14-12-2025

2721CJA101031250018 JM

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1)

A particle (initially in motion) is subjected to different accelerations separately. These acceleration

vary with time as shown. In which of these cases particle will definitely return to its initial position.

(i) (ii) (iii)

(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) & (iii) only
(C) in all cases
(D) in no case

2) The diagram shows the displacement-time graph for a particle moving in a straight line. Find the

average speed for the interval from t = 0 to t = 3 sec.

(A) 1.5m/s
(B) 3m/s
(C) 1m/s
(D) 4.5m/s

3) A particle moves along the x-axis and has its displacement x varying with time t according to the
equation

where c0 and c are constants of appropriate dimensions. Then, which of the following statements is
correct?

(A) the acceleration of the particle is 2c0

(B) the acceleration of the particle is 2c
(C) the initial velocity of the particle is 4c
(D) the acceleration of the particle is 2(c + c0)

4) A bus accelerates from the rest for time 't1' at a constant rate a and then retards at a constant
rate β for time 't2' and comes to rest, then 't1/t2' :–

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5) A stone thrown upward with a speed 'u' from the top of the tower reaches the ground with a
velocity '3u'. The height of the tower is :–

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6) In the figure shown, the friction coefficient between the block of mass 1 kg and the plank of mass
2 kg is 0.4 while that between the plank and horizontal floor is 0.1. For what value of F will the block
move with double the acceleration of that of the plank? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(A) 5 N
(B) 6 N
(C) 10 N
(D) 12.5 N

7) With what minimum acceleration mass M must be moved on frictionless surface so that m remains
stick to it as shown. The co-efficient of friction between M & m is μ.

(A) μg
(B)

(C)

(D)

8) A mass of 10 kg is suspended vertically by a rope from the roof. When a horizontal force is applied
on the rope at some point, the rope deviated at an angle of 45° at the roof point. If the suspended
mass is at equilibrium, the magnitude of the force applied is (g = 10 ms–2)

(A) 200 N
(B) 100 N
(C) 140 N
(D) 70 N

9) Statement - I : for constant acceleration

Statement - II : As per newton’s II law rate of change of momentum is equivalent to net external
force acting.

(A) Only I is correct

(B) Only II is correct
(C) I & II both are correct
(D) I & II both are incorrect

10) A horizontal force of 10N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The

coefficient of friction between block and wall is 0.2. The weight of block is :-

(A) 20 N
(B) 50 N
(C) 100 N
(D) 2 N

11) If a particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius r with a centripetal force (–k / r2),
the total energy is

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

12) The mechanical energy of a freely falling body is :

(A) Constant at all instants

(B) Maximum in the beginning
(C) Minimum in the beginning
(D) Maximum in the middle

13) A particle of mass m = 5 units is moving with a uniform speed in the XOY plane along
the line Y = X + 4. The magnitude of the angular momentum of the particle about the origin is :-

(A) zero
(B) 60 unit
(C) 7.5 unit
(D)

14) A mass m = 1 kg hangs from the wheel of radius R = 1m. When released from rest the mass falls

through a height h = 2m in 1 second. The moment of inertia of the wheel is (g = 10 m/s2):-

(A) 2.6 kg m2
(B) 3.6 kg m2
(C) 1.5 kg m2
(D) 3.0 kg m2

15) A small object of uniform density rolls up a rough curved surface with an initial velocity v while

doing pure rolling. It reaches upto a maximum height of w.r.t. the initial position. The object is

(A) Ring
(B) Solid sphere
(C) Hollow sphere
(D) Disc

16) Wires A and B have identical lengths and have circular cross-sections. The radius of A is twice
the radius of B i.e. rA = 2rB. For a given temperature difference between the two ends, both wires
conduct heat at the same rate. The relation between the thermal conductivities is given by

(A) KA = 4KB
(B) KA = 2KB
(C) KA = KB/2
(D) KA = KB/4

17) An ideal gas is expanding such that PT2 = constant. the coefficient of volume expansion of the
gas is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

18) The figure shows a system of two concentric spheres of radii r1 and r2 and kept at temperatures
T1 and T2 respectively. The radial rate of flow of heat in substance between the two concentric

spheres is proportional to :

(A)

(B) (r2 – r1)

(C)

