CLAT UG

MOCK TEST

English Language

I. Sanjeev had only known Twinkle for four months before they were married. Now
they were living in a new house in Connecticut.
As they unpacked, Twinkle discovered a silver bust of Christ behind the radiator.
“Look at this!” she laughed. “We’ll put it on the mantel!”
“We’re not Christians,” Sanjeev said quietly.
“But it’s beautiful,” Twinkle insisted.
Over the next few weeks, she found more Christian relics—crosses, Virgin Mary
cards, a wooden plaque that read “Blessed are the meek.” She displayed them all,
turning their home into what Sanjeev felt looked like a church.
He didn’t understand her fascination. She treated the items like treasure.
He wanted to say something, to tell her to stop, but each time, she smiled or danced
around the room, and he held his tongue.
At a housewarming party, Twinkle gave a tour. Their guests laughed and admired
the odd collection.
“A blessed house,” someone said.
Sanjeev forced a smile.
[Extracted with edits from Jhumpa Lahiri’s "This Blessed House"]

1. What is the most accurate meaning of the word “relics” as used in the passage?
a) New furniture pieces
b) Sacred objects from a religious tradition
c) Outdated clothes
d) Expensive antiques

2. What does Sanjeev’s reaction to the religious items reveal about his personality?
a) He is deeply religious
b) He is indifferent to aesthetics
c) He prefers order and cultural clarity
d) He enjoys collecting rare artifacts

3. How does the title This Blessed House function ironically in the context of the story?
a) It refers to a real religious house
b) The house is blessed by Hindu rituals
c) The term “blessed” contrasts Sanjeev’s unease and lack of spiritual connection
d) It was the name given by the previous owner
 4. What effect does the line “He wanted to say something… and he held his tongue” have
on the reader?
a) It reveals Sanjeev’s strong command over English
b) It emphasizes his internal conflict and passivity
c) It foreshadows a violent outburst
d) It shifts the story into a flashback

5. Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph based on the

passage’s theme:
1. Sanjeev struggled to understand Twinkle’s excitement over the Christian
objects.
2. Twinkle proudly displayed each new find on mantels and shelves.
3. Though they had just married, their differences were beginning to surface.
4. The house slowly filled with religious artifacts from a faith neither practiced.
Correct Order:
a) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
b) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
c) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
d) 3 – 1 – 4 – 2

II. Before the law stands a doorkeeper. A man from the country comes and asks to
gain entry to the Law. But the doorkeeper says that he cannot admit him now.
The man thinks carefully, and asks if he will be allowed to enter later. “It is
possible,” says the doorkeeper, “but not now.”
The man waits. For years, he sits outside the door. He tries to bribe the doorkeeper
with everything he has, but the doorkeeper always refuses, saying, “I take this only
so you won’t think you failed to try everything.”
The man grows old, still waiting. As he is dying, he asks, “Everyone strives to reach
the Law, so how is it that no one but me has ever asked to enter?”
The doorkeeper replies, “No one else could gain entry here. This entrance was
meant only for you. Now I am going to shut it.”
[Extracted with edits from Franz Kafka’s "Before the Law"]

6. What does the doorkeeper mean when he says, “I take this only so you won’t think
you failed to try everything”?
a) He plans to let the man in later
b) He enjoys taking bribes
c) He wants the man to feel he made every possible effort
d) He wants to encourage others
 7. The doorkeeper and the door likely symbolize:
a) Real government offices
b) Dreams and imagination
c) Barriers to justice, power, or understanding
d) Freedom of religion

8. What is the effect of the twist ending, “This entrance was meant only for you”?
a) It reveals that the man wasted his life waiting for permission he already had
b) It confirms that the Law is fair
c) It shows that others could enter, but didn’t try
d) It encourages patience

9. What is the purpose of the man’s final question to the doorkeeper before dying?
a) To demand legal rights
b) To express regret and confusion
c) To insult the doorkeeper
d) To get into heaven

10. Kafka’s choice to keep characters unnamed (e.g., “man from the country,”
“doorkeeper”) serves what narrative purpose?
a) It allows the story to be read as a universal parable
b) It simplifies the grammar of the text
c) It hides their real identity
d) It reflects cultural naming traditions

III. I imagine the great mistake in most children’s education lies in this: that parents
and tutors do not begin early enough to cultivate the habit of reasoning. They care
too much for rote learning, forcing children to memorize without understanding.
But true learning is not just remembering; it is the power to judge and apply what
one knows.
From the earliest age that a child can understand, they should be treated as rational
beings. This does not mean giving them full liberty or control but instead guiding
them to make sense of the world through reason rather than fear. If children are
always driven by punishment, they grow afraid, not wise. The rod may correct bad
behaviour in the moment, but it rarely forms lasting character.
Education, then, must begin with the formation of habits: of honesty, attention,
and self-discipline. These are not taught through lectures, but through careful
modelling and daily practice. A tutor should appeal to a child’s desire to be
thought well of, and gradually lead him to enjoy knowledge for its own sake. It is
 better to study a few useful things with care, than to crowd the memory with facts
that are neither understood nor remembered.
Above all, education should prepare the child not to be obedient alone, but to be
free. A wise and virtuous child will grow into a wise and free adult- capable of
making good use of liberty.
[Extracted with edits from John Locke’s "Some Thoughts Concerning Education"]

11. What does Locke most likely mean by “rote learning”?

a) Learning that involves logic and writing
b) Memorizing information without understanding it
c) Reading aloud in pairs
d) Learning through physical tasks

12. What is the tone of Locke’s writing in this passage?

a) Mocking and sarcastic
b) Formal and reasoned
c) Informal and humorous
d) Apologetic and passive

13. Which of the following would Locke most likely agree with?
a) Children learn best through discipline and silence
b) A child should be treated as incapable of understanding reason
c) Punishment should never be used, even in misbehavior
d) Habits and self-discipline are more important than memorized facts

14. What is Locke’s main argument about the purpose of education?

a) It is to produce obedience to elders
b) It is to prepare children for exams
c) It is to shape free, wise, and rational adults
d) It is to teach children how to earn money

15. According to Locke, why should tutors guide children by appealing to their desire
for approval rather than using fear or punishment?
a) Because punishment can damage character without teaching values
b) Because children learn faster when shamed publicly
c) Because constant praise ensures better memory retention
d) Because obedience is more important than understanding

