tse-tse fly.
C Mosquito bite. D Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris.
Ans: D Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris.
Q40. Hemp fibres are obtained from: 1 Mark
 A Corchorus B Cannabis sativa C Linum D Hibiscus
Ans: B Cannabis sativa
Explanation:
Hemp is a commonly used term for high-growing varieties of the Cannabis sativa plant and its products, which include fiber, oil, and seed.
Hemp is refined into products, such as hemp seed foods, hemp oil, wax, resin, rope, cloth, pulp, paper, and fuel.
Items ranging from rope to fabrics, to industrial materials were made from hemp fiber. Hemp was often used to make sail canvas, and the word
canvas derives from cannabis.
Q41. A disease-free person may not be a _______ person. 1 Mark
A Healthy B Unhealthy C Weak D Unstable
Ans: A Healthy
Explanation:
A healthy person can be disease-free, but a disease-free person may not necessarily be a healthy person.
Health is determined by all three factors - physical, mental, and social well-being.
Health defines as a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease.
Q42. HIV has a protein coat and a genetic material as: 1 Mark
A ss-RNA B ds-RNA C ds-DNA D ss-DNA
Ans: A ss-RNA
Explanation:
The human immunodeficiency virus is a lentivirus (a subgroup of retrovirus) that causes HIV infection or AIDS.
It's genetic material consist of two copies of single-stranded RNA.
Q43. Hybridoma cells are: 1 Mark
A Product of spore formation in bacteria. B Hybrid cells resulting from myeloma cells.
C Nervous cells of frog. D Only cells having oncogenes.
Ans: B Hybrid cells resulting from myeloma cells.
Q44. Which disease in children is caused by intensive use of nitrate fertiliser? 1 Mark
A Jaundice B Methemoglobinemia C Mumps D Septicemia
Ans: B Methemoglobinemia
Explanation:
Methemoglobinemia is a disorder caused by the presence of a higher than normal level of methemoglobin (metHb, i.e., ferric [Fe3+] rather
than ferrous [Fe2+] haemoglobin) in the blood.
Methemoglobin is a form of hemoglobin that contains ferric [Fe3+] iron and has a lesser affinity for oxygen. However, the ferric iron has an
increased affinity for bound oxygen.
The binding of oxygen to methemoglobin results in an increased affinity of oxygen to the three other heme sites (that are still ferrous) within
the same tetrameric hemoglobin unit.
This leads to an overall reduced ability of the red blood cell to release oxygen to tissues, with the associated oxygenhemoglobin dissociation
curve, therefore, shifted to the left.
When methemoglobin concentration is elevated in red blood cells, tissue hypoxia can occur.
Q45. ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key reagent is: 1 Mark
A DNA probe. B RNAase. C Alkaline phosphatase. D Catalase.
Ans: C Alkaline phosphatase.
Q46. When an apparently healthy person is diagnosed as unhealthy by a psychiatrist, the reason could be that: 1 Mark
A The patient was not efficient at his work. B The patient was not economically prosperous.
C The patient shows behavioural and social maladjustment. D He does not take interest in sports.
Ans: C The patient shows behavioural and social maladjustment.
Explanation:
When an apparently healthy person is diagnosed as unhealthy by a psychiatrist, the reason could be that the patient shows behavioural and
social maladjustment.
Q47. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of infection? 1 Mark
A The presence of microorganism in a particular location. B The disruption of normal host functions by microorganisms.
C The survival and reproduction of microorganisms in a host. D The appearance of symptoms in a host, caused by
microorganisms.
Ans: C The survival and reproduction of microorganisms in a host.
Q48. Bhang, Ganja, and Hashish (Charas) are obtained from: 1 Mark
A Rauwolfia B Calotropis C Cannabis sativa D Withania
Ans: C Cannabis sativa
Explanation:
The flowers of Cannabis sativa contain psychoactive chemical compounds, known as cannabinoids.
Preparations of flowers (marijuana) and leaves and preparations derived from resinous extract (e.g., hashish) are consumed by smoking,
vaporizing, and oral ingestion.
Bhang is an edible mixture made from the buds, leaves, and flowers of the female Cannabis plants.
Q49. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are: 1 Mark
A Undergoing rapid division B Different in structure
C Non-dividing D Starved of mutation
Ans: A Undergoing rapid division
Q50. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? 1 Mark
A Glossina palpalis - Sleeping sickness. B Culex pipiens - Filariasis.
C Aedes aegypti - Yellow fever. D Anopheles culicifacies - Leishmaniasis.
Ans: D Anopheles culicifacies - Leishmaniasis.
Q51. Passive immunity was discovered by: 1 Mark
A Edward Jenner. B Emil von Behring. C Robert Koch. D Louis Pasteur.
Ans: B Emil von Behring.
Q52. Filarial larva can be collected from man's: 1 Mark
A Smears of intestinal contents B Peripheral blood
C Smears of spleen D Biopsy of liver
Ans: B Peripheral blood
Explanation:
The first stage larvae of Wuchereria bancrofti are known as microfilariae and are present in the circulation.
The microfilariae are found mainly in the peripheral blood and can be found at peak amounts from 10 pm to 4 am. They migrate between the
deep and the peripheral circulation exhibiting unique diurnal periodicity.
Q53. Personal hygiene includes ________. 1 Mark
A Bathing B Brushing of teeth C Cutting of hair D Both A and B
Ans: D Both A and B
Explanation:
To minimize the risk of infection and to maintain overall health, basic personal hygiene habits are very important.
Common basic personal hygiene habits are:
Bathe regularly
Trim your nails
Brush and floss teeth daily
Sleep tight
Wash your hair often and brush them regularly.
Q54. Amoebiasis is caused by: 1 Mark
A Plasmodium vivax. B Entamoeba gingival is. C Trypanosoma Gambians. D Entamoeba histolytica.
Ans: D Entamoeba histolytica.
Q55. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is associated with: 1 Mark
A Aberrant functioning of the immune mechanism. B Increase in ambient temperature.
C Age of the individual. D Food habits.
Ans: A Aberrant functioning of the immune mechanism.
Q56. Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is normally found on human body. 1 Mark
A Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs. B Muscles of the legs.
C Blood vessels of the thigh region. D Skin between the fingers.
Ans: A Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs.
Q57. Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the list given below, identify the infectious diseases. 1 Mark
1. Cancer.
2. Influenza.
3. Allergy.
4. Smallpox.
A ii and iv B iii and iv C ii and iii D i and ii
Ans: A ii and iv
Q58. Opiate narcotic is: 1 Mark
A Bhang. B Charas. C Heroin. D Nicotine.
Ans: C Heroin.
Q59. Which one of the following is primary lymphoid organ? 1 Mark
A Lymph nodels. B Thymus. C Tonsils. D Spleen.
Ans: B Thymus.
Q60. Vector for kala azar is: 1 Mark
A Sandfly. B Bedbug. C Louse. D Housefly.
Ans: A Sandfly.
Q61. ______ is an example of a stimulant. 1 Mark
A Amphetamine. B Lorazepam. C Oxazepam. D Phencyclidine.
Ans: A Amphetamine.
Q62. .............. is responsible for Cutaneous larva migrans. 1 Mark
A Ancyclostoma braziliense B Ascaris lumbricoides
C Dracunculus D All of the above
Ans: A Ancyclostoma braziliense
Explanation:
Cutaneous larva migrans or CLM is a skin disease caused by the larvae of various nematode parasites of the hookworm family.
The most common species causing this disease in the Americas is Ancyclostoma braziliense.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A), 'Ancyclostoma braziliense'.
Q63. Which one spreads filaria? 1 Mark
A Housefly B Bed bug C Mosquito D Flea
Ans: C Mosquito
Explanation:
 Filariasis, commonly called as elephantiasis, is a parasitic infection that causes extreme swelling in the arms and the legs.
The disease is caused by a filarial worm, which is transmitted from human to human via female mosquito when it takes a blood meal.
Q64. The following are the steps involved in the life cycle of the malarial parasite. 1 Mark
1. Mosquito bites and injects sporozoites.
2. Mosquitoes take up gametocyctes during blood sucking.
3. Sporozoites reach liver through blood, divide and go to blood.
4. Sporozoites migrate to the salivary gland of mosquito.
5. Parasites reproduce in RBCs, burst and infect new cells.
Arrange the above events in the order of their occurrence.
A A→E→B→D→A B A→B→C→ D→E C C→B→E→D→A D C→B→D→E→A
Ans: A A → E → B → D → A
Q65. Certain infectious diseases do not occur for a second time because: 1 Mark
A Our immune system keeps a memory of the previous exposure. B After that we are given nutritious food.
C We are not allowed to contact people suffering from it. D None of the above.
Ans: A Our immune system keeps a memory of the previous exposure.
Explanation:
Infectious diseases can be caused by air, water, food or any biological agent. Thus, nutritious food or staying away from infectious person
can’t rule out the possibility of having the infection again. Exposure of B cell with antigen and its binding to antigen receptors stimulates B cell
to produce plasma cells and memory cells.
Upon the second encounter of the person with the same antigen, the already present memory cells divide quickly to produce more
lymphocytes which in turn quickly produce antibodies.
This kind of immune response selectively targeted against a particular antigen, to which body has previously been exposed, is known as
acquired immunity and is responsible for preventing second-time infection.
Q66. Which of the following is a communicable disease? 1 Mark
A Diabetes. B Hypertension. C Malaria. D Kwashiorkar.
Ans: C Malaria.
Q67. Use of anti-histamines and steroids gives a quick relief from: 1 Mark
A Allergy B Nausea C Cough D Fever
Ans: A Allergy
Q68. Transplantation of tissues/organs to save certain patients often fails due to rejection of such tissues/ organs by the patient. Which type of 1 Mark
immune response is responsible for such rejections?
A Physiological immune response. B Humoral immune response.
C Auto-immune response. D Cell-mediated immune response.
Ans: D Cell-mediated immune response.
Q69. Excessive consumption of alcoholic drinks causes damage to: 1 Mark
A Liver B Kidneys C Heart D Lungs
Ans: A Liver
Explanation:
Alcohol is readily absorbed from the digestive tract, and up to 98% is metabolised in the liver. Each liver cell contains three pathways for
alcohol metabolism. All of these result in the production of a highly toxic metabolite which can contribute to liver cell damage.
With regular alcohol use, the regenerative ability of liver cells may be inhibited and lead to sustained liver damage. Long term heavy alcohol
use may lead to fat accumulation in the liver, which may progress to alcoholic hepatitis, or liver cirrhosis.
Q70. The term 'Health' is defined in many ways. The most accurate definition of the health would be: 1 Mark
A Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well- B Health is the symbol of economic prosperity.
being.
C Health is the reflection of a smiling face. D Health is the state of body and mind in a balanced condition.
Ans: A Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being.
Q71. Filaria germ is a kind of: 1 Mark
A Bacteria B Helminthes C Mosquito D Protozoa
Ans: B Helminthes
Explanation:
Parasitic helminths are worms that are classified within the phyla Nematode. The filarial worm is also one such kind of helminth. They feed on
the body fluids of the host. These are popularly known as [Link] are triploblastic and have a false body cavity.
Q72. In malignant tumors, the cells proliferate, grow rapidly and move to other parts of the body to form new tumors. This stage of disease is called: 1 Mark
A Metagenesis. B Metastasis. C Teratogenesis. D Mitosis.
Ans: B Metastasis.
Explanation:
Metagenesis is related to alternation of generation. Teratogenesis is related to congenital deformities. And mitosis is a type of cell division.
Hence, option ‘b’ is correct.
Q73. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong? 1 Mark
A Cytokine barriers. B Cellular barriers. C Physiological barriers. D Physical barriers.
Ans: C Physiological barriers.
Q74. Factors that influence the health of an individual can be: 1 Mark
A Lifestyle B Background C Economic condition D All of the above
Ans: D All of the above
Explanation:
Health is dependent on the three factors - social, physical and mental.
 A number of other factors are known to influence the health status of individuals, including their background, lifestyle, economic and social
conditions and spirituality.
Q75. Which of the following glands is large sized at birth but reducies in size with aging? 1 Mark
A Pineal. B Pituitary. C Thymus. D Thyroid.
Ans: C Thymus.
Explanation:
Thymus glands is large sized at birth but reduces in size with aging.
Q76. Malignant malaria is caused by the which of the following species of Plasmodium? 1 Mark
A Vivax. B Malariae. C Ovale. D Falciparum.
Ans: D Falciparum.
Q77. Which one of the following is spread through sexual contact? 1 Mark
A Tuberculosis B Tetanus C Malaria D AIDS.
Ans: D AIDS.
Explanation:
AIDS is an infectious disease that spreads through sexual contact.
It also spreads through blood transfusion, use of common needles and syringes or from infected mother to her baby during pregnancy or
breast feeding.
Q78. The cells affected in leukaemia are: 1 Mark
A Plasma cells. B Erythrocytes. C Leucocytes. D Thrombocytes.
Ans: C Leucocytes.
Q79. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is a bovine disease. To which of the following human diseases it is related? 1 Mark
A Kala-azar. B Encephalitis.
C Cerebral spondylitis. D Creutzfeldt Jacob disease.
Ans: D Creutzfeldt Jacob disease.
Q80. Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new born from certain diseases is of: 1 Mark
A Ig G type. B Ig A type. C Ig D type. D Ig E type
Ans: B Ig A type.
Explanation:
Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new born from certain diseases is of Ig A type.
Q81. Multi cellular organisms such as worms cause which disease. 1 Mark
A Measles B Elephantiasis C Typhoid D Hepatitis
Ans: B Elephantiasis
Explanation:
Intestinal worm infections, as well as diseases like elephantiasis, are caused by different species of worm-like example hookworm, tapeworm.
Q82. Which one of the following conditions though harmful in itself, is also a potential saviour from a mosquito borne infectious disease? 1 Mark
A Pernicious anaemia. B Leukemia. C Thalassaemia. D Sickle cell anaemia.
Ans: D Sickle cell anaemia.
Q83. The term “antibiotic” was coined by: 1 Mark
A Selman Waksman. B Alexander Fleming. C Edward Jenner. D Louis Pasteur.
Ans: A Selman Waksman.
Q84. Scopolamine or "truth drug" of world war II was obtained from: 1 Mark
A Rauvolfia serpentina B Atropa belladonna C Digitalis purpurea D Papaver somniferum
Ans: B Atropa belladonna
Explanation:
