16-12-2025

1001CMD303362250045 MD

PHYSICS

1) Heat is given to an ideal gas in an isothermal process.

a. Internal energy of the gas will decrease
b. Internal energy of the gas will increase
c. Internal energy of the gas will not change
d. The gas will do positive work
e. The gas will do negative work
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) a and e only

(2) b and d only
(3) c and e only
(4) c and d only

2) The value of γ is for an adiabatic process of an ideal gas for which internal energy U = k + nPV,
where k is constant. The value of n is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

3) In a process, temperature and volume of one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas are varied
according to the relation VT = K, where K is a constant. In this process the temperature of the gas is
incresed by ΔT. The amount of heat absorbed by gas is (R is gas constant) :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Consider two containers A and B containing monoatomic gases at the same Pressure (P), Volume

(V) and Temperature (T). The gas in A is compressed isothermally to of its original volume while

the gas B is compressed adiabatically to of its original volume. The ratio of final pressure of gas in
B to that of gas in A is :

(1) 8
(2)

(3)

(4) 4

5) The following graphs between P and V are plotted at two temperature T1 and T2. Then which of

the following is correct?

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T1 = T2
(3) T1 < T2
(4) incomplete data, no conclusion can be drawn

6) Using the given P-V diagram, the work done by an ideal gas along the path
ABCD is-

(1) 4 P0V0
(2) 3 P0V0
(3) –4 P0V0
(4) – 3 P0V0

7) The pressure (P) and temperature (T) relationship of an ideal gas obeys the equation PT2 =
constant. The volume expansion coefficient of the gas will be:

(1) 3T2

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The graph between two temperature scales P and Q is shown in the figure. Between upper fixed
point and lower fixed point there are 150 equal divisions of scale P and 100 divisions on scale Q. The
relationship for conversion between the two scales is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The bulk modulus of copper is 1.4 × 1011 Pa and the coefficient of linear expansion is 1.7 × 10–5
(C°)–1. What hydrostatic pressure is necessary to prevent a copper block from expanding when its
temperature is increased from 20°C to 30°C?

(1) 6.0 × 105 Pa

(2) 7.1 × 107 Pa
(3) 5.2 × 106 Pa
(4) 40 atm

10) Three very large plates of same area are kept parallel and close to each other. They are
considered as ideal black surfaces and have very high thermal conductivity. The first and third
plates are maintained at temperatures 2T and 3T respectively. The temperature of the middle (i.e.
second) plate under steady state condition is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The intensity of radiation emitted by the Sun has its maximum value at a wavelength of 510 nm
and that emitted by the North Star has the maximum value at 350 nm. If these stars behave like
black bodies then the ratio of the surface temperature of the Sun and the North Star is

(1) 1.46
(2) 0.69
(3) 1.21
(4) 0.83
12) Two identical beakers A and B contain equal volumes of two different liquids at 60°C each and
left to cool down in same conditions. Liquid in A has density of 8 × 102 kg/m3 and specific heat of
2000 J kg–1 K–1 while liquid in B has density of 103 kg m–3 and specific heat of 4000 J kg–1 K–1. Which of
the following best describes their temperature versus time graph schematically? (assume the
emissivity of both the beakers to be the same)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Same gas is filled in two vessels of the same volume at the same temperature. If the ratio of the
number of molecules is 1:4, then
A. The r.m.s. velocity of gas molecules in two vessels will be the same.
B. The ratio of pressure in these vessels will be 1 : 4
C. The ratio of pressure will be 1 : 1
D. The r.m.s. velocity of gas molecules in two vessels will be in the ratio of 1 : 4

(1) A and C only

(2) B and D only
(3) A and B only
(4) C and D only

14) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: The average momentum of a molecule in a sample of an ideal gas depends on
temperature.
Statement II : The rms speed of oxygen molecules in a gas is v. If the temperature is doubled and
the oxygen molecules dissociate into oxygen atoms, the rms speed will become 2v.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

15) In 1st case, Carnot engine operates between temperatures 300 K and 100 K. In 2nd case, as shown
in the figure, a combination of two engines is used. The efficiency of this combination (in 2nd case)

will be :

(1) same as the 1st case

(2) always greater than the 1st case
(3) always less than the 1st case
(4) may increase or decrease with respect to the 1st case

16) If the total number of H2 molecules is double that of the O2 molecules then the ratio of total
kinetic energies of H2 to that of O2 at 300 K is :–

(1) 1: 1
(2) 1: 2
(3) 2: 1
(4) 1: 16

17) Under an adiabatic process, the volume of an ideal gas gets doubled. Consequently the mean

collision time between the gas molecule changes from τ1 to τ2 . If for this gas then a good

estimate for is given by :

(1)

(2) 2

(3)
(4)

18) A thermally insulated vessel contains 150g of water at 0°C. Then the air from the vessel is
pumped out adiabatically. A fraction of water turns into ice and the rest evaporates at 0°C itself. The
mass of evaporated water will be closest to : (Latent heat of vaporization of water = 2.10 × 106 J kg–1
and Latent heat of Fusion of water = 3.36 × 105 J kg–1)

(1) 130 g
(2) 35 g
(3) 20 g
(4) 150 g

19) A spring -mass system vibraties such that mass travel on surface of coefficient of friction μ. Mass
is released after compressing the spring by distance a and it travels upto distance b after its
equilibrium position, then travelling from x = –a to x = b the reduction in its amplitude will be ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A particle performs Linear SHM such that it is placed on a platform & platform along with
particles oscillate vertically up and down with amplitude A = 1 cm. If the particle do not loose
contact with platform any where and mass of particle is 1 kg then find -
The minimum possible time period (take )

(1) 0.1 sec

(2) 0.2 sec
(3) 0.3 sec
(4) 0.4 sec

21) Initially spring is stretched by x0 and released Find time period of oscillation.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) A simple pendulum oscillating in air has period T. The bob of the pendulum is completely

immersed in a non-viscous liquid. The density of the liquid is th of the material of the bob. If the
bob is inside liquid all the time, its period of oscillation in this liquid is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A simple harmonic motion is represented by:

y = 5(sin3πt+ cos3πt) cm
The amplitude and time period of the motion are:

5cm,
(1)

5cm,
(2)

(3)
10cm,

(4)
10cm,

24) In figure (A), mass ‘2 m’ is fixed on mass ‘m’ which is attached to two springs of spring constant
k. In figure (B), mass ‘m’ is attached to two spring of spring constant ‘k’ and ‘2k’. If mass ‘m’ in (A)
and (B) are displaced by distance ‘x’ horizontally and then released, then time period T1 and T2
corresponding to (A) and (B) respectively follow the relation.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A particle starts SHM from the mean position. Its amplitude is 'a' and total energy 'E'. At one

instant its kinetic energy is . Its displacement at that instant is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) a

(4)

26) Two particles perform simple harmonic motion of same frequency and about same mean
position. Their amplitude is same and is equal to A and their time period is T. If at t = 0 their

separation is maximum and is A, their separation at t = is

(1)

(2) A

(3)

(4)

27) A vertical spring carries a 5 kg body and is hanging in equilibrium, an additional force is applied
so that the spring is further stretched. When released from this position, it performs 50 complete
oscillations in 25 sec, with amplitude of 5 cm. The additional force applied is :

(1) 80 N
(2) 80π2 N
(3) 4π2 N
(4) 4 N

28) A simple pendulum has a string of length 1m. If the angular amplitude is 1°, which of the
following can represent its angular displacement from mean position as a function of time :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A particle executing S.H.M. of amplitude 4 cm and T = 4 sec. The time taken by it to move from
positive extreme position to half the amplitude is :–

(1) 1sec

(2)
sec

(3)
sec

(4)
sec

30) For a certain organ pipe three successive resonant frequencies are observed at 425, 595 and 765
Hz respectively. Taking the speed of sound in air to be 340 m/sec (i) whether the pipe is closed end
or open end (ii) determine the length of pipe.

