16-11-2025

1803CMD303029250069 MD

PHYSICS

1) The radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 16 is 3 × 10–15 m. Then, the radius of a nucleus with
nucleon number 128 will be :-

(1) 3 × 10–15 m
(2) 6 × 10–15 m
(3) 9 × 10–15 m
(4) 24 × 10–15 m

2)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In hydrogen atom, the frequency of radiation emitted when an electron jumps from
lower energy orbit (E1) to higher energy orbit (E2), is given as hf = E1 – E2.
Statement-II : The jumping of electron from higher energy orbit (E2) to lower energy orbit (E1) is
associated with frequency of radiation given as f = (E2 – E1)/h
This condition is Bohr's frequency condition.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are true.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true.

3) In a nuclear fusion reaction, two nuclei, A & B, fuse to produce a nucleus C, releasing an amount
of energy ΔE in the process. If the mass defects of the three nuclei are ΔMA, ΔMB & ΔMC
respectively, then which of the following relations holds? Here, c is the speed of light.

(1) ΔMA + ΔMB = ΔMC – ΔE/c

2

(2) ΔMA + ΔMB = ΔMC + ΔE/c

2

(3) ΔMA – ΔMB = ΔMC – ΔE/c

2

(4) ΔMA – ΔMB = ΔMC + ΔE/c

2

4) If r1 and r2 are radii of the atomic nuclei of mass numbers 64 and 125 respectively, then the ratio
(r1/r2) is.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5) In a nuclear fusion reaction, if the energy is released then :

(1) BEproducts = BEreactants

(2) BEreactants > BEproducts
(3) BEproducts > BEreactants
(4) Mass of product > Mass of reactant

6) In the following reaction X is :-

(1) Electron
(2) Positron
(3) Alpha particle
(4) Proton

7) Which of the following is true of the Balmer series of the hydrogen spectrum :

(1) The entire series falls in the ultraviolet region

(2) The entire series falls in the infrared region
(3) The series is partly in the visible region and partly in ultraviolet region
(4) The series is partly in the visible region and partly in the infrared region

8) The energy levels of the hydrogen spectrum are shown in figure. There are some transitions A, B,

C, D and E. Transition A, B and C respectively represents :

First member of Lyman series, third spectral line of Balmer series and the second spectral line
(1)
of Paschen series
Ionization potential of hydrogen, second spectral line of Balmer series and third spectral line of
(2)
Paschen series
Series limit of Lyman series, third spectral line of Balmer series and second spectral line of
(3)
Paschen series
Series limit of Lyman series, second spectral line of Balmer series and third spectral line of
(4)
Paschen series

9) The nuclei of which of the following pairs of nuclei are isotones :

74 71
(1) 34Se , 31Ca
92 92
(2) 42Mo , 40Zr
 81 86
(3) 38Sr , 38Sr
40 32
(4) 20Ca , 16S

10) The loss of one neutron is equivalent to

(1) Increase of one proton

(2) Loss of one β-particle
(3) Both loss of one β-particle and increase of one proton
(4) None of these

11) In nuclear reactions, we have the conservation of-

(1) Mass only

(2) Energy only
(3) Momentum only
(4) Mass, energy and momentum

12) 1 × 10–7 gm mass is equivalent to how much energy.

(1) 9 × 1016 Joule

(2) 9 M Joule
(3) (1) & (2) Both
(4) None of these

13) In the given nuclear reaction A, B, C, D, E represents :

(1) A=234, B=90, C=234, D=91, E=β

(2) A=234, B=90, C=238, D=94, E=α
(3) A=238, B=93, C=234, D=91, E=β
(4) A=234, B=90, C=234, D=93, E=α

14) A helium ion is in excited state of quantum number 4n, a photon of energy 10.2 eV is emitted.
The value of n is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) γ-decay occurs when

(1) Pair annihilation takes place

(2) Energy is released due to conversion of neutron into proton
(3) Energy is released due to de-excitation of nucleus
(4) None of these
16) Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. A, B, C
and D are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process that would release energy is :

(1) C → 2D
(2) A → C + D
(3) A → B + C
(4) B → C + D

17) The binding energy per nucleon for a deuteron and an α-particle are x1 and x2 respectively. The
energy (Q) released in the reaction is :

(1) 2(x2 – x1)

(2) 2(x1 + x2)
(3) 4(x1 + x2)
(4) 4(x2 – x1)

18) The energy band diagrams for three semiconductor samples of silicon are as shown. We can then

assert that

sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been doped with a third group and a fifth
(1)
group impurity respectively
(2) sample X is undoped while both samples Y and Z have been doped with a fifth group impurity
sample X has been doped with equal amounts of third and fifth group impurities while samples
(3)
Y and Z are undoped
sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been doped with a fifth group and a third
(4)
group impurity respectively

19) Electrical conductivities of germanium (Ge) and Silver (Ag) are σ1 and σ2 respectively. If these
substances are heated then :-

(1) σ1 decreases and σ2 increases

(2) both σ1 and σ2 decreases
(3) both σ1 and σ2 increases
(4) σ1 increases and σ2 decreases

20) Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations to 1.5 × 1016 m–3.
Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 × 1022 m–3. The doped semiconductor is of :-
 9 –3
(1) p-type, having elecron concentrations ne = 5 × 10 m
22 –3
(2) n-type, with electron concentration ne = 5 × 10 m
10 –3
(3) P-type, with electron concentration ne = 2.5 × 10 m
23 –3
(4) n-type, with electron concentration ne=2.5 × 10 m

21) When the conductivity of a semiconductor is only due to breaking of covalent bonds, the
semiconductor is called :

(1) Intrinsic
(2) Extrinsic
(3) P-type
(4) N-type

22) An n-type and a p-type semiconductor can be obtained by doping pure silicon with :-

(1) sodium and magnesium respectively

(2) phosphorus and boron respectively
(3) boron and phosphorus respectively
(4) indium and sodium respectively

23) Which statement is correct :-

(1) N-type germanium is negatively charged and P-type germanium is positively charged
(2) Both N-type and P-type germanium are neutral
(3) N-type germanium is positively charged and P-type germanium is negatively charged
(4) Both N-type and P-type germanium are negatively charged

24) GaAs (with a band gap = 1.5 eV) as an LED can emit :-

(1) Blue light

(2) Green light
(3) Ultraviolet rays
(4) Infrared rays

25) In the given figure, which of the diodes are forward biased ?
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, d, e
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, c, d

26) In the given circuit, the diode has a forward resistance of 8 Ω and infinite reverse resistance. The

value of R is :-

(1) 44 Ω
(2) 48 Ω
(3) 16 Ω
(4) 8 Ω

27) When a silicon PN junction is in forward biased condition with series resistance, it has knee
voltage of 0.6 V. Current flow in it is 5 mA, when PN junction is connected with 2.6V battery, the
value of series resistance is :-

(1) 100 Ω
(2) 200 Ω
(3) 400 Ω
(4) 500 Ω

28) A light emitting diode (LED) has a voltage drop of 2 V across it and passes a current of 10 mA,
when it is operated with a 6 V battery through a limiting resistor R. The value of R is :
(1) 100 Ω
(2) 200 Ω
(3) 400 Ω
(4) 600 Ω

29) For a logic gate A & B are input and C is output voltage waveform, then logic gate is :-

(1) OR
(2) AND
(3) NOR
(4) NAND

30) The following configuration of gates is equivalent to :–

(1) NAND
(2) OR
(3) XOR
(4) NOR

31)

(1) Y = A.B
(2) Y =
(3)
(4)

32) The combination of gates shown below yields:-

(1) XOR gate
(2) NAND gate
(3) OR gate
(4) NOT gate

33) Find VAB -

(1) 10 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 30 V
(4) None of these

34) In the following circuit find I1 and I2.

(1) 0, 0
(2) 5 mA, 5mA
(3) 5 mA, 0
(4) 0, 5 mA

35) Resistivity of N-type germanium crystal is 6 Ωm. Velocity of electron per unit electric field is 0.8
(SI unit). Number density of charge carrier is:-

(1) 1.3 × 1018/m3

(2) 2.6 × 1018/m3
(3) 5.2 × 1016/m3
(4) 7.8 × 1018/m3

36) Minimum how many NOR gates are required to from a AND gate :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Avalanche breakdown in a PN junction diode is due to :-

(1) Sudden shift to Fermi level

(2) Increase in the width of forbidden gap
(3) Sudden increase of impurity concentration
(4) Cumulative effect of increased electron collision and creation of added electron hole pairs

38) What is the energy gap in Si semiconductor ?