Scopolamine is an anticholinergic medicine. Scopolamine has many effects in the body including decreasing the secretion of fluids, slowing
the stomach and intestines, and dilation of the pupils. Scopolamine is used to relieve nausea, vomiting, and dizziness associated with motion
sickness and recovery from anesthesia and surgery.
Scopolamine may also be used in the treatment of parkinsonism, spastic muscle states, irritable bowel syndrome, diverticulitis and other
conditions. Scopolamine is also called as hyoscine. It is alkaloid drug obtained from a number of plants of the family Solenaceae, including
nightshade (Atropa belladona), henbane and jimsonweed.
Scopolamine is an effective remedy for motion sickness, probably because of its ability to depress the central nervous system. It is also
known as a truth drug.
Q85. 'Smack' is a drug obtained from the: 1 Mark
A Leaves of Cannabis sativa. B Latex of Papaver somniferum.
C Flowers of Dhatura. D Fruits of Erythroxyl coca.
Ans: B Latex of Papaver somniferum.
Q86. Autoimmunity against the synovial membrane at joint is called as: 1 Mark
A Multiple sclerosis B I.D.D.M C Hashimoto's disease D Rheumatoid arthritis
Ans: D Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:
An autoimmune disease is one in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the normal cells. In Rheumatoid arthritis, the immune
system attacks the lining of the joints.
This leads to inflammation that can affect the entire body. Rheumatoid arthritis causes the normally thin synovial membrane to become
inflamed and thickened leading to an accumulation of synovial fluid and causing pain and swelling.
Q87. A disease free individual generally means that he is: 1 Mark
A Healthy B Strong C Free from diseases D All of the above
Ans: C Free from diseases
Explanation:
A healthy person can be disease free, but a disease free person cannot be a healthy person.
As health is determined by all the three factors like physical, mental and social while the disease depends only on physical factors.
Q88. Improper care of teeth can result in: 1 Mark
A Cavities B Tooth pain C Falling of teeth D All of the above
Ans: D All of the above
Explanation:
Brushing of teeth twice a day is recommended even by doctors for strong gums and teeth. It is a part of personal hygiene.
If proper care is not taken it may lead to the cavity in the teeth and hence, blackening. Cavity further can result in severe pain and also fall
of teeth. Brushing, if not done properly can also lead to bad breath which is not considered clean.
Q89. Retroviruses are implicated as a cause for cancer in humans because they: 1 Mark
A Carry gene for reverse transcriptase. B May carry cellular protooncogenes in their genome.
C May carry v-oncogenes in their genome. D Carry single stranded RNA as their genetic material.
Ans: B May carry cellular protooncogenes in their genome.
Q90. Typhoid fever could be confirmed by: 1 Mark
A Widal test. B ELISA. C Western blot. D ECG.
Ans: A Widal test.
Q91. Which of the following can make you ill, if you come in contact with an infected person? 1 Mark
A High blood pressure B Genetic abnormalities C Sneezing D Blood cancer
Ans: C Sneezing
Explanation:
When an person infected with an air born pathogen, sneezing of this person release the pathogen containing droplet into air.
Inhalation of this infected droplets by an healthy person, make them ill.
This is a type of communicable disease i.e. transmitted from one person to next.
Q92. Which one of the following is attacked by HIV virus? 1 Mark
A Red-blood cell B White-blood cells C Liver cell D Long cell
Ans: B White-blood cells
Q93. Infectious diseases are caused by _______. 1 Mark
A Animals B Birds C Micro-organisms D All of the above
Ans: C Micro-organisms
Explanation:
Infectious diseases are disorders caused by microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi or parasites.
Q94. Which one of the following correctly matches a Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) with its pathogen? 1 Mark
A AIDS - Bacillus anthracis. B Syphilis - Treponema pallidum.
C Urethritis - Entamoeba gingivalis. D Gonorrhoea - Leishmania donovani.
Ans: B Syphilis - Treponema pallidum.
Q95. A person with sickle cell anemia is: 1 Mark
A Less prone to typhoid. B More prone to typhoid. C Less prone to malaria. D More prone to malaria.
Ans: C Less prone to malaria.
Q96. Tabacco chewing results in: 1 Mark
A Mouth cancer B Lung cancer C Bone cancer D Leukaemia
Ans: A Mouth cancer
Explanation:
Tobacco contains nicotine which is directly absorbed by the body while chewing. It is one of the most carcinogenic chemicals that can cause
cancer in the mouth called as oral cancer or mouth cancer where a tumour develops on the surface of the tongue, mouth, lips or gums.
Common symptoms includes persistent sores on the face, neck, or mouth that bleed easily and do not heal within 2 weeks. A soreness or
feeling that something is caught in the back of the throat.
Difficulty chewing or swallowing, speaking, or moving the jaw or tongue. Hoarseness, chronic sore throat, or change in voice.
Q97. The “blue baby syndrome” results from: 1 Mark
A Excess of chloride. B Methaemoglobin.
C Excess of dissolved oxygen. D Excess of TDS (Total Dissolved Solids).
Ans: B Methaemoglobin.
Q98. Benzodiazepine is an: 1 Mark
A Antidepressant B Antipsychotic C Antianxiety drug D None of the above
Ans: C Antianxiety drug
Explanation:
Anti-Anxiety drugs (minor tranquillizers) are used for anxiety and phobic conditions. Benzodiazepines are main anti-anxiety drugs.
Opium, morphine, heroin, etc., are opiate narcotics, which suppress brain functions, relieve pain, whereas sedatives and tranquillizers depress
brain activity and produce feelings of calmness, eg., barbiturates (sleeping pills), benzodiazepines (tranquillizers).
Q99. Diacetyl morphine is commonly known as 1 Mark
A Cocaine B Hashish C Ganja D Heroin.
Ans: D Heroin.
Q100. RNA retrovirus has a special enzyme that: 1 Mark
A Transcribes viral RNA to DNA B Translates host DNA
C Polymerizes host DNA D Disintegrates host DNA
Ans: A Transcribes viral RNA to DNA
Explanation:
RNA retroviruses have reverse transcriptase enzyme which synthesizes DNA using RNA template, the process is called reverse transcription
because the process goes in just opposite direction to normal transcription. A DNA strand is always first transcribed into RNA which is then
translated into protein; DNA is never translated into protein which makes option B wrong.
DNA polymerization is characteristic of DNA polymerases which are found in all organisms and are not unique to retroviruses; option C is
wrong.
DNA disintegration is characteristic of nucleases which can cut the DNA randomly or at specific sites. Nucleases are universal
in occurrence; option D is wrong.
The correct option is A.
Q101. Which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue? 1 Mark
A Spleen. B Tonsils. C Appendix. D Thymus.
Ans: C Appendix.
Explanation:
Spleen, Tonsils and Thymus are lymphoid tissue while pancreas is mixed gland.
Q102. Oncology is the study of: 1 Mark
A Dead cells B Living cells C Callus D Cancer cells
Ans: D Cancer cells
Explanation:
Oncology is the branch of science which deals with the prevention, diagnosis and treatment of cancer. Cancer is mainly caused due to the
abnormal multiplication of cells.
Q103. AIDS is not a disease that can be .......... through the air or by insects. 1 Mark
A Circulated B Transferred C Transmitted D Conducted
Ans: C Transmitted
Explanation:
Movement through a circuit is called as circulation. This term is generally used for fluid. Transfer is an act of moving of a thing from one place
to another place. Conduction is conveying something though a passage or a medium.
The act of moving something through a medium such as air, water insects etc., is called as transmission. This term is generally used for
disease transmission.
Q104. One of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm: 1 Mark
A Microsporum. B Trichophyton. C Epidermophyton. D Macrosporum.
Ans: D Macrosporum.
Explanation:
Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are the causal organism for ringworm while Macrosporum is a brown alga.
Q105. The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further infection is: 1 Mark
A Interferon. B Histamine. C Colostrum. D Serotonin.
Ans: A Interferon.
Q106. Mumps is a viral disease and painful swelling of: 1 Mark
A Parotid glands. B Thyroid. C Thymus. D Sublingual glands.
Ans: A Parotid glands.
Q107. Everytime, when the dosage of a drug has to be increased to achieve the same 'kick' that initially occurred in response to a smaller dose, this 1 Mark
condition is known as ...
A Rebound effect B Tolerance C Withdrawal symptoms D Addiction
Ans: B Tolerance
Q108. Which of the following glands is enlarged in malaria: 1 Mark
A Pancreas B Liver C Spleen D All of these
Ans: C Spleen
Q109. Which of the following are the reason(s) for Rheumatoid arthritis? Choose the correct option. 1 Mark
1. Lymphocytes become more active.
2. Body attacks self cells.
3. More antibodies are produced in the body.
4. The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cells is lost.
A i and ii. B ii and iv. C iii and iv. D i and iii.
Ans: B ii and iv.
Explanation:
Rheumatoid arthritis is a autoimmune diseases in which; Body attacks self cells The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules
from self cells is lost.
Q110. Filaria is transmitted by: 1 Mark
A Male anopheles B Male culex C Female anopheles D Female culex
Ans: D Female culex
Explanation:
Filariasis is an infectious tropical disease caused by parasites filarial nematodes. They are transmitted to humans through the bites of the
female Culex mosquitoes.
These are pseudocoelomate and they are triploblastic in nature.
Q111. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiation due to: 1 Mark
A Rapid cell division. B Lack of nutrition. C Fast mutation. D Lack of oxygen.
Ans: A Rapid cell division.
Q112. In which of the following disease, there is always a time lag between the infection and appearance of the symptoms of that particular disease? 1 Mark
A AIDS. B Allergy. C Cancer. D Alcoholism.
Ans: A AIDS.
Q113. Apart from the cleanliness of one's own body __________also helps to improve personal health. 1 Mark
A Depression B Over-eating C Medicines D Physical exercise
Ans: D Physical exercise
Explanation:
Physical exercise helps improve bodily functions. It prevents the body from mental and physical illnesses. A person with a sedentary lifestyle
is more prone to diseases and infections than a person with little or more working lifestyle.
Q114. Physical exercise boosts mental wellness by relieving: 1 Mark
A Sleep. B Anxiety. C Blood pressure. D None of the above.
Ans: B Anxiety.
Explanation:
Regular physical exercise is an essential to the body and can relieve various mental issues such as anxiety, tension, and depression.
The act of exercising leads to the release of hormones that makes a human happy and a feel-good sensation.
Q115. Chenopodium oil is used in: 1 Mark
A Tuberculosis B Typhoid C Ascariasis D Small pox
Ans: C Ascariasis
Explanation:
Chenopodium is a genus of numerous species of perennial herbaceous flowering plants, which occur anywhere in the world.
Oil of chenopodium is extracted from the seeds of epazote, which is not in this genus anymore. This oil is used in the treatment of ascariasis.
Q116. A sedentary lifestyle can increase the risk of __________. 1 Mark
A Sleeping B Eating C Blood supply D Cardiovascular disease
Ans: D Cardiovascular disease
Explanation:
Too much sitting and other sedentary activities can increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.
One study showed that adults who watch more than 4 hours of television a day had a 46% increased risk of death from any cause and an
80% increased risk of death from cardiovascular disease.
Becoming more active can help lower your blood pressure and also boost your levels of good cholesterol.
Q117. The organism that causes elephantiasis belongs to: 1 Mark
A Insecta B Protozoa C Nematoda D Coelenterata
Ans: C Nematoda
Explanation:
Elephantiasis refers to a parasitic infection that causes extreme swelling in the arms and legs.
The disease is caused by the filarial worm or nematode parasites like Wuchereria bancrofti, brugia malayi etc., which is transmitted from
human to human via female mosquito when it takes a blood meal.
Q118. Elephantiasis in man is caused by ____________. 1 Mark
A Ancylostoma duodenale B Ascaris lumbricoides C Dracunculus medinensis D Wuchereria bancrofti
Ans: D Wuchereria bancrofti
Explanation:
Filariasis, commonly called elephantiasis, is a parasitic infection that causes extreme swelling in the arms and the legs.
The disease is caused by a filarial worm, which is transmitted from human to human via a female mosquito when it takes a blood meal.
Wuchereria bancrofti is one such nematode parasite.
It generally spreads through the Culex and Anopheles mosquitoes.
Q119. Colostrum is rich in: 1 Mark
A IgG. B IgD. C IgM. D IgA.
Ans: D IgA.
Q120. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother's milk to the infant is categorised as: 1 Mark
A Active immunity B Passive immunity
C Cellular immunity D Innate non-specific immunity
Ans: B Passive immunity
Explanation:
Immunity is transferred across placenta from mother to the foetus or through breast milk of mother to the infant passively in the form of
readymade antibodies which can provide protection against bacteria and viruses until the baby can synthesize its own antibodies.
Therefore, it is a short-lived immunity. World Heath Organization recommends that breast feeding must be given for the first two years of life
to provide immunity to the child. This kind of immunity which is transferred directly in the form of readymade antibodies is called as passive
immunity.
Q121. LSD is: 1 Mark
A Hallucinogenic. B Sedative. C Stimulant. D Tranquiliser.
Ans: A Hallucinogenic.
Q122. The disease chikungunya is transmitted by: 1 Mark
A Cockroach. B Female Anopheles. C House flies. D Aedes mosquitoes.
Ans: D Aedes mosquitoes.
Q123. The larva of Ascaris undergoes the migration in which of the following course: 1 Mark
A Alimentary canal, liver, intestine. B Alimentary canal, heart, lungs, trachea, intestine.
C Alimentary canal, heart, liver, lungs, trachea, mouth, intestine. D Alimentary canal, liver, heart, lungs, trachea, pharynx, intestine.
Ans:
C Alimentary canal, heart, liver, lungs, trachea, mouth, intestine.
Explanation:
Embryonated eggs ? Mouth ? Intestine ? Liver ? (2nd stage larva )
Heart ? Lungs ? trachea ? Phyarynx ? Intestine (4th stage larva )
Q124. Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington’s chorea are: 1 Mark
A Bacteria-related diseases. B Congenital disorders.
C Pollutant-induced disorders. D Virus-related diseases.
Ans: B Congenital disorders.
Q125. Which of the following is a matching pair of the vector and the disease? 1 Mark