(D)

19) Two springs of force constant K and 2K are connected to a mass M as shown. The frequency of

oscillation of the mass is :-

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

20) A particle executes S.H.M., starting from mean position with amplitude 8 cm and time period

sec then velocity of particle at t = sec is:-

(A) 32π cm/sec

(B) 16π cm/sec
(C) 16 π cm/sec
(D) 8π cm/sec

SECTION-B

1) The electric potential in some region is expressed by V = 6x – 8xy2 – 8y + 6yz – 4z2 volt. The
magnitude of force acting on a charge of 2 C situated at the origin will be :-

2) A non-conducting ring of radius 0.5 m carries a total charge of 1.11 × 10–10 C distributed non-
uniformly on its circumference producing an electric field everywhere in space. The value of the

line integral (ℓ = 0 being centre of the ring) in volt is :-

3)

A point charge is placed at the centre of top circular end of a cylinder of length ℓ = 12cm and radius

R = 9cm as shown. Electric flux through the curved surface of the cylinder is , find n :

4) In the figure shown C1 = 1 µF, C2 = 2 µF and V = 4 volt, then what will be charge supplied by
battery in µC ?

5) In the given circuit, a charge of +80 µC is given to the upper plate of the 4µF capacitor. Then in

the steady state, the charge on the upper plate of the 3µF capacitor is (in µC):-

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) The correct decreasing order for acid strength is

(A) NO2CH2COOH > NCCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH

(B) FCH2COOH > NCCH2COOH > NO2CHCOOH > ClCH2COOH
(C) NO2CH2COOH > FCH2COOH > CNCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
(D) CNCH2COOH > O2NCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH

2) Product is -

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

3) , A is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

4) The correct IUPAC nomenclature of following compound is :-

(A) (6E)-dodec-2-yne-6-ene
(B) (6E)-dodec-6-ene-2-yne
(C) 6Z-dodec-2-yne-6-ene
(D) 6Z-dodec-6-ene-2-yne

5) Which of the following does not represent 'E' form?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6)

Which of the following is meso compound :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

7) Correct order of Electrophillic substitution reaction (ESR) is :-

(A) IV > I > II > III

(B) II > IV > III > I
(C) III > II > I > IV
(D) IV > II > I > III

8) Which of the following statement is not correct :-

(A) Cyclohexane is a non-planar compound

(B) Trans cyclohexadecene is relatively more stable than its cis form
(C) Cis form of 1,3–dimethylclohexane is relatively less stable than its trans form
(D) Cis 1,2-dichloroethene is relatively more stable than its trans form.

9) In a chemical equilibrium
A+B C+D
When one mole each of the two reactants are mixed 0.4 mole each of the products are formed, the
equilibrium constant calculated is :-

(A) 1
(B) 0.36
(C) 2.25
(D) 4/9

10) When electron in Bohr atom is excited to higher orbits, then which of the following increases

(A) Potential energy

(B) Time period of revolution
(C) Orbit angular momentum
(D) All of these

11) The equilibrium constant Kp for the following reaction at 191°C is 1.24. What is Kc?

BF3(g)

(A) 5.4
(B) 0.61
(C) 9.3
(D) 7.6

12) The two bronsted bases in the reaction are

HC2O4– + PO43– → HPO42– + C2O4–

– 3–
(A) HC2O4 & PO4
2– 2–
(B) HPO4 & C2O4
3– 2–
(C) PO4 & C2O4
– 2–
(D) HC2O4 & HPO4

13) 0.1 M solution of KMnO4 (in acidic medium) may oxidise (having same volume)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

14) Give the correct initial T for true & F for false statement
(I) For Mn, the order of energy is 3s = 3p = 3d for shell number 3
(II) 32 elements are present in 5th period of long form periodic table
(III) For Zr+2 ion, µm = BM
(IV) General valence shell electronic configuration for ƒ-block elements is (n – 2) ƒ1–14(n – 1) d10 ns2

(A) T T F T
(B) T F F T
(C) F F T F
(D) F T T F

15) Which of the following order is NOT correct :

(A) Ni < Cu (Principal quantum number for unpaired e¯)

(B) Na < Mg < Al < Si (IE1)
(C) Cs+(g) > K+(g) > Na+(g) > Li+(g)(Ionic radius)
(D) H–I > H–F (Internuclear distance)

