14-12-2025

1803CJA101029250117 JM

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) For the plane electromagnetic wave given by E = E0 sin (ωt – kx) and B = B0 sin (ωt – kx), the ratio
of average electric energy density to average magnetic energy density is

(A) 1
(B) 1/2
(C) 2
(D) 4

2) Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram attached

(A) OR
(B) NOR
(C) NAND
(D) AND

3) A small ball of mass M and density ρ is dropped in a viscous liquid of density ρ0. After some time,
the ball falls with a constant velocity. What is the viscous force on the ball ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
4) The number of air molecules per cm3 increased from 3 × 1019 to 12 × 1019. The ratio of collision
frequency of air molecules before and after the increase in number respectively is

(A) 1.25
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.75
(D) 0.50

5) A source supplies heat to a system at the rate of 1000 W. If the system performs work at a rate of
200 W. The rate at which internal energy of the system increases

(A) 1200 W
(B) 600 W
(C) 500 W
(D) 800 W

6) A particle is moving with constant speed in a circular path. When the particle turns by an angle
90°, the ratio of instantaneous velocity to its average velocity is .The value of x will be

(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 1
(D) 7

7) A small block of mass 100 g is tied to a spring of spring constant 7.5 N/m and length 20 cm. The
other end of spring is fixed at a particular point A. If the block moves in a circular path on a smooth
horizontal surface with constant angular velocity 5 rad/s about point A, then tension in the spring is

(A) 1.5 N
(B) 0.75 N
(C) 0.25 N
(D) 0.50 N

8) A monochromatic light wave with wavelength λ1 and frequency ν1 in air enters another medium. If
the angle of incidence and angle of refraction at the interface are 45° and 30° respectively, then the
wavelength λ2 and frequency ν2 of the refracted wave are :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

9) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : When a body is projected at an angle 45°, it’s range is maximum.
Reason R : For maximum range, the value of sin2θ should be equal to one.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct R is the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

10) Two resistances are given as and . The percentage error in

the measurement of equivalent resistance when they are connected in parallel is

(A) 6.33
(B) 2.33
(C) 4.33
(D) 5.33

11) A planet has double the mass of the earth. Its average density is equal to the that of the earth.
An object weighing W on earth will weigh on that planet :

(A) 22/3 W
(B) W
(C) 21/3 W
(D) 2 W

12) The value of the acceleration due to gravity is g1&nbspat a height (where, R = radius of
the earth) from the surface of the earth. It is again equal to g1 at a depth d below the surface of the
earth. The ratio (d/R) is equals to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

13) For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell, the electric potential (V) radially away from the
center (O) of shell can be graphically represented as
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

14) The resistivity (ρ) of semiconductor varies with temperature. Which of the following curve
represents the correct behaviour

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

15) The kinetic energy of an electron, α-particle and a proton are given as 4K, 2K and K respectively.
The de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron (λe) α-particle (λα) and the proton (λp) are as
follows :

(A) λα = λp < λe
(B) λα > λp > λe
(C) λα < λp < λe
(D) λα = λp > λe

16) An electron is constrained to move along the y-axis with a speed of 0.1 c (c is the speed of light)
in the presence of electromagnetic wave, whose electric field is
. The maximum magnetic force experienced by the
electron will be : (given c = 3 × 10 ms and electron charge = 1.6 × 10–19 C)
8 –1

(A) 1.6 × 10–19 N

(B) 4.8 × 10–19 N
(C) 3.2 × 10–18 N
(D) 2.4 × 10–18 N

17) The energy levels of an hydrogen atom are shown below. The transition corresponding to
emission of shortest wavelength is

(A) C
(B) D
(C) B
(D) A

18) A mass m is attached to two springs as shown in figure. The spring constants of two springs are
K1 and K2. For the frictionless surface, the time period of oscillation of mass m is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

19) The induced emf can be produced in a coil by

A. moving the coil with uniform speed inside magnetic field
B. moving the coil with non-uniform speed inside uniform magnetic field
C. rotating the coil inside the uniform magnetic field
D. changing the area of the coil inside the uniform magnetic field
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) B and D only

(B) B and C only
(C) A and C only
(D) C and D only

20) A long straight wire of circular cross-section (radius a) is carrying steady current I. The current I
is uniformly distributed across this cross-section. The magnetic field is

(A) Zero in the region r < a and inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
(B) Inversely proportional to r in the region r < a and uniform throughout in the region r > a
(C) Directly proportional to r in the region r < a and inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
Uniform in the region r < a and inversely proportional to distance r from the axis, in the region
(D)
r>a

SECTION-II

1) The length of a metallic wire is increased by 20% and its area of cross section is reduced by 4%.
The percentage change in resistance of the metallic wire is _______ .