A Culex - Filariasis B Housefly - Yellow fever C Body louse - Typhoid D Sandfly - Plague
Ans: A Culex - Filariasis
Explanation:
Yellow fever is an acute viral disease and it primarily spreads by mosquitoes of Aedes aegypti species.
Typhoid is bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi. Plague is caused by enterobacteria carried by small rodents.
Culex is the genus of mosquitoes and serves as vectors and filariasis is one such disease for which Culex is the vector.
Q126. Which of the following is monogenetic? 1 Mark
A Tapeworm B Ascaris C Fasciola D Hookworm
Ans: B Ascaris
Explanation:
Ascaris is monogenetic because it completes its life cycle in only one host i.e man.
Tapeworm requires two hosts i.e man and pig while Fasciola requires sheep and snail to complete its life cycle. Hookworms undergo some
development outside host body in the soil before they attain infective stage.
Q127. Which of following is a hallucinogen? 1 Mark
A Lysergic acid diethylamide B Psilocybin
C Mescaline D All of the above
Ans: D All of the above
Explanation:
A hallucinogen is a drug that affects the function of the brain by altering consciousness. This substance binds to the serotonin receptor and
enhances serotonin production.
There are three classes of hallucinogens, viz psychedelics, dissociatives and deliriants. Lysergic acid diethylamide(LSD), psilocybin and
mescaline are psychedelic drugs that cause psychological effects.
Q128. Which people are at risk of getting a particular disease? 1 Mark
A Who never had vaccine. B Who didn't receive all doses of vaccine.
C Who travel to disease prevalent areas. D All of the above.
Ans: D All of the above.
Explanation:
Many people could still be at risk of getting a particular disease example polio.
This includes those people who have never had the vaccine, those who didn't receive all doses of the vaccine, or those traveling to areas of
the world where polio is still prevalent.
Q129. Choose the correct statement with reference to Ascaris: 1 Mark
A Hatching of embryos takes place in the stomach due to lytic B Adulthood is reached inside the body of the host in ten days time.
enzyme.
C Development and moulting takes place in the alveoli of lungs. D Hatching of embryo takes places within ten hours.
Ans: C Development and moulting takes place in the alveoli of lungs.
Explanation:
Ascaris requires a single host, i.e., man to complete its life cycle.
The most important locations in body of man where Ascaris visits are small intestine and from there it migrates to the lungs through pulmonary
circulation where they almost ten times bigger and moult twice.
Q130. ............... is/are the characteristic/s of acquired immunity: 1 Mark
A Specificity of antigen. B Difference between self and non-self.
C Memory retention. D All of the above.
Ans: D All of the above.
Explanation:
Acquired immunity or adaptive immunity develops following exposure to an antigen and is mediated by B lymphocytes or T lymphocytes or
both, having a specific surface receptor for the same antigen.
Following are the characteristics of acquired immunity:
Diversity: They can respond to millions of different antigens.
Antibody specificity: Ability of the antibody to recognize the specific antigen (even antigen molecule differing by a single amino acid).
The response is directed only towards the initiated pathogen.
Immunologic memory: Once recognized and responded to an antigen, the system is able to respond more strongly to subsequent exposure
even after many years.
Discrimination between self and non-self: It can differentiate self-cells (host cells) from foreign cells and molecules. Only foreign particles are
attacked. Failure of this discrimination results in auto-immune diseases.
Q131. ........ helps to maintain your personal health. 1 Mark
A Working B Fasting C Healthy diet D All of the above
Ans: C Healthy diet
Explanation:
An important way to maintain your personal health is to have a healthy diet.
A healthy diet includes a variety of plant and animal-based foods that provide all the essential nutrients to our body.
Q132. Ingestion of marijuana leads to illusions and alters the thoughts, feelings and perceptions of a person. Marijuana is a: 1 Mark
A Narcotic B Stimulant C Hallucinogen D Sedative
Ans: C Hallucinogen
Explanation:
Marijuana is a hallucinogen that causes altered perception and feeling.
They have powerful mind-altering effects and can affect the regions of the brain that are responsible for co-ordination, thought processes,
hearing and sight.
Q133. Filariasis is also called elephantiasis because: 1 Mark
A Body parts swell B It is caused by elephant
C It is caused by Ascaris D It is caused by Entamoeba
Ans: A Body parts swell
Explanation:
Filariasis, commonly called as elephantiasis, is a parasitic infection that causes extreme swelling in the arms and the legs and hence, the name
elephantiasis.
Wuchereria bancrofti is the parasite responsible for it. The parasite infects the lymph nodes and lymph vessels.
Q134. Kissing does not spread the disease while sexual contact transfers same: 1 Mark
A AIDS B Rabies C Common cold D Measles
Ans: A AIDS
Q135. Being healthy means: 1 Mark
A Free of infection by pathogen. B Tension free mental status.
C Living in polluted environment. D Both A and B.
Ans: D Both A and B.
Explanation:
A healthy body indicates both mental, social, and physical well-being. Health depends on three major factors physical, social, and mental.
Free of infection by pathogen sustains physical fitness and a stable mind provides mental fitness.
Living in a polluted environment results in a higher risk of getting infected.
Q136. Filariform is the larva of: 1 Mark
A Platyheminthes B Aschelminthes C Annelids D Arthropods
Ans: B Aschelminthes
Explanation:
Filariform is the infective third-stage larva of the hookworm, Ascaris, and other nematodes.
Ascaris belongs to the phylum Aschelminthes.
Q137. Which of the following disease is not transmitted through contaminated water? 1 Mark
A Typhoid. B Diphtheria. C Amoebiasis. D Hepatitis A.
Ans: B Diphtheria.
Q138. Sensory structures in Ascaris are: 1 Mark
A Phasmids B Amphids C Papillae D All of the above
Ans: D All of the above
Explanation:
The sense organ of Ascaris is simple elevations supplied by the nerve. They include various papillae, aphids and phasmids. The dorsal lip
bears two-minute double papillae whereas single papillae are called as amphid.
The amphids are probably chemoreceptors, while the other sensory papillae are perhaps tango receptors. Phasmids are chemoreceptors that
open one on either side of the tail of female.
Q139. Iron deficiency anaemia is a complication of which of the following parasitic infection? 1 Mark
A Roundworm B Threadworm C Hookworm D Whipworm
Ans: C Hookworm
Explanation:
Human hookworm infection is a soil-transmitted helminthiasis caused by the nematode parasites Necator
americanus and [Link]. Hookworm infection is the leading cause of anemia and protein malnutrition.
Q140. The sporozoites that cause infection when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a human being are formed in: 1 Mark
A Liver of human. B RBCs of mosquito.
C Salivary glands of mosquito. D Intestine of human.
Ans: D Intestine of human.
Explanation:
The sporozoites that cause infection, when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a person being are formed in intestine of mosquito.
Q141. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because: 1 Mark
A It is controlled by recessive genes. B It is not a fatal disease.
C It provides immunity against malaria. D It is controlled by dominant genes.
Ans: C It provides immunity against malaria.
Q142. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to: 1 Mark
A Hot and humid environment. B Eating fruits preserved in tin containers.
C Inhalation of seasonal pollen. D Low temperature.
Ans: C Inhalation of seasonal pollen.
Q143. The _______ is at its largest in children, but with the onset of puberty, it eventually shrinks and gets replaced by fat. 1 Mark
A Hypothalamus. B Thymus. C Parathyroid gland. D None of these.
Ans: B Thymus.
Q144. The immunity obtained after the body has recovered from a disease is: 1 Mark
A Active immunity B Passive immunity C Both A and B D Innate immunity
Ans: A Active immunity
Explanation:
Active immunity, which is naturally acquired, occurs when the person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease and becomes
immune, as a result of the primary immune response. Artificially acquired active immunity can be induced by a vaccine.
Artificially acquired passive immunity is a short-term immunization by the injection of antibodies. Naturally acquired passive immunity occurs
during pregnancy in which certain antibodies are passed from the maternal to the fetal bloodstream.
Q145. Peripheral vascular disease is most common in smokers which can lead to: 1 Mark
A Gangrene B Thrombosis C Embolism D All of the above
Ans: D All of the above
Explanation:
Peripheral vascular disease is commonly used to refer to peripheral artery disease, meaning narrowing or occlusion by atherosclerotic
plaques of arteries outside of the heart and brain.
Risk factors for peripheral artery disease include elevated blood cholesterol, diabetes, hypertension and smoking. Complications of peripheral
artery disease include sores that do not heal, ulcers, gangrene or infections in the extremities.
A peripheral vascular disease that affects the veins include deep vein thrombosis, varicose veins. Pulmonary embolism is also caused by the
blood clot due to peripheral vascular disease.
Q146. Diphtheria is caused by: 1 Mark
A Poisons released by living bacterial cells into the host tissue. B Poisons released from dead bacterial cells into the host tissue.
C Poisons released by virus into the host tissues. D Excessive immune response by the host’s body.
Ans: A Poisons released by living bacterial cells into the host tissue.
Q147. The study of the action of drugs is known as: 1 Mark
A Pharmacognosy B Pharmacology
C Physiology D Pharmaceutical chemistry
Ans: B Pharmacology
Explanation:
Pharmacology is the branch of the study of drug action, in which considers the site of action of drug, toxicity, side effects on plasma half life
concentration, excretory by products, etc.
Q148. The pathogens of genera, Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermorphyton are responsible for: 1 Mark
A Botulism. B Conjunctivitis. C Ringworms. D Skin allergy.
Ans: C Ringworms.
Q149. Typhoid fever is caused by: 1 Mark
A Giardia. B Salmonella. C Shigella. D Escherichia.
Ans: B Salmonella.
Q150. The chemical test that is used for diagnosis of typhoid is: 1 Mark
A ELISA-Test. B ESR-Test. C PCR-Test. D Widal-Test.
Ans: D Widal-Test.
Explanation:
ELISA is normally use to diagnose AIDS. PCR is used to amplify a gene copy to obtain a particular gene sequence. ESR test is done to find the
sedimentation rate of RBCs and is used as a diagnostic tool for inflammation. Widal test is used for diagnosis of typhoid.
Q151. Among these, the statement that is true with respect to HIV/AIDS is: 1 Mark
A The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T- lymphocytes thus B The HIV can be transmitted by sharing food with an infected
reducing their numbers. person.
C Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection. D AIDS patients can be fully cured with proper care and nutrition.
Ans: A The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T- lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers.
Explanation:
AIDS is caused by the destruction of CD-4 bearing T-cells and other cells by HIV, over a period of years. The final stage of this process is
marked by a low level of helper T-cells and opportunistic diseases characteristic of a deficient cell-mediated immune response. Hence
statement A is correct.
HIV is transmitted when there is transfer of blood from an infected person to a healthy person, through any means. Hence statement B is
incorrect.
Drug addicts are more susceptible to HIV infection as they use syringes for drugs and the infected syringes may transfer HIV infection in
them. Hence statement C is incorrect.
AIDS can't be cured. The time period between the infection of HIV and its effects on body, can be increased with the help of medicines but
HIV can never be cured fully. Hence statement D is incorrect.
So, the correct answer is 'The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T- lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers'.
Q152. Which of these is most infectious disease? 1 Mark
A Hepatitis-B. B AIDS. C Cough and cold. D Malaria.
Ans: A Hepatitis-B.
Q153. Food poisoning is caused by: 1 Mark
A Entamoeba histolytica. B Escherichia coli.
C Clostridium botulinum. D Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
Ans: C Clostridium botulinum.
Q154. HIV stands for ____. 1 Mark
A Human Immunodeficiency Virus. B Human Immuno Virus.
C Human Immunosupportive Virus. D Human Inflammatory Virus.
Ans: A Human Immunodeficiency Virus.
Q155. AIDS cannot be transmitted by: 1 Mark
A Sexual contact B Hugs C Breast feeding D Blood transfusion
Ans: B Hugs
Explanation:
AIDS is a viral disease transmitted through certain body fluids such as semen, saliva, blood, the breast milk of an AIDS-infected person by
sexual contact, breastfeeding from an HIV-infected mother can transmit AIDS to the baby and by blood transfusion. During a hug, nobody fluid
is entered into the body from one person to another.
Q156. Oncogenes were discovered by: 1 Mark
A S.B. Prussiner B F.P. Rous
C A. Fleming D J.M. Bishop and H.E. Varmus
Ans: D J.M. Bishop and H.E. Varmus
Q157. Primary cause of death related to cigarette smoking is: 1 Mark
A Atherosclerosis B Myocardial infarction C Both A and B D None of the above
Ans: C Both A and B
Explanation:
Myocardial infarction (MI) occurs, when blood flow stops to part of the heart causing damage to the heart muscle. Atherosclerosis is a disease
in which plaque builds up inside the arteries.
Smoking is known to be a strong risk factor for premature atherosclerosis, myocardial infarction and sudden cardiac death. Smoking appears
to be the cause of about 36% of deaths due to MI.
Q158. Vaccination is a part of: 1 Mark
A Treatment of disease B Etiology C Prophylaxis D All of the above
Ans: C Prophylaxis
Explanation:
Prophylaxis is a measure taken to maintain health or to prevent the spread of disease.
Vaccination is a part of prophylaxis because it is given before the infection to prevent that infection.
Q159. ..................... can be prevented by using immunisation. 1 Mark
A Infectious diseases B Non infectious diseases
C Communicable diseases D Non communicable diseases
Ans: A Infectious diseases
Explanation:
Immunization is done by the mean of vaccination and the infectious diseases like polio, measles, diphtheria, tetanus etc can be vaccinated
before occurring.
Q160. Diacetylmorphine hydrochloride is: 1 Mark
A Heroin B Brown sugar C Methadone D Both A and B