IV. The modern school system has been accepted as a necessary institution, but this
belief is rarely questioned. In reality, schools no longer serve the purpose of
 fostering learning; instead, they function as mechanisms of social control. The
system promotes conformity and obedience under the guise of education. Children
are taught not to question, but to comply, rewarded not for curiosity, but for fitting
into a pre-approved mold.
The curriculum is not designed to meet the individual needs of learners. It serves
broader societal interests, particularly those of dominant groups who wish to
preserve the existing order. Exams, grades, and certificates are treated as symbols
of intelligence, when in fact they often reflect a student’s ability to repeat
information rather than think critically.
Learning, Reimer argues, is a natural human activity that occurs best when driven
by interest and need. Yet schools assume that knowledge must be delivered by
certified experts in controlled environments. This institutional model not only
limits access to real learning but also convinces students that their value lies in
performance, not understanding. As long as society equates schooling with
education, meaningful reform will remain impossible.
[Extracted with edits from Everett Reimer’s "School is Dead"]

16. What is Reimer’s primary purpose in this passage?

a) To suggest ways of improving school curricula
b) To defend traditional education methods
c) To criticize how schools suppress genuine learning
d) To compare Western and Eastern education systems

17. Which of the following ideas is implied but not directly stated in the passage?
a) Schools could improve if they removed exams entirely
b) Not all children learn in the same way or at the same pace
c) Students should be encouraged to memorize more effectively
d) Private schools are more harmful than public ones

18. In the sentence “Exams, grades, and certificates are treated as symbols of
intelligence,” what does the word “symbols” most likely mean?
a) Visual aids
b) True measures
c) Superficial representations
d) Religious signs

19. Why does Reimer refer to learning as “a natural human activity”?

a) To suggest it does not require effort or discipline
b) To argue that schooling enhances learning
c) To show that learning can happen without formal institutions
 d) To justify eliminating teachers altogether

20. Which of the following is most similar in function to what Reimer believes schools
have become?
a) A garden where all plants grow freely in their own way
b) A race where only those who follow the same path win prizes
c) A marketplace of ideas where everyone has a voice
d) A laboratory that encourages constant experimentation

V. It is not enough for a teacher to merely deliver information. A child must be taught
how to use knowledge, not just carry it. Just as we do not eat food only to fill our
stomachs, but to nourish our bodies, education must nourish the mind, not merely
feed it facts. Let the teacher ask questions, allow the student to speak, and then
guide him to sound judgment.
A good education is not about stuffing a memory with others' thoughts, but
training a mind to judge wisely and independently. Let the pupil digest what he
learns, not swallow it whole. Books are useful, yes, but we must not value them
more than experience and conversation. A child who is only filled with what others
have written may become learned but not wise.
The true goal of learning is to develop virtue and reason. Better to have a
thoughtful mind than a full one. A student who has not learned to doubt, to weigh
ideas, and to speak with understanding has learned little, even if he has read a
thousand books.
[Extracted with edits from Michel de Montaigne’s "On the Education of Children"]

21. What is Montaigne’s main critique of traditional education?

a) It doesn’t focus enough on science
b) It overemphasizes memorization without developing independent thinking
c) It lacks discipline and structure
d) It ignores physical development

22. What does Montaigne mean by “digest what he learns, not swallow it whole”?
a) Students should be physically fit
b) Students should memorize everything slowly
c) Learners should process and reflect on knowledge, not accept it blindly
d) Books should be read only once

23. The tone of the passage is best described as:

a) Humorous and informal
b) Harsh and cynical
 c) Reflective and instructive
d) Sarcastic and rebellious

24. Based on the passage, what quality does Montaigne most value in a student?
a) A quick memory
b) Curiosity and good judgment
c) Obedience and silence
d) Fluency in Latin and Greek

25. Montaigne compares learning to eating food. What is the point of this analogy?
a) That education should be expensive and luxurious
b) That learning should be done at regular times
c) That knowledge should be nourishing and thoughtfully absorbed, not just
consumed
d) That students should memorize textbooks completely

Current Affairs Including General knowledge

VI. The Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 marks a significant legislative intervention in
the administration of Islamic charitable endowments in India. It seeks to reform
the Waqf Act, 1995 to ensure greater transparency, accountability, and inclusivity
in the management of waqf properties assets donated for religious, educational, or
charitable purposes under Islamic law.

One of the key features of the amendment is the inclusion of non-Muslim members
in State Waqf Boards, a move that the government justifies as enhancing
transparency and preventing conflicts of interest in property management.
Additionally, the law mandates digital registration of waqf properties and
introduces stricter auditing mechanisms under the supervision of the Central Waqf
Council.

While the government has projected the law as a modernisation measure, critics
argue that it undermines the autonomy of Muslim institutions. Opposition leaders
claim the inclusion of non-Muslim members may contravene the right of a
religious denomination to manage its own affairs under Article 26(b) of the
Constitution. Others have raised concerns about the potential for increased state
control and possible reclassification or denotification of historically waqf-
registered properties.
 The Act also provides the Centre with wider rule-making powers and authority to
conduct surveys or inquiries into waqf land holdings. Supporters view these
provisions as vital to reclaim encroached properties and streamline their use for
community benefit, whereas detractors warn of administrative overreach. The
legislation thus embodies the tension between religious autonomy and state
oversight — a recurring theme in India’s secular governance framework.

26. The Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 raises constitutional debates most closely linked
to which principle of Indian secularism?
a) Positive secularism encouraging state intervention in religion
b) Absolute separation of religion and state
c) Religious neutrality through non-interference
d) Privatisation of religion under personal law

27. The inclusion of non-Muslim members in Waqf Boards potentially challenges

which constitutional guarantee?
a) Article 25 – Freedom of religion
b) Article 26(b) – Right to manage religious affairs
c) Article 27 – Freedom from taxation for religion
d) Article 29 – Protection of minority interests

28. The move to digitise waqf property records primarily seeks to address which long-
standing administrative problem?
a) Religious disputes among sects
b) Encroachment and mismanagement of properties
c) Lack of judicial precedents on waqf
d) Absence of waqf board elections

29. Which of the following reflects the broader constitutional tension highlighted by
the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025?
a) Division of powers between Union and States
b) Conflict between minority rights and state oversight
c) Judicial supremacy vs. parliamentary sovereignty
d) Uniform civil code vs. personal laws

30. If challenged in court, which judicial doctrine would most likely guide the
constitutional scrutiny of the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025?
a) Basic Structure Doctrine
b) Doctrine of Pleasure
c) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction
 d) Pith and Substance Doctrine

VII. In 2025, India officially overtook Japan to become the fourth-largest economy in
the world in nominal GDP terms. According to data cited by NITI Aayog and the
International Monetary Fund (IMF), India’s GDP rose above the threshold of
around US$4 trillion, positioning it behind only the US, China and Germany.

