24-08-2025

1001CMD303101250004 MD

PHYSICS

1) Figure shows a copper rod joined to a steel rod. The rods have equal length and equal cross-
sectional area. The free end of the copper rod is kept at 0°C and that of the steel rod is kept at
100°C. Find the temperature at the junction of the rods. (Conductivity of copper = 390 W/m–°C and
that of steel = 46 W/m-°C)

(1) 5.3°C
(2) 10.6°C
(3) 20.1°C
(4) 15°C

2) Two identical plates of metal are welded end to end as shown in figure (A); 20 cal of heat flows
through it in 4 minutes. The temperature difference across the two ends is maintained the same for
both the systems. If the plates are welded as shown in figure (B), the same amount of heat will flow

through the plates in :-

(1) 1 minute
(2) 2 minute
(3) 4 minute
(4) 16 minute

3) The figures given below show different processes for a given amount for an ideal gas. ΔW is work
done by the system and ΔQ is heat absorbed by the system. Match the lists and select the correct

options.
 List-I List-II

(P) ΔQ > 0 (1) In figure (i)

(Q) ΔW < 0 (2) In figure (ii)

(R) ΔQ < 0 (3) In figure (iii)

(S) ΔW > 0 (4) In figure (iv)

(5) In figure (v)

(1) P-1,3,5; Q-4; R-4; S-1,2,3,4
(2) P-1,3,5; Q-5; R-3; S-1,2,3
(3) P-1,3,4; Q-3; R-2; S-1,3,5
(4) P-1,3,5; Q-5; R-3; S-1,2,3

4) Three liquids A, B and C having same specific heat and mass m, 2m and 3m have temperature
20°C, 40°C and 60°C respectively. Temperature of the mixture when :

Column-I Column-II

(A) A and B are mixed (P) 35°C

(B) A and C are mixed (Q) 52°C

(C) B and C are mixed (R) 50°C

(D) A, B and C all three are mixed (S) None of above

(1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(2) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-S
(3) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q

5) Assertion :For higher temperature, the peak emission wavelength of a black body shifts to lower
wavelength.
Reason : Peak emission wavelength of black body is proportional to the fourth power of
temperature.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

6) The distribution of relative intensity I(λ) of blackbody radiation from a solid body versus the
wavelength λ is shown in the figure. If the Wien displacement law constant is 2.9 × 10–3 mK, what is

the approximate temperature of the object?

(1) 50 K
(2) 250 K
(3) 1450 K
(4) 6250 K

7) The spectral emissive power Eλ for a body at temperature T1 is plotted against the wavelength and
area under the curve is found to be A. At a different temperature T2, the area is found to be 9A. Then

λ1/λ2 = . Find the value of x.

(1) 9
(2) 3
(3) 81
(4) 27

8) A body cools in 7 minutes from 60o C to 40o C . What will be its temperature after the next 7
minutes? The temperature of surroundings is 10o C . (Assume Newton’s law of cooling is valid)

(1) 28o C
(2) 56o C
(3) 38o C
(4) 18o C

9) A spherical body of area A, and emissivity e = 0.8 is kept inside a black body. What is the rate at
which energy is radiated per second by the spherical body at temperature T ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) The spectral emission power of a black body at 6000 K is maximum at 5500 Å. If the temperature
is increased by 10% then decrease in the value of λm will be

(1) 10%
(2) 11.1%
(3) 5.0%
(4) 9.1%

11) Figure shows the variation of the internal energy U with the density ρ of one mole of ideal
monoatomic gas for a thermodynamic cycle ABCA. Here process AB is a part of rectangular
hyperbola. The P-V diagram of above process is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

12) A thermodynamic system undergoes a cyclic process as shown in figure. The cycle consists of

two loops: I and II.

(1) Over one complete cycle, system does a positive work

(2) Over one complete cycle, heat flows out of the system
(3) In each of the loop I and II, net work done is positive
(4) In loop II, heat flows into the system

13) For the two processes shown, which of the following is not true ?
(1) QA > QB
(2) ΔUA = ΔUB
(3) QA < QB
(4) WA > WB

14) One mole of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes four thermodynamic processes as shown
schematically in the PV-diagram below. Among these four processes, one is isobaric, one is
isochoric, one is isothermal and one is adiabatic. Match the processes mentioned in List-I with the

corresponding statements in List–II.

List–I List–II

P. In process I 1. Work done by the gas is zero

Temperature of the gas remains

Q. In process II 2.
unchanged

No heat is exchanged between

R. In process III 3.
the gas and its surroundings

Work done by the gas is

S. In process IV 4.
6 P0V0
(1) P → 4 ; Q → 3 ; R → 1 ; S → 2
(2) P → 1 ; Q → 3 ; R → 2 ; S → 4
(3) P → 3 ; Q → 4 ; R → 1 ; S → 2
(4) P → 3 ; Q → 4 ; R → 2 ; S → 1

15) A gas is taken along the path AB as shown in figure. If 70 cal of heat is extracted from the gas in
the process, calculate the approximate change in the internal energy of the system.
(1) –196 J
(2) –221 J
(3) –241 J
(4) –250 J

16) A sample ‘A’ of liquid water and a sample B of ice of equal mass are kept in two nearby
containers so that they can exchange heat with each other but are thermally insulated from the
surroundings. The graphs in list-II show the sketch of temperature T of samples versus time t. Match
with appropriate description in list-I.