Ans: B Brown sugar

Explanation:
Diamorphine hydrochloride binds to opioid receptors in the central nervous system. It is a type of analgesic agent and a type of opiate.
Also called diacetylmorphine hydrochloride and heroin. diacetylmorphine hydrochloride is also known as brown sugar.
Q161. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: HIV infected person are prone to opportunistic diseases.
Reason: Immune system weakens during HIV infection.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q162. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: HIV infection can be avoided by use of condoms.
Reason: Condoms secrete anti-viral interferons.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q163. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Morphine is very effective and sedative.
Reason: It is very useful for the patients who have depression.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q164. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Artificiallyacquired passive immunity results when antibodies or lymphocytes produced outside the host are introduced into a host.
Reason: A bone marrow transplant given to a patient with genetic immunodeficiency is an exampleof artificiallyacquired passive immunity.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q165. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Brown sugar is morphine-derivative
Reason: Morphine is the principal opium alkaloid.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
Morphine is a derivative of the opium. It is the principal opium alkaloid and a strong analgesic. Diacetyl morphine hydrochloride is brown
sugar/ smack and is more powerful analgesic than morphine.
Q166. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : SCID is the first genetic disorder to be combated with gene therapy.
Reason : SCID is a type of allergy.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Explanation:
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) represents a group of rare, sometimes fatal, congenital disorders characterized by little or no
immune response. The defining feature of SCID, commonly known as “bubble boy” disease, is a defect in the specialized white blood cells (B-
and T-Iymphocytes) that defend us from infection by viruses, bacteria, and fungi. SCID is caused by a defect in the gene that codes for the
enzyme adenosine deaminase on chromosome number 20. Lack of the enzyme adenosine deaminase (ADA), means that the substrates for
this enzyme accumulate in the cells. Immature lymphoid cells of the immune system are particularly sensitive to the toxic effects of these
unused substrates, so fail [Link] maturity. As a result, the immune system of the afflicted individual is severely compromised or completely
lacking. Lack of this enzyme makes the body defenseless against infections. SCID is the first genetic disorder to be combated with gene
therapy.
Q167. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Intake of potato chips and french fries may induce cancer development.
Reason: On heating, their carbohydrate changes into a carcinogenic chemical called acrylamide.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q168. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Organ transplantation patients are given immunosuppressive drugs.
Reason: Transplanted tissue has antigens which stimulate the specific immune response of the recipient.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q169. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Severe Acute Respiratory syndromes is common in China.
Reason: China is the most populated country of the world.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q170. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: There is no chance of malaria to a man on the bite of male Anopheles mosquito.
Reason: It carries a non-virulant strain of Plasmodium.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
Q171. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Paroxysms are regular and daily in Quotidian malaria.
Reason: Recurrence of fever is after 48 hours if the infection is caused byPlasmodium malariae.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q172. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : It is considered advantageous to give the polio vaccine orally.
Reason: The oral polio vaccine prevents reinfection by causing intestinal immunity.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
D Both assertion and reason are false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Q173. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Antiretroviral drugs are very effective in treatment against AIDS.
Reason: AIDS virus is a retrovirus with Ss DNA as genetic material
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q174. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Cancer patients are given chemotherapeutic treatments.
Reason: Chemotherapeutic agents are used to destroy malignant cells.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
D Both assertion and reason are false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
Chemotherapeutic agents inhibit/kill invading parasite/malignant cell and have no/ minimal pharmacodynamic effects on the recipient.
Pharmacodynamic agents affect our body's physiology and biochemistry. Chemotherapeutic drugs may be more toxic to cancerous cells than
to normal cells.
Q175. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Tranquillizers are used to treat schizophrenia.
Reason: Tranquillizers are antipsychosis drugs.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
D Both assertion and reason are false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
Some tranquillizers are also called antipsychotic drugs (major tranquillizers) as they have good effect in all types of psychosis (patients having
severe psychiatric illness, schizophrenic patients). They reduce aggressiveness. Thought and behaviour are gradually normalised and anxiety
is relieved. Examples of antipsychotic drugs are Phenothiazines, Butyrophenones, Pimozide, Reserpine, etc.
Q176. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Interferons are a type of antibodies produced by body cells infected by bacteria.
Reason: Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
D Both assertion and reason are false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: D Both assertion and reason are false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Explanation:
Interferons are not antibodies. These are natural proteins produced by the cells of the immune systems of most animals in response to
challenges by foreign agents such as viruses, bacteria, parasites and tumor cells. Interferons belong to the large class of glycoproteins known
as cytokines. In human body there are three types of interferon -α, β and γ Interferon alpha and beta are produced by many cell types,
including T-cells and B-cells and are important components of the antiviral response. They stimulate both macrophages and NK (Natural Killer)
 cells. They both are also active against tumors. Interferon gamma is involved in the regulation of the immune and inflammatory response.
Interferon gamma has had some antiviral and antitumor effect, but these are generally weak, however, it potentiates the effect of interferon
alpha and interferon beta.
Q177. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Interferons are effective against viruses.
Reason: Proteins which can be synthesized only by genetic engineering are effective against viruses.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
Q178. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Chlamydiosis is most common bacterial sexually transmitted disease.
Reason: It can be easily differentiated from gonococcal urethritis.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
Q179. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : A cholera patient is given glucose, electrolytes, and water.
Reason: These plasmolyse the disease causing germs.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
D Both assertion and reason are false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: C Assertion is true, but reason is false. C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Explanation:
Cholera is an acute infectious disease which is caused by Vibrio cholerae. The stools and the vomit of a cholera patient are full of cholera
germs, and these may get into a healthy person when contaminated food or drink is taken by mouth. Since a large quantity of fluid and salts
are rapidly lost through stools and vomit, therefore, the most important treatment is to replace the lost fluid and salts equally rapidly.
Q180. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: T-lymphocytes mediate CMI response.
Reason: The above response makes it easy to transplant organs.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
Q181. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Severe Acute Respiratory syndromes is common in China.
Reason: China is the most populated country of the world.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q182. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: There is no chance of malaria to a man on the bite of male Anopheles mosquito.
Reason: It carries a non-virulant strain of Plasmodium.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
Q183. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Paroxysms are regular and daily in Quotidian malaria.
Reason: Recurrence of fever is after 48 hours if the infection is caused byPlasmodium malariae.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q184. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : It is considered advantageous to give the polio vaccine orally.
Reason: The oral polio vaccine prevents reinfection by causing intestinal immunity.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
D Both assertion and reason are false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Q185. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Antiretroviral drugs are very effective in treatment against AIDS.
Reason: AIDS virus is a retrovirus with Ss DNA as genetic material
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Q186. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Cancer patients are given chemotherapeutic treatments.
Reason: Chemotherapeutic agents are used to destroy malignant cells.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
D Both assertion and reason are false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
Chemotherapeutic agents inhibit/kill invading parasite/malignant cell and have no/ minimal pharmacodynamic effects on the recipient.
Pharmacodynamic agents affect our body's physiology and biochemistry. Chemotherapeutic drugs may be more toxic to cancerous cells than
to normal cells.
Q187. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Tranquillizers are used to treat schizophrenia.
Reason: Tranquillizers are antipsychosis drugs.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
D Both assertion and reason are false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
Some tranquillizers are also called antipsychotic drugs (major tranquillizers) as they have good effect in all types of psychosis (patients having
severe psychiatric illness, schizophrenic patients). They reduce aggressiveness. Thought and behaviour are gradually normalised and anxiety
is relieved. Examples of antipsychotic drugs are Phenothiazines, Butyrophenones, Pimozide, Reserpine, etc.
Q188. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Interferons are a type of antibodies produced by body cells infected by bacteria.
Reason: Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
D Both assertion and reason are false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: D Both assertion and reason are false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Explanation:
Interferons are not antibodies. These are natural proteins produced by the cells of the immune systems of most animals in response to
challenges by foreign agents such as viruses, bacteria, parasites and tumor cells. Interferons belong to the large class of glycoproteins known
as cytokines. In human body there are three types of interferon -α, β and γ Interferon alpha and beta are produced by many cell types,
including T-cells and B-cells and are important components of the antiviral response. They stimulate both macrophages and NK (Natural Killer)
 cells. They both are also active against tumors. Interferon gamma is involved in the regulation of the immune and inflammatory response.
Interferon gamma has had some antiviral and antitumor effect, but these are generally weak, however, it potentiates the effect of interferon
alpha and interferon beta.
Q189. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Interferons are effective against viruses.
Reason: Proteins which can be synthesized only by genetic engineering are effective against viruses.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
Q190. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Chlamydiosis is most common bacterial sexually transmitted disease.
Reason: It can be easily differentiated from gonococcal urethritis.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
Q191. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : A cholera patient is given glucose, electrolytes, and water.
Reason: These plasmolyse the disease causing germs.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
D Both assertion and reason are false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: C Assertion is true, but reason is false. C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Explanation:
Cholera is an acute infectious disease which is caused by Vibrio cholerae. The stools and the vomit of a cholera patient are full of cholera
germs, and these may get into a healthy person when contaminated food or drink is taken by mouth. Since a large quantity of fluid and salts
are rapidly lost through stools and vomit, therefore, the most important treatment is to replace the lost fluid and salts equally rapidly.
Q192. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: T-lymphocytes mediate CMI response.
Reason: The above response makes it easy to transplant organs.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
D A is false and R is also false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false. C A is true but R is false.
Q193. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for causing infectious disease in human beings.
Reason: A healthy person acquires the infection by inhaling the droplets/aerosols released by an infected person.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Q194. For question two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Immunoglobutin functions as antibody.
Reason: Different inununoglobulins molecules have different antigen binding properties.
A Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: B Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
Immunoglobulins are a complex hetero - geneous mixture of proteins that are produced by plasma cells in response to an immunogen. It
generally assume one of two roles - (i) plasma membrane bound antigen receptors on the surface of B cell, or (ii) as antibodies free in cellular
fluids functioning to intercept and eliminate antigenic determinants. It exhibit two fundamental types of structural variation. Subtle structural
differences in their antigen combining sites, or variable regions, account for their unique antigen binding specificities. Structural differences
outside their antigen combining sites, in the so-called constant regions, correlate with the different effector functions mediated by antibodies,
such as complement activation or binding to one or more of the antibody Fe receptors expressed on monocytes and granulocytes. The
variable and constant regions of antibodies arise from distinct structural domains. Each antibody class is distinguished by certain effector
functions and structural features including a unique heavy (H) chain isotype, designated α (IgA), δ (IgD),ϵ (IgE), γ (IgG), μ (IgM).
Q195. 1 Mark
 For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified anamnestic response.
Reason: This is based on the fact that our body appears to have memory of the first encounter.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q196. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Pork should be properly cooked to avoid Taenia infection.
Reason: It contains hexacanth and cysticeric larvae.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q197. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Rabies is an infection of mammals, it involves central nervous system which may result in paralysis and finally death.
Reason: This is caused by neurotropic bacteria in saliva of rabies animal.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q198. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: AIDS spreads more rapidly than hepatitis
Reason: HIV has shorter incubation period than that of HBV.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false.
Q199. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: AIDS is a disorder caused by HIV.
Reason: HIV is a virus that damages the immune system of its host.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q200. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Passive immunity is of short life span.
Reason: Passive immunization is promptly available.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
Passive immunity is resistance based on antibodies preformed in another host. Administration of antibody against diphtheria, tetanus,
botulism, etc. makes large amounts of antitoxin immediately available to neutralize the toxins. Likewise, preformed antibodies to certain
viruses can be injected during the incubation period to limit viral multiplication. The main advantage of passive immunity is the prompt
availability of large amounts of antibody (as it is formed from another host), disadvantages are the short life span of these antibodies and
possible hypersensitivity reactions of globulin from another species are used.
Q201. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Immunity means all capacity of human body to resist almost all types of organisms or toxins that tend to damage the tissues and
organs.
Reason: Spleen is the only organ involved in immunity.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Explanation:
The principal parts of the immune system are the bone marrow, thymus, lymphatic system, tonsils, and spleen. The lymph nodes, tonsils, and
spleen act to trap and destroy antigens from the lymph, air, and blood, respectively.
Q202. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Smack is a by-product of heroin synthesis.
Reason: Heroin is an opium alkaloid.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
 Explanation:
Heroin is diamorphine or diacetylmorphine -C17 H17 (OC2 H3 O3)2NH, which is also called smack. Opium is semisynthetic opiate (opium-
derivative) which is most dangerous of all the opiates. Heroin is formed from acetylation of morphine.
Q203. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Histamine is related with allergic and inflammatory reactions.
Reason: Histamine is a vasodilator.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q204. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Inspite of exposure to large number of infectious agents, humans are resistive to diseases.
Reason: Humans are able to defend against most of the foreign agents due to the ability to fight disease- causing organisms.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q205. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Artificiallyacquired passive immunity results when antibodies or lymphocytes produced outside the host are introduced into a host.
Reason: A bone marrow transplant given to a patient with genetic immunodeficiency is an example of artificially acquired passive immunity.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q206. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Cornea is considered as an immunologically privileged site
Reason: A transplanted cornea is rarely rejected.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
Some transplanted tissues do not stimulate an immune response. For example, a transplanted cornea is rarely rejected because lymphocytes
do not circulate into the anterior chamber of the eye, thats why this site is considered as immunologically privileged site.
Q207. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Mast cells in the human body release excessive amounts of inflammatory chemicals, which cause allergic reactions.
Reason: Allergens in the environment on reaching human body stimulate mast cells in certain individuals.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q208. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: The antibodies separted from serum are homogenous.
Reason: Monoclonal antibodies are homogenous immunological reagents.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false.
Q209. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Plasmodium vivax is responsible for malaria.
Reason: Malaria is caused by polluted water.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q210. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : There is no chance of transmission of malaria to man on the bite of a male Anopheles mosquito.
Reason: It carries a non-virulent strain of Plasmodium.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Explanation:
There is no chance of transmission of malaria to man on the bite of a male Anopheles mosquito. The mouthparts of male mosquito is
organised in such a manner that they cannot suck the human blood. They feed mainly on the leaf and fruit juices. Thus spreading malaria
through male Anopheles is next to impossible.
Q211. 1 Mark
 For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion :Mucous membrane immobilises the micro-organisms in the body
Reason: Microorganisms and dust particles entering the respiratory tract are trapped in the mucus.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence, that is accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the entry of the foreign agents
into our body. Mucus coating of the epithelium lining in the respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts traps microbes and prevents their
entry in our body.
Q212. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Allergy is an immunity disorder.
Reason: Allergy is confined to a person only.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.

C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

Explanation:
Allergy is non-infectious unusual reaction or hypersensitivity of an individual to a foreign substance or agent that may be harmless to other
individuals (thus it is considered as immunity disorder). It is non-communicable as it is confined to a person only and does not spread from
one person to another. The foreign substance or allergen on first contact functions as mild antigen. It produces antibodies which remain
attached with the mast cell. Lysis of mast-cells occur, which releases histamine as allergy mediator.
Q213. For question two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Some diseases that attack in childhood do not attack again.
Reason: Memory cells plays an important role.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
This can be explained in terms of memory cells. After the infection disappears as a result of antigen-antibody interaction and killer T-cell-
nonself cell interaction, some of the specific lymphocytes remain in lymphatic tissue as "memory or primed cells" which are ready to produce
the antibodies and killer cells if the same antigens reappear. That is why the second attack of the infectious disease elicits quick and abundant
antibody formation. The memory cells can give rise to more effector cells and memory cells in case of a second attack of antigens. Whereas
the effector cells have a life of a few days only. and the memory cells live long, some even for whole life. The memory cells are stored in the
spleen and lymph nodes.
Q214. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Interferons are a type of antiboides produced by body cells infected by bacteria.
Reason: These stimulate inflamm-ation at the site of injury.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false.
Q215. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified anamnestic response.
Reason: This is based on the fact that our body appears to have memory of the first encounter.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Q216. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Epstein– Barr virus is an oncovirus.
Reason: It stimulates the growth of cancer.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q217. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Psychotropic drugs affect behaviour and mental activities
Reason: Tranquillizer, a psychotropic drug, decrease tension and anxiety.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
 C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

Explanation:
Psychotropic drugs either induce sleep or produce calming effect. These drugs inhibit the mental activity for sometime depending upon the
amount of drug consumed by the person. A drug which reduces mental tension and produce calmness without inducing sleep or depressing
mental-faculties is generally called tranquillizer.
Q218. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Stool test is done to detect giardiasis.
Reason: Giardia is enteric flagellate protozoan.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q219. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: A person who has received a cut and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment.
Reason: Anti-tetanus injection provides immunity by producing antibodies for tetanus.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q220. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Mucus associated lymphoid tissues are specialised immune barriers located on skin.
Reason: These lymphoid tissues are located within tonsils, adenoids and peyer's patches.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q221. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Many visitors of hills suffer from skin and respiratory allergy problem.
Reason: Conifer trees produce a large quantitiy of wind-borne pollen grains.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q222. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Innate immunity is non-specific defence.
Reason:It consists of four types of barriers.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q223. For question two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Inflammatory response is produced in the body after some infections.
Reason: This is one type of defence mechanism.
A Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: A Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
Infection or tissue injury often results in redness and swelling, along with pain and production of heat that may result in fever. Such
manifestation is localized and, is known as inflammatory response. This response occurs due to release of chemical signals, alarm signals,
notably histamine and prostaglandins,by the damaged mast cells. There is a leakage of vascular fluid, which contains serum proteins with
antibacterial activity. Further, there is an influx of phagocytic cells into the affected area. These responses inhibit and destroy the invading
microorganisms. Thus, inflammatory response is said to be a defence mechanism.
Q224. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Interferons are a type of'antibodies produced by body cells infected by bacteria
Reason: Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: D A is false and R is also false.
Q225. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Dendritic cells originate in the bone marrow.
Reason: Dendritic cells are found in neuron.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
 C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Explanation:
Dendritic cells are immune cells and form part of the immune system. They are present in those tissues which are in contact with the
environment; in the skin (where they are often called Langerhans cells) and the lining of nose, lungs, stomach and intestines. They have long
spiky arms, called dendrites, hence the name. (Neurons also have dendrites, but dendritic cells have nothing to do with neurons).
Q226. For question two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Skin forms the first tine of defence.
Reason: It is a non-specific defence.
A Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: B Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Explanation:
Skin acts as the first line of defence because it provides a protective covering to the body against the entry of microorganisms. Its action is
not specific to a particular organism. Skin forms the first-line of defence because - It forms the hard, keratinized outer layer of the body and
form effective barrier for most bacteria and viruses. The secretion of oil and sweat glands make the surface pH acidic which does not let
microorganisms to survive for [Link] salts and fatty acids present in perspiration contain lysosomes that destroy the bacterial cell wall. It
contains friendly bacteria, also release acids and other metabolic wastes which also inhibit the multiplication of organisms.
Q227. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Anti-AIDS vaccines are being developed in USA.
Reason: These vaccines may be used to control HIV infection in India.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q228. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Smoking causes oxygen deficiency in the body.
Reason: Carbon monoxide, when inhaled while smoking, combines with haemoglobin to form chemically stable compound.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Q229. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: All immunoglobin molecules have a basic structure composed of four polypetide chains.
Reason: The polypeptide chains consists two identical heavy and light chain connected by disulphide bonds.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q230. For question, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions 1 Mark
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion : Proto-oncogenes are cellular genes required for normal growth.
Reason: Under normal conditions, they could lead to the oncogenic transformation of the cell.
A Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct B Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. explanation of assertion.
C Assertion is true, but reason is false. D Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: C Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Explanation:
Proto-oncogenes are cellular genes required for normal growth. If they are muted or overexpressed, they may become oncogenes that
contribute to the malignant transformation of the cell.
Q231. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Cornea is considered as an immunologically privileged site.
Reason: A transplanted cornea is rarely rejected.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q232. For two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from 1 Mark
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Virus-infected cells secrete proteins known as interferons.
Reason: Interferons protect the non-infected cells from bacterial infection.
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C A is true but R is false. D A is false and R is also false.
Ans: C A is true but R is false.
Q233. Cannabinoids affect the digestive system. [True/ False] 1 Mark

Ans: False.
Q234. ELISA is based on introducing a functional gene is place by a defective gene. 1 Mark

Ans: False.
Q235. Humoral immunity is responsible for rejection of organ transplants. [True/ Falsel] 1 Mark

Ans: False.
Q236. A-interferon activates the immune system and help to destroy the tumour cells. [True/ False] 1 Mark

Ans: True.
Q237. Match the organisms (Pathogens) in Column I with the diseases they cause in Column II. 1 Mark

[Link] I [Link] II
a. Rhino virus 1. Ringworm.
b Plasmodium 2. Filariasis.
c Salmonella 3. Common cold.
d Trichophyton4. Typhoid.
e Wuchereria 5. Malaria.
6. Amoebiasis

Ans:
[Link] I [Link] II
a. Rhino virus 3. Common cold.
b Plasmodium 5. Malaria.
c Salmonella 4. Typhoid.
d Trichophyton1. Ringworm.
e Wuchereria 2. Filariasis.