(1) 4.4 eV
(2) 0.3 eV
(3) 0.7 eV
(4) 1.1 eV

39) In the circuit shown in figure the maximum output voltage V0 is

(1) 0 V
(2) 5 V
(3) 10 V

(4)

40) In a P-N junction diode if P region is heavily doped than n region then the depletion layer is

(1) Greater in P region

(2) Greater in N region
(3) Equal in both region
(4) No depletion layer is formed in this case

41) The diagram of a logic circuit is given below. The output F of the circuit is represented by :-

(1) W.(X + Y)
(2) W. (X . Y)
(3) W + (X . Y)
(4) W + (X + Y)

42) In figure V0 is the potential barrier across a p-n junction, when no battery is connected across

the junction

(1) 1 and 3 both correspond to forward bias of junction

(2) 3 corresponds to forward bias of junction and 1 corresponds to reverse bias of junction
(3) 1 corresponds to forward bias and 3 corresponds to reverse bias of junction.
(4) 3 and 1 both correspond to reverse bias of junction.

43) The probability of electrons to be found in the conduction band of an intrinsic semiconductor at
a finite temperature

(1) Decrease exponentially with increasing band gap

(2) Increase exponentially with incrasing band gap
(3) Decrease with increasing temperature
(4) Is independent of the temperature and the band gap

44) What is the current through an ideal p-n junction diode shown in figure below :-

(1) Zero
(2) 10 mA
(3) 20 mA
(4) 50 mA

45) Find output wave form :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Correct match among the following are

(a) Stability order

(b) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 Bond strength
(c) OF2 < OCl2 < OBr2 Bond angle
(d) I¯ > Br¯ > Cl¯ Reducing Power
(1) a, b, d
(2) b, d
(3) a, c, d
(4) All of these

2) Reaction of thionyl chloride with white phosphorus forms a compound [A], which on hydrolysis
gives [B], a dibasic acid. [A] and [B] are respectively

(1) P4O6 and H3PO3

(2) PCl3 and H3PO3
(3) PCl5 and H3PO4
(4) POCl3 and H3PO4

3) An oxyacid among the following that contains both P-OH and P-P bonds simultaneously is :-

(1) H4P2O5
(2) H4P2O7
(3) H4P2O6
(4) None of the above

4) Which of the following statement is true on the basis of back bonding ?

(1) Si-O bond is stronger than C–O bond

(2) Dimethyl ether acts as a better lewis base but not disilyl ether (SiH3-O-SiH3)
(3) (CH3)3C–O–H is less acidic than (CH3)3Si-OH
(4) All of these

5) Order of stability of halogen oxides :-

(1) I < Cl < Br

(2) I > Cl > Br
(3) I < Cl > Br
(4) I > Cl < Br

6) BCl3 does not exist as dimer but BH3 exist as dimer (B2H6) because :-

(1) Chlorine is more electronegative than hydrogen

(2) There is pπ-pπ back bonding in BCl3 but BH3 does not contain such bonding
Large sized chlorine atoms do not fit between the small boron atoms whereas small sized
(3)
hydrogen atoms get fitted between boron atoms.
(4) None of these

7) P–O–P bond is absent in :-

(1) Dimetaphosphoric acid

(2) Pyro phosphorous acid
(3) Cyclic trimetaphosphoric acid
(4) Hypo phosphorous acid

8) Number of peroxide linkage in CrO5, H2SO5, H2S2O8 are respectively :-

(1) 2, 1, 2
(2) 2, 2, 2
(3) 1, 1, 1
(4) 2, 1, 1

9) Find the incorrect match :-

(1) Al2Cl6 : 3c-4e bond is present

3
(2) Al2(CH3)6 : All carbon atoms are sp hybridised
(3) I2Cl6 : Nonplanar
(4) B2H6 : Nonpolar

10) Which of the following order is not correct:-

(1) HI > HF > HBr > HCl melting point

(2) HF > HI > HBr > HCl boiling point
(3) HF < HCl < HBr < HI pKa
(4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI reducing strength

11) Which of the following compound is used for estimation of CO ?

(1) I2O5
(2) KI+H2O
(3) I2
(4) C 2O6

12) In which of the following reaction, product are not correctly matched ?

(1) HNO3(aq.)+P4O10(s) → N2O3

(2) NH4Cl → NH3+HCl
(3) Ca3P2+6H2O → 2PH3+3Ca(OH)2
(4) NH4Cl(aq) + NaNO2(aq.) → N2 + 2H2O + NaCl

13) Inert gases are least reactive due to :-

(1) Completely filled valence shell electronic configuration

(2) High ionisation energy
(3) More positive electron gain enthalpy.
(4) All of these

14) Which of the following is covalent carbide?

(1) CaC2
(2) Al4C3
(3) SiC
(4) Be2C

15) Which of the following halides cannot be hydrolysed?

(1) TeF6
(2) SF6
(3) PCl5
(4) PCl3

16) The point of dissimilarity between (SO3)3 and (HPO3)3 (cyclic trimer) is :-

(1) Both have six membered ring.

(2) Both contain central atom in same hybridisation.
(3) Both have equal π bonds
(4) Both are isoelectronic

17) Which of following gives only basic product on hydrolysis ?

(1) PCl5
(2) NCl3
(3) Mg3N2
(4) SO2

18) pπ–dπ bonding is not formed between oxygen and

(1) Phosphours in P4O10

(2) Nitrogen in N2O5
(3) Chlorine in HClO4
(4) Chlorine in anionic part of solid Cl2O6

19) Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) XeF2 and XeF4 ⇒ Non polar but planar.

+ –
(2) XeF6 ⇒ exists in solid state as XeF5 and F
3 2
(3) XeOF4 ⇒ sp d , square pyramidal shape, all identical B.L.
(4) XeO3 ⇒ pyramidal, all bond angles are identical.

20) Total number of lone pair of electron and P–O–P linkage present in dimer of P2O5 are :-

(1) 16, 4
(2) 20, 6
(3) 22, 6
(4) 30, 4

21) Incorrect statement for H2SO4 is :-

(1) High volatile

(2) Strong acidic character
(3) Dehydrating agent
(4) Oxidising agent

22) In layer test of I– and Br–. If reddish -brown layer comes first then :-

(1) Br– present

(2) I– absent
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

23) The hybridization states of boron and nitrogen in borazole are respectively :-

(1) sp, sp
(2) sp, sp2
(3) sp2, sp2
(4) sp2, sp3

24) Which of the following option is not correct ?

(1) CO + H2 – Water gas/syn gas

(2) CO + N2 – Producer gas
(3) Catenation tendency – C << Si < Ge << Sn
(4) Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odourless gas

25) Assertion : Except CCl4 other tetrachlorides are easily hydrolysed by water.
Reason : During hydrolysis the central atom can accommodate the lone pair of electrons from
oxygen atom of water molecule in d-orbital.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

26)

Which is not easily precipitated from aqueous solution

(1) Cl–
2–
(2) SO4
–
(3) NO3
2–
(4) CO3

27) Statement-1 : Brown ring test can be done for NO3– in presence of NO2–.
Statement-2 : Oxidation state of iron is changing from +2 to +1 in the brown ring complex.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

28) Statement-I :- In presence of NO2– test of NO3– can be done.

Statement-II :- Brown colour of Br2 and NO2 can be distinguish By using aqueous solution Because
Br2 impart Brown colour in aqueous solution but NO2 does not.

(1) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True

(2) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is False
(3) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is False
(4) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is True

29) An inorganic salt gives colourless, pungent smelling gas, when reacted with conc. H2SO4. The
evolved pungent smelling gas gives dense white fumes with a glass rod dipped in NH4OH. The anion
of salt may be

2–
(1) CO3
–
(2) NO3
(3) Br–
(4) Cl–

30) A compound (X) on decomposition gives a colourless gas. The residue is dissolved in water to
obtain (Y). Excess CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of (Y) and (Z) is formed. (Z) upon gentle
heating gives back (X). The (X) is :

(1) CaCO3
(2) Ca(HCO3)2
(3) NaHCO3
(4) Na2CO3

31) The colour developed when sodium sulphide is added to sodium nitroprusside is :

(1) violet
(2) yellow
(3) red
(4) black

32)
In above paragraph colour of 'P' is :

(1) Black
(2) Yellow
(3) Reddish Brown
(4) Pink

33) Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F
if it is false :
(i) Cu+ undergoes disproportionation of Cu and Cu2+ in aqueous solution.
(ii) H2S does not impart sodium Nitro Prusside Test.
(iii) Sulphide ions react with sodium nitroprusside to form a purple coloured complex. In this
reaction, oxidation state of iron changes.