16) Which of the following compound is planar and non-polar

(A) ClF3
–
(B) ICl4
+
(C) I3
(D) OCN–

17) Which of the following compound does not show expanded octet

(A) PCl5
(B) SiF4
(C) ClF3
(D) IF7

18) Which is correct order property indicated -

(A) LiH<NaH<KH<RbH<CsH (Thermal stability)

(B) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 (Solubility)
(C) Na2SO4 < K2SO4 < Rb2SO4 < Cs2SO4 (Solubility)
(D) 1 & 3 both

19)
Product (A) is :-
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

20) Which is set of paramagnetic molecules or ions:-

2+ 2–
(A) NO, NO2, O2 , O2
+ –
(B) O2 , O2 , NO, NO2
(C) C2, B2, O2, S2
–
(D) B2, N2, O2, O2

SECTION-B

1) How many of the statement(s) are correct

(i) The nucleophile makes a rear attack in SN2 reaction and expels the leaving group from front side.
(ii) CH3O — CH = CH2 adds to HBr according to Anti-Markownikoff ’s rule.
(iii) The basicity of halides decreases in the order F– > Cl– > Br– > I–, but the nucleophillicity is
reverse of it. (in polar protic solvents)
2
(iv) The rate of SN reaction is independent of the polarity of the solvent.
(v) Sigma complex or arenium ion is resonance stablised

2) Sum of the number of lone pairs of electrons on each central atom in the following species is :
[TeBr6]–2, [BrF2]+, SNF3 and

3) S1 : The HOMO in F2– is

π*2px = π*2py molecular orbitals.
S2 : Bond order of O2– is more then O2+.
S3 : NO+ is more stable than N2+
S4 : C2 is more stable than C2+

If x for true and y for false statements then ratio of

4) If the work function of a metal is 6.63 × 10–19 J, the maximum wavelength of the photon required
to remove a photoelectron from the metal is _______ nm. (Nearest integer)
[Given : h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s, and c = 3 × 108 m s–1]

5) Find volume of 2 moles of a vander waals gas at critical pressure & critical temperature. Given for
gas :
PC = 2 atm and TC = 300K. (Answer should given in nearest integer)

MATHEMATICS

SECTION-A

1) If a1, a2, ..... an are in A.P. with a7 = 9 and a1a2a7 is minimum, then common difference of A.P. is

(A) 11/10
(B) 11/20
(C) 33/20
(D) None

2) The sum to 50 terms of series

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

3)

If α, β, γ are roots of equation x3 + 4x + 1 = 0 then value of (α + β)–1 + (β + γ)–1 + (α + γ)–1 is :-

(A) 4
(B) 0
(C) –1
(D) None

4) Consider the equation x2 + x – n = 0, where n ∈ N, and n ∈ [5,100]. Then total Number of different
values of n, so that the given equation has Integral roots is :-

(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 10

5) Total number of words formed by the letters of the word 'MISSISSIPPI' in which any two S are
separated is equal to :-

(A) 7350
(B) 6300
(C) 12600
(D) 5000

6)

The number of three digit numbers of the form of xyz such that x < y ≥ z is :-

(A) 156
(B) 204
(C) 240
(D) 276

7) If is differentiable everywhere, then (a,b) is-

(A) (2,3)
(B) (3,2)
(C) (0,3)
(D) (2,0)

8) The left hand derivative of f(x) = {x} sin(πx) at x = k (k is an integer), is ({} denotes the fraction
part function) :-

(A) (k–1) × (–1)k × π

(B) (–1)k × π
(C) (–1)k–1 × π
(D) k × (–1)k–1 × π

9) If [Link] = (x + y)m + n; then equals :

(A) y/x
(B) 0
(C) –1
(D) x/y

10) If 5x + 5y = 5x+y, then =

(A)

(B)

(C)
5x–y

(D)

11)

If the equation ax2 – 6xy + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 represents a pair of lines whose slopes are m and
m2, then sum of all possible values of a is -

(A) 17
(B) –19
(C) 19
(D) –17

12) The extremities of the base of an isosceles triangle are (2, 0) and (0, 2). If the equation of one of
the equal side is x = 2, then the equation of other equal side is :-