(1) closed end, 1 m

(2) open end, 1 m
(3) closed end, 2m
(4) open end, 2 m

31) A sonometer wire, 100 cm in length has a fundamental frequency of 330 Hz. The velocity of
propagation of transverse wave along the wire is :-

(1) 330 m/s

(2) 660 m/s
(3) 115 m/s
(4) 990 m/s

32) A wave is represented by the equation y = a sin (kx – ωt) is superimposed with another wave to
form a stationary wave such that the point x = 0 is a node. Then the equation of other wave is –

(1) y = a cos (kx – ωt)

(2) y = acos (kx + ωt)
(3) y = – asin (kx + ωt)
(4) y = a sin (kx + ωt)

33) The total length of a sonometer wire between fixed ends is 110 cm. Two bridges are placed to
divide the length of wire in ratio 6 : 3 : 2. The tension in the wire is 400 N and the mass per unit
length is 0.01 kg/m. What is the minimum common frequency (in Hz) with which three parts can
vibrate ?

(1) 1000 Hz
(2) 100 Hz
(3) 10 Hz
(4) 20 Hz

34) A tuning fork of frequency n is held near the open end of a tube which is closed at the other end
and the length of the tube is adjusted until resonance occurs. If the two shortest lengths that
produce resonance are L1 and L2, the speed of the sound is:-

(1) n(L2 – L1)

(2) n(L2 – L1)/2
(3) 2n(L2 + L1)
(4) 2n(L2 – L1)

35) The frequency of first overtone of a closed organ pipe of length L is f1. A hole is made at a

distance from the closed end so that it becomes an open pipe. Now the frequency of first overtone

of open pipe is f2. Then is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) An open pipe is in resonance in its 2nd harmonic with a tuning fork of frequency f1. Now it is
closed at one end. If the frequency of the tuning fork is increased slowly from f1, then again a
resonance is obtained with a frequency f2, If in this case the pipe vibrates in nth harmonic, then :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A tuning fork resonates with a sonometer wire of length 1 m stretched with a tension of 6 N.
When the tension in the wire is changed to 54 N, the same tuning fork produces 12 beats per second
with it. The frequency of the tuning fork is _______ Hz.

(1) 8 Hz
(2) 6 Hz
(3) 2 Hz
(4) 10 Hz

38) Two identical piano wires, kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600
Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6
beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be :-

(1) 0.01
(2) 0.02
(3) 0.03
(4) 0.04

39) A tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz is used in an experiment for measuring speed of sound (ν) in
air by resonance tube method. Resonance is observed to occur at two successive lengths of the air
column, ℓ1 = 30 cm and ℓ2 = 70 cm. Then ν is equal to :

(1) 332 ms–1

(2) 379 ms–1
(3) 384 ms–1
(4) 338 ms–1

40) A girl stands 130 m away from a high wall. She claps her hands together at a steady rate such
that 37 claps are made in 30 seconds ; starting at time t = 0 and ending at t = 30 s. Each clap,
except the first, coincides with the echo of the one before. Calculate the speed of sound.

(1) 320 m/s

(2) 327 m/s
(3) 340 m/s
(4) 312 m/s

41) A plane progressive wave is shown in the adjoining phase diagram. The wave equation of this
wave, if its position is shown at t = 0 is :
(1) y = 0.05 sin 2π (300 t – x)
(2) y = 0.05 sin 2π (300 t + x)
(3) y = 0.05 sin 8π (300 t + x)
(4) y = 0.05 sin 8π (300 t – x)

42) An object of mass 'M' kg hangs in equilibrium from a string with a total length of L = 16 m and
linear density of m = 0.01 kg/m, as shown in figure. The string is wrapped around two light small
frictionless pulleys that are separated by distance d = 6 m. When the string between the pulleys
vibrates to form the standing wave pattern with three loops on it, the frequency of vibration is 25

Hz. Find the value of M/2. (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 32
(2) 16
(3) 4
(4) 8

43)

In the following P–V diagram of an ideal gas, AB and CD are isothermal whereas BC and DA are
adiabatic process. The value of VB/VC is

(1) = VA /VD
(2) < VA / VD
(3) > VA / VD
(4) cannot say

44) The figure (i) shows the graphical representation of the air molecules in a tube of air (length =
L) at atmospheric pressure on the absolute pressure P(x) graph. Which one of the following pictures
corresponds to the absolute pressure P(x) graph of figure (ii).

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Two liquids A and B are at temperatures of 75°C and 15°C. Their masses are in the ratio of 2 : 3
and their specific heats in the ratio 3 : 4. What is the resulting temperature of their mixture?

(1) 90°C
(2) 70°C
(3) 35°C
(4) 60°C

CHEMISTRY

1) Statement-I :- Separation of mixture of aniline and chloroform is done using simple distillation.
Statement-II :- The boiling point of aniline and chloroform are almost same.

(1) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

2) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
 Separation of
Fractional
(a) aniline-water (i)
distillation
mixture

Separation of Distillation
(b) glycerol from (ii) under reduced
spent-lye pressure

Separation of
(c) different fractions (iii) Steam distillation
of crude oil

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)

3) Match the methods of separation (I) with the given mixture (II).

Method (I) Mixture (II)

(A) Crystallisation (P) sugar + water

(B) Sublimation (Q) sugar + nephthalene

(C) Distillation (R) sugar + charcoal

(D) Chromatography (S) chloroform + aniline

(T) glycine + alanine

A B C D

(1) (P,R) (Q) S T

(2) (P,Q) (R,S) T P

(3) (P,R) (Q,S) P T

(4) R (P,Q) T S
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Paper chromatography is an example of:

(1) Column chromatography

(2) Adsorption chromatography
(3) Partition chromatography
(4) Thin layer chromatography
5) Which of the following has incorrect IUPAC name?