(1) TFT.
(2) TTF
(3) TFF
(4) FTT
34) An aqueous solution of gas (X) turns red litmus paper into blue ; then gas will be :

(1) SO2
(2) NO2
(3) NH3
(4) CO2

35) Which of the following anions will give same colour of gas ?

(1) , I⊖
(2) , CH3COO–
(3) , Br⊖, I⊖
(4) , Br⊖

36) Which of the following anions are identified by dil. H2SO4 ?

(i) (ii) (iii)
⊖
(iv) (v) I (vi)

(1)

(2) , I⊖,
(3)
(4)

37) Which of the following ion gives a suffocating gas when treated with dilute HCl ?

(1) Carbonate
(2) Sulphite
(3) Sulphate
(4) Borate

38) A gas is obtained by addition of dil H2SO4 to a mixture which turns lead acetate paper black. It is
:

(1) SO2
(2) CO2
(3) H2S
(4) NO2

39) The compound present in borax bead is

(1) B2O3
(2) NaBO2
(3) NaBO3
(4) NaBO2 + B2O3

40) Which of the following cationic radical give green ppt. with NH4OH + NH4Cl :

(1) Al+3
(2) Sb+3
(3) Cu+2
(4) Cr+3

41) Which of the following white ppt soluble in hot water :

(1) AgCl
(2) Hg2Cl2
(3) PbCl2
(4) All of these

42) Dil. HCl + H2S is the group reagent of :

(1) Ist group

(2) IInd group
(3) IIIrd group
(4) IVth group

43) In the precipitation of the iron group in qualitative analysis, ammonium chloride is added before
adding ammonium hydroxide to :

(1) decrease concentration of OH– ions

(2) prevent interference by phosphate ions
(3) increase concentration of Cl– ions
+
(4) increase concentration of NH4 ions

44) H2S on passing through ammoniacal solution gives white ppt. The white ppt. is of :

(1) CoS
(2) NiS
(3) MnS
(4) ZnS

45) Few drops of HNO3 are added to group-II before proceeding to group-III in order to :

(1) convert Fe2+ to Fe3+

(2) convert Fe3+ to Fe2+
(3) ppt. group III
(4) None of these
 BIOLOGY

1) A molecule that act as genetic material, should have all the following characteristics, except

(1) It should be able to generate its replica

(2) It should provide scope for slow changes
(3) It should be unstable chemically and structurally
(4) It should be able to express itself in the form of "Mendelian Characters"

2) Given below are the main steps of Hershey and chase experiment. Arrange these steps in a
correct sequence.
(A) Blending
(B) Infection
(C) Centrifugation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) B, A, C
(2) C, A, B
(3) C, B, A
(4) B, C, A

3) Assertion: DNA acts as the genetic material in most of the organisms.

Reason: DNA is chemically and structurally a stable molecule; it has the power of replication.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
(1)
the assertion.
Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of
(2)
the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

4) Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins hence can easily express the characters.
(2) Viruses having DNA genome and having shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
(3) For the transmission of genetic information, RNA is better.
(4) Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate.

5) __A__ group present at every nucleotide in RNA is a reactive group and makes RNA __B__ and
__C__.
Choose the correct option regarding fill in the blanks A, B and C.

A B C

(1) 3'OH labile easily degradable

(2) 2'OH labile easily degradable

 (3) 2'OH stable non-degradable

(4) 5'OH stable easily degradable

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Read the given following statements :

(a) Debate between proteins versus DNA as the genetic material was unequivocally resolved from
Hershey-Chase experiment.
(b) It become an established fact that it is DNA that act as genetic material
(c) However, it subsequently become clear that in some viruses, RNA is the genetic material
(d) Because of rule of base pairing and complementarity, both the nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) have
the ability to direct their duplications.
(e) The genetic material should be stable enough not be change with different stages of life cycle,
age or with change in physiology of the organism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (b), (d), (e)

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
(3) (a), (c), (e)
(4) (a), (c)

7) Which characters provides additional stability to DNA over RNA ?

(1) Presence of 2'-OH group at every nucleotide.

(2) Absence of 2'-OH group at every nucleotide.
(3) Presence of thymine at the place of uracil.
(4) Both 2 and 3

8) Match the entries in column-I with those of column-II and choose the correct answer :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Unanbiguous (i) The codon is read in a contiguous fashion

(b) Commaless (ii) One codon specifies only one amino acid

Most of the amino acid can be coded by

(c) Degeneracy (iii)
more than one codon.

A codon composed of three adjacent

(d) Non-overlapping (iv)
nitrogen bases

A nitrogen base is a constituent of only one

(v)
codon.
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-v
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-ii
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-v

9) Select incorrect statement regarding "untranslated regions" ?

(1) It is present on mRNA

(2) It is part of ribosome
(3) Helps in process of translation
(4) It is present on 5' end and 3' end

10) Which term is not associated with human genome project ?

(1) Expressed sequence tag

(2) Single nucleotide polymorphism
(3) Sequence Annotation
(4) Variable number of tendem repeats

11)
(A) Histone octamer is made up of 5 types of Histone protein
(B) A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA Helix
(C) Histones are organised to form a unit of eight molecules called as histone octamer
(D) The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a
structure called nucleosome.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

12) Which of the given is not used during DNA replication on template strand with polarity 3'→5' ?
(a) Ribonucleoside triphosphate
(b) deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate.
(c) RNA primer
(d) DNA polymerase

(1) only a
(2) b
(3) only c
(4) a, b, d
13)

In prokaryotes, predominant site for control of gene expression is :-

(1) Control of the rate of translation initiation level.

(2) Control of the rate of transcription initiation level.
(3) Control of transport of mRNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm.
(4) Control of processing of primary transcript.

14) A translation unit is -

(1) Sequence of DNA that is flanked by the start codon (AUG) and stop codon.
(2) Sequence of RNA that is flanked by promotor and terminator.
(3) Sequence of DNA that is flanked by promotor and terminator.
In mRNA, a sequence of RNA that is flanked by the start condon (AUG) and the stop codon and
(4)
codes for a polypeptide.

15) The process of transcription initiates when-

(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase reaches at the transcription start site.
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase binds to promotor.
(3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase binds to promotor.
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase binds to promotor.

16) During the process of transcription elongation :-

(1) Whole RNA remain bound with DNA by H-bonding.

(2) Half of RNA remain bound with DNA by H-bonding.
(3) Only a short stretch of RNA remains bound to the enzyme RNA polymerase.
(4) Whole RNA remain bound with the enzyme RNA polymerase.

17) Best evidence of RNA was the first genetic material is :-

(1) RNA mutate at faster rate.

(2) RNA is chemically less reactive and structurally more stable.
RNA dependent processes such as metabolism, translation splicing etc. shows dominance of
(3)
RNA world.
(4) RNA being catalyst is reactive and hence unstable.

18) The RNA polymerase is capable of catalysing the process of :-

(1) Elongation alone

(2) Initiation with initiation factor ρ(Rho).
(3) Termination with termination factor σ (sigma).
(4) All of the above

19) At the end of translation process :-

(1) Termination factor binds to the stop codon and termination occurs.
Termination factor binds to the stop codon and release of complete polypeptide from the
(2)
ribosome occurs.
Release factor binds to the stop codon and terminating translation and releasing of complete
(3)
polypeptide from the ribosome.
(4) Release factor do not allow to bind last tRNA with stop codon and termination occurs.

20) Satellite DNA is classified into many categories such as micro-satellite, mini-satellite etc., this
classification.

Depending on Base composition

(1)
[A.T. Rich or G.C. Rich]
(2) Length of segment
(3) Number of Reptative units
(4) All of the above

21) Which of the following is the another challenging task of Human genome project ?

(1) Assigning genetic maps only.

(2) Assigning genetic and physical maps on the genome.
(3) Assigning physical maps only.
(4) Amplification of DNA.

22) Which of the following statement is not correct with respect to Lac operon ?

(1) In Lac operon all those genes are involved which are responsible for metabolism of Lactose.
(2) It is a prototype operon in Eukaryotes.
(3) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.
(4) This regulation can also be viewed as regulation of enzyme synthesis by its substrate.

23) How many statements are correct ?