This milestone reflects a period of sustained growth driven by strong services

expansion, manufacturing catch-up, increased domestic consumption and
structural reforms. The government factors such as digitalisation, infrastructure
investment, and supply-chain integration are seen as key enablers of this leap.

Despite the achievement, significant challenges remain. India’s per-capita income

remains low compared to other major economies, and the gap between nominal
GDP size and individual welfare is large. Moreover, global headwinds, external
demand weakness, and the need for deeper structural reforms continue to pose
risks to the upward trajectory. Analysts also caution that maintaining growth
momentum will be critical if India is to overtake Germany and become the world’s
third-largest economy within the next 2-3 years, as projected.

31. India’s rise to the 4th‐largest economy in nominal GDP primarily measures which
of the following?
a) The total market value of all goods and services produced, converted at current
exchange rates
b) The purchasing power of each individual in the economy
c) The size of exports relative to imports
d) The ratio of government debt to GDP

32. One of the major warnings about interpreting India’s new ranking is that—
a) Per capita income remains significantly lower than in the countries it has overtaken
b) India’s ranking automatically ensures linear improvement in living standards
c) Large GDP size eliminates the need for structural reforms
d) India will immediately become the third-largest economy without further change

33. Which of the following policy levers is least likely to have directly contributed to
India’s leap in ranking (based on the passage)?
a) Increased infrastructure investment
b) Digitalisation of services and reform of supply chains
c) Massive increase in exports without attention to domestic demand
d) Manufacturing sector catch-up and domestic consumption growth
 34. If India is to overtake Germany and become the third-largest economy, which of
the following would be most critical according to the passage’s logic?
a) Sustaining growth momentum amid global headwinds
b) Reducing GDP size to ensure stability
c) Focusing solely on export-led growth ignoring domestic markets
d) Halting all reforms so as not to disrupt the existing structure

35. The difference between being the 4th-largest economy by size and achieving high
welfare for citizens suggests which broader economic insight?
a) Economic size always equates to high living standards
b) Structural reforms and per-capita growth matter as much as aggregate ranking
c) Only GDP ranking matters in international influence
d) Per-capita income has no relation to national GDP size

VIII. On 6 June 2025, the Government of India inaugurated the Chenab Rail Bridge in
the Reasi district of Jammu & Kashmir, declaring it the world’s highest railway
arch bridge. Standing at 359 metres above the Chenab River, the structure
surpasses even the iconic Eiffel Tower in height.

Measuring approximately 1,315 metres in length, this steel-and-concrete deck-arch

bridge is a key component of the larger Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link
(USBRL) project, which spans mountainous terrain through tunnels and viaducts
to link the Kashmir Valley with the rest of India.

Engineered to withstand severe seismic activity, extreme wind speeds, and harsh
weather conditions in the Himalayan region, the bridge reflects a convergence of
ambitious infrastructure, strategic connectivity, and engineering innovation. The
inauguration was accompanied by the launch of high-speed train services
(including a section of the “Vande Bharat” trains) between Katra and Srinagar,
marking a significant shift in transportation and integration for the region.

36. The inauguration of the Chenab Rail Bridge most directly advances which of the
following national objectives?
a) Reducing India’s dependency on road-based transportation in mountainous
terrain
b) Enhancing sea-link connectivity between the Indian mainland and island
territories
c) Eliminating all rail freight traffic in the northern region
d) Transitioning entirely to air travel for the Kashmir region
 37. Which of the following engineering features is most critical for the Chenab Rail
Bridge given its location?
a) Large cantilever arms for spanning open plains
b) Resistance to high wind-speeds and earthquakes
c) Capacity for high-speed maglev trains
d) Tunnels longer than 1000 km

38. The height of the Chenab Rail Bridge (359 m above the river) has symbolic as well
as practical significance. Which of the following best captures the symbolic
significance?
a) It sets a global record and showcases India’s engineering capability
b) It allows the bridge to serve as a residential skyscraper
c) It replaces all older rail bridges in India
d) It is primarily for tourism and not for rail connectivity

39. While the bridge enhances connectivity in Jammu & Kashmir, which of the
following risks or challenges does it implicitly highlight for long-term success?
a) The need for continuous maintenance in harsh terrain
b) That rail bridges render all roads useless
c) Underground coal mining beneath the structure
d) That air travel will be suspended

40. Suppose a policy analyst argues that this project strengthens India’s strategic
posture in the region. Which of the following statements best supports that
argument?
a) It enables faster movement of people and goods, thereby integrating a border
region
b) It means no more trains will run in the region
c) It automatically resolves all security challenges in the area
d) It replaces civilian infrastructure with military bases

IX. India is a land of remarkable geographical and cultural diversity. It shares land
borders with seven countries: Pakistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh,
Myanmar, and Afghanistan and has a coastline stretching over 7,500 kilometers
along the Indian Ocean, the Bay of Bengal, and the Arabian Sea.

The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight Indian states, including Gujarat,
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and West Bengal, influencing their climate and
agricultural patterns. The Thar Desert, located primarily in Rajasthan, is one of the
 most densely populated deserts in the world. In contrast, the Sundarbans delta in
West Bengal forms the largest mangrove forest globally and serves as the habitat
of the famous Royal Bengal Tiger.

India’s cultural diversity mirrors its geography from the Dravidian temple
architecture of the south to the Indo-Islamic monuments of the north. Sites such as
the Konark Sun Temple, Khajuraho Group of Monuments, and Hampi reflect the
architectural brilliance of different historical eras.

41. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which of the following Indian states?
a) Tripura
b) Gujarat
c) Odisha
d) Jharkhand

42. The Thar Desert lies mostly in which geographical region of India?
a) Central Highlands
b) Western Coastal Plains
c) Northwestern Arid Region
d) Eastern Deccan Plateau

43. The Sundarbans delta is formed by the confluence of which two major rivers?
a) Ganga and Yamuna
b) Ganga and Brahmaputra
c) Godavari and Krishna
d) Mahanadi and Subarnarekha

44. The architectural style of the Konark Sun Temple is associated with which
dynasty?
a) Chola
b) Pallava
c) Ganga
d) Maurya

45. Which of the following statements best highlights India’s cultural geography?
a) Cultural uniformity across all regions
b) Distinct cultural patterns shaped by diverse geography
c) Predominance of desert culture in southern India
d) Exclusive Dravidian architecture in northern India
X. The Constitution of India, adopted on 26th November 1949 and enforced on 26th
January 1950, is the longest written constitution in the world. It establishes India
as a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic. Its framers drew
inspiration from multiple global sources the parliamentary system from the UK,
fundamental rights from the US, and directive principles from Ireland.