List-I List-II

Equilibrium temperature is
(P) (1)
above melting point of ice.

(Q) At least some of water freezes. (2)

(R) At least some of ice melts. (3)

Equilibrium temperature is
(S) (4)
below freezing point of water.

(1) P-2, Q-1,3; R-4, S-3

(2) P-1, Q-2; R-3, S-4
(3) P-3, Q-2; R-4, S-1
(4) P-4, Q-3; R-2, S-1

17) 10 kg of ice at –10°C is mixed with 40 kg of water at 45°C. The final temperature of mixture is
: (specific heat of ice = 2100 J/kg-k)

(1) 19°C
(2) 17°C
(3) 15°C
(4) 13°C

18) The temperature drop through a two layer furnace wall is 900°C. Each layer is of equal area of
cross–section. Which of the following action(s) will result in lowering the temperature θ of the
interface?

(1) By decreasing the thermal conductivity of outer layer.

(2) By increasing the thermal conductivity of inner layer.
(3) By increasing thickness of outer layer.
(4) By increasing thickness of inner layer

19) Different combination of cylinder are shown in the figure. Select the correct alternatives for the
thermal resistance of the following combinations for axial heat current flow :

A thin cylinder of diameter 'd' is surrounded by another

cylinder.

(1)
Thermal resistance of '1' combination is
Thermal resistance of '2' combination is
(2)

(3)
Thermal resistance of '1' combination is
Thermal resistance of '2' combination is
(4)

20) Assertion : When you touch two bodies, the body which is felt warmer must be of higher
temperature than the other one.
Reason : The heat flows from higher temperature to lower temperature.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true, reason is the correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true, reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is true; reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false; reason is true.

21) When water is heated from 0° to 10°C, its volume

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) First increases and then decrease
(4) First decreases and then increases

22) A metal sphere of radius r and specific heat s is rotated about an axis passing through its centre
at a speed of n rotations per second. It is suddenly stopped and 50% of its energy is used in
increasing its temperature. Then the rise in temperature of the sphere is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) It is difficult to cook rice in an open vessel by boiling it a high altitudes because of

(1) Low boiling point and high pressure

(2) High boiling point and low pressure
(3) Low boiling point and low pressure
(4) High boiling point and high pressure

24) Ice starts freezing in a lake with water at 0°C when the atmospheric temperature is –10°C. If the
time taken for 1 cm of ice to be formed is 12 minutes, the time taken for the thickness of the ice to
change from 1 cm to 2 cm will be :-

(1) 12 minute
(2) less than 12 minutes
(3) more than 12 minutes but less than 24 minute
(4) more than 24 minutes

25) An ideal black body at room temperature is thrown into a furnace. It is observed that-

(1) initially it is the darkest body and at the later times the brighest.
(2) it is darkest body at all times.
(3) it cannot be distinguished at all times.
(4) initially it is the darkest and at later times it cannot be distinguished.

26) During total solar eclipse, Fraunhoffer lines appear to be brighter because:
(1) Moon blocks the chromosphere and we receive the radiations only from photosphere
(2) Moon blocks the photosphere and we receive the radiation only from chromosphere
(3) Moon blocks both photosphere and chromosphore and we receive radiation only from nucleus
(4) Moon blocks nucleus and we receive radiations from both photosphere and chromosphere

27) There is a black spot on a body. If the body is heated and carried in a dark room, then it glows
more. This can be explained on the basis of :–

(1) Newton's law of cooling

(2) Wein's law
(3) Kirchhoff's law
(4) Stefan's law

28) A solid body is heated upto very high temperatures. As we go on heating, its brightness
increases and it appears white at the end. The sequence of the colour observed as the temperature
of the body incress will be.

(1) Yellow, green, red, white

(2) Green, yellow, red, white
(3) Red, green, yellow, white
(4) Red, yellow, green, white

29) Statement - 1 : PV value of gas can increase on increasing the pressure.

Statement - 2 : Pressure always increases on compression.

(1) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

30) Assertion : Blue star is at higher temperature than red star.

Reason : According to Wien's displacement law , where symbols have their usual meanings.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

31) Assertion :- When a bottle of cold carbonated drink is opened, a slight fog forms around the
opening.
Reason :- Adiabatic expansion of the gas causes lowering of temperature and condensation of water
vapours.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

32) Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT ?

(i) a body with large reflectivity is a poor emitter
(ii) a brass tumbler feels much colder than a wooden tray on a chilled day
(iii) the earth without its atmosphere would be inhospitably cold during night.
(iv) heating systems based on circulation of steam are more efficient in warming a building than
those based on circulation of hot water
Correct option are :-

(1) i & ii only

(2) i, ii & iv
(3) i & iv only
(4) i, ii, iii & iv

33) Two bodies 1 and 2 of equal mass m are heated at a uniform rate under identical conditions.
Their change in temperatures are shown. Then the ratio of 2 and 1:

(i) The ratio of melting points of the substances is 1.5.

(ii) The ratio of their latent heats is 4/3.
(iii)The ratio of specific heat of two substances is 0.33 in solid state.
(iv) The ratio of specific heat of two substances is 1/2 in liquid state.