Q238. Colostrum contains antibody IgA and provides passive immunity.[True/ False] 1 Mark

Ans: True.
Q239. Nicotine, the alkaloid in tobacco causes the hallucinogenic effect.[True/ False] 1 Mark

Ans: False.
Q240. Match the items in Column I with those in Column II. 1 Mark

[Link] I [Link] II
a. Physiological barrier1. Interferons.
b. Cytokine barrier 2. Skin of the body.
c. Cellular barrier 3. Tear in the eyes.
d. Physical barrier 4. Antibodies in colostrum.
5. Polymorpho Nuclear leucocyte.

Ans:
[Link] I [Link] II
a. Physiological barrier3. Tear in the eyes.
b. Cytokine barrier 1. Interferons.
c. Cellular barrier 5. Polymorpho Nuclear leucocyte.
d. Physical barrier 2. Skin of the body.

Q241. What are the methods of cancer detection? Describe the common approaches for treatment of cancer. 6 Marks

Ans: Following are the methods of cancer detection:

Biopsy: In this process, small fragment of the suspicious tissue is extracted and is subjected to histopathological study. This helps in
determining any abnormality in the cells.
Blood test and bone marrow test: These tests show increased levels of cell count. This helps the doctor to diagnose the problem.
Imagery technique: X-ray, CT scan and MRI help in diagnosing the cancer of internal organs. Apart from above mentioned techniques;
antibodies against cancer-specific antigens and molecular biotechnology are also used in certain cases.
Common approaches of treatment involve surgery, radiotherapy and immunotherapy:
1. Surgery: This involves removal of tumor through surgery.
2. Radiotherapy: Cancerous cells are destroyed by using radioactive rays. Care is taken not to destroy the healthy cells.
3. Immunotherapy: This involves use of alpha-interferon so that some stubborn cancer cells can be destroyed by chemotherapeutic drugs.
Q242. Compare the life style of people living in the urban areas with those of rural areas and briefly describe how the life style affects their health. 6 Marks

Ans: Urban areas:

The social environment: Urban environments are more likely to see higher rates of crime and violencfc. The physical environment: In densely
populated urban areas, there is often a lack of facilities and outdoor areas for exercise. In addition, air quality is often lower in urban
environments which can contribute to chronic diseases such as asthma. In the developing world, urban dwellers often live in large slums
which lack basic sanitation and utilities such as water and electricity. Access to health and social service: Persons of lower socioeconomic
status are more likely to live in urban areas and are more likely to lack health insurance. The high prevalence of individuals without health
insurance or citizenship creates a greater burden on available systems.
Rural areas:
The social environment: Rural dwellers have significantly poorer health status than urban elders. Also, rural residents smoke more, exercise
less, have less nutritional diets. The physical environment: Rural women especially less educated women, are more sedentary than urban
women. While poor air quality and crime rates are likely to be less of an issue in rural areas, insufficiencies in the built environment make it
difficult for rural residents to exercise and maintain healthy habits. Access to health and social service: Evidence indicates that rural residents
have limited access to health care. Some rural areas have a higher proportion of uninsured and individually insured residents than urban
areas.
Q243. The following table shows certain diseases, their causative organisms and symptoms. Fill the gaps. 6 Marks

Name of the DiseaseCausative organism Symptoms

i. Ascariasis Ascaris ________
 ii. ________ Trichophyton Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body.
iii. Typhoid ________ High fever, weakness, headache, stomach pain, constipation.
iv. Pneumonia Streptococcus pneumoniae________
v. ________ Rhino viruses Nasal congestion and discharge, sorethroat, cough, headache.
[Link] ________ Inflammation in lower limbs.

Ans:
Name of the DiseaseCausative organism Symptoms
i. Ascariasis Ascaris Internal bleeding, muscular pain, anemia, fever, blockage of intestinal passage.
ii. Ringworm Trichophyton Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body.
iii. Typhoid Salmonella typhi High fever, weakness, headache, stomach pain, constipation.
iv. Pneumonia Streptococcus pneumoniaeFluid in lungs, fever, difficulty in breathing.
v. Common cold Rhino viruses Nasal congestion and discharge, sorethroat, cough, headache.
[Link] W. bancrofti and W. malayi Inflammation in lower limbs.

Q244. In your locality, if a person is addicted to alcohol, what kind of behavioural changes do you observe in that person? Suggest measures to over 6 Marks
come the problem.

Ans: The immediate adverse effects of drugs and alcohol abuse are manifested in the form of reckless behaviour, vandalism and violence.
Excessive doses of drugs may lead to coma and death due to respiratory failure, heart failure or cerebral hemorrhage. A Combination of drugs
or their intake along with alcohol generally results in overdosing and even deaths. The most common warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse
among youth include drop in academic performance, unexplained absence from school/ college, lack of interest in personal hygiene,
withdrawal, isolation, depression,, fatigue, aggressive and rebellious behaviour, deteriorating relationships with family and friends, loss of
interest in hobbies, change in sleeping and eating habits, fluctuations in weight, appetite, etc. There may even be some far-reaching
implications of drug/ alcohol abuse. If an abuser is unable to get money to buy drugs/ alcohol he/ she may turn to stealing. The adverse
effects are just not restricted to the person who is using drugs or alcohol. At times, a drug/ alcohol addict becomes the cause of mental and
financial distress to his/ her entire family and friends.
The age-old adage of ‘prevention is better than cure’ holds true here also. It is also true that habits such as smoking, taking drug or alcohol are
more likely to be taken up at a young age, more during adolescence. Hence, it is best to identify the situations that may push an adolescent
towards use of drugs or alcohol, and to take remedial measures well in time. In this regard, the parents and the teachers have a special
responsibility. Parenting that combines with high levels of nurturance and consistent discipline, has been associated with lowered risk of
substance (alcohol/ drugs/ tobacco) abuse. Some of the measures mentioned here would be particularly useful for prevention and control of
alcohol and drugs abuse among adolescents.
Q245. What are recombinant DNA vaccines? Give two examples of such vaccines. Discuss their advantages. 6 Marks

Ans: A recombinant vaccine is a vaccine produced through recombinant DNA technology. This involves inserting the DNA encoding an antigen that
stimulates an immune response into bacterial or mammalian cells.
Recombinant DNA technology has allowed the production of antigenic polypeptides of pathogen in bacteria or yeast. Vaccines produced
using this approach allow large scale production and hence greater availability for immunisation, e.g., hepatitis B vaccine (Recombivax HB)
produced from yeast. As of June 2015 one human DNA vaccine had been approved for human use, the single-dose Japanese encephalitis
vaccine called IMOJEV, released in 2010 in Australia.
Advantages of recombinant DNA vaccines:
1. No risk for infection.
2. Ease of development and production.
3. Stability for storage and shipping.
4. Cost-effectiveness.
5. Expression and purification of recombinant proteins.
6. Long-term persistence of immunogen.
7. In vivo expression ensures protein more closely resembles normal eukaryotic structure, with accompanying post-translational modifications.
Q246. Why do some adolescents start taking drugs. How can this be avoided? 6 Marks

Ans: The reasons why adolescents and youngsters take to consumption of drugs are:
1. Curiosity of child motivates him/ her to experiment.
2. Need for adventure and excitement.
3. Peer group pressure.
4. Desire to do more physical and mental work.
5. To overcome frustration and depression, due to failure in examinations or in other activities.
6. Unstable or unsupportive family structures.
The following measures can be taken to avoid taking drugs:
1. Avoid undue pressure on child to perform beyond his/ her capability in studies, sports ox any other activities.
2. Education and counselling are very important to face problem of stress and failure in life.
3. Seeking help from parents, elders and peers. This would help the young to share their feelings and concern.
4. Looking for danger signs and taking appropriate measures to treat them.
5. Seeking professional and medical help for de-addiction and rehabilitation.
Q247. 1. Where are B-cells and T-cells produced in the human body? How do they differ from each other? Mention any two differences. 5 Marks
2. Name any three classes of immunoglobulins in humans. Write one function of each.

Ans: [Link] are produced in the bone marrow.

Differences between B Cells & T Cells: (Any Two)

S.N
B Cells T Cells
o.
A. B Cells mature in the bone marrow. T Cells mature in the thymus tissue.
They differentiate into plasma cells that synthesise the antibodies that circulate in th They either directly attack the antigens or stimulate B
B.
e blood and react with the specific antigens. Cells to produce antibodies.
C. B Cells are responsible for the humoral response of the immune system. T Cells are responsible for cellular responses.
D. They do not respond to organ transplant. They respond to organ transplant.

[Link] classes of immunoglobulins:

IgA. It assists in protection from inhaled and ingested pathogens.
1. IgD. It is present on lymphocyte surface as receptors; activation of B Cells.
2. IgE. It is concerned with allergic reactions; it binds to mast cells and can trigger inflammatory responses.
3. IgG. It is the most abundant antibody; stimulation of phagocytes and complement system; can cross the placenta from mother to foetus, and
protects the offspring during the first few weeks after birth.
4. IgM. It helps in activation of B cells.
Q248. A person in your colony has recently been diagnosed with AIDS. People/residents in the colony want him to leave the colony for the fear a 5 Marks
spread of AIDS.
1. Write your view on the situation, giving reasons.
2. List the possible preventive measures that you would suggest to the residents of your locality in a meeting organised by you so that they
understand the situation.
3. Write the symptoms and the causative agent of AIDS.

Ans:1. Recently by chance, AIDS is diagnosed in our area. It is fatal disease. We should create the awareness among the people to combat such
situation not to isolate the AIDS infected person from the society.
2. It is important that HIV/AIDS is not spread by mere touch or physical contact; it spread only through body fluids. It is, hence, imperative, for
the physical and psychological well being, that the HIV/AIDS infected person are not isolated from family and society.
3. AIDS is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), a member of a group of viruses called retrovirus.
Transmission of HIV- infection generally occurs.
1. Sexual contact with infected person.
2. By transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products.
3. By sharing infected needles as in the case of intravenous drug abusers.
4. From infected mother to her child through Placenta.
Q249. A child suffering from thalassemia is born to a normal couple. But the mother is being blamed by the family for delivering a sick baby. 5 Marks
1. What is Thalassemia?
2. How would you counsel the family not to blame the mother for delivering a child suffering from this disease? Explain.
3. List the values your counselling can propagate in the families.

Ans:1. Thalassemia is a group of autosomal recessive blood disorders characterised by sever anaemia as a result of production of faulty
haemoglobin chains. Mutations in the genes coding for the alpha, beta or delta chains constituting haemoglobin lead to the synthesis of
improperly folded haemoglobin that is incapable of transporting oxygen efficiently.
2. Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disease, which means the mutation is carried on one of the autosomes, so the carrier can be any
one of two parents. It has an equal probability of coming from the mother or the father, so to just blame the mother for the child’s
abnormality is unjustified.
3. The values counselling can propagate in the families are-
1. Give healthy diet to the child.
2. Accepting their child with all his/her positives and negatives.
3. Neither of the parents is responsible for giving birth to a sick baby.
4. The defect is caused by a random change in the genes of child.
5. Encouraging the child to follow his/her treatment regularly and lead a happy and normal Life.
6. Support the child emotionally by taking about fear, anxiety and depression or stress the child feels.
Q250. A time-bound vaccination programme is followed for the children in our country from their birth up to ten years of age. A graph plotted below 5 Marks
shows the effect of the vaccination followed by infection by the same pathogen, and the antibody concentration in the blood of the child.
1. Explain why the administration of a vaccine causes an increase in the antibody concentration.
2. If the child is infected with the same pathogen almost four months later, the antibody concentration in his/ her blood increases very fast.
Explain why.
3. A table given below gives information about different types of immunity and how they are attained. Identify 'P', 'Q', 'R', 'S' and ' T' in the
table.

S. NoType of immunity Production of antibodiesPresence of memory cellsMode attained

1. Natural active Yes 'P' 'Q'
2. Natural passive No 'R' Across the placenta during pregnancy/breast feeding
3. Acquired Active 'S' Yes Getting a vaccine during breast feeding
4. Acquired passive'T' No Getting an injection of antibodies

Ans:1. The vaccine contains the antigen, which stimulates or activates immune cells to produce antibodies (by B lymphocytes)/ which generates
primary response or humoral immune response.
2. Memory cells generate, amnestic response/ secondary response
3. P = Yes Q = Catching an infection/ getting infected R = No S = Yes T = N
Q251. 1. What is the chemical name of 'smack'? Why is the consumption of smack considered as an abuse? 5 Marks
2. Name the source plant and one effect of the following drugs on the human body:
1. Marijuana
2. Cocaine
3. Morphine

Ans:1. Diacetylmorphine as it is highly addictive, and being a depressant it slows down body functions. Smack is obtained from Papaver
somniferum (poppy). It binds to specific opioid receptor in our central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract. It is a depressant and
slows down the body functions.
2. Following drugs on the human body:
1. Cannabis sativa, affects the cardiovascular system of the body.
2. Erythroxylum coca/ coca plant, interferes with the transport of neurotransmitter dopamine/ produces sense of euphoria/ increased energy.
3. Papaver somniferum, acts as depressant/ slows down body function/ reduces pain/ sedative.
Q252. 1. Name the types of lymphoid organs lymph nodes and thymus are. Explain the role played by them in causingimmune response. 5 Marks
2. Differentiate between innate immunity and acquired immunity.

Ans:1.
Thymus- Primary lymphoid organ, immature lymphocytes differentiate here, into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes.
Lymph nodes- Secondary lymphoid organ, they seem to trap the microorganisms or other antigen, which are responsible for activation of
lymphocytes present there. (and cause immune response)
2. Innate Immunity Acquired Immunity
Non-specific type of response. Pathogen specific defense.
Present at the time of birth. Acquired by the body after birth.
Provides barrier to the entry of foreign agents into our body. Characterised by memory.
Four types (physical barriers, physiological barriers, cellular barriers , cytokine barriers)Two types- primary & secondary.
Q253. 1. Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases of humans. Explain ‘Contact inhibition’ and ‘Metastasis’ with respect to the disease. 5 Marks
2. Name the group of genes which have been identified in normal cells that could lead to cancer and how they do so?
3. Name any two techniques which are useful to detect cancers of internal organs.
4. Why are cancer patients often given α -interferon as part of the treatment?

Ans:1. Normal cells have the property of contact inhibition (stoppage of growth on coming in contact with other cells) but cancer cells lose this
[Link] a result, cancer cells divide continuously to give rise to a mass of cells (tumours).
Metastasis- This property is exhibited by malignant tumours. It is the pathological process of spreading cancerous cells to the different
parts of the body. These cells divide uncontrollably, forming a mass of cells called tumour. From the tumour, some cells get sloughed off
and enter the blood stream. From the blood stream, these cells reach distant parts of the body and therefore, initiate the formation of new
tumours by dividing actively.
2. [Link] activated under certain condition could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells.
3. Biopsy/radiography/CT/MRI.
4. It activates immune system, destroys tumour.
Q254. 1. How do normal cells become cancerous? 5 Marks
2. Cancer can be treated successfully only if detected at an early stage. How do the following help in detecting cancer?
1. Biopsy.
2. Histopathology.
3. MRI.
3. Name any two methods that can possibly cure cancer.