(1)
2-Cyanoethanoic acid

(2)
But-3-en-2-ol

(3)

3, 3-Dimethylpent-1-ene
(4) CH3–CH=CH–C≡CH Pent-2-en-4-yne

6) The IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 5-chloro-7-cyano-6-hydroxy-4,4-dimethyl-2-oxo heptanamide

(2) 5-chloro-8-cyano-6-hydroxy-4,4-dimethyl-2-oxo octanamide
(3) 5-chloro-8-cyano-4,4-dimethyl-6-hydroxy-2-oxo octanamide
(4) 5-chloro-7-cyano-4,4-dimethyl-6-hydroxy-2-oxo heptanamide

7) The IUPAC name of is :

(1) 2-Chlorocarbonyl ethylbenzoate

(2) 2-Carboxyethyl benzoyl chloride
(3) Ethyl-2-(chlorocarbonyl) benzoate
(4) Ethyl- l-(chlorocarbonyl) benzoate

8) Correct IUPAC name is :-

(1) 3-Methyl-2- ethylpentane

(2) 2-Ethyl- 3-methylpentane
(3) 3–Ethyl– 2-methylpentane
(4) 2-Ethyl- 2-methylpentane

9) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is -

(1) 5-Mercapto cyclohex-4-ene-1, 3-diol
(2) 5-Mercapto cyclohex-5-ene-1, 3-diol
(3) 5-Mercapto cyclohex-1,3-dihydroxy-5-ene
(4) 5-Mercapto cyclohex-1,3-dihydroxy-4-ene

10) What is correct I.U.P.A.C name of following compound :-

(1) 5–cyano–4–oxo–3–ketohexanamide
(2) 5–cyano–4–formyl–3–ketohexanamide
(3) 5–cyano–5–formyl–3–ketohexanamide
(4) None of these

11) The IUPAC name of is :

(1) 4-ethylpent-4-en-2-amine
(2) 2-amino-4-ethylpent-4-ene
(3) 2-ethylpentan-4-amine
(4) 4-amino-2-ethylpent-l-ene

12) Which is true for 1, 2-pentadiene :-

(1) It is metamer of cyclopentene

(2) It is functional isomer of 1-pentyne
(3) It is position isomer of 1-pentyne
(4) It is chain isomer of 3-methyl-1-butene

13) Which of the following is a pair of metamers :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
14) What is the relation between following compounds

&

(1) positional isomers

(2) chain isomers
(3) Geometrical isomerism
(4) metamers

15) (E/Z) configuration of the given molecule A, B respectively is :

(1) E, E
(2) Z, Z
(3) E, Z
(4) Z, E

16) Which is incorrect order ?

(1) Fully eclipsed > Partially eclipsed > Gauche > Anti form (order of energy in n-Butane)
(2) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene (stability)
(3) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene (order of melting point)
(4) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene (order of boiling point)

17) Which of the following compound will show Geometrical Isomerism

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Which of the following represent E-configuration :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Which of the following will not have any stereoisomer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Which of the following best explains the reason for the relative stabilities of the conformers

shown ?

(1) I has more torsional strain

(2) I has more steric strain
(3) II has more torsional strain
(4) II has more steric strain

21) Which of the following statement is true for oximes :-

(1) All the aldoximes show geometrical isomerism

(2) The simplest aldoxime as well as simplest ketoxime does not show geometrical isomerism
(3) Benzaldoxime does not show geometrical isomerism
(4) Dimethyl ketoxime displays geometrical isomerism.

22) Which type of isomerism is observed between I and II?

(1) Functional isomerism

(2) Metamerism
(3) Chain isomerism
(4) Geometrical isomerism

23) Arrange these compounds in decreasing order of basic strength

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(4) (iv) > (i) > (ii) > (iii)

24) Which of the following reactions is not feasible?

(1)

+ NaHCO3 → + H2O + CO2

(2)

+ NaHCO3 → + H2O + CO2

(3)

+ NaHCO3 → + H2O + CO2

(4)

+ → +

25) Which one of the following compounds does not show tautomerism ?

(1) CH3CH2NO2

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Correct comparison is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

27) Which is maximum stable :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Which of the following cations is most stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Rank the following free radicals in order of decreasing stability :-

(I) C6H5 C6H5
(II) C6H5– –CH=CH2
(III) CH3– –CH3
(IV) C6H5– –CH3

(V) CH3CH=CHCH2

(VI)

(1) I > II > III > IV > V > VI

(2) VI > V > IV > III > II > I
(3) I > II > IV > VI > III > V
(4) I > IV > VI > V > II > III

30)
Correct order of stability of these radicals ?

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) I > III > II

31) How many compounds among the following are aromatic?

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 4

32) Which of the following compounds can exhibits free rotation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Alkene (X) X is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Arrange the following reaction in decreasing order of electrophilic addition reaction :
(1) P > Q > R
(2) Q > R > P
(3) R > Q > P
(4) P = Q = R

35) For the given reaction :

What is 'A'?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Major product is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

37) ; product (A)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38)
Final product Y is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39)

Which of the following product is not obtained in reaction

CH3 – CH = CH–CH3 + Br2/H2O

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Major product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) The order of reactivity of following compounds towards sodalime decarboxylation reaction ?

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(1) i > ii > iii > iv

(2) ii > i > iii > iv
(3) ii > i > iv > iii
(4) i > ii > iv > iii

42)
C will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Most reactive benzene ring towards ESR is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) In the reaction the major product formed is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The compound 'P' in the reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Calvin cycle was discovered in ?

(1) Chlorella
(2) Stelaria
(3) Azolla
(4) Spirulina

2) Choose the right set of saturation limits of CO2 concentrate :-

C3 Plants C4 Plants

(1) 360 μl/L 500 μl/L

(2) 400 μl/L 360 μl/L

(3) 500 μl/L 450 μl/L

 (4) 450 μl/L 360 μl/L
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Productivity of tomatoes can be enhanced in green houses by increasing which of the following
factors ?

(1) Temperature
(2) CO2 concentration
(3) pH
(4) O2 concentration

4) Most abundant enzyme in the world is :-

(1) PEPcase
(2) Hexokinase
(3) RuBisCO
(4) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

5) Which of the following pair is correct for PEP & RUBP ?

PEP RUBP

(1) 2-Carbon 3-Carbon

(2) 3-Carbon 4-Carbon

(3) 4-Carbon 5-Carbon

(4) 3-Carbon 5-Carbon

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Choose the correct sequence of steps with respect to flow of electrons in non-cyclic ETS :-

(1) PS II → PQ → Cyt b-f → PC → PS II

(2) PS I → PQ → Cyt b-f → PC → PS II
(3) PS II → PQ → Cyt b-f → PC → PS I
(4) PS I → PQ → Cyt b-f → PC → PS I

7) During light reaction in higher plants, the light energy is absorbed by the pigment present
in____and funelled in to______ :-

(1) Antenna, Special chlorophyll b

(2) Reaction centre, Chlorophyll c
(3) Reaction centre, Antenna
(4) Antenna, Reaction centre

8) Only the green parts of the plants could release oxygen in the presence of light was shown by :-

(1) Joseph Priestley

(2) Julius von Sach
(3) Jan Ingenhousz
(4) Cornelius van Niel

9) Read the following five statements (A - E) :-

(a) Movement of electrons in Z-scheme is always down hill
(b) Primary electron acceptor of z-scheme is located toward outer side of thylakoid membrane
(c) Antenna complex is composed of only carotenoids
(d) NADP reductase enzyme is located toward outer side of thylakoid membrane
(e) Water splitting complex is located on stromal side of thylakoid membrane.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

10) During Z-scheme of photosynthesis which of the following does not help in creation of proton
gradient ?