(1) (i), (iii)

(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (iii), (iv)
(4) All

34) Diagram shows the variation of potential energy with separation between the two atoms for
three different substances. All the objects are nearly at absolute zero temperature. Choose the

incorrect statement :

(1) Substance 'A' expands on heating

(2) Substance 'B' contracts on heating.
(3) Substance 'C' contracts on heating.
(4) Substance 'B' neither expands nor contracts on heating.
35) When the temperature of a copper coin is raised by 80°C, its diameter increases by 0.2%. Then
the incorrect statement is :

(1) Percentage rise in the area of a face is 0.4 %

(2) Percentage rise in the thickness is 0.4 %
(3) Percentage rise in the volume is 0.6 %
(4) Coefficient of linear expansion of copper is 0.25 × 10–4 C°–1.

36) A vessel contains 1 mole of O2 gas (molar mass 32) at a temperature T. The pressure of the gas is
P. An identical vessel containing one mole of the gas (molar mass 4) at a temperature 2T has a
pressure of :-

(1)

(2) P
(3) 2P
(4) 8P

37) If mean free path of atoms is doubled at constant temperature then the pressure of gas will
become :-

(1) P/4
(2) P/2
(3) P/8
(4) P

38) The ratio of work done by an ideal diatomic gas to the heat supplied by the gas in an isobaric
process is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) 14 g of N2 gas is heated in a closed rigid container to increase its temperature from 23°C to
43°C. The amount of heat supplied to the gas is

(1) 25 cal
(2) 50 cal
(3) 100 cal
(4) 30 cal

40) The graph between longitudinal strain and longitudinal stress for two wires is as shown in
figure. The ratio of young modulus for wire P and Q is-

(1) 1 : 3
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 2

41) Breaking stress of a wire depends on :

(1) Material of wire

(2) Length of wire
(3) Radius of wire
(4) Shape of cross section

42) Two wires have the same diameter and length. One is made of copper and the other brass. They
are connected together at one end. When free ends are pulled in opposite direction by same force,
then :

(1) The wires will have same strain

(2) The wires will have same stress
(3) Both the wires will break at the same force
(4) Both wires will have same elogation

Common Content for Question No. 43 to 44

Here graph is plotted between stress and strain for two wire A and B made of different material.

43) Select the correct statement on the basis of graph given :-

(1) Young's modulus of wire A is greater & it is more brittle.

(2) Young's modulus of wire B is greater & it is more ductile.
(3) Young's modulus of wire A is greater & it is less ductile
(4) Young's modulus of wire A is greater & it is more ductile

44) Material which is good for making wire :-

(1) B
(2) A
(3) Both are equally good.
(4) None

45) The graph shown is the extension of wire of length 1m suspended from the top of a roof at one
end and with a load W connected to the other end. If the cross sectional area of the wire is 1 mm2,

then the Young's modulus of the material of the wire is :-

(1) 2 × 1011 Nm–1

(2) 2 × 1010 Nm–2

(3)
× 1011 Nm–2
(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY

1) Consider the following four electrodes,

P = Cu2+ (0.0001 M) / Cu(s)
Q = Cu2+ (0.1 M) / Cu(s)
R = Cu2+ (0.01 M) / Cu(s)
S = Cu2+ (0.001 M) / Cu(s)
If the standard reduction potential of Cu+2 / Cu is 0.34 V, the reduction potential in volt of the above
electrodes follow the order :-

(1) Q > R > S > P

(2) P > S > R > Q
(3) R > S > Q > P
(4) P > Q > R > S

2) EMF diagram for some ions is given as :-

Determine the value of E° for is :

(1) 1.84 V
(2) 1.6 V
(3) 2.52 V
(4) 7.36 V

3) The standard reduction potential at 25°C for the following half reactions are given against each:
Zn2+(aq) + 2e– Zn(s), –0.762 V
3+ –
Cr (aq) + 3e Cr(s),–0.740 V
+ –
2H + 2e H2(g), 0.00 V
3+ –
Fe (aq) + e Fe2+(aq), 0.77 V
Which is the strongest reducing agent?

(1) Zn
(2) Cr
(3) H2(g)
(4) Fe2+(aq)

4) Which of the following metal do not evolve H2 gas from dilute acid?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)

We have an oxidation-reduction system

[Fe(CN)6]3– + e– [Fe(CN)6]4– E0 = +0.36V

The ratio of concentration of oxidized and reduced from at which the potential of system becomes
0.24V is [Given 2.303RT/F = 0.06] :-
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 100 : 1
(4) 1 : 100

6) Which of the following represents correct relation between standard electrode potential and
equilibrium constant and choose the correct option:-

(i) (ii) K = enFE°/RT

(iii) (iv)

(1) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct

(2) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(4) (i), and (iii) are correct

7) Find the equilibrium constant at 298 K for the reaction

Cu+2 + In+2(aq) ⇌ Cu+(aq) + In+3(aq)
Given

(1) 1020
(2) 1010
(3) 105
(4) None of these

8) The reduction potential of hydrogen half-cell will be negative if :