The Preamble embodies the philosophy of the Constitution, reflecting the ideals of
justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. The Constitutional supremacy ensures that
all organs of government the Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary derive their
powers from it. India follows a federal structure with a unitary bias, meaning while
power is divided between the Centre and the States, the Centre holds greater
authority in times of emergency or national importance.

The Fundamental Rights (Part III) guarantee civil liberties to citizens, while the
Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) guide the state in governance. The
Fundamental Duties, added by the 42nd Amendment (1976), remind citizens of
their responsibilities towards the nation. Together, these elements create a
framework that balances individual rights, social justice, and state authority.

46. Which of the following phrases was added to the Preamble by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?
a) Sovereign and Democratic
b) Socialist and Secular
c) Justice and Liberty
d) Equality and Fraternity

47. The idea of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) in the Indian
Constitution was inspired by—
a) The US Bill of Rights
b) The Irish Constitution
c) The French Declaration of Rights
d) The Canadian Charter of Rights

48. Which statement best describes India’s federal system?

a) Power is equally distributed between Centre and States at all times
b) It is purely unitary in nature
c) It combines federal features with unitary tilt during emergencies
d) The States are completely independent of the Centre

49. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution to—

 a) Remind citizens of their moral obligations to the nation
b) Empower the judiciary to make new laws
c) Abolish Fundamental Rights
d) Establish a federal structure

50. Which of the following ensures the supremacy of the Constitution in India?
a) Parliament’s unlimited legislative power
b) Emergency powers of the President
c) Governor’s assent to state bills
d) Written nature and judicial review provisions

Legal Reasoning

XI. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously called Article 32 the “heart and soul of the
Constitution” because it guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights. The provision ensures that when any of these
rights are violated, citizens have a direct remedy before the apex court — a
privilege unique to India’s constitutional framework.

Under Article 32, the Supreme Court may issue writs such as habeas corpus,
mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari. This jurisdiction is both
original and guaranteed, meaning that Parliament cannot suspend or curtail it
except during a national emergency under Article 359.

However, judicial practice has gradually expanded this remedy. The Supreme
Court has, through Public Interest Litigations (PILs), allowed even non-victims to
file petitions for the enforcement of the rights of others. This broadened standing
has transformed Article 32 from a tool of individual relief into a mechanism of
constitutional governance. Yet, the Court has repeatedly emphasized that Article
32 cannot be used to challenge every legal wrong or executive action unless there
is a direct violation of a Fundamental Right.

In certain cases, like Minerva Mills v. Union of India and S.P. Gupta v. Union of
India, the Court reaffirmed that judicial review under Article 32 is an essential
feature of the basic structure. Hence, even Parliament, through an amendment,
cannot abrogate this right.

51. If Parliament enacts a law excluding the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in
matters concerning Fundamental Rights enforcement, which principle would most
likely render such a law unconstitutional?
 a) Doctrine of Eclipse
b) Doctrine of Basic Structure
c) Doctrine of Laches
d) Doctrine of Pith and Substance

52. A public-spirited citizen files a petition under Article 32 seeking directions for the
implementation of government welfare schemes. Which of the following
determines its maintainability?
a) Whether the petitioner has personally suffered a legal injury
b) Whether the scheme is economically feasible
c) Whether similar petitions exist in High Courts
d) Whether the issue involves enforcement of Fundamental Rights

53. During a national emergency under Article 352, the President suspends the right
to move courts for certain Fundamental Rights under Article 359. Which of the
following remains unaffected?
a) Right to enforce rights not suspended by the Presidential Order
b) Right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32
c) Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
d) Judicial review under Article 226

54. If a Fundamental Right is violated by a private company without any “State”

involvement, a petition under Article 32 would—
a) Be maintainable since Article 32 covers all wrongs
b) Not be maintainable as the violation isn’t by the ‘State’
c) Be maintainable only if there is monetary loss
d) Automatically convert to a civil suit

55. Which statement best reflects the distinction between Articles 32 and 226?
a) Article 32 is broader as it covers all legal rights
b) Article 226 is narrower since it applies only to Fundamental Rights
c) Article 226 is wider because it covers both Fundamental and legal rights
d) Both are identical in scope and nature

XII. The power of Judicial Review enables the Supreme Court and High Courts to
examine the validity of legislative and executive actions against the Constitution
of India. Rooted in Articles 13, 32, and 226, this doctrine ensures that the
Constitution remains the supreme law of the land. Judicial review, however, is not
expressly defined but evolved through judicial interpretation, beginning with the
landmark case of A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950) and attaining its mature
 form in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), which held judicial review
to be a basic feature of the Constitution.

While the judiciary guards constitutional supremacy, it must also respect the
principle of separation of powers. This creates a delicate balance: courts cannot
rewrite legislation or govern, but they can invalidate actions that contravene
constitutional mandates. The power is corrective, not creative.

In recent years, the doctrine has expanded to include judicial review of

constitutional amendments themselves, ensuring that even Parliament’s
constituent power under Article 368 remains subject to constitutional limitations.
However, critics argue that excessive judicial intervention risks undermining
democratic will and legislative autonomy. Proponents, in contrast, view it as the
ultimate safeguard against majoritarian excesses.

Thus, judicial review stands as both a restraint and a protection — restraining

unconstitutional actions while protecting fundamental rights and the spirit of the
Constitution.

56. Judicial Review under the Indian Constitution primarily ensures—

a) Parliamentary sovereignty
b) Supremacy of the judiciary over all organs
c) Supremacy of the Constitution
d) Executive accountability to Parliament

57. The power of judicial review over constitutional amendments was first firmly
established in which case?
a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
b) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
d) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain

58. Suppose Parliament enacts a law granting absolute discretion to the executive in
determining citizenship without judicial oversight. Which constitutional principle
would be most directly threatened?
a) Federalism
b) Separation of Powers
c) Equality before law
d) Judicial Review
 59. Judicial Review of administrative action differs from legislative review because—
a) It examines policy wisdom, not legality
b) It only checks procedural propriety, not substance
c) It checks legality, reasonableness, and procedural fairness
d) It applies only to private disputes

60. Which of the following best captures the tension within the doctrine of judicial
review?
a) Between liberty and equality
b) Between constitutional supremacy and parliamentary sovereignty
c) Between federalism and unitarism
d) Between directive principles and fundamental rights

XIII. The doctrine of Strict Liability originated in Rylands v. Fletcher (1868), where the
English court held that a person who keeps on his land anything likely to cause
harm if it escapes, is strictly liable for the damage caused by its escape, even if he
was not negligent. The rule was founded on the principle of “non-natural use of
land” and applied only when something dangerous escaped from the defendant’s
control.