Ans:1. Loss of property of contact inhibition by normal cells, leading to uncontrolled growth.
2.
1. Biopsy: A piece of the suspected tissue is cut into thin section stained and studied.
2. Histopathology: A piece of suspected tissue is examined under microscope by a pathologist.
3. MRI: Uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations, accurately detect pathological and physiological changes in the tissues.
3. Surgery, radiotherapy/ radiation therapy, chemotheraphy, immunotherapy, biological response modifiers such as α − interferon.
Q255. 1. How does a Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) replicate in a host? 5 Marks
2. How does an HIV-infected patient lose immunity?
3. List any two symptoms of this disease.

Ans:1.

2. Loss of T-lymphocytes.
3. Fever/diarrhoea/susceptibility to other diseases, prone to microbial infection.
Q256. 1. Differentiate between active and passive immunity. 5 Marks
2. Comment on the role of vaccination and immunization in keeping human population healthy.

Ans:1.

Active immunity Passive immunity

Production of antibodies on exposure to antigen in
Introduction of readymade antibodies to protect against pathogen.
host body.
Slow process and takes time to give full effective r
T lymphocyte production is fast and responds quickly by checking growth of pathogen.
esponse.
Inoculation of pathogen in other organisms synthesizes antibodies which are isolated and u
Natural infection induces active immunity.
sed for vaccination.
2. Role of vaccination/ immunization:
1. Antibodies produced in body against antigen neutralizes pathogenic agents.
2. Vaccines also generate memory cell ( B and T cells) that recognize quickly on subsequent exposure and controls growth of pathogen with
massive production of antibodies.
3. preformed antibodies/ antitoxin protect our body from deadly microbes like tetanus and against snake venom.
Q257. 1. State the cause and symptoms of colour-blindness in humans. 5 Marks
2. Statistical data has shown that 8% of the human males are colour-blind whereas only 0.4% of females are colour-blind. Explain giving
reasons how is it so.

Ans:1. Cause- sex-linked recessive disorder.

Symptoms- failure to discriminate between red and green colour.
2. Since males have only one X chromosome gene for colour blindness, if present in any one parent will always be expressed, whereas in
female it will be expressed only if it is present on both the X chromosomes, when both parents are carrying gene for colour blindness.

Q258. Briefly, explain the principle, procedure and the role of ELISA. 5 Marks

Ans: The sample containing the suspected antigen is immobilised on an ELISA plate, the antibody specific to the antigen is added and allowed to
react with the immobilised antigen in the sample, the unreacted antibody molecules are washed off, an anti-immunoglobulin is added and
allowed to react with the antibody bound to the antigen, the anti-antibody is linked to an appropriate enzyme (e.g., peroxidase), the unreacted
anti-antibody is washed away, and the substrate for the enzyme is added along with the other required reagents, the activity of the enzyme
yields a coloured product and the intensity of the colour is directly proportional to the quantity of antigen (It is a very rapid assay and can
detect antigens in nanograms).
ELISA usually detects infection by HIV/STD/Hepatitis - B
Q259. 1. Why is haemophilia generally observed in human males? Explain the conditions under which a human female can be haemophilic. 5 Marks
2. A pregnant human female was advised to undergo M.T.P. It was diagnosed by her doctor that the foetus she is carrying has developed
from a zygote formed by an XX-egg fertilised by Y-carrying sperm. Why was she advised to undergo M.T.P.?

Ans:1. Haemophilia is caused due to the recessive, gene on X chromosome, Y has no allele for this/if a male is Xh Y then he is haemophilic/if male
inherits Xh from the mother he is haemophilic (with the genotype XhY)
If female inherits Xh Xh, one from the carrier mother and one from her haemophilic father (then she can be haemophilic).
2. Embryohas (trisomy of sex chromosome) XXY/Klinefelter’s syndrome
Advised MTP since the child will have the following problems:
Male with feminine traits/like gynaecomastia/under developed testes/sterile.
Q260. Do you think that friends can influence one to take alcohol/ drugs? If yes, how may one protect himself/ herself from such an influence? 5 Marks

Ans: Yes, friends can influence one to take drugs and alcohol. A person can take the following steps for protecting himself/ herself against drug
abuse:
Increase your will power to stay away from alcohol and drugs. One should not experiment with alcohol for curiosity and fun.
Avoid the company of friends who take drugs.
Seek help from parents and peers.
Take proper knowledge and counselling about drug abuse. Devote your energy in other extracurricular activities.
Seek immediate professional and medical help from psychologists and psychiatrists if symptoms of depression and frustration become
apparent.
Q261. Give reasons for the following: 5 Marks
1. Shivering in malaria.
2. Plasmodium is considered a digenetic parasite.
3. Dengue fever is also known as break bone fever.
4. Swelling of lower limbs in filariasis.

Ans:1. Causative agent of malaria is Plasmodium species- of protozoan. Its transmitting agent is female Anophebs mosquito that transfers the
sporozoites of Plasmodium. Different species of Plasmodium.
2. Because it completes its life cycle in two different host species via Anopheles mosquito and human.
3. Because the infected person suffers from multiple symptoms like intense fever, acute joint and muscle pain, headaches, etc.
4. It is because the pathogenic worms reside in lymphatic vessels of lower limbs and genital organs of the infected person
Q262. In which way has the study of biology helped us to control infectious diseases? 5 Marks
Ans: Various advancements that have occurred in the field of biology have helped us gain a better understanding to fight against various
infectious diseases.
Biology has developed as we have come to know about the life cycle of various parasites, pathogens, and vectors along with the modes
of transmission of various diseases and the measures for controlling them.
Vaccination programmes against several infectious diseases such as small pox, chicken pox, tuberculosis, etc. Have helps us to eradicate
these diseases.
Biotechnology has helped in the preparation of developed and safe drugs and vaccines.
Antibiotics have also played a major role in the treatment of various infectious diseases.
Q263. Name three species of fungi that cause ringworm. Mention the symptoms of this disease? 5 Marks

Ans: Ringworm:
It is caused by fungi of genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton.
Human infection occurs either through contact with an infected person or from soil. It also spreads through towels, clothes, combs, etc.,
of the infected persons.
Symptoms:
1. Dry and scaly lesions on skin, nails and scalp.
2. Lesions are accompanied by intense itching.
Q264. Fill in the blanks in the different column of the table given below: 5 Marks

Disease Casual organisms Medium of transfer Symptoms

AmoebiasisEntamoeba histolyticaa Diarrhoea
Typhoid b Contaminated food Sustained high fever
c Plasmodium Bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoChill and high fever
Pneumonia Steptococcus d Fever and cough

Ans:1. Water, vegetables, fruits etc. contaminated with the cysts of the parasite.
2. Salmonella typhi.
3. Malaria.
4. Pneumonia spreads by cough and sneezes by sharing drinking glasses and eating utensils with an infected person and contact with used
tissues or handkerchief.
Q265. Discuss the role of lymphoids in the immune response. Explain the different types of lymphoid organs giving two examples of each type in 5 Marks
human.

Ans: The lymphoid organs are those organs where lymphocytes originate, mature and proliferate for body’s immune system.
Lymphoid organs are of two types:
1. Primary lymphoid organs: The organs where lymphocytes originate and mature to become antigen-sensitive, e.g., bone marrow and thymus,
are called primary lymphoid organs.
1. Bone marrow:
It is the primary lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes originate.
Bone marrow provides the micro-environment for the development and maturation of B-lymphocytes.
2. Thymus:
Thymus is a lobed organ located near the heart and beneath the breastbone.
It is quite large at the time of birth but reduces with age.
It provides the micro-environment for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.
2. Secondary lymphoid organs: The organs where lymphocytes interact with the antigen and proliferate to become effector cells, e.g., spleen,
lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches of small intestine and appendix are called secondary lymphoid organs.
1. Spleen:
It is a large bean-shaped organ and contains lymphocytes and phagocytes.
It acts as a filter of the blood by trapping blood-borne microorganisms.
It has a large reservoir of erythrocytes.
2. Lymph nodes:
These are small solid structures present at different points along the lymphatic system.
They trap the microorganisms or other antigens that enter the lymph and tissue fluid.
Antigens trapped in the lymph nodes activate the lymphocytes and produce an immune response.
3. Mucosal associated lymphoid tissue (MALT):
It is formed of masses of lymphoid tissue lining the mucosa of respiratory, digestive and urinogenital tracts.
50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body is formed by MALT.
Q266. 1. What is meant by addictive disorder? 5 Marks
2. Mention any two ways in which opiate narcotics affect human body.
3. Name any two opiate narcotics.

Ans:1. Addictive disorders, such as substance abuse and dependence, are common disorders that involve the overuse of alcohol and/or drugs.
Addiction develops over time and is a chronic and relapsing illness.
2.
1. Opioids impact the brain, leading to a temporary feeling of intense pleasure. Addiction to opioids can develop very quickly, even with
minimal use. The addiction can be physical, in that a habitual user’s body craves the drug.
2. Long-term opioid use has serious health consequences, impacting multiple organs. Opioid abuse can impair the brain’s production of
natural painkillers and dopamine, the brain’s “feel-good” chemical.
Q267. What is the mechanism by which the AIDS virus causes deficiency of immune system of the infected person? 5 Marks

Ans: AIDS (Acquired lmmuno Deficiency Syndrome) is caused by the Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) via sexual or blood to blood
contact.
After entering the human body, the HIV virus attacks and enters into the macrophages. Inside the macrophages, the RNA of the virus
replicates with the help of enzyme reverse transcriptase and gives rise to viral DNA copy.
Then, this viral DNA incorporates into the host DNA and directs the synthesis of virus particles.
At the same time, HIV enters helper T-lymphocytes. It replicates and produces viral progeny.
These newly formed progeny viruses get released into the blood, attacking other healthy helper T-lymphocytes in the body.
 As a result, the number of T-lymphocytes in the body of an infected person decreases in number, which causes decrease in immunity of
person.
Q268. What are the two groups of cells that work for specific immunity? Explain four unique features of specific immunity. 5 Marks

Ans: T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes work for specific immunity. Features of specific immunity are as follows:
1. Specificity: Specific antibody response to specific antigen.
2. Memory: During the first interaction of antigen with B-cells and T-cells, few cells are stored as memory cell which encounter vigorously in
second infection.
3. Distinction between self and non-self: The immune system can recognise foreign particles and kill them without killing its own or self cells.
4. Diversity: The immune system provides various or diverse antibodies to kill or destroy diverse antigens.
Q269. List the harmful effects caused by alcohol/ drug abuse. 5 Marks

Ans: Alcohol and drugs have several adverse effects on the individual, his family, and the society.
1. Effects of alcohol:
Effects on the individual: Alcohol is injurious to the health of the individual. When an individual consumes excess alcohol, it causes damage
to the liver and the central nervous system. As a result, other symptoms such as depression, fatigue, aggression, loss of weight and
appetite may also be observed in the individual. Sometimes, extreme levels of alcohol consumption may also lead to heart failure,
resulting coma and death. The immediate adverse effects of alcohol abuse are manifested in form of reckless bhehaviour, vandalism and
voilence, Also, it is advisable for pregnant women to avoid alcohol as it may inhibit normal growth of the baby.
Effects on the family: Consumption of excess alcohol by any family member can have devastating effects on the family. It leads to several
domestic problems such as quarrels, frustrations, insecurity, etc.
Effects of alcohol on society-
1. Rash behaviour.
2. Malicious mischief and violence.
3. Disturbing social network.
4. Loss of interest in social activities, loss of interests in hobbies, change in eating and sleeping habites etc.
2. Effects of drugs: An individual who is addicted to drugs creates problems not only for himself but also for his family.
Effects on the addited individual: Drugs have an adverse effect on the central nervous system of an individual. This leads to the
malfunctioning of several other organs of the body such as the kidney, liver, etc. The spread of HIV is most common in these individuals
as they share common needles while injecting drugs in their body. Drugs have long-term side effects on both males and females. These
side effects include increased aggressiveness, mood swings, and depression.
Effects on the family and society: A person addicted to drugs creates problems for his family and society. A person dependant on drugs
becomes frustrated, irritated, and anti-social. At the time of drug addicted becomes mental and financial distress.
Q270. Explain the process of replication of a retrovirus after it gains entry into human body. 5 Marks

Ans: The process by which retrovirus gains entry into human host body or the mechanism by which AIDS virus causes immunodeficiency is as
follow:
Q271. Describe the ill-effects of alcohol on different parts of a body of an individual. 5 Marks

Ans:1. Reckless behaviour, vandalism and violence. Respiratory and heart failure, cerebral haemorrhage due to excessive doses of drugs may lead
to coma and death.
2. Aggressive and rebellious behaviour, depression, fatigue, withdrawal and isolation.
3. Deteriorating relationships with family and friends.
4. Changes in sleeping pattern, fluctuation in weight, appetite and lack of personal hygiene.
5. Drop in academic performance of students, absence from school/college and loss of interest in hobbies.
Q272. Explain the different ways of diagnosing cancer. 5 Marks

Ans: Cancer-Diagnosis:
Cancer can be diagnosed/ detected by:
1. Biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissue.
2. Blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts as in leukaemia.
3. Use of techniques like radiography, Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) and computed tomography (CT) for cancer of internal organs.
4. Use of antibodies against cancer-specific antigens.
5. Applying principles of molecular biology to detect genes in individuals with inherited susceptibility to certain types of cancer.
Q273. How does the transmission of each of the following diseases take place? 5 Marks
1. Amoebiasis
2. Malaria
3. Ascariasis
4. Pneumonia

Ans:
Disease Causative organism Mode of transmission
Amoebi Entamoeba histolyc It is a vector-borne disease that spreads by the means of contaminated food and water. The vector involved in
a.
asis ta the transmission of this disease is the housefly.
[Link] Plasmodium sp. It is a vector-borne disease that spreads by the biting of the female Anopheles mosquito.
Ascarias Ascatis lumbricoide
c. It speads via contaminated food and water.
is s
Pnemon Streptococcus pne
d. It spreads by the sputum of an infected person.
ia umoniae

Q274. Enumerate the factors which are necessary to maintain good health. 5 Marks
Ans: The factors necessary to maintain good health are:
1. Balanced diet.
2. Clean food and drinking water.
3. Personal hygiene.
4. Regular exercise/ yoga and relaxation.
5. Awareness about diseases, their dispersal and effect on our body.
6. Vaccination/ immunisation against infectious diseases.
7. Proper disposal of wastes/ excreta.
Q275. What is innate immunity? How is it accomplished in a human body? 5 Marks

Ans: Innate immunity refers to all the defence elements with which an individual is born and is always available to protect the body.
It is accomplished by the following types of barriers:
1. Physical barriers:
Skin is the main barrier to prevent the entry of microbes. The mucus coating of the epithelial lining of gastro-intestinal, urinogenital and
respiratory tracts helps in trapping the microbes entering such sites.
2. Physiological barriers
Acids in the stomach.
Lysozyme in saliva, tear and sweat prevents microbial growth.
3. Cellular barriers
Leucocytes like PMNL (neutrophils) and monocytes.
Lymphocytes like natural killer cells.
Macrophages in the tissues; all these types of cells phagocytose and destroy the microbes.
4. Cytokine barriers
Interferons are the glycoprotiens secreted by virus-infected cells.
They protect the non-infected cells from viral infection.
Q276. What is Pulse Polio Programme of Government of India? What is OPV? Why is it that India is yet to eradicate Polio? 5 Marks

Ans: Pulse Polio: This is a mass immunization programme to eradicate polio myelitis from India. This programme was launched in 1995-96. This
programme has been undertaken with active cooperation from government agencies, NGOs, UNICEF and CDC.
Key Objectives of pulse polio:
Not a single child should be missed.
High level of surveillance.
Reporting of any new case within 14 days.
Polio booths are settled throughout the country to cover all the children below 5 years of age. Volunteers are hired to administer polio vaccine.
OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine): OPV is an attenuated vaccine. It is produced by passage of virus through non-human cells at a sub-physiological
temperature. This produces spontaneous mutation in the viral genome. A single vial of OPV usually contains 10-20 doses. On 27th March 2014,
WHO declared India a polio free nation as no new case was reported in the last 3 years.
Q277. 1. Write the scientific names (binomials) of the causative organisms of pneumonia. 5 Marks
2. How does a healthy person acquire infection of this disease?
3. Mention the characteristic symptoms of the disease.