+
(1) P(H2) = 1 atm and [H ] = 2.0 M
+
(2) p(H2) = 1 atm and [H ] = 1.0 M
+
(3) p(H2) = 2 atm and [H ] = 1.0 M
+
(4) p(H2) = 2 atm and [H ] = 2.0 M

9)
Calculate the standard Gibbs free energy change for above cell reaction :

(1) –115.8 KJ/mole

(2) –38.6 KJ/mole
(3) –19.3 KJ/mole
(4) –77.2 KJ/mole

10) Given :

Above cell reaction will be spontaneous if :-

(1) C1 > C2 and P1 = P2

(2) P2 = P1 and C1 = C2
(3) C1 < C2 and P1 = P2
(4) P2 < P1 and C1 = C2

11)

When an aqueous solution of CuSO4 is stirred with a silver spoon then :

(1) Cu+ will be formed

(2) Ag+ will be formed
(3) Cu2+ will be deposited
(4) None of these

12) 1.08 g Ag metal was deposited when 1 ampere current for 15 minute was passed through
AgNO3 (aq). The electrochemical equivalent of Ag is -
(1) 1.2 × 10–5
(2) 1.2 × 10–2
(3) 1.2 × 10–3
(4) 1.2 × 10–4

13) Match the following process with quantity of charge required

Column-
Column-I
II

Electrolysis of H2O to give

(A) (P) 3F
5.6L O2 at STP

Conversion of 0.5 mole Cr2O72–

(B) (Q) 4F
into Cr3+

(C) Reduction of 18g Al3+ into Al (R) 1F

(D) Electrolysis of 2L, 1M CuSO4 (S) 2F

solution to give Cu
(1) A → Q, B → P, C → S, D → R
(2) A → S, B → R, C → Q, D → P
(3) A → R, B → P, C → S, D → Q
(4) A → P, B → S, C → R, D → Q

14) Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50Ω. The specific conductance of the solution is
1.3 S m–1. If resistance of the 0.4 M solution of the same electrolyte is 260 Ω, its molar conductivity is
:

(1) 6250 S2mol–1

(2) 6.25 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1
(3) 625 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1
(4) 62.5 m2mol–1

15) The Ksp for a sparingly soluble Ag2CrO4 is 4 × 10–12. The molar solubility of the salt is

(1) 2.0 × 10–6 mol L–1

(2) 1.0 × 10–4 mol L–1
(3) 2.0 × 10–12 mol L–1
(4) 1.0 × 10–15 mol L–1

16) The precipitate of CaF2(Ksp = 1.7 × 10–10) is obtained when equal volumes of the following are
mixed

(1) 10–4 M Ca2+ + 10–4 M F–

(2) 10–2 M Ca2+ + 10–3 M F–
(3) 10–4 M Ca2+ + 10–3 M F–
(4) 10–3 M Ca2+ + 10–5 M F–

17)

100 mL, 0.1 M FCH2COOH is mixed with 100 mL, 0.05 M BOH(strong base) then pH of resulting
solution will be

(Ka for FCH2COOH = 3 × 10–5) :-

(1) 5.48
(2) 4.52
(3) 6.3
(4) 8.48

18) What is the Hydronium ion concentration of 0.25 M HA solution (Ka = 4 × 10–8) :-

(1) 10–4
(2) 10–5
(3) 10–7
(4) 10–10

19) Assertion : The solubility of salts of weak acids like phosphates increases at lower pH.
Reason : At lower pH, the concentration of the anion decreases due to its protonation, which
increases the solubility of salts.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

20) Consider an electrochemical cell in which the following reaction occurs and predict which
changes will decrease the cell voltage :
Fe2+(aq) + Ag+ (aq) → Ag(s) + Fe3+ (aq)
(I) Decrease the [Ag+]
(II) Increase in [Fe3+]
(III) Increase the amount of Ag

(1) I
(2) II and III
(3) II
(4) I and II

21) What is the IUPAC name of the following compound ?

(1) 2-cyano-2-methyl hex-4-yne-ol

(2) 2-hydroxymethyl-2-methyl hex-4-yne nitrile
(3) 2-hydroxymethyl-2-methylhex-5-yne-nitrile
(4) 1-cyano-2-hydroxymethyl-2-methyl-4-hexyne

22)

The correct structure of

6-amino-4-hydroxycyclohex-2-ene-1-sulphonic
acid is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound ?

(1) 3-(2-cyanopropyl)-N-ethyl pentanamide

(2) N-ethyl-3-(2-cyanopropyl) pentanamide
(3) N,3-diethyl-4-cyanohexanamide
(4) 5-cyano-N, 3-diethyl hexanamide

24) For which of the following compounds, the IUPAC name is wrong ?

Compound IUPAC Name

2-methyl
(1) cyclopentane
carboxamide

Cyclohexanoyl
(2)
chloride
 2-methyl
(3) cyclobutane
carbonitrile

Methyl-2 bromo
(4) cyclohexane
carboxylate

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) When name of hydrocarbon 3-(1-butenyl)-1, 5-hexadiene is rewritten correctly according to

IUPAC convention, what would be the number of carbon atoms in the parent chain?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

26) According to IUPAC system

is named as :-

(1) 4–(3–carboxy–2–methyl propyl)cyclohex–2– en–1–ol

(2) 4–(4'–hydroxycyclohex–2'–enyl)–3–methyl butanoic acid
(3) 4–hydroxycyclohexenyl–3–methyl butanoic acid
(4) 4–(4'–hydroxycyclohex–2'–ynyl)–3 methyl butanoic acid

27) Calculate the 3°H in the given compound.