2) Two identical circular wires of radius 20 cm and carrying current A are placed in
perpendicular planes as shown in figure. The net magnetic field at the centre of the circular wire is
_______ × 10–8 T. (Take π = 3.14)
3) The radius of fifth orbit of the Li++ is _____ × 10–12 m. Take : radius of hydrogen atom = 0.51Å

4) An ideal transformer with purely resistive load operates at 12 kV on the primary side. It supplies
electrical energy to a number of nearby houses at 120 V. The average rate of energy consumption in
the houses served by the transformer is 60 kW. The value of resistive load (Rs) required in the
secondary circuit will be ______ mΩ.

5) A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and plate separation d is filled with a dielectric
material of dielectric constant K = 4. The thickness of the dielectric material is x, where x < d.

Let C1 and C2 be the capacitance of the system for and , respectively. If C1 = 2μF the
value of C2 is ______ μF.

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) In Arrehenius equation if a graph is plotted between log k and , the slope of the curve will be:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
2) What is correct IUPAC name of mentioned complex

(A) fac-triglycinatocobalt (III)

(B) mer-triglycinatocobalt (III)
(C) cis-triglycinatocobalt (III)
(D) fac-triglycinatocobalt (0)

3) The standard electrode potential of M+/M in aqueous solution does not depend on

(A) Ionisation of a solid metal atom

(B) Sublimation of a solid metal
(C) Ionisation of a gaseous metal atom
(D) Hydration of a gaseous metal ion

4) Which of the following nitrogenous base is not present in DNA

(A) Adenine
(B) Guanine
(C) Cytosine
(D) Uracil

5) The difference between electron gain enthalpies will be maximum between:

(A) Ne and F
(B) Ne and Cl
(C) Ar and Cl
(D) Ar and F

6) Match List I with List II

List I List II
Enzymatic reaction Enzyme

A Sucrose → Glucose and Fructose I. Zymase

B Glucose → ethyl alcohol and CO2 II. Pepsin

 C Starch → Maltose III. Invertase

D Proteins → Amino acids IV. Diastase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(B) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(D) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

7) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(A) Oxidizing power order : SiCl4 < SnCl4 < PbCl4

(B) Ionic character order : CsBr > RbBr > KBr > NaBr > LiBr
(C) The ionic character of lead (II) halides decreases with increase in atomic no. of halogen
(D) The oxidation state of Tℓ in Tℓ I3 is +3.

8) The INCORRECT option out of the following is :

(A) IP2 of Li > IP2 of Be

(B) EA1 of F > EA1 of Br
(C) IP1 of Pb < IP1 of Sn
(D) N2O5 > CO2 (acidic nature)

9) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as assertion and the other is labelled as reason .
Assertion: Loss of electron from hydrogen atom results in nucles of ~1.5 × 10–3 pm size.
Reason: Proton (H+) always exists in combined form
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) A is correct but R is not correct
(C) A is not correct but R is correct
(D) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

10)
Compound P is neutral. Q gives effervescence with NaHCO3 while R reacts with Hinsbergs reagent
to give solid soluble in NaOH. Compound P is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

11) Match List I with List II

List I List II
Name of reaction Reagent used

A Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction I. NaOH + I2

(i) CrO2Cl2,CS2
B Iodoform reaction II.
(ii) H2O

(i) Br2/red phosphorus

C Etard reaction III.
(ii) H2O

D Gatterman-Koch reaction IV. CO, HCl, anhyd. A1C13

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(C) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

12) The major products A and B from the following reactions are:
 A= ,B=
(A)

A= ,B=
(B)

(C) A = ,B=

(D) A = ,B=

13) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: The spin only magnetic moment value for [Fe(CN)6]3– is 1.74 BM, whereas for
[Fe(H2O)6]3+ is 5.92 BM.
Reason R : In both complexes, Fe is present in +3 oxidation state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(B) A is false but R is true
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

14) From the given compound the number of compound which are less basic than

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv) CH3–CH2–NH–CH2–CH3

(v)

(vi) CH3–C≡N

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 4

15) Which of the following give blood red coloration with SCN¯

(A) Cu2+
(B) Fe3+
(C) Aℓ3+
(D) Zn2+

16) Match List I with List II

List I List II
Oxide Type of Bond

A N2O4 I. 1N = O bond

B NO2 II. 1N – O – N bond

C N2O5 III. 1N – N bond

D N2O IV. 1N = N / N ≡ N bond

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(B) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