(1) Release of protons in stroma by water splitting

(2) Presence of H-carriers in the thylakoid membrane
(3) Reduction of NADP+
(4) Oxidation of water by photosystem-II

11) Pyruvate may form :-

(1) Ethanol
(2) Lactic acid
(3) Acetyl-CoA
(4) Any of the above

12) If one molecule of fumeric acid supplied in aerobic respiration than how many ATP molecule will
be produced :-

(1) 3 ATP
(2) 1 ATP
(3) 9 ATP
(4) 10 ATP
13)

What element or compound is needed for the process designated as to occur ?

(1) Chlorine
(2) Nitrogen
(3) Oxygen
(4) Potassium

14) What is the starting point of TCA/Krebs cycle ?

(1) Oxidation of FMN

(2) Condensation of acetyle CoA with OAA
(3) Reduction of NADP
(4) Formation of ethyl alcohol

15) In Respiratory process which step is not related with de-carboxylation :-

(1) Alcoholic fermentation

(2) TCA cycle
(3) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate
(4) Lactic acid Fermentation

16) How many CO2 molecule will released when 2 molecule of malic acid converted in to
oxaloacetic acid in TCA cycle -

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Zero

17) Oxygen is vital molecule in aerobic respiration which is used at :-

(1) Kreb's cycle

(2) Link reaction
(3) Glycolysis
(4) ETS

18) In mitochondria oxidation of α-keto gluteric acid produce :-

(1) 15 ATP
(2) 9 ATP
(3) 12 ATP
(4) 7 ATP

19) Statement-I : For each ATP produced, 4H+ passes through F0 from the intermembrane space to
matrix down the electrochemical proton gradient.
Statement-II : The continued oxidation of acetyl CoA via the TCA cycle requires the continued
replenishment of oxalosuccinate, the 1st member of the cycle.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

20) How many of the following are the common intermediates between aerobic and anaerobic
respiration ?
acetyl Co-A, 3-PGA, DHAP, Succinate, pyruvate, malate, α-ketoglutarate, PEP, lactate, ethanol.

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 3

21) Carefully read the following statements :-

(a) All carbohydrates are usually first converted into glucose before they are stored.
(b) If fatty acids were to be respired they would first be degraded to pyruvic acid.
(c) When the organism needs to synthesize fatty acids, acetyl CoA would be withdrawn from
respiratory pathway for it.
(d) The respiratory pathway is involved only in catabolism.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

22) Given below the two statements :

Statement-I : During Kreb's cycle the conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid a molecule of
GTP is synthesized.
Statement-II : There are three points in the Kreb's cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH+H+
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
23) Identify the false statement -

(1) Carboxylation is the most crucial step of the calvin cycle.

(2) The regeneration step requires 2-ATP to form one molecule of RuBP.
(3) C-4 plant have special type leaf anatomy called kranz anatomy.
(4) To make one molecule of glucose, 6-turn of the C-3 cycle are required.

24)
(i) Label A, B, C and D
(ii) How many CO2 evolve between A and Malic acid ?
Choose the correct option from the following regarding answers of above questions :-

(1) (i) A = PGA, B = CO2, C = PGAL, D = ATP (ii) 3CO2

(i) A = Citric acid, B = CO2,
(2)
C = Succinic acid, D = FADH2 (ii) 2CO2
(i) A = Citric acid, B = FADH2,
(3)
C = Succinic acid, D = NADH + H+ (ii) 2CO2
(i) A = pyruvic acid, B = FADH2,
(4)
C = Succinyl CoA, D = GTP. (ii) 4CO2

25) Give the order in which electron movement occur in mitochondrial ETS ?

(1) Cyt a → Cyt a3 → Cyt b → Cyt c

(2) FMN → FeS → UQ → Cyt b
(3) FMN → Cyt a3 → Cyt a → FeS
(4) FMN → FeS → Cyt b → FAD

26) Match column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

A Yeast I Lactic acid fermentation

B Muscle cell II Alcohol fermentation

C Aerobic respiration III 2 ATP

D Fermentation IV 36/38 ATP

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

27) The ratio of the volume of CO2 evolved to the volume of O2 consumed in respiration is called-

(1) Reproductive ratio

(2) Respiratory quotient
(3) Respiration efficiency
(4) Reproductive efficiency

28) Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II

i Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA a Glycolysis

ii Glucose → Glucose 6 phosphate b Fermentation

iii Citric acid → α-ketoglutaric acid c Link Reaction

iv Pyruvic acid → Lactic acid d Kreb's cycle

(1) i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b
(2) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
(3) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
(4) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d

29) Given below are the two statements

Statement-I : Formation of acetyl CoA from pyruvic acid is also called link reaction.
Statement-II : Link reaction connects glycolysis to kreb's cycle
Identify the correct option

(1) Statement-I is incorrect

(2) Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

30) Which one of the following is not the cofactor of link reaction ?

(1) Mg2+
(2) CoA
(3) NAD+
(4) Ca+2

31) Horizontal growth of seedling, swelling of axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedling are
associated with:-

(1) Photoperiodism
(2) Vernalisation
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinin

32) How many plant growth regulators, in the list given below, are not naturally found in plants ?
2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid, (2,4-D)
Indole butyric acid,
Zeatin,
Naphthalene acetic acid (NAA),
Kinetin,
Indole acetic acid,
Gibberellic acid (GA3)

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Two

33) Match the following & find the correct one :-

A. Auxins (i) Seed dormancy

Horizontal growth
B. Gibberellins (ii)
of seedlings

Promote nutrient
C. Cytokinins (iii)
mobilisation

Increases yield
D. Ethylene (iv)
in sugarcane

E. Abscisic acid (v) Used as herbicides

Option :-
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C- (iii), D-(iv), E- (v)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C- (i), D-(v), E- (iv)
(3) A-(v), B-(i), C- (iii), D-(iv), E- (ii)
(4) A-(v), B-(iv), C- (iii), D-(ii), E- (i)

34) The PGRs of a certain group play an important role in plant responses to stresses. How many
PGRs in the list given below belongs to this group?
Indole Butyric acid, Inhibitor B, Gibberellic acid, Abscission II, Kinetin, Dormin, Naphthalene acetic
acid

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) One

35) Read the following statements :

(i) Promotes female flowers in cucumber.
(ii) Initiate germination in peanut seeds.
(iii) It is used to speed up the malting process.
(iv) It also help in synchronising fruit set in Pineapples.
How many statements from the above are true about Ethylene ?

(1) (i), (iii), (iv)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

36)
P = Permanent cell
M = Meristematic cell
Which growth pattern is shown by above diagram.