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

28) The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compounds in the
IUPAC system of nomenclature is

(1) –SO3H, –COCl, –CONH2, –CHO

(2) –CHO, –COCl, –SO3H, –CONH2
(3) –CONH2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COCl
(4) –COCl, –SO3H, –CONH2, –CHO

29) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Acetonitrile CH2 = CHCN

(2) Allyl Chloride CH2 = CH – CH2Cl

(3) sec-Butyl group

(4)
Ethylidene chloride

30) The correct IUPAC name of the compound is :-

(1) 1 – Ethenylcyclohexa – 2, 4 – diene

(2) 5 – Ethenylcyclohexa – 1, 3 – diene
(3) 6 - Ethenylcyclohexa – 1, 3 – diene
(4) Cyclohexa – 2, 4 – dienylethene

31) Which is not correctly named according to IUPAC nomenclature :-

(1)
3-Methylbutanamide

(2)

Ethyl 3-methoxy butanoate

(3)
5-Bromo-2,3-dimethyl hexane

(4)
2-Hydroxy-2-methylpropane cyanide

32) Number of 2° Alcoholic group present in structure

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

33) Find out the total σ and π bond in given structure respectively are :

(1) 26, 3
(2) 27, 2
(3) 25, 3
(4) 28, 6

34) Match the following columns :-

Column-II
Column-I Column-III
no. of
Molecule no. of πe–

A. P. 2 i 12

B. Q. 3 ii 6

C. R. 5 iii 4

(1) A-Q,iii, B-R,ii, C-P,i

(2) A-Q,iii, B-R,i, C-P,ii
(3) A-Q,i, B-R,i, C-P,iii
(4) A-Q,iii, B-P,ii, C-R,i

35) All are homologues except

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
36) Vanillin, salicylaldehyde and cinnamaldehyde respectively have structures :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The number of functional groups present in the following compounds is :

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 8

38) Which is correct IUPAC name of

(1) 1–Methyl propane-1, 2, 3-tricarbaldehyde

(2) Butane-1, 2, 3–trialdehyde
(3) 3–formyl–2–methyl pentanetrial
(4) Butane–1,2,3–tricarbaldehyde

39)

Define the relationship :-

(1) Identical
(2) Position isomer
(3) Chain isomer
(4) Functional group isomer

40)

Which of the following cannot be isomer of C8H8O ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Given compound show which type of isomerism:- &

(1) Chain isomerism

(2) Position isomerism
(3) Metamerism
(4) Functional

42) The total number of benzene derivatives with the molecular formula C6H3Cl3 is :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
43) Correct IUPAC name of given radical is :-

(1) 2,2-Dimethyl propan-1-ol

(2) Neopentyl alcohol
(3) 2,2-Dimethyl-1-hydroxypropyl
(4) 1-Hydroxy-2, 2-dimethyl propyl

44) The given compound

is an example of _____.

(1) aryl halide

(2) allylic halide
(3) vinylic halide
(4) benzylic halide

45) Assertion (A) : A compound with molecular formula C3H8O can show functional isomerism.
Reason (R) : Propanal and propanone are functional isomers of each other.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

BIOLOGY

1) Venous blood from the heart wall in human collects :-

(1) Directly in left auricle

(2) Directly in right ventricle
(3) Directly in pulmonary artery
(4) By coronary sinus

2) Clot is formed mainly of a network of threads called :-

(1) Fibrinogen
(2) Prothrombin
(3) Thrombin
(4) Fibrin
3) 1st and 2nd heart sound due to respectively :-

(1) Closure of semilunar valves, AV valves

(2) Closure of AV valves, Semilunar valves
(3) Closure of Dorsal aorta and Pulmonary Artery
(4) Closure of Tricuspid valve and Bicuspid valve

4) Which of the following will not increase the heart rate ?

(1) Adrenaline
(2) Nor-epinephrine
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Acetylcholine

5) How many statements are correct for plasma:-

(A) Straw coloured viscous fluid
(B) 90–92 percent of plasma is water
(C) Protein contribute 6–8%
(D) Albumin protein involved in defence mechanism
(E) Serum without clotting factor is called plasma

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

6) Identify the correctly matched structure :-

(1) Neutrophils → Bilobed nucleus

(2) Eosinophils → Nucleus absent
(3) Monocytes → Kidney shaped nucleus
(4) Erythrocytes → Horse shoe shaped nucleus

7) The atrial systole increases the flow of blood into ventricles by about :

(1) 60%
(2) 70%
(3) 30%
(4) 20%

8) A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the lower corner of the right atrium, close to Atrio-
ventricular septum, delays the spreading of impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 sec. The delay
allows.

(1) blood to enter aorta.

(2) the ventricles to empty completely.
(3) blood to enter pulmonary arteries.
(4) the atria to empty completely.

9) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance

(b) Globulin (ii) Blood clotting

(c) Albumin (iii) Defence mechanism

(a) (b) (c)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii)

(3) (i) (iii) (ii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Select the incorrect one :

Antibodies
Blood Group Donor's Group
in plasma

(1) A anti-B A,O

(2) O anti-A,B O

(3) B anti-A A,O

(4) AB nil AB, A, B, O

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
:-
(a) Coronary Artery disease, (CAD) is often referred to as Atherosclerosis
(b) Heart failure means when the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply
(c) High blood pressure leads to heart diseases and also affects vital organs like brain and kidney
(d) Angina occurs due to conditions that affect the blood flow.
Options :-

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b)
(3) Statements (c), (d)
(4) Statement (a), (c) and (d)

12) Which one of the following option gives the correct categorisation of formed elements with
respect to their count and function :-

(A) (B) (C)

Element Count Function

(1) Erythrocyte 55 million/mm3 Transport of gas

(2) Leucocyte 6000 - 8000/mm3 Clotting of Blood

(3) Thrombocyte 1.5 - 3.5 lakh/mm3 Immunity

(4) Platelets 1.5 - 3.5 lakh/mm3 Coagulation

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) The cavity of Bowman's capsule contains :–

(1) Urea, glycogen and water

(2) Urea and water
(3) Blood plasma, except blood protein
(4) Concentrated blood

14) Find out the correct statement :-

(1) An increase in body fluid volume, stimulate the ADH release.

(2) Vasopressin, being a powerful vasodialator, decreases the glomerular blood pressure.
Increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of atrial natriuretic
(3)
factor(ANF)
(4) All the above

15) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all correct
ones only:-
(a) Ammonia is excreted as the from of ammonium ions through gill surface in many bony fishes by
simple diffusion process.
(b) Ammonia is converted into urea in liver of ureotelic animals.
(c) Ammonia is a most toxic nitrogenous waste and is required least amount of water for their
elimination.
(d) Uric acid is least toxic substance and is required least amount of water for its elimination.

(1) Statements a, b and c

(2) Statements a, b and d
(3) Statements b, c and d
(4) Only statements a and d

16) Identify the structure marked as 'X' and choose the correct option :-

(1) Urethra
(2) Urinary bladder
(3) Ureter
(4) Renal artery

17) Which one of the following is correct regarding the excretion ?

Large amount of water from renal filtrate is reabsorbed in DCT and a less amount is reabsorbed
(1)
by PCT
(2) The descending limb of loop of Henle is completely impermeable to NaCl salt.
(3) Malpighian corpuscle is found in medulla region of kidney.
(4) The colour of urine is pale yellow and is slightly alkaline in nautre.

18)

Select the incorrect statement from following:-

Afferent arteriole supplies blood into glomerulus while efferent arteriole leaves out with blood
(1)
from glomerulus
(2) Ascending Limb is permeable for electrolytes while impermeable for water
(3) Descending limb is permeable for electrolytes while almost impermeable for water
(4) Maximum reabsorption is carried out in proximal convoluted tubules

19) The average amount of urea is excreted out per day in human is :

(1) 1 - 1.5 lit.

(2) 25 - 30 gm
(3) 20 - 40 mg
(4) 1 - 2 mg

20) Out of all the parts of a nephron, least amount of reabsorption occurs in :-
(1) PCT
(2) Loop of Henle
(3) DCT
(4) Collecting duct

21) Given below the diagrammatic representation of a nephron and vasa recta showing counter-
current mechanism in which some substances are labelled by alphabates A, B and C. These
substances are exchanged between 'Loop of Henle' [LOH] and vasarecta [VR]. Select the correct
option in which labelled alphabetes are correctly given ?

A = NaCl
(1) B = Urea
C = H2O
A = H2O
(2) B = Urea
C = NaCl
A = NaCl
(3) B = H2O
C = Urea
A = Urea
(4) B = H2O
C = NaCl

22) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) PCT a In medulla of kidney i concentration of urine
(2) Loop of Henle b Simple squamous epithelium ii Main area of tubular secretion
(3) DCT c Brush border iii Ultrafiltration
(4) Bowman's capsule d In cortex of Kidney iv Conditional reabsorption of H2O, salt
(1) 2-(a)-(i), 1-(c)-(iv), 3-(d)-(ii), 4-(b)-(iii)
(2) 1-(c)-(ii), 2-(b)-(i), 3-(d)-(iv), 4-(a)-(iii)
(3) 2-(a)-(i), 1-(c)-(ii), 4-(b)-(iii), 3-(d)-(iv)
(4) 3-(d)-(iv), 1-(c)-(i), 2-(a)-(ii), 4-(b)-(iii)

23) Which joint is similar to elbow joint ?

(1) Joint between humerus and scapula

(2) Joint between atlas and axis
(3) Joint between Femur, Tibia and patella
(4) Joint between Radius and Ulna

24) Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junctions leading to
fatigue and weakening of skeletal muscle :-

(1) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Tetany
(3) Arthritis
(4) Gout

25)

Match column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(i) Zygomatic bone (a) Coxal bone

Long slender bone with two

(ii) Mandible (b)
curvatures

(iii) Clavicle (c) Cheek bone

(iv) Patella (d) Lower jaw

(v) Ilium (e) Sessamoid bone

(1) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-e, (v)-a
(2) (i)-d, (ii)-b, (iii)-e, (iv)-a, (v)-c
(3) (i)-d, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-e, (v)-a
(4) (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-e, (iv)-c, (v)-a

26) Which is not true for scapula in the following?