17) Strong reducing and oxidizing agents among the following, respectively, are

(A) Ce4+ and Eu2+

(B) Ce4+ and Tb4+
(C) Ce3+ and Ce4+
(D) Eu2+ and Ce4+

18) The major product formed in the following reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

19) For a concentrated solution of a weak electrolyte (Keq= equilibrium constant) A2B3 of
concentration ‘c’, the degree of dissociation "α" is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

20) For the reaction:

The correct statement is :

(A) The transition state formed in the above reaction is less polar than the localised anion.
(B) The reaction can occur in acetic acid also.
(C) The solvent used in the reaction solvates the ions formed in rate determining step.
(D) Br– can act as competing nucleophile.

SECTION-II

1) The wavelength of an electron of kinetic energy 4.50 × 10–29J is…… × 10–5 m. (Nearest integer)
Given : mass of electron is 9 × 10–31 kg, h =6.6 × 10–34 J s

2) Number of bromo derivatives obtained on treating ethane with excess of Br2, in diffused sunlight
is…

3) Mass of Urea (NH2CONH2) required to be dissolved in 1000 g of water to reduce the vapour
pressure of water by 25% is……g. (Nearest integer)
Given: Molar mass of N, C, O and H are 14, 12, 16 and 1 g mol–1 respectively.

4) The value of log K for the reaction A⇋ B at 298 K is ……. (Nearest integer)
0
Given: ∆H = – 54.07 kJ mol–1
∆S° = 10 JK–1 mol–1
(Take 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 = 5705)

5) The number of species from the following which have square pyramidal structure is
PF5, BrF4– , IF5; BrF5, XeOF4, ICl4–

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

1) If the ratio of the fifth term from the begining to the fifth term from the end in the expansion of

is , then the third term from the beginning is:

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

2) Let and . If is a vector perpendicular to

both and and = 18, Then is equal to

(A) 640
(B) 760
(C) 680
(D) 720

3) The mean and variance of a set of 15 numbers are 12 and 14 respectively. The mean and variance
of another set of 15 numbers are 14 and σ2 respectively. If the variance of all the 30 numbers in the
two sets is 13, then σ2

(A) 9
(B) 12
(C) 11
(D) 10

4) Let . If I(0) = 0 the I is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5) is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6) If the system of equations

x + y + az = b
2x + 5y + 2z = 6
x + 2y + 3z = 3
has infinitely many solutions, then 2a + 3b is equal to
(A) 23
(B) 28
(C) 25
(D) 20

7) If 2xy + 3yx = 20, then at (2, 2) is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

8) Let and Then, A∩B :

(A) is an empty set

(B) contains exactly two elements
(C) contains exactly three elements
(D) is an infinite set

9) Bag A contains 2 white, 1 black and 3 red balls and bag B contains 3 black, 2 red and n white
balls. One bag is chosen at random and 2 balls drawn from it at random, are found to be 1 red and 1

black. If the probability that both balls come from Bag A is , then n is equal to _____.

(A) 13
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 3

10) If the sum of the squares of the reciprocals of the roots α and β of the equation 3x2 + λx – 1 = 0
is 15, then 6(α3 + β3)2 is equal to :

(A) 18
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) 96

11) The tangent at the point (x1, y1) on the curve y = x3 + 3x2 + 5 passes through the origin, then (x1,
y1) does NOT lie on the curve :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

12) If where n is an even integer, is an arithmetic progression with common difference 1, and

=192, then n is equal to:

(A) 48
(B) 96
(C) 92
(D) 104

13) Let be a tangent to the hyperbola . Then is equal to

(A) –2
(B) –4
(C) 2
(D) 4

14) The domain of the function is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these

15) Let

if then T + n(S) is equal

(A)
(B) 9
(C)
(D) 10
16) Let P be a plane passing through the points (2, 1, 0), (4, 1, 1) and (5, 0, 1) and R be any point (2,
1, 6). Then the image of R in the plane P is :

(A) (6, 5, –2)

(B) (4, 3, 2)
(C) (3, 4, –2)
(D) (6, 5, 2)

17) Let , 0 ≤ x ≤ 3, y ≥ 0, y (0) = 0. Then at x = 2, y" + y + 1 is equal to

:

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C)
(D) 1/2

18) The area (in square units) of the region enclosed by the ellipse x2 + 3y2 = 18 in the first quadrant
below the line y = x is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

19) is equal to :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

20) If , x is not equal to zero, then f(2) is equal to-

(A)
(B)

(C) –1
(D) none of these

SECTION-II

1) In an examination, there are 5 multiple choice questions with 3 choices, out of which exactly one
is correct There are 3 marks for each correct answer, –2 marks for each wrong answer and 0 mark if
the question is not attempted. Then, the number of ways a student appearing in the examination
gets 5 marks is_.