Ans:1. The causative organisms are:

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
2. Haemophilus influenzae
2. Infection is by:
1. Inhaling the droplets/ aerosols released by an infected person.
2. Sharing the glasses and utensils used by the patient.
3. Symptoms include:
1. Fever
2. Chills
3. Cough and headache
4. The lips and finger nails turn gray to bluish in colour.
5. Lung alveoli become filled with a fluid leading to severe problems in breathing and respiration.
Q278. Enumerate the different measures for control and prevention of drug/ alcohol abuse among adolescent. 5 Marks

Ans:1. Avoid undue peer pressure.

2. Educating and counselling the problems and stresses to avoid disappointments and failures in life.
3. Seeking help from parents and peers.
4. Looking for danger signs to take appropriate measures on time.
5. Seeking professional and medical help whenever required.
Q279. What are hallucinogens? Give two examples. Mention their clinical use, if 5 Marks
any.

Ans: Hallucinogens are a diverse group of drugs that alter a person’s awareness of their surroundings as well as their own thoughts and feelings.
LSD (lysergic acid diethyl amide) is a synthetic compound and one of the most powerful hallucinogens. It's typically delivered on a small piece
of paper that the user puts into his or her mouth. LSD can cause a person to focus on small details, like the pores of their skin, or see objects
in brilliant color. LSD can also prompt strong moods swings that range from joy to depression. An LSD trip can last up to 10 hours, during
which time the person can experience impaired judgment and hallucinatory-like experiences. Though LSD is not considered to be addictive
like cocaine and heroin, you can build up a tolerance that requires using more of the substance in order to get the same high.
Q280. 1. Name the respective forms in which the malarial parasite gains entry into 5 Marks
1. Human body and
2. Body of female Anopheles.
2. Name the respective hosts and the sites in their body, where the sexual and asexual reproduction of malarial parasite occur.
3. What is meant by:
1. Addiction
2. Dependence with reference to drugs/ alcohol?

Ans:1.
1. Sporozoite.
2. Gametocytes
2.
1. Sexual reproduction occurs in mosquito's intestine.
2. Asexual reproduction occurs in human body, in the liver cells and red blood cells.
3.
1. Addiction refers to the psychological attachment to certain effects of drugs/ alcohol.
2. Dependence refers to the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic, unpleasant symptoms if regular dose of the drug/ alcohol is
abruptly discontinued.
Q281. Drugs and alcohol give short-term 'high' and long-term ‘damages’, Discuss. 5 Marks

Ans: Curiosity, need for adventure and excitement, and experimentation, constitute common causes, which motivate youngsters towards drug and
alcohol use. A child’s natural curiosity motivates him/ her to experiment. This is complicated further by effects that might be perceived as
benefits, of alcohol or drug use. Thus, the first use of drugs or alcohol may be out of curiosity or experimentation, but later the child starts
using these to escape facing problems. Of late, stress, from pressures to excel in academics or examinations, has played a significant role in
persuading the youngsters to try alcohol and drugs. The perception among youth that it is ‘cool’ or progressive to smoke, use drugs or alcohol,
is also in a way a major cause for youth to start these habits. Television, movies, newspapers, internet also help to promote this perception.
Other factors that have been seen to be associated with drug and alcohol abuse among adolescents are unstable or unsupportive family
structures and peer pressure.
Q282. Drugs and alcohol give short-term 'relief and long term 'damages'. Discuss. 5 Marks

Ans: Effects of Drug and Alcohol Abuse Effects of drug and alcohol:
abuse can be classified into two categories Immediate Effects:
1. Reckless behaviour, vandalism and violence. Respiratory and heart failure, cerebral haemorrhage due to excessive doses of drugs may lead
to coma and death.
2. Aggressive and rebellious behaviour, depression, fatigue, withdrawal and isolation.
3. Deteriorating relationships with family and friends.
4. Changes in sleeping pattern, fluctuation in weight, appetite and lack of personal hygiene.
5. Drop in academic performance of students, absence from school /college and loss of interest in hobbies.
Far-Reaching Implications:
1. Habit of stealing on not getting money to buy drugs, alcohol, etc.
2. Mental and financial distress not only to the addict, but to his/her entire family and friends as well.
3. Alcohol use in adolescence may lead to heavy drinking in adulthood.
4. Chronic use damages nervous system and causes liver cirrhosis.
5. Higher risk of infections likes AIDS and hepatitis-B, which transmits through sharing of infected needle and syringes or sexual contact.
6. The use of drugs and alcohol during pregnancy is also known to have adverse effects on foetus.
7. Sports persons take up certain drugs, steroids, etc., in order to enhance their performance. These drugs increases the muscle strength,
thus increasing atheletic performance. These anabolic steroids have many side effects that may be permanent with prolonged use. In
adolescents, severe facial and body acne and premature closure of the growth centres of the long bone may result
Q283. Write the scientific name of the bacteria that causes pneumonia. What happens in this disease? What are its symptoms? 5 Marks

Ans: Pneumonia:
It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae.
They infect alveoli (air-filled sacs) of the lungs where the alveoli get filled with a fluid resulting in the decrease of respiratory efficiency of
the lungs.
It is spread by inhaling droplets/ aerosol from infected persons and sharing glasses and utensils with an infected person.
Symptoms:
1. Fever
2. Chills
3. Cough
4. Headache
5. In severe cases, lips and finger nails turn gray to bluish in colour.
Q284. Malarial parasite ‘Plasmodium’ completes its life cycle in two hosts. Draw its complete life cycle and explain various stages it follows 5 Marks
throughout its life.

Ans:
Stages:
1. The stage in which the parasite enters in the body of humans through saliva of mosquito-sporozoite stage.
2. Asexual reproduction of sporozoites in liver cells, resulting into bursting of those cells and releasing outside into the blood.
3. Sporozoites infect RBCs, cause them to get burst and represented by repeated cycles of fever. Released parasites also infect other RBCs.
4. Parasites then follow sexual stage in RBCs which is called as ring signet stage and appears as a ring inside the RBCs under microscope.
Usually presence of malarial parasite in humans is identified by pathologists by this stage.
5. Female mosquito takes up gametocytes with the blood of host. Fertilisation and development takes place in the intestine of mosquito.
6. From intestine, parasite comes to the salivary glands from where it reaches to human body and that is how the cycle continues.
Q285. Discuss the different barrier of innate immunity. 5 Marks

Ans: It is accomplished by providing different types of barriers:

1. Physical barriers: These barriers do not allow pathogens and foreign agents to enter the body, e.g., skin, mucous membranes of digestive,
respiratory and urinogenital tracts trapping microorganisms.
2. Physiological barriers: Sweat, tears, acid in the stomach and saliva prevent microbial growth.
3. Cellular barriers: WBCs (polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes, natural killer lymphocytes) and macrophages phagocytose and
destroy microbes.
4. Cytokine barriers: Interferons produced by virus-infected cells protect non-infected cells from further viral infection.
Q286. Name the type of cells attacked by AIDS virus in the human body. Also, explain the events in sequence undertaken by virus to increase its 5 Marks
progeny.

Ans: Life Cycle of HIV:

1. Virus enters macrophage after entering body of the person.
2. RNA genome gets replicated there to form viral DNA by enzyme reverse transcriptase.
3. Viral DNA gets incorporated into the host cells's DNA and directs the infected cells to produce new viruses.
4. Macrophages continue to produce virus particles, thus acting as HIV factory.
5. At the same time, virus particles enter into helper T-lymphocytes (Ty cells) in the blood, where they continue to replicate and produce viral
progenies.
6. The progeny viruses released in blood attack other Tu cells. Number of helper T-lymphocytes progressively decreases in the body of the
infected person.
7. The person experiences periods of fever, diarrhea and weight loss during this period.
8. As the number of T-cells decreases, the immunity also decreases. As a result, affected individual cannot produce any immune response
even against common bacteria like Mycobacterium, parasite like Toxoplasma, viruses and fungi.
Q287. In your view what motivates youngsters to take to alcohol or drugs and how can this be avoided? 5 Marks

Ans:1. Various factors are responsible for motivating youngsters towards alcohol or drugs. Curiosity, need for adventure and excitement,
experimentation for fun are the initial causes for motivating youngsters.
2. Some youngsters start consuming drugs and alcohol in order to overcome negative emotions (such as stress, pressure, depression,
frustration) and to excel in various fields .. such youngsters use to abuse alcohol due to their family pressure for academics.
3. Several mediums like television, internet, newspaper, movies promote various brend by the brand ambassadors like celebrities. Celebrities
are also ideal of youngsters so the get much influenced by them.
4. Amongst these factors, reasons such as unstable and unsupportive family structures and peer pressure can also lead an individual to be
dependant on drugs and alcohol.
Preventive measures against addiction of alcohol and drugs:
Parents should motivate and try to increase the will power of their child.
Parents should educate their children about the ill-effects of alcohol. They should provide them with proper knowledge and counselling
regarding the consequences of addiction to alcohol.
It is the responsibility of the parent to discourage a child from experimenting with alcohol. Youngsters should be kept away from the
company of friends who consume drugs.
Children should be encouraged to devote their energy in other extra- curricular and recreational activities.
Proper professional and medical help should be provided to a child if sudden symptoms of depression and frustration are observed.
Q288. Describe the different methods of treatment of cancer. 5 Marks
Ans: Treatment of Cancer:
The following methods (one or in combination) can help to treat cancer.
Surgery:
The tumour cells are surgically removed to reduce the load of cancerous cell.
Radiotherapy:
The tumour cells are irradiated wholly (but taking care of the surrounding normal cells) with safe doses of radiations.
Chemotherapy:
Certain drugs are used to kill the cancerous cells, but majority of the drugs have side effects like hair fall, anaemia, etc.
Immunotherapy:
This involves the use of biological response modifiers, like alpha-interferon, which activate the immune system and help in destroying the
tumour.
Q289. Why do some adolescents start taking drugs? How can the situation be avoided? 5 Marks

Ans: Reasons for alcohol abuse in adolescents:

1. Social pressure.
2. Curiosity and need for adventure, excitement and experiment.
3. To escape from stress, depression and frustration.
4. To overcome hardships of daily life.
5. Unstable or unsupportive family structure.
For measures to avoid taking drug are as follows:
1. Avoid undue peer pressure.
2. Educating and counselling the problems and stresses to avoid disappointments and failures in life.
3. Seeking help from parents and peers.
4. Looking for danger signs to take appropriate measures on time.
5. Seeking professional and medical help whenever required.
Q290. The following are some well-known abbreviations, which have been used in this chapter. Expand each one to its full form: 5 Marks
1. MALT
2. CMI
3. AIDS
4. NACO
5. HIV

Ans:1. MALT- Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue.

2. CMI- Cell-Mediated Immunity.
3. AIDS- Acquired lmmuno Deficiency Syndrome.
4. NACO- National AIDS Control Organization.
5. HIV- Human lmmuno Deficiency Virus.
Q291. What are the various public health measures, which you would suggest as safeguard against infectious diseases? 5 Marks

Ans: The various public health measures against infectious diseases includes the following-
1. Education: People should be educated about the infectious diseases so that they may protect themselves against the infections.
2. A people suffering from any infections should be isolated to avoid its transmission to any other person.
3. Vaccination: People should get vaccination to avoid infection. Vaccination is available against cholera, typhoid, TB etc.
4. Sanitation: Sanitary surroundings can prevent spread of diseases. Public hygiene includes- suitable disposal of waste & human excreta;
periodic cleaning and disinfection of water sources; observing normal practices of hygiene in public catering. Personal hygiene includes
keeping the body clean, intake of clean drinking water, vegetables, fruits etc.
5. Eradication of vectors: The breeding places of vector should be destroyed & adult vectors killed by appropriate methods.
Q292. 1. Cancer is one of the most dreaded disease. Explain 'contact inhibition' and 'metastasis with respect to the disease. 5 Marks
2. Name the group of genes that have been identified in normal cells that could lead to cancer. How do these genes cause cancer?
3. Name any two techniques that are useful in detecting cancers of internal organs.
4. Why are cancer patients often given a-interferon as part of the treatment?

Ans:1. Contact inhibition: Normal cells have the property of contact inhibition (stoppage of growth on coming in contact with other cells), but cancer
cells do not have this property. As a result, cancer cells divide continuously to give rise to a mass of cells (tumours)
Metastasis: This property is exhibited by malignant tumours. It is the pathological process of spreading of cancerous cells to different parts of
the body. These cells divide uncontrollably, forming a mass of cells called tumour, From the tumour, some cells get sloughed off and enter the
bloodstream. From the bloodstream, these cells reach near by as well as distant parts of the body therefore, initiating the formation of new
tumours by dividing actively.
2. Cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto-oncogenes are the group of genes that have been identified in normal cells. These genes when
activated under certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells.
3. Techniques such as radiography, CT (Computed Tomography) and MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) are useful to detect cancers of
internal organs.
4. The biological response modifiers such as C-interferons are given to cancer patients as a part of their treatment because it activates
patients's immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.
Q293. Write any three differences between benign tumour and malignant tumour. 5 Marks

Ans:
S.N
Malignant tumour. Benign tumour
o.
Malignant tumors are cancerous. They divide without A benign tumor is a non-cancerous tumor. This means the tumor does not invade nea
1.
control and invade other tissues nearby. rby tissue or spread in the body, and is therefore much less risky.
They can also spread to other parts of the body thro
2. Certain benign tumors can still pose health risks and require treatment.
ugh the blood and lymph systems.
There are five types of benign tumors. There are ten types of benign tumors.
3.

Q294. Your school’s athletic team along with the athletic teams from different schools reach the venue two days before the inter district school 4 Marks
athletic event was to be held. A day before the competition, a team of officials from an agency arrive and ask for blood and urine samples
from all the participating athletes.
 1. Would you support or object to this sample collection? Provide explanation to your answer.
2. Write a note that you would like to read out to your team-mates to explain the purpose of this visit of these officials.

Ans:1. Yes, I support.

Many times children take drugs, to improve their performance in sports out of curiosity/anxiety/intentionally.
To test the fact that performance of child in the sports is natural or drug induced, to be fair on everybody’s part this test is essential.
2. A team of officials from an agency have asked for blood and urine samples from all participants because these samples when analysed will
show the presence of drugs if anybody has taken, this is as per the rule all over the world for any sports competition.
Q295. You have a friend whose parents are too indulgent in his/her daily affairs. They think him/her to be still young which makes him/her sad and is 4 Marks
upset all the time. As he/she feels that the parents should give him/her opportunity to take independent decision on some issues.
1. Would you support your friend and why?
2. Write the characteristics of this age group.
3. List two curative measures.

Ans:1. Yes, because of peer understanding.