(1) A = Arithmetic ; B = Arithmetic

(2) A = Geometric ; B = Arithmetic
(3) A = Arithmetic ; B = Geometric
(4) A = Geometric ; B = Geometric

37) Internode elongation just before flowering i.e. bolting is performed by :-

(1) Auxin
(2) Ethylene
(3) C2H4
(4) GA

38) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Increased vacuolation is one of the characteristics of elongation phase of growth

Sigmoid growth curve is characteristic representation of organism's growth in natural
(2)
conditions
(3) Development is considered as the sum of growth and differentiation
(4) Plant growth regulators are external factor for growth

39) A - Turgidity of cells helps in extension growth.

B - Water also provides the medium for enzymatic activities needed for growth.
C - Nutrients are required by plants for the synthesis of protoplasm.
D - Every plant has an optimum temperature range best suited for its growth.
How many statements are not wrong for plant growth ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

40) Choose the properties of plant growth

(A) Unlimited
(B) Indeterminate
(C) Localized
(D) Open growth
(E) Regulated by hormones
(F) Geometric pattern
(G) Arithmatic pattern
(H) Diffused

(1) A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H
(2) A, B, C, D, H
(3) A, B, C, D, E, H
(4) A, B, C, D, E, F, G

41) In which of the following PGRs are promote nutrient mobilisation?

(1) Auxin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellins
(4) Ethylene

42) Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding auxin hormone ?
A. NAA and 2,4-D are synthetic auxins.
B. Auxin also controls phloem dedifferentiation
C. In most higher plants the growing apical bud inhibits the growth of the lateral (axillary) buds a
phenomenon called decapitation.
D. Decapitation is widely used in tea plantations, hedge-making
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) A and D only

43)

Given below are two statements :

Statement – I : Plasticity can be seen in cotton, coriander, buttercup etc.
Statement – II : Environmental heterophylly is seen in cotton.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Both statement I & II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

44) Which of the following statement is incorrect about cytokinin ?

(1) Cytokinins were discovered as kinetin from autoclaved herring sperm DNA
(2) Kinetin does not occur naturally in plants
(3) Zeatin was isolated from corn kernels
(4) Cytokinins promote bolting in cabbage and beet

45) (a) One single maize root apical meristem can give rise to more than 17,500 new cells per hour.
(b) here, r is the relative growth rate and is also the measure of the ability of plant to
produce new plant material, reffered to as efficiency index.
Which among the above statements is/are correct ?

(1) a, b
(2) only b
(3) only a
(4) None of the above

46) Read the following flow regarding to voltage :-

at which potential Na+–K+ pump is closed :-

(1) A
(2) A & B
(3) B,C & D
(4) A & D

47) Read the following statements (A–D) :

(A) In the resting phase of nerve leakage ion channel are closed and potential is found 70mv at
inside
(B) During depolarisation opening of Na+ VGC takes place
(C) Na+ increased more in ECF in depolarisation which cause generation of action potential
(D) The time taken for restoration of resting membrane potential is called refractory period
How many of above statements are incorrect ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

48) In neurons, ion channels are ............. to different ions :-

(1) Semi permeable

(2) Permeable
(3) Selectively permeable
(4) Impermeable

49) Part of the brain which is concerned with olfaction & regulation of sexual behaviour ?

(1) Thalamus
(2) Epithalamus
(3) Limbic system
(4) Reticular formation

50) If hypothalamus is removed from mammalian brain then what will be affected ?

(1) Balance
(2) Hunger
(3) Vomiting
(4) Coughing

51) Intersensory association, memory and communication are the specific functions of :-

(1) Myelinated neuron

(2) Association area
(3) Cerebellum
(4) .Spinal cord

52) A nerve fibre during polarised stage is ?

(1) More permeable to Na+

(2) More permeable to K+
(3) Equally permeable for Na+ and K+
(4) Less permeable for K+

53) Assertion: In PNS both myelinated and non myelinated neurons are enveloped with schwann
cells.
Reason: In PNS myelinated neurons schwann cells forms myelin sheath around the axon while in
unmyelinated fibre schwann cells does not form myelin around the axon.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

54) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Corpus callosum is a band of fibres, which connect left and right cerebellar hemisphere
(2) Hypothalamus produces and release hormones and regulate breathing and micturition
(3) Limbic system inter connect different regions of brain and control movement
(4) Medulla oblongata controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.

55) Find out correct match :-

(A) Thalamus (i) Expression of emotional reactions

Association
(B) (ii) Convoluted surface
area
(C) cerebellum (iii) Sensory and motor signalling
(D) Limbic lobe (iv) Communication and memory
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)

56) Given below are two states :-

Statement 1 : Along with hypothalamus, midbrain is involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour,
expression of emotional reactions and motivation.
Statement 2 : A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passess through the mid brain.
Choose the correct answer from the following options :-

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.

(2) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true.

57) The pituitary gland is divided anatomically into two parts adenohypophysis and
neurohypophysis. Which of following hormones are secreted from Adenohypophysis ? (a) GnRH
(b) Vasopressin
(c) FSH (d) Testosterone
(e) Prolactin (f) Luteinising Hormone

(1) a, b, e
(2) b, c, f
(3) c, e, f
(4) c, d, e, f

58) Which of the following pair is incorrect ?

(a) Oxytocin - stimulates uterine contractions during child birth
(b) ACTH - stimulates release of adrenaline from adrenal medulla
(c) Insulin - Stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver
(d) Thyroxine - Support the process of RBC formation

(1) c and d
(2) b and c
(3) c only
(4) b, c and d
59) Which statement is incorrect regarding pineal gland ?

(1) Located on the ventral side of fore brain.

(2) Secretes a hormone called melatonin.
(3) It influences metabolism.
(4) Increases our defense capability.

60) Oxytocin and vasopressin are :-

(1) Synthesized by pars nervosa

(2) Stored in hypothalamus
(3) Synthesized and stored by hypothalamus
(4) Stored and released by neurohypophysis

61) Which of the following gastro-intestinal tract hormone, act on exocrine pancrease and stimulate
secretion of water and bicarbonate ions :-

(1) Gastrin
(2) Secretin
(3) Cholecystokinin
(4) Gastric inhibitory peptide

62) Identify the gland (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f) shown below and select the option with correct

combination of the gland with their hormone and metabolic effect?

Gland Hormone Metabolic effect

(1) (a) Thyroid Parathormone Stimulates Lipolysis

Stimulates
(2) (c) Pancreas Insulin
glycogenolysis

stimulates
(3) (d) Adrenal Cortisol
gluconeogenesis

(4) (f) Ovary Androgen Protein catabolism

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
63)

Which of the following option/hormone is not correct related to given particular function?

Thyroxine, Cortisol,
(1) Effect on Erythropoiesis
Erythropoietin

Increases in Glucose level in Cortisol, Adrenaline,

(2)
blood thyroxine

STH, Thyroxine,
(3) Protein Anabolism
insulin

Stimulates Gluconeogenesis Glucagon, Cortisol,

(4)
and glycogenesis Adrenalin
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) Which of the following hormone is not a protein/peptide/polypeptide hormone?

(1) GnRH
(2) Gonadotropins
(3) Thymosins
(4) Glucocorticoids

65) Which of the following hormones are related to osteoporosis ?