2) Let a line having direction ratios 1, –4, 2 intersect the lines and

at the point A and B. Then (AB)2 is equal to ____ .

3) Let S be the set of points where the function, f(x) = , x ∈ R, is not differentiable. Then

is equal to __________.

4) is equal to ____________.

5) Consider the matrices : A = ,B= and X = . Let the set of all m, for which the
system of equations AX = B has a negative solution (i.e., x < 0 and y < 0), be the interval (a, b).

Then is equal to ________.

 ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. A B A B D A B B B C C D A B C B B C D C

SECTION-II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 25 628 425 240 3

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. B B A D B C D C D B D D A D B D D C A A

SECTION-II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 7 9 1111 10 3

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. B D D C B A B D C B D B D D B A A B A A

SECTION-II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 40 84 3 36 450
 SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

1)

2)

Circuit is closed when neither A nor B is closed ⇒ current flows for A = 0 B = 0 when either or
both of A & B is closed we get current bypass from switch Hence it is “NOR” gate

3)

For constant velocity Fnet = 0

Fvis + ρ0vg = ρvg
Fvis = (ρ – ρ0) vg

4) Collision frequency,

∴ f ∝ nv, nv is number density

5) dQ = dU + dw
 = 1000 – 200 = 800 W

6)
Let instantaneous velocity be v. time,

average velocity,

7)

Let extension in length of spring be x.

Radius of circle r = 0.2 + x

Kx = mω2r

Tension in spring = kx =
= 0.75 N
8)
Snell’s law μ1 sin 45° = μ2 sin 30°

Frequency doesn’t change on change in medium.

9)
R is maximum for 2θ = 90°.

10)
Differentiating both sides, we get

11)
12) Given that, acceleration due to gravity at height h from the surface of earth=acceleration

due to gravity at depth d given the surface of earth = g1

13)

14)

With rise in temperature, number density (n) of electrons and holes increases for
semiconductors.
As m, e, τ are constant

[Rectangular hyperbola]

15)
λα < λp < λe

16) Question Explanation: Calculating maximum magnetic force on a charge.

Concept: Lorentz Force
Solution:-
⇒E=

⇒ B ⇒ E/V ⇒
⇒ 10–7 Tesla

⇒ Fmag = = |qVB|
= 1.6 × 10 × 0.1 × 3 × 108 × 10–7
–19

= 4.8 × 10–19 N
Final Answer:- Option (2)

17)

For shortest wavelength, energy gap should be maximum.

So, correct choice is transition from n = 3 to n = 1.

18)

On displacing m to right by x
F = – (k1x + k2x) = –(k1 + k2)x
19)
Moving a coil inside a uniform magnetic field either with uniform or non-uniform speed doesn’t
changes flux, so, no emf is induced.

20)

21) be the initial resistance new resistance

percentage change

22) Magnetic field BC at center

Net magnetic field is

= 200π × 10–8T
= 2 × 314 × 10–8T
= 628 × 10–8T

23)
= 425 × 10–12 m

24)

vp = 12 × 103 volts
vs = 120 volts
ps = 60 KW = vs ×is
 = 240 mΩ

25)

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

26)

27)

Explanation Question: Select correct IUPAC name of given complex.

Concept: This question is based on IUPAC name.
Solution:

[Co(gly)3]

x + (–1 × 3) = 0
x = +3 oxidation state
So name will be-

Final Answer
The correct option is (2)

28) Factual

29) New Solution :

In DNA "uracil" is not present as a nitrogenous base.

Old Solution :
Uracil is not present in DNA

30) Cl has the most negative ∆Heg among all the elements and Ne has the most positive ∆Heg.