2. Curious, adventurous, look for excitement, experimentation
3. Avoid undue peer pressure/education & counselling/help from parents & peers/identifying the danger signs/professional and medical help
or any other appropriate measures.
Q296. Explain any three preventive measures to control microbial infections. 4 Marks

Ans: Three preventive measures to control microbial infections are as follows:

1. Avoiding contaminated food and water: Many infections are spread through contaminated food and water, e.g. cholera and jaundice. These
infections can be easily prevented by avoiding contaminated food and water. One should use properly filtered and treated water for drinking
and cooking. Food from roadside vendors should not be consumed.
2. Preventing vectors: Malaria and dengue are examples of vector borne diseases. If we can check the breeding of mosquitoes in our
surroundings, we can easily minimize the chances of suffering from these diseases. Mosquito repellants and mosquito nets are also
effective in preventing mosquito bite.
3. Maintaining hygiene: Maintaining personal hygiene can help us in avoiding various types of skin infections. Maintaining cleanliness in
surroundings can help in avoiding many communicable diseases.
Q297. A youth in his twenties met with an accident and succumbed to the injuries. His parents agreed to donate his organs. So, their: 4 Marks
1. List any two essential clinical steps to be undertaken before any organ transplant.
2. Why is the transplant rejected sometimes?
3. What views would you share with your health club members to promote organ donation?

Ans:1. The two essential clinical steps to be undertaken before any organ transplant are
1. Tissue matching, and
2. Blood group matching
2. T-lymphocytes are the components of cell mediated immune system and are responsible for graft rejection because of ability to
differentiate self and non-self cells. At times, they tend to treat the transplanted tissue as foreign material and destroy it. The patient has to
take immunosuppressant all his/ her life.
3. I will motivate members of youth club to spread awareness in the society about the importance of organ donation, which can save many
precious lives in emergency, by following views. Tissue/ organ donation is a great service to the mankind. A large number of people are
suffering from one or the other disorders. Instead of assigning, a dead person to the flames of the pyre or placing in grave, a cadaver can
be a source of heart, lung, kidney, liver, pancreas, intestine, stomach, cornea, etc. Thus, even a dead-body can bring lot of cheers to the
ailing human society.
Even a live donor can donate kidney, lungs, liver, bone marrow, blood transfusion/ blood parts, (platelets, etc).
Q298. Diseases like dysentery, cholera, typhoid etc., are more common in over crowded human settlements. Why? 4 Marks

Ans: Overcrowded human settlements are usually unhygienic because of overload on the infrastructure and on hygiene workers. Let us compare
two situations to understand this. A person has a bathroom for his exclusive use. He can easily maintain a high level of cleanliness in his
bathroom. Another person has to share a bathroom with fifty other people. Maintaining a good hygiene level in such a bathroom would be
almost impossible. This will lead to higher risk of getting communicable diseases. Even a simple disease like common cold has more chances
of spreading to many people in overcrowded places because the germs would be able to infect more number of people in shorter time span.
Q299. In the given flow diagram, the replication of retrovirus in a host is shown. Observe and answer the following questions, 4 Marks
1. Fill in (1) and (2).
2. Why is the virus called retrovirus?
3. Can the infected cell survive while viruses are being replicated and released?

Ans:1.
1. Viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.
2. New viral RNA is produced by infected cell.
2. HIV is called retrovirus because it forms DNA from RNA by reverse transcription.
3. Yes, infected cell can survive while viruses are being replicated and released.
Q300. Use this key for Questions A-D Key: 4 Marks
1. thymus gland.
2. spleen.
3. lymph node.
4. red bone marrow.
1. Causes differentiation of T-cells.
2. Purifies lymph.
3. Contains red pulp and white pulp.
4. Formation of granular and a granular leukocytes.

Ans:
(A)Causes differentiation of T-cells. (i) thymus gland.
(B) Purifies lymph. (iii) lymph node.
(C)Contains red pulp and white pulp. (ii) spleen.
(D)Formation of granular and a granular leukocytes.(iv)red bone marrow.

Q301. Rohan and his friends emptied all the overhead tanks, which were not in use for last few months. Some people did not like this. Rohan and his 4 Marks
friends explained and convinced them about the hygienic benefits of their act.
1. What was the objective behind their act?
2. Explain in brief the stages of life cycle of a malarial parasite in human body.
3. Which pathogen is responsible for malaria?
4. What values did Rahul and his friends promote?

Ans:1. Water in the tanks is stagnant and can become a breeding ground for mosquitoes. So their bbjective was to prevent mosquito borne
diseases.
2. The malarial parasite requires two hosts to complete Its life cycle- Primary or definitive host is the females anopheles mosquito (vector or
transmitting agent also). The intermediate or secondary host is human being,
3. Malaria is caused by protozoan, Plasmodium.
4. Social responsibility, commitment towards community health and respect towards elders.
Q302. Drugs like LSD, barbiturates, amphetamines, etc., are used as medicines to help patients with mental illness. However, excessive doses and 4 Marks
abusive usage are harmful. Enumerate the major adverse effects of such drugs in humans.

Ans: Drugs like barbiturates, amphetamines, benzodiazepines, and other similar drugs, that are normally used as medicines to help patients cope
with mental illnesses like depression and insomnia, are often abused. Morphine is a very effective sedative and painkiller, and is very useful in
patients who have undergone surgery. Several plants, fruits and seeds having hallucinogenic properties have been used for hundreds of years
in folk-medicine, religious ceremonies and rituals all over the globe. When these are taken for a purpose other than medicinal use or in
amounts/ frequency that impairs one’s physical, physiological or psychological functions, it constitutes drug abuse.
Q303. The harmful allele of sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated from human population. Such afflicted people derive some other benefit. 4 Marks
Discuss.

Ans: The harmful alleles get eliminated from population over a period of time, yet sickle cell anaemia is persisting in human population because
SCA is a harmful condition which is also a potential saviour from malaria.
Those with the benign sickle trait possess a resistance to malarial infection. The pathogen that causes the disease spends part of its cycle in
the red blood cells and triggers an abnormal drop in oxygen levels in the cell. In carriers, this drop is sufficient to trigger the full sickle-cell
reaction, which leads to infected cells being rapidly removed from circulation and strongly limiting the infection’s progress. These individuals
have a great resistance to infection and have a greater chance of surviving outbreaks. This resistance to infection is the main reason the SCA
allele and SCA disease still exist. It is found in greatest frequency in populations where malaria was and is still often a serious problem.
Q304. Peer pressure plays a negative role in triggering smoking habits in adolescents. As a school captain, list any two activities you would like to 4 Marks
organise with the help of senior students of your school and any other two activities you would like your school authorities to organise for the
students to tackle this problem. Explain how these activities will help in doing so.

Ans:1. Activities to be organised with the help of senior students.

1. As a school captain, i will choose two students along with class representative from each section of the middle and secondary classes, to
form an antismoking team.
Each of them shall keep their ears and eyes open to get information about the students who smoke in the toilet or playground in the school.
The smoker will thus try to stop this activity.
2. Each member of the team will guide/counsel the smoker, to shun this habit by telling him that smoking becomes a habit by repeated use and
it has many harmful effects. He may be given a light warning of social boycott by other students.
2. Activities to be organised by school authorities.
1. Seminar/talk by experts or some renowned local physician.
2. Poster competitions depicting harmful effects of smoking.
3. Participation of parents and seeking their help to watch the activities of their wards outside school.
Q305. “Maintenance of personal and public hygiene is necessary for prevention and control of many infectious diseases”. Justify the statement 4 Marks
giving suitable examples.

Ans: Personal and public hygiene plays important role in prevention and control of many infectious disease. Many fungal infections can spread
because of poor personal hygiene. This problem is especially enhanced during adolescent period. A person who maintains good hygiene is
least likely to suffer from common skin infections; like ringworm and eczema. Lack of public hygiene is often the biggest cause for spread of
various communicable diseases; like cholera, malaria, typhoid, etc. No matter how clean your house is, if your neighbourhood is not clean;
you stand at a higher risk of getting infected with malaria, dengue or cholera. But a clean neighbourhood helps in preventing various
communicable diseases to a great extent.
Q306. It is commonly observed that parents feel embarrassed to discuss freely with their adolescent children about sexuality and reproduction. The 4 Marks
result of this parental inhibition is that the children go astray sometimes.
1. Explain the reasons that you feel are behind such embarrassment amongst some parents to freely discuss such issues with their growing
children.
2. By taking one example of a local plant and animal, how would you help these parents to overcome such inhibitions about reproduction
and sexuality?

Ans:1. The reasons behind the embarrassment amongst some parents to freely discuss sexuality and reproduction related issues are as follows
1. Communication gap is a big reason for the same. The parents feel that talking about such issues will have a negative impact on children.
2. In India, sex-related issues are considered as taboos so people feel awkward while talking about them.
3. Social beliefs are also responsible for this. Most parents think that there has to be a line of respect between parents and their children.
Parents usually think that their child is too young to discuss over this topic.
2. To overcome this inhibition, parents can make children understand about sexuality via scientific perspective. For example, in order to tell
them about sexuality parents can take the example of cucurbit and papaya.
In cucurbits, both male and female reproductive structures are present on the same plant, ie, they are bisexual, while in papaya both male and
female reproductive structures are present on different plants, i.e. they are unisexual. Similarly, in animals, earthworm is bisexual or
hermaphrodite while cockroaches are unisexual
Q307. A bright student of class XI, under peer pressure started taking drugs. He started neglecting studies, misbehaving with parents and friends in 4 Marks
school. The principal of school counselled him, but it had no effect. His parents took him to a rehabilitation center. After a few months, he
came back recovered.
1. What is drug abuse?
2. Name some commonly abused drugs and their source.
3. What should be the attitude of his parents after his return?
4. What values did the principal reflect through his initiative?

Ans:1. Intake of drugs for a non-medicinal purpose (such as to increase the strength and performance) impairs mental and physical functions. This
is called drug abuse.
2. Some commonly abused drugs and their sources are
1. Opium: from plant Papaver somniferum; its derivatives include morphine, cocaine, heroin, smack, i.e. brown sugar, etc.
2. Cocaine: from Erythroxylum coca. It is also called crack or coke. A cocaine derivative include caffeine from Thea sinensis, Coffea arabica,
Theobroma cacao.
3. LSD: from fungus Claviceps purpurea.

Parents should be compassionate and more caring towards the child and behave normally.
(iv) The principal showed his social liability and responsibility.
Q308. Represent schematically the life cycle of a malarial parasite. 4 Marks

Ans:

Q309. List any three major categories of cancer. Explain briefly each category giving one example. 3 Marks

Ans:1. Carcinomas, derived from epithelial tissue/skin/epithelial lining of internal organs or glands.
2. Melanomas, cancerous growth of melanocytes (type of skin cell).
3. Sarcomas, derived from tissue of mesodermal origin/bone or fat or cartilage.
4. Leukaemias and lymphomas, tumours of haematopoietic cells.
Q310. 1. Write the specific symptoms of pneumonia and amoebiasis. 3 Marks
2. Mention their mode of spread in a population.

Ans:1. Pneumonia: Chills cough and headache, lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in severe cases, severe problem in respiration.
Amoebiasis: Constipation abdominal pain and cramps, stools excess mucus and blood clots.
2. Mode of spreads of Pneumonia: Inhaling droplets released by an infected person/ sharing utensils with infected person.
Mode of spreads of Amoebiasis: Houseflies transmit the parasite from faeces of infected person to food and drinking water.
Q311. Name the type of human cell HIV attacks on its entry into the body. Explain the events that occur in the cell which further lead to cause 3 Marks
immunodeficiency syndrome.

Ans: Macrophages, Virus enters a macrophage where RNA genome of the virus with the help of reverse transcriptase, replicates to form a viral
DNA, viral DNA incorporates into host cell’s DNA, directs infected cells to produce virus particles, These virus particle enters the helper T-
lymphocytes repeatedly to produce progeny viruses thus decreasing their number drastically
Q312. 1. How does the human body respond when vaccine is introduced into it? 3 Marks
2. It is said that vaccinations are a must for a healthy society. Justify.

Ans:1. In vaccination, a preparation of antigenic proteins of pathogen or inactivated/ or weekened pathogen (vaccine) are introduced into the body.
The antibodies produced in the body against these antigens would neutralise the pathogenic agents during actual infection.
The vaccines also generate memory B and T cells that recognise the pathogen quickly on subsequent exposure and overwhelm the invaders
with a massive production of antibodies.
2. Vaccination is based on the property of memory of the immune system.
If any vaccine is introduced in the person body, slowly & gradually body starts producing specific antibodies to destroy the antigen introduced
through vaccine. Thus the person become resistant to that particular disease caused by particular pathogen. Thus, Vaccination are must for
healthy society.
Q313. 1. List the four major causes of increasing population in our country that you would like to speak on to your fellow students. 3 Marks
2. Write any two steps that you would stress upon to control the population explosion.

Ans:
1. Rapid decline in death rate, decline in maternal mortality rate, decline in infant mortality rate (IMR), increase in number of people in
reproductive age, increased health facilities, improved (better) living condition.
2. Encourage use of contraceptive methods, statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 18 years and that of males to 21 years,
incentives should be given to couples for maintaining small families.
Q314. What is obsessive-compulsive disorder? How is it different from borderline personality disorder? What are the two most common obsessions 3 Marks
that affect adolescents?

Ans: Obsessive-compulsive disorder: Affected persons show irresistible obsessions and compulsions, They are compelled to perform an action or an
idea despite their own attempt to resist it (compulsion).
Borderline personality disorder: This is an emotionally unstable personality disorder, which is characterised by impulsivity/unpredictable
moods/outbursts of emotion/behavioural explosions/quarrelsome behaviour/and conflicts with others.
The familiar obsessions are violence, worry about infection by germs or dirt.
Q315. 1. What precaution(s) would you recommend to a patient requiring repeated blood transfusion? 3 Marks
2. If the advise is not followed by the patient, there is an apprehension that the patient might contract a disease that would destroy the
immune system of his/her body. Explain with the help of schematic diagram only how the immune system would get affected and
destroyed.

Ans:1. Ensuring blood (from blood banks) is safe from HIV/screening blood for HIV/AIDS/Hepatitis/ensuring use of only disposable needles and
syringes in (public and private) hospitals/clinic.
2.

Q316. Different types of antibodies are produced in our body by the B-lymphocytes in response to a pathogen that enters in our blood. Name any 3 Marks
two antibodies produced and draw a schematic representation of an antibody molecule and label its four parts.

Ans: IgA , IgM , IgE , IgG , IgD

Q317. Following a road accident four injured persons were brought to a nearby clinic. The doctor immediately injected them with tetanus antitoxin. 3 Marks
1. What is tetanus antitoxin?
2. Why were the injured immediately injected with this antitoxin?
3. Name the kind of immunity this injection provided.

Ans:1. A preparation containing (pre-formed/ readymade) antibodies to the toxin.

2. To provide quick immune response/ to neutralize or nullify the effect of the tetanus bacteria/ pathogen.
3. Passive immunity.
Q318. 1. Name and state the type of immunity that acts as a ‘biological shield’ to the developing foetus against many infections in the mother’s 3 Marks
womb.
2. A large proportion of infants remain free from potent infections at least three months after birth, or even longer if breast fed. Explain,
giving suitable reasons.

Ans:1.
Passive immunity
when readymade antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents.
2. The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mothers during initial days of lactation, abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant.
Q319. Mention the name of the causal organism, symptoms and the mode of transmission of the disease Amoebiasis. 3 Marks
Ans: Entamoeba histolytica.
Constipation/abdominal pain/cramps/mucous stool/stool with blood clots.
Houseflies carrier from faeces to person via food products/contaminated water.
Q320. [Link] and at what stage does Plasmodium enter into a human body? 3 Marks
[Link] the help of a flow-chart only show the stages of asexual reproduction in the life-cycle of the parasite in the infected an.
[Link] does the victim show symptoms of high fever?

Ans:
(i) Bite of female Anopheles mosquito, sporozoite,
(ii) (Sporozoite reach liver cells through blood)

Asexual reproduction/liver cells burst,

↓
Daughter cell are released into blood and parasite enter RBC,
↓
Asexually reproduce; RBC burst.
↓
(fresh infection of RBC).
(iii)Due to release of toxine/haemozoin.