(1) It is found between 2nd to 7th ribs

(2) It has an cavity which is found above the acromian process
(3) It is found dorsal part of throrax
(4) It is a flat triangular bone

27) Spread of an action potential towards a T-tubule :-

(1) Causes a contraction of thick filament

(2) Triggers release of Ca++ from actin filament
(3) Triggers release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) Triggers release of Ca++ from H-zone

28) Match column I and column II and choose correct option from followings :-

Column-I Column-II

A H- Zone i Elastic protein

 Light central area of A-
B Sarcoplasmic reticulum ii
band

Part of meromyosin
C Z-line iii
protein

D Cross Arm iv Store house of Ca+2 ions

(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

29) Rib cage is formed by which bones ?

(1) Thoracic vertebrae, Ribs, and Scapula

(2) Cervical vertebrae, Ribs and Sternum
(3) Thoracic vertebrae, Ribs and Sternum
(4) Lumber vertebrae, Ribs and Scapula

30)

Identify the synovial joints among the given articles :

(a) Ball and socket joint
(b) Hinge joint
(c) Pivot joint
(d) Sutures of skull
(e) vertebral joints

Select the option containing correct articles:-

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, c, d and e
(3) b, c, d and e
(4) a, b and c

31) The figure given below shows an antibody molecule. Name the parts A, B and C.

(1) A–Antigen binding site, B–Heavy chain, C–Light chain, D–Disulphide bond
(2) A–Antibody binding site, B–Light chain, C–Heavy chain, D–Phosphoester bond
(3) A–Antigen binding site, B–Short chain, C–Long chain, D–Sulphur bond
(4) A–Antibody binding site, B–Long chain, C–Short chain, D–Disulphide bond

32) How many of the following are correct about the given diagram ?
(a) (A) is anamnestic response
(b) Memory cells are responsible for (A)
(c) Memory cells are responsible for (B)
(d) IgM is responsible for (A)

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

33) Which of the given statement is false for the disease shown in the given figure ?

(1) It is chronic in nature

(2) It is caused by wuchereria, the filarial worm
(3) It is transmitted via contaminated food and water
(4) It affects lymphatic vessels of the body.

34) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the picture shown below

(1) The disease shown is one of the most common infectious diseases in man
(2) Generally acquired from soil or by using towels, clothes or even the comb of infected individuals
(3) Heat and moisture help pathogens to grow, which makes them thrive in skin folds
Many protozoan belonging to the genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are
(4)
responsible for this disease.

35) Identify the likely A, B, C, D in the following life cycle

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Salivary
(1) Sporozoite Gametocyte Liver
gland
Salivary
(2) Gametocyte Sporozoite Liver
gland
Salivary
(3) Sporozoite Gametocyte Liver
gland
Salivary
(4) Gametocyte Sporozoite Liver
gland

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Above diagram shows multiplication of Plasmodium in human RBC . Choose

the correct option from the given table:

Substance Effects on
Reproduction
released body

Recurring fever
(1) Asexual Hemotoxin
without chills

(2) Sexual Hemotoxin Stomach pain

Recurring fever
(3) Asexual Hemozoin
with chills
 Nasal
(4) Sexual Hemozoin congestion and
discharge
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Assertion :- Auto - immune diseases occur when the body mistakenly attacks its own tissue.
Reason :- In auto-immune disease, the immune system fails to recognize self-cells and targets them
as if they were foreign invaders.

(1) both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but the reason is true

38) Cross match the following column-I and Column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Active natural (a) Antiserum

through
(ii) Active artificial (b)
Placenta

(iii) Passive natural (c) Vaccination

Passive
(iv) (d) Infection
artificial
(1) i-a ii-b iii-c iv-d
(2) i-b ii-c iii-d iv-a
(3) i-c ii-d iii-a iv-b
(4) i-d ii-c iii-b iv-a

39) Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine :-

(a) Tuberculosis (i) Harmless virus

(b) Whooping cough (ii) Inactivated toxin

(c) Diphtheria (iii) Killed bacteria

(d) Polio (iv) Harmless bacteria

(1) a–iii; b–ii; c–iv; d–i
(2) a–iv; b–iii; c–ii; d–i
(3) a–i; b–ii; c–iv; d–iii
(4) a–ii; b–i; c–iii; d–iv

40) Statement-I : The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in
environment is called allergy.
Statement-II : Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from the mast
cells.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

41) Statement-1 : Higher vertebrates cannot distinguish foreign molecules as well as foreign
organisms.
Statement-2 : In Rheumatoid arthritis, IgM antibodies are formed.

(1) Both are correct

(2) Statement-1 is correct, statement-2 is incorrect
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct
(4) Both are incorrect

42) Which of following are the cells of cellular barrier of innate immunity ?

(1) PMNL
(2) Monocyte
(3) B-Lymphocyte
(4) Both (1) & (2)

43) Which of the following is not a component of innate immunity ?

(1) Interferons
(2) Phagocytes
(3) Skin
(4) Antibodies

44) Hepatitis-B vaccine produced from :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Recombinant RNA technology
(3) Fungus (yeast)
(4) Both (2) and (3)

45) Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?