(1) Progesterone and Aldosterone

(2) Estrogen and Aldosterone
(3) Estrogen and parathormone
(4) Parathormone and prolactin

66) Hormone that causes glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis is :-

(1) Insulin
(2) Glucagon
(3) Aldosterone
(4) ACTH

67) Statement-I : Cortisols produces anti Inflammatory reactions.

Statement-II : Cortisols Increases the Immune response.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

68) Identify the correct statement :

(1) Hyperthyroidism during pregnancy results in growing baby to stunted growth (cretinism)
(2) PTH is hypocalcemic hormone
(3) Hyperglycemia results due to excessive release of glucagon
(4) Hyper-production of adrenal cortex hormone leading to a disease called addison's disease

69) Choose the correct answer among the following options :-

Hormones Function
(A) Epinephrine (i) Increase in muscle growth
(B) Testosterone (ii) Decrease in blood pressure
(C) Glucagon (iii) Decrease in liver glycogen content
(D) Atrial natriuretic factor (iv) Increase heart beat
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

70) Hypersecretion of which hormone causes Grave's disease ?

(1) Aldosteron
(2) Adrenalin
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Calcitonin

71)

During stimulation of skeletal muscle calcium is immediately made available for binding to troponin
from :-

(1) Blood
(2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(3) Lymph
(4) Bone

72) Which event does not happen during muscle contraction ?

(1) Actin filaments move towards H-zone

(2) Decreased length of myosin filament
(3) Decreased length of sarcomere
(4) Length of A-band remains unchanged.

73) Cross bridge dissociates when :-

(1) ADP & Pi binds with myosin head
(2) Ca++ pumped back into sarcoplasmic cisternae
(3) ADP & Pi dissociated from myosin head and a new ATP attached with myosin head
(4) Active site of actin get exposed

74) Given below is diagrammatic cross sectional view of a muscle. Identify the parts labelled as A, B

and C :-

A B C

(1) Muscle fibre Fascicle Sarcomere

(2) Fascicle Myofibrils Sarcolemma

(3) Sarcolemma Muscle fibre Myofibril

(4) Fascicle Muscle fibre Sarcolemma

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75) Find out the incorrect option:-

(1) Each organised skeletal muscle is made of a number of muscle bundles or Fasiculi
(2) Each muscle fibre has many parallelly arranged myofibrils.
(3) Each myofibril contains many serially arranged units called meromyosin.
(4) Each sarcomere has a central "A"–band and two half "I" bands.

76)

Correctly match column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

(A) Tetany i Endomysium

(B) Muscle fibre ii Rapid spasm in muscles

(C) Fasciculi iii Auto immune Disorder

(D) Myasthenia gravis iv Perimysium

(1) A→(iii), B→(ii), C→(iv), D→(i)
(2) A→(ii), B→(i), C→(iii), D→(iv)
(3) A→(ii), B→(i), C→(iv), D→(iii)
(4) A→(iii), B→(iv), C→(i), D→(ii)

77) Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

Ribs &
(A) Hinge joint (i)
Sternum

(B) Saddle joint (ii) Sutures

Cartilagenous
(C) (iii) Elbow joint
joint

Between
Carpals and
(D) Fibrous joint (iv)
metacarpal of
thumb
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

78) Assertion: Tetany is rapid spasm (wild contraction) in muscle due to low Ca+2 in body fluid.
Reason: Muscular dystrophy progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to genetic
disorder.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

79) Statement-I :- 'A' band consists of both actin & myosin filaments.
Statement-II :- 'I' band consists of only actin filaments where 'H' zone consists of only myosin
filaments.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

80)

Read the following statements carefully :-

(a) Cross-bridge formation
(b) Neurotransmitter released
(c) Action potential generated in sarcolemma.
(d) Shortening of sarcomere
(e) Binding of calcium at C-site of Troponin

Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence of muscle contraction

(1) b → c → e → a → d
(2) a → c → b → d → e
(3) c → b → a → e → d
(4) c → b → e → a → d

81) The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet ........... to form pubic symphysis containity .............. to
form pubic symphysis containing ..............

(1) Ventrally, fibrous cartilage

(2) Ventrelly, Elastic cartilage
(3) Dorjally, Fibrous cartilage
(4) Laterally, Elastic cartilage

82) Which of the following represent lacrimal bone and ethmoid bone respectively ?

Options :

(1) A and C
(2) A and D
(3) C and A
(4) A and B

83) Choose the incorrect statements regarding to joints?

(1) Between humerus and pectoral girdle ball and socket joint are present.
(2) Interphalangeal joint is an example of hinge joint.
(3) Between atlas and axis pivot joint are present.
(4) Head of femur fit into acetabulum cavity of pectoral girdle and form ball and socket joint.

84) Acromian process is present on which of the following bone ?

(1) Femur
(2) Radius
(3) Scapula
(4) Clavicle

85) Statement-I : Each ribs is a thin flat bone connected dorsally to the vertebral column and
ventrally to the sternum.
Statement-II : The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

86) Assertion (A) : Gout is inflammation of joints occurs due to accumulation of uric-acids crystals.
Reason (R) : Osteoporosis is age related disorder in this bone mass decrease and increase chances
of fractures. Decreased levels of estrogen is a common cause.

(1) Both assertion and reason is true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Both assertion and reason are false
(4) Assertion is true but reason is false

87) Read the following statements.

(i) Each middle ear contain 3 ear ossicles
(ii) Both parietal and ethmoid are paired bones of cranium
(iii) Our skeletal system consist of a framework of bones and a few cartilages.
Choose the option with only incorrect statements ?

(1) Only (ii)

(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

88) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath
around the axon and is commonly found in:-

(1) Autonomous neural system

(2) Central neural system
(3) Somatic neural system
(4) Both (1) & (3)

89) Match List-I with List-II :-

List-I List-II

(A) Aldosterone (I) Emergency hormone

(B) Cortisol (II) Maintenance of electrolytes

Adrenaline and
(C) (iii) Stimulates RBC production
noradrenalline
Choose the correct answer :-
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III
90) Which pair of hormones plays a significant role in calcium homcostasis in body ?

(1) ADH and GnRH

(2) LH and FSH
(3) TCT and PTH
(4) ADH and FSH
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 1 4 3 4 4 2 2 3 2 1 3 4 1 3 1 3 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 4 1 2 1 3 3 3 1 2 4 1 4 4 3 2 2 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 1 3 4 1 3 3 1 2 1 2 3 2 4 4 4 2 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 3 2 4 1 4 3 3 2 2 1 3 3 4 2 2 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 2 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 4 2 3 4 3 4 3 3 1 4 1 3 2 4 4 4 2 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 2 3 2 3 2 1 3 4 3 1 4 2 3 3 4 4 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 2 4 1 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 1 4 2 3 3 2 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 4 4 3 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 3 4 3 3 2 2 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 4 3 4 2 1 4 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) dQ = dU + dW ⇒ dU = nCvdT
dU = 0 (for isothermal)
∴ U = constant
Also dQ > 0 (supplied)
Hence dW > 0

2) PV4/3 = constant
⇒ P3V4 = constant
⇒ 3ℓnP + 4ℓnV = constant

⇒4
⇒ 4PdV + 3VdP = 0
⇒ 3(PdV + VdP) + PdV = 0
For adiabatic process,
dQ = dU + dW = 0
⇒ dU =–PdV ...(i)
⇒ –PdV = 3(PdV + VdP) ...(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii)
⇒ dU = 3(PdV + VdP)

⇒U=
⇒ U = k + 3PV
⇒n=3
OR
ΔU = nRΔT
ΔU = n[P2V2 – P1V1]

3) VT = K

⇒ ⇒ PV2 = K

∴ (For polytropic process)

∴ ΔQ = nC ΔT
4) Isothermal process, T = constant
PV = nRT = constant
P1V1 = P2V2
PV = PA(V/8)
PA = 8P
Adiabatic process, PVγ = constant

γ for monoatomic gas is .