However, the rule was subject to several exceptions, such as act of God, plaintiff’s
consent, act of a stranger, or statutory authority. Over time, Indian courts
recognized that these exceptions often diluted the effectiveness of the principle,
particularly in the context of modern industrial and environmental hazards.

This led to a watershed moment in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak
Case, 1987), where the Supreme Court rejected the Rylands v. Fletcher limitations
and evolved a new rule — Absolute Liability. The Court held that an enterprise
engaged in hazardous or inherently dangerous activity owes an absolute and non-
delegable duty to ensure that no harm results to anyone. If harm does occur, the
enterprise is absolutely liable, regardless of fault, negligence, or any exceptions.

This principle reflects the shift from a fault-based to a no-fault liability regime,
emphasizing social justice and the polluter-pays principle. It aligns with
constitutional mandates under Articles 21 and 48A, reinforcing environmental
protection as part of the right to life.

61. Under the rule in Rylands v. Fletcher, liability arises only if—
a) The act was intentional
b) There was negligence by the defendant
 c) A dangerous substance escaped due to non-natural use of land
d) Damage was foreseeable

62. Which of the following would not be a valid defence under the rule of strict
liability?
a) Act of God
b) Plaintiff’s own fault
c) Statutory authority
d) Engaging in a hazardous industry under license

63. The transition from strict to absolute liability in India primarily reflects—
a) Judicial activism and constitutionalization of tort law
b) Application of British statutory law
c) Restriction of industrial activities
d) Elimination of public interest litigations

64. Under the rule of absolute liability, an enterprise can escape liability—
a) If the harm was due to sabotage
b) If the event was unforeseeable
c) Under no circumstance
d) If the activity was conducted under government supervision

65. Which constitutional provision most strongly supports the doctrine of absolute
liability in India?
a) Article 14 – Equality before law
b) Article 19(1)(g) – Freedom of trade
c) Article 21 – Right to life
d) Article 300A – Property rights

XIV. In tort law, determining liability for damage involves not only proving that the
defendant’s act caused the harm (causation in fact), but also that the harm was not
too remote (causation in law). The principle of remoteness of damage limits a
defendant’s responsibility to those consequences that are reasonably foreseeable.

Historically, English law first applied the “direct consequence test” laid down in
Re Polemis (1921), where the defendant was held liable for all direct consequences
of his negligent act, whether foreseeable or not. However, this strict approach was
reconsidered in the landmark decision of The Wagon Mound (No. 1) (1961), where
the Privy Council held that a person is only liable for consequences that are the
reasonably foreseeable result of their negligence.
 In that case, oil leaked from the defendant’s ship into Sydney Harbour and later
caught fire due to molten metal dropped from a wharf, causing extensive damage.
The Court ruled that although pollution was foreseeable, fire damage was not.
Hence, the defendant was not liable, as the harm was too remote.

This established the “foreseeability test”, emphasizing that liability depends on

whether a reasonable person could foresee the type of damage. Subsequent cases
like Hughes v. Lord Advocate (1963) refined this rule, holding that while the
precise manner of harm need not be foreseeable, the type of harm must be.

Indian courts, too, have adopted this principle, balancing fairness and policy by
excluding consequences that are extraordinary or unforeseeable, thus preventing
limitless liability.

66. The rule in The Wagon Mound (No. 1) primarily replaced which earlier principle?
a) Volenti non fit injuria
b) Direct consequence rule from Re Polemis
c) Strict liability rule
d) Duty of care in Donoghue v. Stevenson

67. Under the foreseeability test, a defendant will be liable—

a) For any harm that follows directly from their act
b) Only for harm that a reasonable person could foresee as a likely result
c) For all harm caused to property but not to persons
d) Only if the exact sequence of events was foreseeable

68. Suppose a chemical factory negligently leaks gas causing mild pollution, but due
to an unexpected chemical reaction with another substance, an explosion occurs.
Applying Wagon Mound (No. 1), the factory would—
a) Be liable for all consequences since it caused the leak
b) Be liable only if the explosion was foreseeable
c) Be absolutely liable regardless of foreseeability
d) Escape liability only if it proves contributory negligence

69. Which of the following best distinguishes Wagon Mound (No. 1) from Hughes v.
Lord Advocate?
a) The latter case reinstated the direct consequence rule
b) The latter allowed liability even when the exact manner of damage was
unforeseeable
 c) The former applied strict liability
d) The latter abolished foreseeability entirely

70. The doctrine of remoteness of damage primarily serves to—

a) Determine the degree of negligence
b) Limit liability to reasonably foreseeable consequences
c) Decide whether a duty of care existed
d) Determine compensation quantum

XV. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, every agreement must be made for a lawful
consideration and lawful object. Section 23 provides that the consideration or
object of an agreement is lawful unless it is —
1. Forbidden by law,
2. Defeats the provisions of any law,
3. Is fraudulent,
4. Involves or implies injury to person or property, or
5. Is immoral or opposed to public policy.
6. If any of these elements are present, the agreement is void and unenforceable.

For instance, in Pearce v. Brooks (1866), a contract to hire a carriage for prostitution
purposes was held unenforceable as the object was immoral. Similarly, in Srinivas
Pandit v. Lakshminarayana (1912), an agreement to stifle a criminal prosecution
was void as it defeated public justice.

However, the boundary between legality and public policy is often blurred. Courts
have held that “public policy” is not static — it evolves with societal values. In
Gherulal Parakh v. Mahadeodas Maiya (1959), the Supreme Court cautioned
against expanding the doctrine arbitrarily, holding that wagering contracts are not
illegal but merely void, as they do not offend public policy.

Thus, legality of object acts as a safeguard of social morality and legal order,
ensuring that private agreements do not erode statutory or ethical norms. The real
test lies in whether enforcing the agreement would injure public interest or legal
integrity.