(A) DNA in human is double stranded.
(B) DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.
(C) DNA has negative charge because of phosphate group.
(D) Histene octamer has negative charge on it.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

24) Match column-I & II & choose the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

DNA
(A) (i) RNA polymerase
replication
 (B) transcription (ii) DNA polymerase

(C) Splicing (iii) Peptidal transferase

(D) Translation (iv) RNA ligase

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) A B C D

(2) B A C D

(3) B A D C

(4) B C D A
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Assertion (A): On template 5' – 3' DNA replicate in discontinuous manner.
Reason (R): DNA polymerase catalyse polymerisation only in one direction that is 5' – 3'.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) Given diagram is the representation of a certain event or stage of protein synthesis, identify this
stage

(1) Termination of translation process in bacteria

(2) Termination of transcription process in eukaryotes
(3) Termination of transcription process in bacteria
(4) Termination of translation process in eukaryotes

27) Which of the following step is incorrect w.r.t. DNA fingerprinting?

(1) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis

(2) Isolation of DNA
(3) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
(4) Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by ultracentrifugation

28) Which one of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t. human genomics?
(1) Less than 2 percent of the genome codes for protein
(2) Both largest and smallest genes are allosomal
(3) All human populations are genomically identical except different in bases
(4) Simply sequencing whole set of genome that contained introns an exons is blind approach

29) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option.
(a) Lac operon is good example for polycistronic regulation.
(b) Every operon of a prokaryotic cell can be regulated by inducible method only.
(c) The codon in mRNA is read in a contiguous fashion.
(d) RNA polymerase-III is responsible for transcription of 5srRNA, 23srRNA, snRNA and tRNA.

(1) Both c and d are correct

(2) All are correct, except b
(3) All are correct, except d
(4) Both a and c are correct

30) Number of genes associated with chromosome-1 in human beings is

(1) 231
(2) 30000
(3) 2968
(4) 3000

31) The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively:

(1) Chromosome 21 and Y

(2) Chromosome 1 and X
(3) Chromosome 1 and Y
(4) Chromosome X and Y

32)

How many of the following statements are incorrect w.r.t Repetitive sequences in human DNA?
(a) These sequences are basis of genetic mapping as well as DNA finger printing.
(b) Arise due to mutations
(c) Required for chromosome structure, dynamics and evolution
(d) The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as micro - satellite

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

33) Blotting technique involves transfer of DNA from

(1) Membrane to gel

(2) Gel to synthetic membrane
(3) Nylon to x-ray
(4) gel to natural membrane

34) Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Non-histone chromosomal proteins (i) Nucleotide polymerisation

(b) Severo Ochoa enzyme (ii) High degree of polymorphism

(c) H2A, H2B protein (iii) Involved in packaging of chromatin

(d) VNTR (iv) Present in Nucleosome

(1) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii
(2) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii
(3) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii
(4) a - i, b - iii, c - iv, d - ii

35) Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to

(1) All genes that are expressed as proteins.

(2) All genes whether expressed or unexpressed.
(3) Certain important expressed genes.
(4) All genes that are expressed as RNA.

36)

__ A___ are locations where single base DNA differences occur in human genome. Here 'A' is

(1) SNP
(2) NHC proteins
(3) mRNA
(4) UTRs

37) Insertion or deletion of three or its multiple bases insert or delete in one or multiple codon.
Hence one or multiple amno acids and the reading frame remains

(1) Unaltered from that point onwards

(2) Altered from that point onwards
(3) Altered before and after mutation point
(4) Same number of bases present even after mutation

38) In gene regulation, the regulatory proteins can act as

(1) Positively (Activators)

(2) Negatively (Repressors)
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Inducer

39) Mark the ‘incorrect’ match :-

(1) Friedrich Meischer [1869] : Identified DNA as an acidic substance & name nuclein
(2) James Watson and Francis Crick [1953] : Proposed double helix model of DNA
(3) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin : X-ray diffraction study of DNA
Erwin chargaff : A : T = 1 : 1
(4)
G : C = 1 : 1 for a double stranded DNA as well as single stranded DNA.

40) How many statements are incorrect ?

(a) By 1926, the quest to determine the mechanism for genetic inheritance reached the molecular
level.
(b) Biochemical nature of genetic material was not defined from Grififth’s experiment.
(c) Avery, Mac Leod and Mc carty worked to determine the biochemical nature of transforming
principle and concluded that DNA is the hereditary material but not all biologists were convinced.
(d) Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of Alfred Hershey
and Martha Chase [1952]
(e) Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, Colin Mac Leod and Maclyn Mc Carty [1933 to 1944], the
genetic material was thought of be Lipid.

(1) a, b & e
(2) Only ‘e’ is incorrect
(3) b & e
(4) b, c & e

41) Which of the following is not related with Griffith’s Transformation experiment ?

(1) Organism – Streptococcus pneumoniae

(2) Year – 1928
(3) S-Strain – Pneumonia
(4) R-Strain–Polysaccharide coat

42) When lactose is present :-

(1) The repressor is able to bind to the operator

(2) The repressor is unable to bind to the operator
(3) Transcription of lac y, lac z and lac A genes occurs
(4) Both (2) and (3) are correct

43) In the presence of an inducer, such as ....A.... or ....B...., the repressor is inactivated by
interaction with .....C..... . This allows RNA polymerase access to the promoter and .....D..... proceeds.
Complete the given statement by filling the correct option in the given blanks.

A-glucose, B-galactose, C-inducer,

(1)
D-transcription
A-lactose, B-galactose, C-inducer,
(2)
D-transcription
 A-lactose, B-allolactose, C-inducer,
(3)
D-transcription
A-galactose, B-glucose, C-inducer,
(4)
D-transcription

44) A very low level of expression of lac operon has to be present in the cell all the time, otherwise:-

(1) Glucose can't enter the cells

(2) Water can't enter the cells
(3) Ions can't enter the cells
(4) Lactose can't enter the cells

45) Amino acids which are specified by single codons are :

(1) phenylalanine and arginine

(2) tryptophan and methionine
(3) valine and proline
(4) methionine and arginine

46) Which of the following hotspot not present in India ?

(1) Western ghat and Srilanka

(2) Himalaya
(3) Eastern ghat
(4) Indo-Burma

47) The Abingdon tortoise in galapagos island became extinct within decade after goats were
introduced on the island is the example of :-

(1) Competitive release

(2) Resource partitioning
(3) Competitive exclusion
(4) Interference competition

48) In aquatic and terrestrial ecosystem which food chain is major conduit energy for energy flow
respectively ?

(1) DFC, GFC

(2) GFC, PFC
(3) GFC, DFC
(4) PFC, DFC

49) Plant → Rabbit → Wolf → Lion

In above food chain if plant produce 1000 Kcal energy during photosynthesis than how much amount
of energy available for wolf in given food chain:-

(1) 10 kcal
(2) 1 kcal
(3) 100 kcal
(4) 0.1 kcal

50) The trophic level of cuscuta is :-

(1) Decomposer
(2) Primary consumer
(3) Secondary consumer
(4) Primary producer

51) Sun Grass → Grasshoppers → Frog → Snake

If 1.0% solar energy is trapped by producers then how much energy will be available to snake in the
given food chain?

(1) 2 J
(2) 0.02 J
(3) 0.2 J
(4) 20 J

52) Which of the following is a correct equation for logistic growth curve :-

(1)
rt
(2) Nt = N0e

(3)

(4)

53) Which of the following statement incorrect about decomposition ?

(1) Decomposition is largely an oxygen-requiring process.

(2) Decomposition rate is quicker if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
(3) Warm and moist environment favour decomposition.
Temperature and soil moisture are the most important climatic factors that regulate
(4)
decomposition.

54) Why some plant produce Nicotine, Caffeine, Quinine, strychnine.

(a) Because these substance are extract by humans for commercial benefit
(b) For defences against grazers and browsers
(c) These play a major role in many ecosystem services that nature provides.
(d) To attract pollinators

(1) a, b, c
(2) Only b, d
(3) b, c
(4) Only b

55) Which statement is incorrect ?