(A) x + y = 2
(B) x – y + 2 = 0
(C) y = 2
(D) 2x + y = 2

13) Let the mirror image of a circle c1: x2 + y2 – 2x – 6y + = 0 in line y = x + 1 be c2 : 5x2 + 5y2 +
10gx + 10fy + 38 = 0. If r is the radius of circle c2, then is equal to______

(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 18
(D) 14

14) A rhombus is inscribed in the region common to the two circles x2 + y2 – 4x – 12 = 0 and
x2 + y2 + 4x – 12 = 0 with two of its vertices on the line joining the centers of the circles. The area of
the rhombus is :-

(A) sq. units

(B) sq. units
(C) sq. units
(D) None of these

15) If a normal chord of the parabola y2 = 4ax subtend a right angle at the vertex, its slope is-

(A) ±1
 ±
(B)

±
(C)

(D) None of these

16) A point P(3, 0) lies on a parabola, whose axis is 4x + 3y = 0 and tangent at vertex is 3x – 4y = 5.
The distance between the focus and directrix is

(A) 7.2
(B) 3.6
(C) 1.8
(D) insufficient data

17) Number of points on the ellipse from which pair of perpendicular tangents are

drawn to the ellipse is :-

(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 4

18) Point 'O' is the centre of the ellipse with major axis AB and minor axis CD. Point F is one focus of
the ellipse. If OF = 6 and the diameter of the inscribed circle of triangle OCF is 2, then the product
(AB)(CD) is equal to

(A) 52
(B) 56
(C) 78
(D) None of these

19)

The locus of the foot of the perpendicular from the centre of the hyperbola xy = c2 on a variable
tangent is

(A) (x2 – y2)2 = 4c2xy

(B) (x2 + y2)2 = 2c2xy
(x2 – y2)2 = 2c2xy
(C)

(D) (x2 + y2)2 = 4c2xy

20) The combined equation of the asymptotes of the hyperbola

are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) none of these

SECTION-B

1) A common tangent T to the curves and does not pass through

the fourth quadrant. If T touches C1 at (x1, y1) and C2 at (x2, y2), then |2x1 + x2| is equal to _______.

2) The tangent to the parabola y = x2 – 5 at a point A(1, –4) touches the circle x2 + y2 – 6x + 10y + k
= 0, then k is ____.

3) Area of rhombus ABCD is 24, equation of diagonal BD is 4x + 3y + 2 = 0 & A is (3, 2) then length
of side is

4) Let for n = 1, 2, ….., 50, Sn be the sum of the infinite geometric progression whose first term is n2

and whose common ratio is Then the value of is equal to

5) If P(x) = x4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx + d, (where a, b, c, d ∈ R) and P(1) = 10, P(2) = 20, P(3) = 30, then

the value of equals (where [.] GIF)

 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. D B D D B A B B C D A A B C D D C A C C

SECTION-B

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 20 2 5 12 48

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. A B C D C D B D D D D C A C B B B C A B

SECTION-B

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 6 4 300 9

MATHEMATICS

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. C A A A A D A B B C B C A A B B D B D B

SECTION-B

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 20 29 5 41651 198
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) In question it is clearly written that "definitely return". Since scaling is not done, in all the
cases we can find atleast a situation in which the particle can not return to its initial position.

2) Average speed =

= = 3 m/s

3)

4) Let maximum velocity achived = vmax

vmax = 0 + αt1 = αt1
also 0 = vmax – βt2 ⇒ vmax = βt2

∴ αt1 = βt2 ⇒

5)
v2 = u2 + 2as
9u2 = u2 – 2gh

h= =

6) F – 4 = 2a .....(i)

4 – 3 = 2a .....(ii)
∴ F = 5N

7) For block of mass m f should be equal to mg

f = mg ∴ N = ma
μ N = mg
μ ma = mg

a=

8)
at equation

tan45° =
F = 100 N

9) mg – T = m × a
600 – 360 = 60 × a

10)

11) mv2 = ∴ K.E. = mv2 =

P.E. =

∴ Total energy =

12)
Conceptual

13)

= 60 unit

14) The acceleration of mass m is

Here h = ∴ a = 4 m/s2

∴ I = = 1.5 kgm2

15) and ω = v/R (rolling)

⇒ ⇒ disc

16)

so

17) Given process equation is, pT2 = constant

Using PV = nRT

we can have, = constant

or = constant
By differentiating above equation on both sides,

or
In above equation left side term is representing coefficient of volume expansion of gas, as from
the definition. The coefficient of volume expansion is defined as fractional change in volume
per unit rise in temperature.