71. An agreement for the sale of a substance banned under the NDPS Act would be—
a) Voidable at the option of the seller
b) Void due to immorality
c) Void as it is forbidden by law
d) Valid if the parties consented
 72. An agreement between two individuals to suppress evidence in a pending criminal
trial in exchange for money would be—
a) Valid, since both parties consented
b) Void as defeating the provisions of law
c) Voidable at the option of the prosecutor
d) Valid if not discovered by authorities

73. The Supreme Court in Gherulal Parakh v. Mahadeodas Maiya held that—
a) Wagering contracts are illegal and punishable
b) Wagering contracts are immoral and void
c) Wagering contracts are void but not illegal
d) Wagering contracts are enforceable in law

74. A hires B to publish a defamatory pamphlet against C. Which statement is correct?

a) The agreement is valid since C was not a party
b) The agreement is void as it implies injury to a person
c) The agreement is voidable at B’s discretion
d) The agreement is valid if C doesn’t file a suit

75. Which of the following best expresses the test for legality of object under Section
23?
a) Whether the act benefits both parties
b) Whether the act is opposed to the Constitution
c) Whether the act, if permitted, would harm public interest or defeat law
d) Whether the act is commercial or non-commercial

XVI. A quasi-contract arises not from the consent of parties, but by operation of law,
imposing an obligation as if a contract existed to prevent unjust enrichment. The
Indian Contract Act, 1872, recognizes such obligations under Sections 68 to 72.

Section 68, for instance, obliges a person who voluntarily provides necessities to
another unable to contract, to be reimbursed by the latter or their guardian. Section
70 imposes liability on a person who enjoys goods or benefits under a non-
gratuitous act, to compensate the provider.

The principle is rooted in fairness: no one should benefit at another’s expense

without paying for it, even in the absence of an explicit agreement. However,
quasi-contractual obligations do not arise if the benefit is conferred officiously or
gratuitously without expectation of payment.
 Judicial pronouncements, such as K.K. Verma v. Union of India and Union of India
v. Indo Commercial, have emphasized that quasi-contracts are remedial in nature
— meant to prevent injustice, not to create commercial or voluntary obligations.
This ensures that liability attaches only where equity demands, distinguishing
quasi-contracts from conventional contracts based on consent and negotiation.

76. Which principle is most central to the law of quasi-contracts?

a) Pacta sunt servanda
b) Unjust enrichment
c) Caveat emptor
d) Nemo dat quod non habet

77. A voluntarily gives medical treatment to an unconscious person in an accident.

The unconscious person recovers. Under Section 68, who bears liability?
a) A cannot claim any reimbursement
b) The treated person must reimburse A for reasonable expenses
c) The hospital must pay A
d) Liability arises only if there was prior consent

78. X delivers goods to Y by mistake, thinking Y had ordered them. Under quasi-
contract principles—
a) Y is obliged to pay if he enjoys the benefit
b) Y can keep the goods freely, as there was no contract
c) X can claim only if Y signs a contract retrospectively
d) Y is not liable under any circumstances

79. Which of the following is not a quasi-contract under Indian law?

a) Necessaries supplied to a person unable to contract (Sec 68)
b) Obligation to pay for non-gratuitous act enjoyed (Sec 70)
c) Promise to pay for love and affection
d) Money paid by mistake or under coercion (Secs 72 & 69)

80. The key distinction between a quasi-contract and a conventional contract is—
a) Quasi-contract arises without consent; conventional contracts require consent
b) Both require consent, but quasi-contract is informal
c) Conventional contracts are always gratuitous
d) Quasi-contracts are limited to government transactions
XVII. Under Section 403 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), criminal misappropriation
occurs when a person dishonestly misapplies or converts to their own use any
movable property belonging to another. Unlike theft, misappropriation does not
require taking property from the possession of another; it can occur even when the
accused has lawful possession initially.

A classical illustration is when a bailee or agent entrusted with property uses it for
purposes beyond the scope of entrustment. For example, if A lends money to B for
investment in a business, and B diverts the funds for personal use, B may be guilty
of criminal misappropriation.

The key elements are:

• Property must belong to another person (ownership distinction is crucial).
• Dishonest intention to convert or apply property for one’s own use.
• Movable property only; immovable property is outside the section.

Judicial interpretation, such as in State of Maharashtra v. Vasudeo and R. v. Hall,

emphasizes that possession alone does not negate misappropriation; the moment
the entrusted property is used dishonestly, liability arises. Importantly, criminal
misappropriation is a cognizable offence, but it differs from criminal breach of
trust (Sec 405 IPC), which specifically applies to trustees, guardians, or fiduciaries.

This distinction ensures that the law targets dishonest appropriation without
requiring physical theft, emphasizing moral culpability over mere possession.

81. A person borrows a bicycle from a friend for a short trip and sells it for personal
profit. This constitutes—
a) Theft
b) Criminal Breach of Trust
c) Cheating
d) Criminal Misappropriation

82. Which of the following is not essential for criminal misappropriation?

a) Property must be movable
b) Dishonest intention to convert for personal use
c) Property must be taken out of another’s possession
d) Property must belong to another person

83. B is entrusted with money to pay workers but spends it on personal expenses.
Which section of IPC applies?
 a) Section 378 (Theft)
b) Section 403 (Criminal Misappropriation)
c) Section 405 (Criminal Breach of Trust)
d) Section 420 (Cheating)

84. A receives money by mistake from C and uses it for personal benefit. Which of the
following is correct?
a) No offence, as possession was lawful
b) Misappropriation applies immediately
c) Only criminal breach of trust applies
d) Civil liability only; criminal liability never arises

85. Which statement best distinguishes criminal misappropriation from theft?

a) Theft requires dishonesty; misappropriation does not
b) Misappropriation requires property to be movable; theft can be movable or
immovable
c) Theft requires taking property out of possession; misappropriation can occur while
in lawful possession
d) Misappropriation applies to immovable property; theft applies only to movable

XVIII. In Indian law, ownership (dominion) and possession (physical control) are distinct
yet interrelated concepts. Ownership represents a comprehensive legal right over
property, including the rights to use, enjoy, transfer, and alienate it. Possession, in
contrast, refers to physical control or detention of property, which may or may not
coincide with ownership.

Sections 3 and 4 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, along with the Indian
Contract Act and IPC provisions, recognize that a person in possession may not
necessarily be the owner. For example, a bailee or tenant has possession but not
ownership. Conversely, an absentee owner retains ownership despite lack of
possession.