(1) Trophic level represent functional level not a species as such

(2) A same species may occupy more than one trophic level in same ecosystem at same time
(3) In most ecosystem, pyramids of number, or energy and biomass are upright
(4) Energy at higher trophic level is more as compared to lower levels as they are physically strong

56) A population has certain attributes that an individual organism does not, like :-
(a) birth (b) birth rate
(c) death rate (d) sex ratio

(1) a and d
(2) a and b
(3) b, c and d
(4) c and d

57) Match the following

(a) Breeding once in life (i) Mammals

(b) Breeding several time in life (ii) Oysters

(c) Large number of small size offspring (iii) most of birds

(d) Small number of large size offspring (iv) Pacific fish salmon
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

58) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: In brood parasitism, the host bird lays its eggs in the nest of its parasitic bird.
Statement 2: During the course of evolution, the eggs of host bird have evolved to resemble the
eggs of parasitic birds in size and not in colour.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Only statement-2 is correct
(3) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

59) Which adaptation of parasite help to sustain their life in host body
(A) Loss of unnecessary sense organ
(B) Presence of adhesive organ or suckers to cling on the host.
(C) Loss of digestive system
(D) Low reproductive capacity
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only A and C
(3) A, B, C only
(4) A, B, C and D

60) How many statements are correct ?

(a) Net primary productivity is available biomass for consumption to heterotrops
(b) Secondary productivity is defined as rate of formation of new organic matter by heterotrophs
(c) The annual net primary productivity of ocean is greater than land
(d) Warm and moist environment favours decomposition

(1) abcd
(2) abc
(3) abd
(4) ac

61) Stratification is :-

(1) Identification and enumeration of plant and animal species of an ecosystem

(2) Species composition
(3) Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels
(4) Active nature of all the components of the ecosystem as a unit

62) Primary productivity depends on the :-

(1) Plant species inhabiting in that particular area

(2) Variety of environmental factors
(3) Availability of nutrients and photosynthetic capacity of plants
(4) All of these

63) Which must be preserved in an ecosystem if the system is to be maintained :

(1) Producers and carnivores

(2) Producers and decomposers
(3) Carnivores and decomposers
(4) Herbivores and carnivores

64) (i) Sacred groves

(ii) Hot spots
(iii) National park
(iv) Wild life safari park
(v) Seed bank
(vi) Biosphere reserve
(a) i, ii, iii, vi and the example of insitu conservation
(b) iv, v are the example of Ex-situ conservation
(c) ii, iv, v are the example of Ex–situ conservation
(d) i, ii, iii, iv, vi are the example of insitu conservation

(1) a, b is correct
(2) a, c is correct
(3) c, d is correct
(4) a, d is correct

65) Match the column I and II

Column-I Column-II
Global animal
(a) (i) 1, 200
diversity (%)
Global plant
(b) (ii) 8.1
diversity (%)
Species diversity
(c) (iii) 22
in India (%)
Bird species
(d) (iv) 70
diversity in India
(1) (a)-iii, (b)-iv, (c)-i, (d)-ii
(2) (a)-iv, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-i
(3) (a)-iv, (b)-iii, (c)-ii, (d)-i
(4) (a)-iii, (b)-ii, (c)-i, (d)-iv

66) How many statements are incorrect ?

(a) Predators also help in maintaining species diversity in a community.
(b) Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process
(c) Number of trophic levels in GFC is never restricted
(d) Some of organisms of DFC are prey to GFC animals

(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) None

67) Identify the correct match.

Column I Column II
Egret bird and
(a) (i) Protocooperation
cattle
Orchid and
(b) (ii) Sexual deceit
ophrys
Fitness of both
(c) species (iii) Commensalism
decreased
Sea anemone
(d) (iv) Competition
and hermit crab
(1) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii
(2) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i
(3) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
(4) a–iv, b–ii, c–i, d–iii

68) Match the column I with column II

A B
(a) Over exploitation (i) Amazon forest
(b) Co-extinction (ii) Lantana, Eicchornia
(c) Habitat loss (iii) Plant-Pollinaior
Alien species Stellers sea cow,
(d) (iv)
invasions Passenger pigeon

Option :
(1) a – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii
(2) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
(3) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
(4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv

69) Read the statements (A-C) given below and select the correct option.
A. India has 14 biosphere reserves, 90 national parks and 440 wildlife sanctuaries.
B. Biodiversity hot spots are regions with high level of species richness and high degree of
endemism.
C. Nile perch and Clarias gariepinus are exotic species causing indigenous biodiversity loss.

(1) Both A and C are incorrect

(2) Both B and C are correct
(3) Both A and B are incorrect
(4) All A, B and C are correct

70) Select the odd one w.r.t ex-situ conservation strategy.

(1) Wildlife safari parks

(2) Botanical gardens
(3) Cryopreservation
(4) Wildlife sanctuaries

71) The rate of formation of new tissue by producer in an ecosystem known as :

(1) GPP
(2) NPP
(3) GSP
(4) NSP

72) Which of the following is the most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction?
(1) Over-exploitation
(2) Alien species invasions
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) Co-extinction

73)
Above given graph showing interaction between two species A and B. Identify the interaction
between them :

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Competition
(4) Amensalism

74) The carrying capacity of a population is determined by its :

(1) Limiting resources

(2) Natality
(3) Mortality
(4) Population Growth Rate

75) Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. pattern of biodiversity.

(1) Species diversity decreases as we move away from equator to poles

(2) India with much of its land in tropics, have more than 1,200 species of amphibians
(3) Tropical Amazonian rain forest in south America has the greatest biodiversity on earth
(4) Colombia has large number of bird species as compared to New York

76) Which one of the following ecosystem has the highest primary productivity :

(1) Pond ecosystem

(2) Lake ecosystem
(3) Grassland ecosystem
(4) Forest ecosystem

77) Which one is correct :-

I II
Formation of dark
(1) coloured amorphous (i) Fragmentation
substance
 Water soluble
(2) nutrients go down into (ii) Humification
the soil horizon
Release of inorganic
(3) nutrient by (iii) Minerlisation
microbial activities
Break down detritus
(4) (iv) Leaching
into smaller particles
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) How many statements are correct :-

(a) Pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted
(b) Pyramid of energy is never inverted
(c) In aquatic ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through detritus food chain
(d) Humus is highly resistant to microbial action.

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

79) The number of individuals in each trophic level depends upon :-

(1) The number of individuals at the higher trophic level

(2) The number of individuals at the lower trophic level
(3) The number of food chains present
(4) The amount of sunlight available

80) If A represent angiosperm while D represent fungi then C :-

(1) Fern & allies

(2) Algae
(3) Lichen
(4) Mosses

81) Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at present because :-

(1) High degree or pollution
(2) High amount of hydrogen
(3) High amount of oxygen
(4) High temperature

82) Charles Darwin concluded that :-

Existing living forms share similarities to varying degree not only among themselves but also
(1)
with life forms that existed of millions of years ago
(2) There was a fast evolution of life forms on earth
(3) Those organisms, who are better fit in an environment leaves less progeny
(4) All of the above

83) In following experiment of Stanly Miller A,B,C are simulation of

A B C

Primitive Hot dilute

(1) Raining
atmosphere soup

Hot dilute Primitive

(2) Raining
soup atmosphere

Primitive Hot dilute

(3) Raining
atmosphere soup

Hot dilute Primitive

(4) Raining
soup atmosphere

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84)
In this picture, Australian marsupials and placental mammals are related with all the following
phenomenon, except one ?

(1) Convergent Evolution

(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Adaptive convergence

85) Which of the following is not an example of homologous organs :-

(1) Flippers of penguin and dolphin

(2) Vertebrates Hearts
(3) Fore limbs of mammals
(4) Thorn of bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbits

86) Consider the following statements regarding the phenomenon shown in the adjacent figure and
select the option with all the correct statement:-
(A) It can be explained on the behalf that the predators spot a moth against a contrasting back
ground.
(B) It shows that in a mixed population, those can better adapt, survive and increase in population
size.
(C) Fig. (a) shows condition in which white winged moth did not survive due to predators and
melanised moth survived.
(D) Fig. (b) shows condition when white coloured lichens that grew on tree trunk became dark due
to industrial smoke.
(E) The count of melanic moth was low in unpolluted area (shown in fig.-a) as most of them migrated
to the polluted area (shown in fig.-b).

(1) A and B
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, D and E
(4) A, B and D

87) Alfred Wallace a naturalist worked on which bland:-

(1) Srilanka
(2) Galapagos
(3) South America
(4) Malay Archepelago

88) What is the main essence of Darwinian theory of evolution ?