P1V1γ = P2V2γ

PB = 32P

5)
V → same
P∝T
P2 > P1
T2 > T1

6) wABCD = wAB + wBC + wCD

= P0V0 + 0 + (– 2P0 × 2V0)
= P0V0 – 4P0V0 = – 3P0V0

7) PT2 = constant, Using PV = nRT

So,

dV = V γ dT
8)

9)

= 1.4 × 1011 × 3 × 1.7 × 10–5 × (30 – 20) = 7.1 × 107 Pascal

10) Let T1 be the temperature of the middle plate and A be the area of each plate under steady
state, the rate of energy received by the middle plate is equal to rate of energy emitted by it.
σA(3T)4 – σA(T1)4 = σA(T1)4 – σA(2T)4
σA[(3T)4 – (T1)4] = σA[(T1) – (2T)4]
(3T)4 – (T1)4 = (T1)4 – (2T)4
2(T1)4 = T4(34 + 24) = T4(81 + 16) = 97T4

11)

12)

0 0
⇒ T = T + (Ti – T )e–kt

where

ρAsA = 2000 × 8 × 102 = 16 × 105

ρBsB = 4000 × 103 = 4 × 106
ρAsA < ρBsB
13) A. VRms = VRms is same

B. B is correct
Ans [A & B only are correct]

14) [Pavg = 0] (due to random motion)

Tnew = 2T

Mnew =

vnew = 2v

15) First case :

Second case : ηnet = η1 + η2 – η1η2

η (first case) = η (second case)

16)

17) τ ∝ ....(1)
= constant ....(2)
∴τ∝

18) Suppose 'm' gram of water evaporates then, heat required

ΔQreq = mLv
Mass that converts into ice = (150 – m)
So, heat released in this process
ΔQrel = (150 –m) Lf
Now, ΔQrel = ΔQreq
(150 – m) Lf = mLV
m(Lf + Lv) = 150 Lf

⇒ m = 20g

19) [based on NCERT page 125 example 6.9]

Wtotal = ΔKE

20) For particle not loose contact with platform

mgmax = mg
mω2A = mg

= 0.2 sec

21)

22) For a simple pendulum T = 2π

situation 1 : when pendulum is in air → geff = g
situation 2 : when pendulum is in liquid

→ geff = g
So,

23)

= 10sin
Amplitude = 10 cm

T=

24)

25) K (a2 – x2)

Ka2 = (a2 – x2)

x2 = a2 – a2 =

x=

26) at t =

ϕ=

x = sin

27)
⇒ = 4π rad/s
Spring constant K = mω2
= 5 (4π)2 = 80π2 N/m
F = kx = 80π2 × 0.05 N
F = 4π2 N

28) T = ≈ 2sec

29) Time from 0 to A →

Time from 0 to →

Time from to A →

So t =

30)

425 : 595 : 765

5 : 7 : 9
ratio of frequency is odd
pipe → closed end.
425 is frequency of 2nd overtone

⇒ , ℓ = 1m

31) For fundamental mode,

= 100 or λ = 200 cm = 2m
∴ v = fλ = 330 × 2 = 660 m/s

32) y = – a sin (– kx – ωt) = a sin (kx + ωt)

(∵ Reflection from rigid end)

33) ℓ1 : ℓ2 : ℓ3 = 6 : 3 : 2
so ℓ1 = 60 cm
ℓ2 = 30 cm
ℓ3 = 20 cm
60, 30, 20

= 10 cm
f= = 1000 Hz

34)
∴ v = 4nL1 and 3v = 4nL2
or 2v = 4n(L2 – L1) or v = 2n(L2 – L1)

35) f1 =

f2 =

36) Fundamental harmonic of open organ pipe is given by :

or

As the tube vibrates in the second harmonic hence.

.. (1)
If one end is closed, it given only odd harmonics.

Fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe = The other harmonics are , etc.

Once, the frequecny starts increasing, the first higher harmonic that is resonated

If

n = 3,

However, here is a snag. The frequency is increased from v/ℓ. Here is not greater than
 .

Hence , is the answer because this is greater than f1. So answer is (c), n = 5, f2 =

37) f =

f1 = f2 =

f2 – f1 = 12
f1 = 6HZ

38) n ∝ ⇒ ⇒

=2 = 0.02

39) ν = 2f (l2 – l1)

ν = 2 × 480 × (70 – 30) × 10–2
ν = 960 × 40 × 10–2
ν = 38400 × 10–2 m/s
ν = 384 m/s

40) Time for one clap t1 = sec

so t1 =

⇒ vs = = 320 m/s

41) Amplitude A = 0.05 m

2λ = 0.5
or λ = 0.25 m

Frequency f = = 1200 Hz
Angular frequency ω = 2πf = 2400 π rad/s

Propagation constant k = = 8π/m

From the phase diagram, it is clear that
at t = 0, x = 0
Hence, the given wave is a sine wave travelling in +x direction. The standard equation for
such a wave is written as
y = A sin (ωt – kx)
∴ y = 0.05 sin (2400πt – 8πx)
y = 0.05 sin 8π (300 t – x)

42) 2T cos37° = Mg, T =

or
M = 16

43) AB → isothermal
PA VA = PB VB ...(i)
BC → Adiabatic
PB VBγ = PC VCγ ...(ii)
CD → Isothermal
PCVC = PDVD ...(iii)
DA → Adiabatic
PDVDγ = PA VAγ ...(iv)
From (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

44) For rarefaction, P = P0 – ΔP and for compression, P = P0 + ΔP

45)

Two liquids namely A & B are mixed

tA = 75°C ; tB = 15°C

;
tmix = ?
(ΔQA)Loss = (ΔQB)gain
⇒ MA cA ΔtA = MB cB ΔtB

⇒
 ⇒
⇒ (75 – tmix) = (2tmix – 30)
⇒ (75 + 30) = (2tmix + tmix)
⇒ 105 = 3tmix

⇒
⇒ tmix = 35°C

CHEMISTRY

46)

XI NCERT, Separation and purification.

47) Knowledge based

XI NCERT Page No. 348 & 349
Distillation

48)

XI NCERT, Separation techniques.

49) 11th NCERT (12.8.5) chromatography

50)

CH3 – CH = CH – C ≡ CH
Correct name : pent -3-en-1-yne.

51)

IUPAC Rules

52)

IUPAC Rules

53) Asking about : Correct IUPAC name.