Judicial interpretation underscores that possession alone can confer certain rights
such as protection against unlawful dispossession (interference suits) but
ownership grants absolute entitlement, including the ability to transfer or
encumber property. The distinction also underpins doctrines like criminal
misappropriation (Sec 403 IPC), where possession without ownership, when used
dishonestly, can attract liability.
 The law further recognizes constructive possession, where ownership or control is
deemed to exist without physical custody. Such distinctions become crucial in
modern contexts, like digital assets, leased property, or entrusted goods, where the
lines between ownership and possession are often blurred.

86. A person rents a car from B. Who holds ownership and possession, respectively?
a) Renter has ownership; owner has possession
b) Owner has ownership; renter has possession
c) Both have ownership and possession
d) Renter has both ownership and possession

87. Which of the following statements best captures the distinction between
ownership and possession?
a) Ownership requires physical custody; possession does not
b) Possession requires legal title; ownership does not
c) Ownership confers full legal rights; possession confers control or custody
d) Ownership and possession are always identical

88. A person is entrusted with goods by the owner for safekeeping. If they dishonestly
sell the goods, which legal principle is primarily invoked?
a) Ownership
b) Possession
c) Criminal Misappropriation
d) Bailment

89. Which type of possession allows a person to claim legal protection even if they are
not the owner?
a) Constructive possession
b) Actual possession
c) Unauthorized possession
d) Bare ownership

90. X owns a warehouse but has left it unattended. Y enters and occupies it without
permission. Which statement is correct?
a) Y gains possession but not ownership
b) Y becomes owner immediately
c) X loses ownership automatically
d) Y has constructive ownership rights
XIX. India’s commitment to gender justice and LGBTQ+ rights is rooted in its
Constitution, particularly Articles 14, 15, 19, and 21, which guarantee equality,
prohibit discrimination, and protect personal liberty. Judicial interpretation has
played a crucial role in giving these rights meaningful content.

In Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court decriminalized
consensual same-sex relations under Section 377 IPC, recognizing the fundamental
rights of LGBTQ+ persons to equality, dignity, and privacy. The Court emphasized
that sexual orientation is an innate attribute, and discrimination based on it
violates the equality guarantee under Article 14.

Similarly, the judiciary has advanced gender justice through landmark rulings,
including Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997) (sexual harassment guidelines),
Shafin Jahan v. Asokan (2018) (right to marry a person of one’s choice), and Joseph
Shine v. Union of India (2018) (striking down adultery as a criminal offence). These
decisions collectively reflect an evolving interpretation of personal liberty,
autonomy, and non-discrimination.

Despite legal recognition, challenges remain in achieving social acceptance,

institutional equality, and effective implementation of rights. Legislative measures
such as the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 and ongoing
debates on same-sex marriage and adoption rights illustrate the dynamic interplay
between law, social norms, and human rights.

Thus, the trajectory of gender justice and LGBTQ+ rights in India exemplifies how
constitutional guarantees, judicial activism, and social transformation interact to
uphold human dignity and equality in an inclusive society.

91. The Supreme Court in Navtej Singh Johar primarily relied on which constitutional
principle?
a) Directive Principles of State Policy
b) Freedom of Trade and Commerce
c) Equality and Dignity under Articles 14 and 21
d) Parliamentary Sovereignty

92. Which of the following best describes the legal significance of the Vishaka
Guidelines?
a) They criminalized harassment at the workplace
b) They mandated legislative action against sexual harassment
c) They provided binding rules for sexual harassment in absence of legislation
 d) They abolished adultery laws

93. Which challenge is not primarily legal but social in advancing LGBTQ+ rights?
a) Enforcement of anti-discrimination provisions
b) Judicial recognition of same-sex relationships
c) Legislative clarity on adoption rights
d) Societal acceptance and cultural attitudes

94. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 aims to—
a) Allow unrestricted marriage rights for transgender persons
b) Protect rights and prohibit discrimination based on gender identity
c) Criminalize gender expression
d) Restrict employment of transgender persons

95. Which of the following reflects the Supreme Court’s approach to balancing
personal liberty and societal norms?
a) Rights of LGBTQ+ persons are subordinate to social morality
b) Constitutional guarantees must evolve in light of dignity, equality, and autonomy
c) Only legislative action can recognize same-sex rights
d) Judicial intervention is limited to procedural law

XX. In recent years, the Supreme Court of India (SC) has delivered landmark
judgments that have significantly influenced constitutional governance, social
justice, and individual rights. Notable among these is Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of
India (2025), where the Court struck down certain provisions of the Electoral
Bonds Scheme for lack of transparency, emphasizing the need for accountability
in political financing to protect democratic integrity.

In the realm of digital rights, the SC in XYZ v. Union of India (2024) reinforced the
principle that data privacy is intrinsic to the right to life under Article 21, striking
down unauthorized government access to private citizen data without statutory
safeguards. Similarly, in Green Earth Foundation v. Union of India (2025), the
Court upheld strict environmental liability for industrial polluters, reaffirming the
absolute liability doctrine first articulated in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987),
while emphasizing public trust in natural resources.

Another notable decision is Ravi Kumar v. State of India (2024), where the Court
decriminalized certain offenses related to digital expression under outdated
statutes, aligning statutory interpretation with freedom of speech and expression
under Article 19(1)(a). Furthermore, in State v. Zainab Foundation (2025), the SC
 clarified the scope of special courts under the Protection of Children from Sexual
Offences Act (POCSO), ensuring procedural safeguards while expediting justice.

These judgments illustrate the Court’s dynamic role in balancing individual rights,
public interest, and constitutional governance. They also highlight the increasing
importance of judicial reasoning, PILs, and the interplay between legislative gaps
and judicial intervention in shaping contemporary Indian law.