31) Factual

32)

In Tl I3 Tl in +1 oxidiation state

33)

IP1 of Pb < IP1 of Sn

34) Factual
35)

36)

HVZ reactions = Br2 / red P

Iodoform reaction = NaOH + I2
Etard reaction = (i) CrO2 Cl2, CS2(ii) H2O
Gatterman-Koch Reaction = CO, HCl, Anhydrous, AlCl3

37)

38) [Fe(CN)6]3–
Unpaired electron = 1

[Fe(H2O)6]3+ No pairing because H2O is WFL

Number of unpaired electrons = 5, µ = 5.92 BM
Assertion is true, Reason is true but not correct explanation.

39) i, iv, v, vi

40) Fe3+ + 3SCN¯ → Fe(SCN)3 Blood red coloration

41) N2O4

NO2

N2O5

N2O

and

42) Factual
43)

44) ⇌
c(1-α) 2cα 3cα

45) This is finkelstein reaction

Transition state
Clearly, the transition state is less polar than free anions. Br–and I–
Acetic acid is protic which does not support SN2
Acetone does not solvate anion
Br– gets precipitated and hence can not compete with I–
So only (A) is correct

46)

= 7.3 × 10–5 m
Therefore Ans = 7
47) CH3 – CH3 + Br2 (Excess)

Monobromo

Dibromo

Tribromo

Tretrabromo

Pentabromo

Hexabromo

48)

49)
0
∆G0 =∆H –T∆S
⇒∆G0 =(–54070 – 10 × 298)
Also, ∆G0 =(–2.303 RT log K)
⇒(–54070 – 10 × 298)
= (–2.303 × 8.134 × 298logK)
⇒ log K = 10 Ans: 10

50)

PF5
sp3d (0 lone pair)
Trigonal bipyramidal

BrF4– ,
sp3d2 (2 lone pair)
 square planar
IF5
sp3d2 (1 lone pair)

square pyramidal
BrF5
sp3d2 (1 lone pair)

square pyramidal
XeOF4
sp3d2 (1 lone pair)

square pyramidal
–
ICl4
3 2
sp d (2 lone pair)

square planar

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

51)
⇒ n = 10

So T3 = 10C2

52)
 =

λ=2

So

53) Combine var. =

13 =

54)
Let xtan x + 1= t

As I(0) = 0 ⇒ C = 0

55)
 .

56)
a=7

= 0 ⇒11b – 12 – 21 = 0
b=3
2a + 3b = 23

57) 2xy + 3yx = 20

58)

has infinite set.

59)

E1 = denotes selection for 1st bag

E2 = denotes selection for 2nd bag

P (E1) = , P(E2) =
A = selected balls are 1 red & 1 black
=
⇒n=4

60) Here α + β roots of equation

λ2 = 9

Now

61) The tangent at (x1, y1) to the curve

passing through origin

--------(1)
And (x1 ,y1) lies on the curve

...........(2)
From equation (1) and (2)

Hence the equation of curve

This curve does not intersect

62) ..........(1)

..........(2)
From equation (2) and (1)

n = 480 –384 = 96

63) is a tangent to the curve

 then

Disc. = 0

64)

....(1)

....(2)
after taking intersection

after taking intersection of each solution

65)

=
which is not possible

n(s) = 5

T=4
T + n(s) = 9

66) Plane passing through : (2, 1, 0), (4, 1, 1) and (5, 0, 1)

 =0
⇒ x + y – 2z = 3

Let I and F are respectively image and foot of perpendicular of point P in the plane.

eqn of line PI
Let I (λ + 2 , λ + 1, –2λ + 6)

F lies in the plane

⇒λ=4
⇒ I (6, 5, –2)

67)

1–

OR
⇒ sin y = x + c, sin–1y = –x + c
–1

x = 0, y = 0 ⇒ c = 0
sin–1 y = x, as y ≥ 0
sinx = y

⇒ – sinx + sinx + 1 = 1
68)

⇒ 4x2 = 18 ⇒ x2 =

=
Required Area

69)

70) ....(i)

Put

∴ .....(ii)
Now, 2 × (i) + 3 × (ii);
⇒

∴
For x = 2

71) Only one possibilities 3, 3, 3, -2, -2

Number of ways is =

72) DR’s of AB

Taking first (2)

Taking second & third

After solving above two equation

A = (–8, 6, 7)
B = (–6, –2, –3)
(AB)2 = 4 + 64 + 16 = 84

73) f(x) = |2 – |x – 3||

f is not differentiable at
x = 1, 3, 5

⇒
= f(0) + f(2) + f(0)
=1+1+1=3

74)

=
= 36

75)

2x – 5y = 20 …(1)
3x + my = m …(2)

y<0⇒

x<0⇒

⇒
|A| = 2m + 15
Now,