(1) Genetic variation

(2) Isolation
(3) Struggle for existence
(4) Natural selection

89) The brain capacity of Neanderthal man was :-

(1) 600 C. C.
(2) 900 C. C.
(3) 1650 C. C.
(4) 1400 C. C.
90) Below given is the diagrammatic representation of sequence of ancestor of human being

evolution identify A, B and C in the given option and choose correct one :-

A B C

(1) Australopithecus Ramapithecus Homo erectus

(2) Ramapithecus Homo erectus Australopithecus

(3) Ramapithecus Australopithecus Homo erectus

(4) Australopithecus Homo erectus Ramapithecus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 1 4 3 3 3 3 1 3 4 3 1 1 3 3 4 4 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 4 2 1 3 3 2 3 2 3 1 4 1 3 4 4 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 3 4 2 3 4 4 3 3 1 1 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 3 3 1 3 4 4 4 1 1 2 1 3 4 3 2 3 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 1 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 1 2 2 2 4 1 2 4 3 2 2 4 2 3 3 1 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 3 1 3 4 3 4 3 3 1 2 2 4 1 1 3 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 3 4 2 3 3 3 1 2 3 3 2 4 4 3 2 4 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 2 1 3 2 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 1 2 4 3 4 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 3 3 1 1 4 4 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

⇒
⇒ r2 = 6 × 10–15 m

2) When electron jump from lower to higher energy level, energy absorbed so statement-I
incorrect.
When electron jump from higher to lower energy level, energy of emitted photon E = E2 – E1

hf = E2 – E1 ⇒
so statement-II is correct.

3) Binding energy of A = ΔMAc2

Binding energy of B = ΔMBc2
Binding energy of C = ΔMCc2
The nuclear reaction is given by A + B → C energy released,
ΔE = BE of C – (BE of A + BE of B)
=

= ΔMC – (ΔMA + ΔMB)

ΔMA + ΔMB = ΔMC –

4)

5)

6)

7)
The series is partly in the visible region and partly in ultraviolet region

8) For A(n1 = 1, n2 = ∞) → Series limit of Lyman series

For B(n1 = 1, n2 = 5) → 3rd spectral line of Balmer series
For C(n1 = 3, n2 = 5) → 2nd spectral line of Paschen series

9) Nuclei having same neutrons, called isotones

10) 0n1 → 1P1 + -β0 + +Q

11) No energy and mass enters or goes out of the system of the reaction and no external force
is assumed to act.

12) E = mc2 m should be in kg

m = 1 × 10 × 10 kg = 10–10 kg
–7 –3

E = 10–10 × 9 × 10–16 Joule = 9 × 106 Jule

13)

14) For He-atom, the energy levels are

Only possibility of photon of 10.2 eV is from

K=4 → K=2
⇒ 4n = 4
⇒n=1

15)

Energy is released due to de-excitation of nucleus

16) B.E of products > BE of reactants

17)

is 1H2 → x1 and 2He4 → x2

Q = 4x2 – 4x1 = 4(x2 – x1)

18)

Sample x :- an intrinsic semi-conductor impurity level is not shown. Hence it is not doped.
Sample y :- an n type semi conductor because the impurity energy level lies just below the
conduction band. It is doped with fifth group impurity
Sample z :- a p type semi conductor because the impurity energy level lies just above valence
bond and it is doped with a third group impurity
Answer :- 4

19)

Ge → S.C. → T ↑ σ ↑
Ag → conductor → T ↑ σ ↓

20)
= 5 × 109 m–3

21)

By theory

22)

Concept:- P-type and N type semi conductor

Solution :- Phosphorus has 5 valence electrons and when it doped with silicon atom it donates
one extra electron to conduction band creating n type semi conductor
Boron has 3 valence electron and when it dopped with silicon atom it creates a hole, making it
a p-type semiconductor.
Answer :- 2
phosphorus and boron respectively

23)

1. Explain the Question (30 words):

The question asks about the charge state of n-type and p-type germanium semiconductors,
which are doped to increase charge carriers but remain electrically neutral overall.
2. Concept (20 words):
The p-type and n-type semi conductors are formed when the impurity atoms, which themselves
are electrically neutral, are added to pure semiconductor which is also electrically neutral.
Hence the p or n-type semiconductor formed is electrically neutral. The letter pin p-type
semiconductor indicates the majority charge carriers and not the net charge in the
semiconductor. So Option B is correct .

24) infrared ray

25)

(a)
P → Low potential (L.P.) → 0V
N → High potential (H.P.) → 5V
So, D → R.B.

(b)
P → 10V (H.P.)
N → 5V (L.P.)
So, D → F.B.

(c)
P → –10V (L.P.)
N → 0V (H.P.)
So, D → R.B.

(d)
P → –5V (H.P.)
N → –12V (L.P.)
So, D → F.B.

(e)
P → 0V (H.P.)
N → –10V (L.P.)
So, D → F.B.
So, (b), (d), (e) are forward biased.

26) 6 = 0.125 (R + 4) ⇒ R = 44 Ω ∵ combination of diode , 16 Ω and 16 Ω is 4Ω

27)

∴R=
R = 400 Ω

28) Given question is equivalent to the following circuit.

Using KVL, 2 + IR = 6

= 400 KΩ

29) A B C
0 0 0
1 1 1 ← AND gate
0 1 0
1 0 0
since o/p of AND gate is 1 only when both inputs are 1.

30)

= =

31)

32)

OR gate NAND gate

33)
Diode is in forwards biasing hence the circuit can be redrawn as follows :

34) The equivalent circuit can be redrawn as n,

From figure it is clear that current drown from the battery i = i2 = and i1 = 0

35)

36)
(AND ार)

37) Conceptual

38) In 'Si' semiconductor; ΔEg = 1.1 eV.

39) For the positive half cycle of input the resulting network is shown below

40) Depletion layer is more in less doped side.

 41)

F = (W + X). (W + Y)
F = W + W. Y + X . W + X. Y.
F = W (1 + Y + X) + X. Y
= W. 1 + X . Y
= W + X. Y

42)

In F.B. barrier height decreases & In R.B. barrier height increases.

43)

The probability of electrons to be found in the conduction band of an intrinsic semiconductor.

P(E) = where k = Boltzmann's constant

Hence, at a finite temperature, the probability decreases exponentially with increase band gap.

44) Diode is forward Bias so

45) For +10 V input, diode is in F.B. so it will be short circuited and since both resistance are
equal so 10 V equally divide in both 2kΩ
So, output voltage across 2kΩ will be 5V.
For –10V input, D is R.B. So it will be open circuited so output voltage will be zero.

CHEMISTRY

46)

(a) (according to bond order)

(b) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (Bond dissociation energy)
(c) OBr2 > OCl2 > OF2 (Bond angle ∝ size of side atom)
(d) I¯ > Br¯ > Cl¯ (As per E°r values)
47)

48)

Hypophosphoric acid (H4P2O6)

49)

(a) back bonding occurs in Si—O bond

(C) Due to back bonding

50)

Due to greater polarity of bond with iodine it's oxide is more stable with respect to Cl & Br.
Cl forms multiple bonds with Oxygen, hence it's stability will be more so [I > Cl > Br]

51)

BCl3 cannot form dimer due to large size of Cl it do not fit between small size boron atoms.

52)

P—O—P bond is absent in hypo phosphorous acid.

H3PO2
53)

54)

I2Cl6 is planar with 2 LP an each iodine

55)
Highly acidic
So less pKa value
pKa = –11

56)

I2O5 is used in the estimation of carbon monoxide (CO) and gives CO2 and I2.
I2O5 + CO —→ I2(s) + CO2(g)

57)

HNO3 + P4O10 —→ N2O5 + H3PO3

In place of N2O3, N2O5 would be there as shown in the reaction above.

58)

Inert gases are least reactive due to:

1. Completely filled valence shell electronic configuration.
2. High ionisation energy.
3. More positive ΔHeg.

59)

SiC → Silicon Carbide

Or commonly known as carborundum is an covalent carbide and rest are ionic carbide.

60)

SF6 cannot be hydrolysed due to steric repulsion of 6F atom.

61)

62)

Mg3N2 + H2O —→ Mg(OH)2 + NH3

(Both are basic)

63)

64)
→ sp3d2
→ sq. planar shape
→ All bond length are not identical
Xe = O bond is different from other 4 bonds

65)
P—O—P Link = 6
(2 L.P. on each oxygen = 20 L.P.)

66)

H2SO4 is non volatile acid.

It is a strong acid and act as dehydrating agent because it readily protonates H2O.
It act as strong oxidizing agent because in H2SO4 sulphur is present in its maximum oxidation
state (i.e. +6).