96. In Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down parts of the
Electoral Bonds Scheme primarily on the ground of—
a) Lack of transparency affecting democratic accountability
b) Violation of federalism
c) Breach of parliamentary procedure
d) Excessive executive powers in foreign policy

97. Which principle was reinforced in XYZ v. Union of India (2024) regarding citizen
data?
a) Absolute executive discretion over data
b) Data privacy as part of Article 21 rights
c) Data privacy is only a statutory right, not constitutional
d) Freedom of speech supersedes privacy

98. In Green Earth Foundation v. Union of India, the Court emphasized the absolute
liability doctrine. Which of the following is correct?
a) Only negligent industrial activity attracts liability
b) Liability is limited to foreseeably damaged property
c) Hazardous industries are strictly liable regardless of fault
d) Liability depends on prior government approval

99. Ravi Kumar v. State of India (2024) primarily illustrates—

a) Restriction of free speech in cyberspace
b) Updating statutory interpretation to align with fundamental rights
c) Reinforcement of colonial-era digital laws
d) Limiting judicial review of online content

100. The common theme in the judgments mentioned in the passage reflects the
Supreme Court’s role as—
a) A passive arbiter of law
b) A dynamic guardian of rights and public interest
c) An executor of legislative will
 d) A policymaker in administrative matters

Logical Reasoning

XXI. In a law firm, each partner uses a special code for internal communication about
case files. The coding pattern is as follows:
Letters in a name are replaced by the letter 2 places forward in the English alphabet
(e.g., A → C, B → D).
Spaces are replaced by the symbol “#”.
Numbers are written in reverse order.
For example, if a client’s file is labeled “ALICE 24”, it becomes “CNKEG 42”.
The firm’s management also tracks blood relations among partners and associates
for confidentiality purposes. The information provided is:
• Mr. Raghav is the father of Ms. Tanya, who is married to Mr. Vishal.
• Ms. Neha is the sister of Mr. Vishal and aunt of Tanya’s child.
• Mr. Arjun, son of Mr. Raghav, is the brother of Tanya.
The HR department wants to label documents and assign access rights without
revealing personal identities in case of leaks.

101. Using the coding scheme, how would the file “NEHA 13” be labeled?
a) PGJC 13
b) NGIC 31
c) NFJC 31
d) PGJC 31

102. Using the same code, what will “VISHAL 56” become?
a) XKUJCN 65
b) XKUJCN 56
c) WKTJCN 65
d) WKTJCO 65

103. Who is the uncle of Tanya’s child according to the passage?

a) Mr. Vishal
b) Mr. Arjun
c) Mr. Raghav
d) Ms. Neha

104. If a file is labeled “CNKEG 42”, who does it refer to?

a) Alice 24
b) Neha 24
 c) Vishal 42
d) Tanya 42

105. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the relationships?

a) Ms. Neha is Tanya’s mother
b) Mr. Arjun is Vishal’s brother-in-law
c) Mr. Raghav is grandfather of Tanya’s child
d) Mr. Vishal is Tanya’s uncle

XXII. A district collector receives a complaint that a factory in the region is releasing
untreated chemical waste into a river, affecting the local population and wildlife.
The factory claims it follows all environmental norms but admits a minor leak due
to aging pipelines. Local villagers are protesting and demanding immediate
closure, while the factory threatens to move operations out of the district, causing
significant unemployment.
1) The collector must decide the best course of action balancing environmental
protection, public health, employment, and legal compliance. Options include:
2) Immediate closure of the factory.
3) Conducting an independent environmental audit and issuing a temporary
notice for corrective measures.
4) Ignoring the complaint, citing economic growth priorities.
5) Filing criminal charges against the factory management immediately.

106. Which course of action best reflects prudent administrative decision-making?

a) Immediate closure
b) Independent environmental audit and temporary corrective notice
c) Ignoring the complaint
d) Immediate criminal charges

107. Filing criminal charges immediately (Option 4) would be least appropriate

because—
a) There is no legal provision for criminal liability
b) Minor leak does not automatically warrant criminal action without investigation
c) Criminal charges cannot be filed by government officials
d) It is outside the jurisdiction of the collector

108. Immediate closure of the factory (Option 1) might have negative consequences
because—
a) It could violate environmental law
b) It may lead to unemployment and economic disruption
 c) Closure is legally impossible
d) Villagers do not have the right to protest

109. Ignoring the complaint (Option 3) would be legally and ethically flawed
because—
a) It disregards the fundamental right to life (Article 21)
b) It benefits the local population
c) It ensures compliance with industrial norms
d) It is the standard government procedure

110. The decision-making scenario illustrates which key principle of administrative

law?
a) Delegated legislation
b) Rule of law and proportionality
c) Absolute discretion of the collector
d) Parliamentary supremacy

Quantitative Techniques

XXIII. Two leading international IT firms, TechNova and CyberLink, started operations
in 2010 and have been competing closely in profit margins. The profit percentages
of the companies over the years are as follows:
Year TechNova (%) CyberLink (%)
2010 25 30
2011 35 28
2012 40 35
2013 30 40
2014 50 45
2015 55 60
TechNova’s profits increased steadily until 2012, dipped in 2013, and surged
again in 2014 and 2015. CyberLink, on the other hand, experienced slight
fluctuations but eventually recorded its highest profit percentage in 2015.
Using the above data, answer the following questions:

111. What is the increase in profit percentage of TechNova from 2013 to 2014?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 10%
 d) Cannot be determined

112. What was the combined profit percentage of both companies in 2012?
a) 75%
b) 70%
c) 65%
d) 60%

113. If CyberLink earned ₹ 100 crores in profit in 2010, what was its approximate
profit in 2011 assuming the total revenue remained the same?
a) ₹ 93.33 crores
b) ₹ 110 crores
c) ₹ 95 crores
d) Cannot be determined

114. Which company had the highest annual average profit percentage over the 6
years, and what is the approximate difference with the other company?
a) TechNova, 2.5%
b) CyberLink, 1.5%
c) CyberLink, 3%
d) TechNova, 1%

115. What is the percentage increase in profit of CyberLink from 2014 to 2015?
a) 25%
b) 33.33%
c) 15%
d) Cannot be determined

XXIV. A newly formed state government is planning to launch welfare programs and
wants to understand the population distribution by age groups for better planning.
After a survey, the state found the following percentages:
Age Group (years) Percentage of Population
0 – 14 28.50%
15 – 24 18.25%
25 – 34 16.75%
35 – 44 15.00%
45 – 54 12.50%
55 – 64 6.25%
 Age Group (years) Percentage of Population
65 and above 2.75%
116. The government wants to use this data to prioritize welfare programs for
children, youth, working-age adults, and senior citizens. Out of every 10,000
persons, how many are below the age of 25 years?
a) 4,675
b) 4,050
c) 3,850
d) 4,125

117. If the total population is 500 million, approximately how many people are in
the age group 35–44?
a) 75 million
b) 70 million
c) 80 million
d) 65 million

118. If there are 31.25 million people in the age group 55–64, what is the approximate
total population of the state?
a) 500 million
b) 400 million
c) 375 million
d) 525 million

119. Which age group accounts for the maximum population in the state?
a) 0–14
b) 15–24
c) 25–34
d) 35–44

120. If the difference between the populations of 25–34 and 45–54 is 20 million, what
is the approximate total population of the state?
a) 400 million
b) 500 million
c) 450 million
d) 350 million