Concept : IUPAC naming rules
• 3-Ethyl-2-methyl pentane :
54)

55)

IUPAC Rules

56)

IUPAC Rules

57)

H2C = C = CH – CH2 – CH3

HC ≡ C – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
F. G. I.

58)
are metamers because they have same M.F. & same F.G. but different arrangement of
substituents around F.G.

59)
and are Chain isomers.

60)

Ans. Explanation: -

Final Answer : (4)

61)

B.P. (B.P. ∝ dipole moment)

62)

63)

64)
Neither GI nor OI.

65)

Gauche(II) show more steric strain than anti.

66)
 → simplest aldoxime means aldoxime of formaldehyde

because Terminal carbon do don't have different

valency. → simplest Ketoxime means Ketoxime of Acetone

67)

Metamers different arrangement of groups about polyvalent F.G.

68) Concept : This question is based on basic strength Stability of

conjugated acid.
Basicity = Localised lone pair > Delocalised lone pair.
Solution :

Given compounds Remark

No substituent effect.
Lone pair partially delocalized into ring → moderate basicity

–NO2 is strongly electron-withdrawing.

Strongly pulls electron density away from nitrogen → least basic

–CHO is electron-withdrawing via resonance and inductive effects.

Reduces electron density on nitrogen → less basic

–CH3 is electron-donating via hyperconjugation.

Increases electron density on nitrogen → most basic

Basic strength (Kb) = (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
Final answer : Option (3)

69) Solution: A reaction is feasible if it proceeds from a stronger acid to a weaker acid. The
reaction in option D, with a phenol reacting with sodium bicarbonate, is not feasible because
phenol is a weaker acid than carbonic acid.
Calculation: N/A
Final Answer : 4

70)

α – H is essential for tautomerism.

71)

Acidic strength ∝ –M, –H, –I

Basic strength ∝
Stability of carbocation ∝ +M, +H, +I.

72) Solution: The stability of a compound is greatly enhanced if it is aromatic. The compound
in option C, a pyridine derivative, is aromatic.

73)

Stability ∝ No. of α – H

74) Solution: The stability of a free radical is enhanced by resonance. The order is determined
by the extent of resonance.
The correct order is III > II > IV > V > VI > I.

75) Due to resonance and H-effect II more stable.

76) Cyclic resonance must be present b/w 2π, 6π, 10π, 14π,....,e–.

77)
Aro Aro
∴ Single bond present
∴ Free rotation

78) ⇒
79) Reactivity for EAR ∝ stability of carbocation.

80)

81)

EAR

82)

83)

84)

85)

86) Rate of decarboxylation ∝

 87)

88) Concept :
This question is based on Rate of ESR α +I/+M group attached directly to benzene ring.
Solution :

1. 2.

3. 4.
∴ Option (2) is most reactive towards ESR.
Final Answer : Option (2)

89)

90)

This question is based on halogenation reaction of benzene.

Solution :

Final Answer : Option (2)

BIOLOGY
91) NCERT XI, Pg. # 142

92) NCERT XI, Pg. # 150

93) NCERT XI, Pg. # 150

94)

NCERT XI, Pg # 110

95) NCERT Pg. # 147, 148

96) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 139, Fig. 13.7

97) NCERT XI, Pg. # 151

98) NCERT XI, Pg. # 134

99) NCERT XI, Pg. # 138,139

100) NCERT XI, Pg. # 139,140

101) NCERT XI, Pg. # 157

102) NCERT XI, Pg. # 159

103) NCERT XI Pg. # 159

104) NCERT XI, Pg. # 158

105) NCERT XI, Pg. # 157

106) NCERT XI, Pg. # 159

107) NCERT XI, Pg. # 160

108) NCERT XI, Pg. # 159

109) NCERT Pg. # 161

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 157,158,159

111) NCERT XI, Pg. # 158,159

112)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 158,159

113) NCERT XI, Pg. # 144

114)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 159

115) NCERT XI, Pg. # 160

116) NCERT XI, Pg. # 157,161

117)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 163

118) NCERT XI, Pg. # 156,157,158,159

119) NCERT XI, Pg. # 158

120) NCERT-XI Pg. No. # 158

121) NCERT XI, Pg. # 177

122)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 175, 176, 177

[2, 4-D, NAA & Kinetin]

123)

NCERT XI Pg.# 175, 176, 177, 178

124)

NCERT XI Pg.# 174, 175

[Inhibitor B, Abscission II and Dormin]

125) NCERT-XI Pg. # 177

126)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 169

127)

NCERT Pg. 176

128)

NCERT XI Pg.# 169, 170, 174

129)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 171, 172

130)

NCERT Pg. # 167,169,172

131)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 176

132) NCERT XI, Pg. # 175,176

133) NCERT XI, Pg. # 173

134) NCERT Pg. # 176

135) NCERT, Pg # 168,170

136)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 233

137) NCERT Pg. # 233

138)

NCERT Pg. # 233

139)

NCERT, Pg. # 236

140)

NCERT, Pg # 236

141) NCERT Pg. # 236

142)

NCERT XI # 232

143) NCERT Pg. # 232

144)

NCERT, Pg. # 236

145)

NCERT, Pg. # 236

146) NCERT, Pg. # 236

147)

NCERT, Pg. # 241

148)

NCERT, Pg. # 241 to 245

149) NCERT Pg # 242

150)

NCERT, Pg. # 242

151)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 240 & 247

152)

NCERT XI, Pg # 240

153) NCERT Page # 241, 242, 244 & 245

154) NCERT, 11TH, Page no. 248

155) NCERT, Pg. # 243

156) NCERT Pg # 246

Insulin – Glycogenesis
Aldosterone – Increases Na+ absorption
Glucagon – Glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, proteolysis.

157)

NCERT Pg. # 245

158) NCERT, Pg # 244

159)

NCERT Pg. No. # 247

160)

NCERT XI Pg # 244, 245, 246

161)

NCERT, Pg. # 219

162)

NCERT, Pg. # 222

163)

NCERT, Pg. # 222

164)

NCERT, Pg. # 219

165) NCERT, [Link] - 219

166) NCERT XI Pg. # 219, 227

167)

NCERT, Pg. # 227

168) NCERT Pg. # 227

169)

NCERT Pg. # 222

170) NCERT-XI, Page # 222

171) NCERT, Pg. # 226

172) NCERT XI [Link]. 224

173) NCERT XII Pg. # 227

174) NCERT-XI Pg#226

175) NCERT-XI Pg#225

176) NCERT Pg. No. # 227

177)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 224

178)

Question explanation: Identify where unmyelinated nerve fibers are commonly found.

Concept: Based on myelinogenesis.

Solution: The correct answer is Option 4.

A. Unmyelinated nerve fibers are found in both autonomic (autonomous) nervous

system and somatic nervous system. They are enclosed by Schwann cells but do
not form a myelin sheath, allowing slower impulse conduction compared to
myelinated fibers.

Final answer: Option 4

179) NCERT XI Pg. # 244, 245 (E)

180) NCERT XI Pg. # 243 [E]