67)

Layer test to identify halogens

NaBr + Cl2 —→ Br2 + 2NaCl
NaI + Cl2 —→ I2 + NaCl
Br2 → brown layer
I2 → violet layer

68)

69)

[NCERT-XI, Part-2, Chapter – p–Block [Link]. = 325]

 70)

Asking for:

Determine the correctness of the assertion and reason regarding the hydrolysis of
tetrachlorides, and choose the appropriate option.

Concept:

A. Hydrolysis of covalent halides.

B. Availability of d-orbitals.
C. Steric hindrance.

Formula:

A. Not applicable, but knowledge of hydrolysis reactions and electronic configurations is

required.

Solution / Explanation:

Let's analyze the assertion and reason:

A. Assertion: Except CCl4, other tetrachlorides are easily hydrolyzed by water.

A. This assertin is generally true.
B. SiCl4, GeCl4, SnCl4, and PbCl4 readily hydrlyze with water, while CCl4 des not.

A. Reason: During hydrolysis, the central atom can accommodate the lone pair of electrons from
the oxygen atom of the water molecule in the d-orbital.
A. This reasn is also true.
B. The central atms (Si, Ge, Sn, Pb) in their tetrachlorides have vacant d-orbitals, which
allow them to accept lone pairs from water molecules, facilitating hydrolysis.
C. Carbn, in CCl4, des not have d-orbitals, which is the primary reason it doesn't hydrolyze
easily.

Furthermore, the reason correctly explains why the other tetrachlorides hydrolyze while CCl4 does
not.
Therefore, both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.

71) Question Explanation

Question is asking about the ion that is not easily precipitated from aqueous solution
Concept
This concept based on Precipitation
Solution
The anion that is not easily precipitated from aqueous solution is the nitrate ion (NO₃⁻). Most
nitrate salts are soluble in water, making it difficult to remove them through precipitation.
Final Answer (3)

72) Brown ring test for NO3– is not reliable in the presence of NO2– ion.

73) Question Explanation

Question is asking about correct statement and about their relation
Concept
This concept based on Brown ring test, Test for radicals.
Solution
The common qualitative test for nitrate ions (NO3−​) is the brown ring test. However, nitrite
ions (NO2−​) also produce a brown ring with the reagents used in this test (ferrous sulfate and
concentrated sulfuric acid), and can do so even more readily (sometimes in dilute acid without
concentrated H2​SO4​). This interference means that a direct test for NO3−​ in the presence of
NO2−​ would give a false positive or an ambiguous result for NO3−​.
So statement 1 is false.
By observing the color of the aqueous solution after exposing it to the respective substances
(e.g., bubbling the gases through water), one can distinguish between Br2​ and NO2​. Bromine
will yield a brown (or yellowish-brown) solution, while nitrogen dioxide will yield a colorless
solution as it reacts with the water.
so statement 2 is true
Final Answer (4)

74) Question Explanation

Anion of salt according to given experiment.
Concept
This Questions based on reactions, experiments, Cl– properties
Solution
1. When a salt containing Cl– ion reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid (H2SO4), HCl gas is
evolved NaCl(s) + H2SO4 (conc) → NaHSO4 (s) + HCl(g) ↑
HCl gas → Colouless gas with in ammonium.
2. When a glass rod diffed in ammonium hydroxide (NH4O4) is brought near HCl
gas NH4OH(g) NH3(g) + H2O (ℓ)
HCl + NH3(g) → NH4Cl (dense white fumes)
Final answer : (4)

75) Question Explanation

Question is asking about the X compound
Concept Precipitate , residue , colourless compound
Explanation
CaCO3​(s)Δ​CaO(s) + CO2​(g)CaO (s)+H2​O (l)→Ca(OH)2​ (aq or s)Ca(OH)2​(aq) + 2CO2​(g)→Ca(HCO3
)2​(aq)Ca(OH)2 ​ +CO2 ​→ CaCO3​(s)↓+ H2​CaCO3​(s) + CO2 ​+ H2​O → Ca(HCO3​)2​(aq)Ca(HCO3​)2
​gentle heating​CaCO3​(s)↓+CO2​(g)+H2​O(l)
Final Answer(1)

76) Question Explanation

Question is asking about the colour developed when sodium sulphide is added to sodium
nitroprusside
Concept
The concept based on Colour of the compound
Explanation
When sodium sulphide (Na₂S) is added to sodium nitroprusside, a characteristic deep violet or
purple color develops. Sodium nitroprusside is often used as a reagent to test for sulphide ions
(S²⁻).
Final Answer (1)

77) Question Explanation

Question is asking about colour of 'P' In above paragraph
Concept
The concept based on colour of compound
Explanation

Final Answer (2)

78) Question Explanation

Question is asking about correct and incorrect statement.
Concept
The concept based on Disproportionation, Oxidation state.
Explanation
Cu+ ions spontaneously react to form both Cu(metallic copper) and Cu2+ ions. 2Cu+(aq) →
Cu(s) + Cu2+(aq). So it is true statement Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) impart a purple color in the
sodium nitroprusside test, So it is false statement. The oxidation state of iron does change in
the reaction between sulphide ions and sodium nitroprusside, specifically from +2 to +4. This
reaction results in the formation of a purple-colored complex. So it is true statement.
Final Answer (1)

79) Question Explanation

Question is asking about an aqueous solution of gas (X) that turns red litmus paper into blue.
Concept
The concept based on Litmus paper , Acidic and basic nature.
Explanation
The gas that turns red litmus paper blue when dissolved in water is ammonia (NH₃). Ammonia
is a basic gas, and when dissolved in water, it forms ammonium hydroxide (NH₄OH), which is a
weak base and turns red litmus paper blue.
Final Answer (3)

80) Question Explanation

Question is asking about the anions will give same colour of gas.
Concept
The concept based on Colour of gas , Properties of anions
Explanation
The anions that give the same color of gas (reddish-brown) when reacting with concentrated
sulfuric acid (H2SO4) are bromide (Br-) and nitrate (NO3-) and nitrites (NO2-)
Final Answer (4)

81) Question Explanation

Question is asking about anions that are identified by dil. H2SO4.
Concept
The concept based on Specific test of anions.
Explanation
CO32− ​+ 2H+ → CO2​ ↑ + H2​O (CO2 brisk effervescence)
SO3 ​ + 2H+→ SO2​ ↑ + H2​O (Pungent-smelling of SO₂ gas)
2−

S2​O32− ​+ 2H+ → SO2 ​↑ + S ↓ + H2​O (A white precipitate of sulfur is [Link]₂ gas is evolved
(pungent smell).
Final Answer (3)

82) Question Explanation:

Question is asking about ion gives a suffocating gas when treated with dilute HCI

Concept:
This question is based on Properties of sulfite ion

Solution:
When dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium sulphite Na2SO3, it produces sulphur dioxide
(SO2) gas, which has a sulffocating smell.
Reaction: Na2SO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O + SO2

Hence,
Correct Option: 2

83)

H2S + (CH3COO)2Pb → PbS Black

84) Question Explanation:

Question is asking about The compound present in borax bead

Concept:
This question is based on borax bead test

Solution:
The primary compound present in a borax bead is sodium metaborate (NaBO2). Anad later on
heating we get B2O3.

Hence,
Correct Option: 4

85) Question Explanation:

Question is asking about the cationic radical give green ppt. with NH4OH + NH4Cl
Concept:
This question is based on Colour of precipitate, Cationic radical

Solution:
When Cr3+ (chromium (III) ion) is treated with NH4OH in the presence of NH4Cl, the reaction
gives a grey-green precipitate of chromium(III) hydroxide, Cr(OH)3.

Hence,
Correct Option:4

86) Question Explanation:

Question is asking about the white ppt which is soluble in hot water

Concept:
This question is based on Precipitate, solubility

Solution:
Pb+2 2Cl → 2Cl – PbCl2↓ (White ppt)
PbCl2 is a white precipitate. It is sparingly soluble in cold water, but soluble in hot water,
forming a clear solution.

Hence,
Correct Option:3

87) Question Explanation:

Question is asking that Dil. HCl + H2S is the group reagent of which group

Concept:
This question is based on Group reagent

Solution:
Dil. HCl + H2O is the group reagent of IIndgroup

Hence,
Correct Option:2

88)

NH4OH

89) Question Explanation:

Question is asking about the sulphide which gives white ppt. When H2S is passed through
ammoniacal solution.