18) Rate of flow of heat,

H = – K. 4πr2.

or

i.e.,

19)

Springs are in parallel combination

20)

cm/sec

21)
(0,0,0)

(0,0,0)

F = qE = 2

22)

23)

Flux through bottom circular end

 Flux through curved surface is

24)

Answer is = 12

25) The 4 µF capacitor is in series with a parallel combination of 2 µF and 3 µF, which
together make 5 µF
A charge of +80 µC is placed on the top plate of the 4 µF capacitor.
In a series circuit, the same charge appears throughout.

= 48

CHEMISTRY

26)

27) Syn addition of hydrogen.

28)

29)
–COOH principal functional group

30)
Z-form
(According to CIP rule)

31)

32) Rate of E.S.R

33)

(1) Cyclohexane is a non–planar compound (chair form)

(2) In cyclo alkene

C ≥ 12 trans > cis ⇒ stability
Due electrostatic force of alteraction ⇒ cis effect

34)

Answer - 4/9

35) Question Explanation:

Which property increases when electron gets excited.

Concept:
This question is based on Bohr's atomic model.

Solution:

P.E. =

Orbit angular momentum ⇒ Orbit angular momentum

Final Answer: The correct option is (4).

36)
7.6

37)

Concept : Bronsted acids one molecules that can donate an H+; bronsted bases one molecules
that can accept an H+. To make a conjugate base, we must remove an H+ ion from the acid.

Solution :-
38) Question Explanation:
Choose correct option.

Concept:
This question is based on Equivalent concept.

Solution:

→ Mn+2
eq. of KMnO4 = M × V × n.f = 0.1 × v × 5
= 0.5 V
(1) → CO2
eq. of = 0.25 × 2 × V = 0.5 V
+2 +3
(2) Fe → Fe
eq. of Fe+2 = 0.8 × 1 × V = 0.8 V
(3) FeC2O4 → Fe+3 + CO2
n.f.: 3
eq. of FeC2O4 = 3 × 0.1 × V = 0.3 V
+3
(4) → Cr
n.f. = 6
eq. of = 0.6 × 6 × V = 3.6 V

Final Answer:
The correct option is (1).

39) Question Explanation:

Identify true or false

Concept:
This question is based on electronic configuration.

Solution:
(I) F [1]. The order of energy for a multi-electron atom like Mn is 3s < 3p < 3d [1]. The
energies are equal only for a hydrogen atom or hydrogen-like ions.
(II) F [1]. The 5th period of the long-form periodic table contains 18 elements [1].
(III) T [1]. The ground state electronic configuration of Zr(Z = 40) is [Kr]5s24d2. For the
Zr+2 ion, the configuration becomes [Kr]4d2, which has n = 2 unpaired electrons [1, 2]. The
magnetic moment is calculated using the spin-only formula BM, resulting in
BM [1, 2].
(IV) F [1]. The general valence shell electronic configuration for f-block elements is (n –
2)f1–14(n – 1)d0–1ns2, where the d-orbital can have 0 or 1 electron, not a full 10 electrons [1, 2].

Final Answer:
The correct option is (3)

40) Explanation :
Incorrect order is asked.
Concept :
This question is based on IE.

Solution :

Final answer : (2)

41) (1) (Planar & Polar) (2) (Planar & non polar)

(3) (4)

42)

Explanation: To determine which compound does not show an expanded octet.

Concept: This question is based on Lewis dot structure.

Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

43)

Na2SO4 < K2SO4 < Rb2SO4 < Cs2SO4 (Solubility)

44)
 45) Odd e– species always paramagnetic

46)

(i) The nucleophile makes a rear attack in SN2 reaction and expels the leaving group from front
side.
(iii) The basicity of halides decreases in the order F– > Cl– > Br– > I–, but the nucleophillicity is
reverse of it. (in polar protic solvents)
(v) Sigma complex or arenium ion is resonance stabilised.
The above statements are correct.
CH3O–CH = CH2 adds to HBr according to Markownikoff's rule,
(iv) The rate of SN2 reaction is faster in polar aprotic solvent.