Concept:
This question is based on Precipitate, solubility
 Solution:
In an ammoniacal solution (NH4OH + NH4Cl), H2S reacts with zinc ions (Zn2+) to give:
Zn+2 + H2S → ZnS↓ + 2H+
Zinc sulfide (AnS) is white precipitate.

Hence,
Correct Option: 4

90)

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Reference: Class XII, Page No. 103

92) NCERT-XII Pg. # 102

93) NCERT XII Pg. # 87

94) NCERT Pg. # 87, 88

95) NCERT Pg. # 87

96) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 86 & 87

97) NCERT Pg. # 87

98) NCERT Pg#46

99) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 115 (E), 126 (H)

100) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 102, 103

101)

NCERT Pg. No. 83

102) NCERT-XII (E), Pg.106,107, PARA-6.4.2

103) NCERT Pg#116

104) NCERT, Pg#115

105) NCERT Pg#109

106) NCERT Pg#110

107) NCERT Pg#104

108) NCERT Pg#110

109) NCERT Pg#115

110) NCERT Pg. # 121

111) NCART - XII Pg. # 120

112) NCERT - XII Pg. 124

113) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 96, 99

114) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 106,107,110,115

115)

NCERT Pg. # 91

116) Ncert Page 109.

117) Ncert Page 112.

118) Ncert Page 118 and 119.

119)

Ncert Pg No: 117, 112, 111

120) Ncert Page 120.

 121) Ncert Page 120.

122)

Ncert Pg No: 120, 121, 122

123) Ncert Page 122.

124) NCERT (XII) Pg # 82

125) Ncert Pg No: 119

126) Ncert Pg No: 120

127) Ncert Pg No: 114

128) Ncert Pg No: 116

129) NCERT Page No. # 97

130) NCERT-XII Page No. : 100

131)

NCERT Page No. # 100

132) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 116-117

133) NCERT-XII Pg. # 117 Para.-2

134) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 117

135)

NCERT XII Pg # 112

139)

In this food chain: Plant → Rabbit → Wolf → Lion

A. The energy flow follows the 10% energy transfer rule: Only 10% of the energy is passed to
 the next trophic level.

1. Energy produced by the plant = 1000 Kcal

2. Energy available to rabbit (primary consumer): 10% of 1000 Kcal = 100 Kcal
3. Energy available to wolf (secondary consumer): 10% of 100 Kcal= 10 Kcal

141)

Question Explanation:

Calculating energy transfer in food chain.

Concept:

10% Law of Energy Transfer

Solution:

Producers (grass) trap 1% of the sun's energy: 1% of 20,000 J = 200 J. According to the 10%
law, only 10% of the energy is transferred to the next trophic level.

Grasshoppers receive 10% of 200 J = 20 J.

Frogs receive 10% of 20 J = 2 J.

Snakes receive 10% of 2 J = 0.2 J.

Final Answer:

Option 3: 0.2 J

143) NCERT Pg. # 244

144) NCERT XIIth Pg.# 234

145) NCERT XIIth Pg.# 249

146)

Explaining the Question :-

• Population attributes refer to features that are meaningful only at the population level, not
for an individual organism. These include:
• Birth rate (b) : Number of births per unit population
• Death rate (C) : Number of deaths per unit population
• Sex ratio (d) : Ratio of males of females in a population.
These do not apply to individuals, as one individual can't have a "rate" or a "ratio".
• Birth (a) can occur at the individual level – an organism can give birth, so it's not exclusive
to populations.
Final Answer :-(3)
 148) Explanation:

A. Statement 1 is incorrect – In brood parasitism, it is the parasitic bird (not the host) that lays
its eggs in the nest of the host bird to avoid parental care. An example is the cuckoo laying its
eggs in the crow’s nest.
B. Statement 2 is incorrect – The host bird's eggs have evolved to resemble the parasitic bird’s
eggs in both size and color as a defense mechanism to avoid detection by the host. This
reduces the chances of the host rejecting the parasitic egg.

Correct Answer: (4) (Both the statements are incorrect)

149) NCERT XIIth Pg # 235

151) NCERT Pg. # 243

152)

The correct answer is Option 4: All of these.

Explanation :
• Primary productivity refers to the rate at which plants and other photosynthetic organisms
produce organic compounds from inorganic substances in an ecosystem. This depends on
several factors:

A. The plant species in the area, as different species have varying capacities for photosynthesis.
B. The variety of environmental factors such as light, temperature, and water availability.
C. The availability of nutrients and the photosynthetic capacity of plants, which directly
influence their ability to produce food.

Therefore, all the factors listed contribute to primary productivity, making Option 4 the correct
answer.

154)

a, b is correct

155)

(a)-iv, (b)-iii, (c)-ii, (d)-i

158)

a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii

160)

Explanation – The question asks which one of the given options does not belong to ex-situ
conservation.

Concept – Ex-situ conservation

 Solution – Ex-situ includes strategies like botanical gardens, cryopreservation, zoo/safari
parks. wildlife sanctuaries is in-situ conservation

Final Answer - (4) Wildlife sanctuaries

161)

Therefore, the correct statements are a, c, and d. The answer is a, c and d.

The rate of formation of new tissue by producers in an ecosystem is known as Net Primary
Productivity (NPP).
Here's a breakdown of the terms:

A. GPP (Gross Primary Productivity): The total rate of photosynthesis, or the total amount of
organic matter produced by producers.
B. NPP (Net Primary Productivity): The rate of organic matter accumulation after accounting
for the energy used by producers for respiration. In simpler terms, it's the amount of biomass
available to consumers.
C. GSP (Gross Secondary Productivity): The total energy assimilated by consumers.
D. NSP (Net Secondary Productivity): The rate of new tissue formation in consumers after
accounting for respiration and other energy losses.

Therefore, the correct answer is NPP.

162) Explanation: Habitat loss and fragmentation is the leading cause of species
extinction. When natural habitats like forests, wetlands, and grasslands are destroyed or
broken into smaller fragments due to deforestation, urbanization, and agriculture, species
lose their shelter, food sources, and breeding grounds.

Many species, especially those with narrow habitat requirements, struggle to survive when
their environment is disrupted, leading to population declines and eventual extinction.

Correct Answer: (3) (Habitat loss and fragmentation)

165)

The incorrect answer is 2. India with much of its land in tropics, have more than 1,200
species of amphibians.
Explanation: While India is a tropical country with significant biodiversity, it does not have
more than 1,200 species of amphibians. The actual number is closer to around 427 species
of amphibians, which is still very high, but not as stated in the option. The other statements
are correct:

A. Species diversity generally decreases as we move from the equator to the poles.
B. The Amazon rainforest in South America is known to have the greatest biodiversity.
C. Colombia, located in the tropics, has a significantly larger number of bird species than New
York due to its diverse ecosystems.

170) NCERT (XII) Pg # 260

171)
 The correct answer is 3. High amount of oxygen.

A. Early Earth Conditions: Early Earth's atmosphere was primarily reducing, meaning it lacked
oxygen. This environment was conducive to the formation of simple organic molecules from
inorganic materials.
B. Oxygen's Reactivity: Oxygen is a highly reactive element. In the presence of abundant
oxygen, complex organic molecules would tend to break down or oxidize, making it difficult for
life to originate and sustain itself.
C. Current Earth Conditions: The Earth's atmosphere today is rich in oxygen, primarily due to
the presence of photosynthetic organisms (like plants and algae). This oxygen-rich
environment is not conducive to the spontaneous formation of life from inorganic materials.

173)

Question Explanation: The components simulated in the Miller-Urey experiment.

Concept: Chemical Evolution Experiment.

Solution: In Miller's experiment: (A) The chamber with electrodes and gases simulated the
primitive atmosphere with lightning. (B) The condenser cooled the gases, causing water
droplets to form, simulating rain. (C) The collected liquid in the trap represented the "hot
dilute soup" of the early ocean, where organic compounds accumulated.

Final Answer: Primitive atmosphere, Raining, Hot dilute soup.

175) Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of Analogous organs.

176)

Question Explanation: Analyzing statements about industrial melanism.

Concept: Natural Selection.

Solution: The correct statements are (A) predators spot moths against a contrasting
background, and (B) natural selection favors better-adapted individuals.

Final Answer: 1

179)

Question Explanation: The cranial capacity of Neanderthals.

Concept: Human Evolution.

Solution: The Neanderthal man (Homo neanderthalensis) is known for having a large brain.
Their average cranial capacity was about 1400 cc, which is comparable in size to, and on
average slightly larger than, that of modern humans.

Final Answer: 1400 C. C.