47)

Answer is = 6

48)

Answer is = 4

49) ϕ = 6.63 × 10–19J =

⇒ λ = 3 × 10 –7m = 300 nm

50)

MATHEMATICS

51) a1 + 6d = 9. Let P = a1a2a7. Then

P = a1(a1 + d) × 9 = 9a1[a1 + (9 – a1)/6]

∴ P is minimum when a1 = –9/10.

∵ a1 + 6d = 9

⇒ ⇒ d = 33/20.

52) Tr =
Tr =

Sn =

Sn = 6

Sn = S50 =

53)

α+β+γ=0

⇒ + + =–

=–

=– =4

54) x2 + x – n = 0, n ∈ [5,100]

x= is Integer so D should be odd & perfect square

Let 1 + 4n = (2λ + 1)2; (λ∈I)
⇒ n = λ (λ + 1 ) so λ = 2,3,4, ....... 9
so n has 8 values

55) First of all arrange all letters other than S.

_M_I_I_I_I_P_P_

No. of ways = = 7350

56)

x ranges from 1 to 9
y ranges from x + 1 to 9 (since x < y)
z ranges from 0 to y (since y ≥ z )

10+19+27+34+40+45+49+52=276

57) ƒ(–1–) = ƒ(–1+) ⇒ –2 + b + 2 = 3 – a + a

b=3
ƒ'(–1) = ƒ'(–1+) ⇒ 2 = –2 + 2 + a
a=2

58) LHD =

= (–1)kπ

59)

60) = 5x–y

61)

m + m2 = –(–6)
⇒ m + m2 = 6
⇒ m2 + m – 6 = 0
(m + 3) (m – 2) = 0
m = –3, 2
m · m2 = a
⇒ a = m3 = –27, 8
Sum of all value of a = –19

62) From figure

The equation of the other equal side is y = 2

63)

64) The circles are with centers (2, 0) and (–2, 0) and radius 4.

Therefore, the y-axis is their common chord.

ΔABC is equilateral. Hence

Area of ADBC =

65) If P(at12, 2at1) be one end of the normal, the other say Q(at22, 2at2)

then t2 = –t1 – ... (1)

Again slope of OP = =
Note : Slope of the normal at P is (–t1)

66)

∴ Distance between focus and directrix = 2a = 3.6.

67) For the ellipse equation of director circle is x2 + y2 = 25. This director circle

will cut the ellipse at 4 points hence number of points = 4.

68) Diameter of the inscribed circle of triangle OCF is 2.

Radius = 1

Centre of the circle is (1, 1) and equation of CF is

Now, length of perpendicular from (1, 1) on CF = 1 (radius)

or

On squaring both sides, then

Also,

Hence, (AB)(CD) = (2a)(2b) = 13 x 5 = 65

69)

Tangent of xy = c2 at is

⇒ x + yt2 = 2ct ...(1)

Slope of tangent =

Equation of line passing (0,0) and perpendicular to tangent is y = t2x ⇒

Now squaring (1), (x + yt2)2 = 4c2t2

for locus of foot of perpendicular replace

Locus is

70) Conceptual.
71) Let common tangents are
T1 :
& T2 :
So, 4m2 + 9 = 42m2 – 143
⇒ 38m2 = 152
⇒ m = ±2
& c = ±5
For given tangent not pass through 4th quadrant
T : y = 2x + 5

Now, comparing with

We get, ⇒

2x – y = –5 we have

So,

72) Equation of the tangent to the parabola at at (1, –4) is 2x – y – 6 = 0.

It touches the circle with centre (3, –5) and radius
Therefore, k = 29

73) a2sinθ = 24
||
a=5

74)
= 41651

75) P(x) – 10x = (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3)(x – α)

P(x) = (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3)(x – α) + 10x
P(12) = 11 × 10 × 9 × (12 – α) + 120
P(–8) = (–9) × (–10) × (–11).(–8 – α) – 80
P(12) + P(–8) = 9.10.11.(12 – α + 8 + α) + 40
P(12) + P(–8) = 19800 + 40