(1) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake
(2) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes
(3) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains
(4) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes only.

46) In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their
particular type of immunity?

Examples Type of immunity

(1) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes Physical barriers

Mucus coating of epithelium lining the

(2) Physiological barriers
urinogenital tract and the HCI in stomach

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and

(3) Cellular barriers
monocytes

(4) Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injections Active immunity

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) One of the inflammatory reaction induced by histamine is

(1) Vasoconstriction of blood vessels

(2) Vasodilation of blood vessels
(3) Decreased vascular permeability
(4) Accelerated blood clotting

48) Antigen binding site in an antibody is formed by

(1) Two light chains

(2) Two heavy chains
(3) One heavy and one light chain
Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon
(4)
the nature of antigen

49) The use of anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduces the symptoms of

(1) Fungal diseases

(2) Viral diseases
(3) Allergy
(4) Helminthic diseases

50) Acid in stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes, all prevent microbial growth, belong to
which of the following barrier?

(1) Physical barrier

(2) Physiological barrier
(3) Cellular barrier
(4) Cytokine barrier

51) Which of the following statements about the immune system are correct?
1. B-lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
2. T-lymphocytes help in the destruction of infected cells.
3. Antibodies are produced by plasma cells derived from B-cells.
4. Vaccines provide active immunity.

(1) 1, 2 and 3 only

(2) 2, 3 and 4 only
(3) 1, 3 and 4 only
(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

52) Match the following diseases with their causative agents

Column I Column II
(Disease) (Causative Agent)
A. Malaria 1. Salmonella typhi
B. Typhoid 2. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Filariasis 3. Wuchereria bancrofti
D. Pneumonia 4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Options:
(1) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4
(2) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
(3) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1
(4) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4

53) Sustained high fever (39° to 40° C) and intestinal perforation in severe cases is a symptom
of which disease ?

(1) Malaria
(2) Typhoid
(3) Cholera
(4) Common cold

54) Assertion : Bone marrow and thymus are primary lymphoid organs.
Reason : Immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes in bone marrow &
thymus.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

55) Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the list given below,
identify the infectious diseases :
(i) Cancer (ii) Influenza (iii) Allergy (iv) Small pox

(1) i and ii
(2) ii and iii
(3) iii and iv
(4) ii and iv

56) In the given list how many diseases can spread through Aedes mosquito ? Chikun-gunya, Break
bone fever, Filariasis, Hepatitis-B, Malaria

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

57) Given below is the flow diagram of a certain type of lymphocyte. Identify the labelled A, B, C and
select the right option about them :-

A B C
1. Killer T-cell Helper T-cell B-cell
Helper T-
2. Lymphotoxin Killer T-cell
cell
Cytotoxic
3. B-cell Helper T-cell
T-cell
4. CD4-cell CD8-cell B-cell

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58)

What is the correct order of HLA matching :-

(1) Autograft > Allograft > Isograft > Xenograft

(2) Autograft > Isograft > Xenograft > Allograft
(3) Xenograft < Allograft < Isograft < Autograft
(4) Xenograft < Isograft < Autograft < Allograft
59) Fill in the blanks :-

a-neural system, b-endocrine system,

(1)
c-immune system
b-neural system, c-endocrine system,
(2)
a-immune system
a- neural system, c-endocrine system,
(3)
b-immune system
c-neural system, b-endocrine system,
(4)
a-immune system

60) Study the given flow chart and identify A, B, C, D :-

A B C D

(1) Infection Interferon Vaccine Antiserum

(2) Interferon Infection Antiserum Vaccine

(3) Infection Vaccine Colostrum Interferon

(4) Interferon Infection Vaccine Colostrum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you
look for confirmatory evidence?

(1) Serum globulins

(2) Fibrinogin in plasma
(3) Serum albumins
(4) Haemocytes

62) Pneumonia is spread by

(1) Mosquito bite

(2) Consuming contaminated food
(3) inhaling droplets released by infected person
(4) All of these

63) If a hyper immune horse serum raised against a specific pathogen is given to a recipient having
same specific pathogen, than what would be the result ?

(1) Activation of natural passive immunity

(2) Activation of natural active immunity
(3) Activation of artificial active immunity
(4) Activation of a artificial passive immunity

64) Which of the following will result in immunity that is comparatively long lasting :-

(1) An adult receives antiserum

(2) A baby receives antibodies against numerous pathogens through breast feeding
(3) A person survives an infectious disease
(4) A baby receives antibodies to chicken pox across the placenta.

65) Common cold can infect all of the followings except :-

(1) Pharynx
(2) Nasal mucosa
(3) Larynx
(4) Lungs

66) If a person shows production of interferons in his body, chances are that he is suffering from–

(1) Measles
(2) Tetanus
(3) Plague
(4) Malaria

67) Dysentery, Amoebiasis, Ascariasis, Filariasis, Hepatitis B, Typhoid, Diphtheria, Pneumonia

How many of the following spreads through contanimated food and water :-

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Six
68) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of which disease ?

(1) Pneumonia
(2) Typhoid
(3) Filariasis
(4) Malaria

69) How many of the following organs provide the site for interaction of lymphocytes with the
antigen, which then proliferate to become effector cells ?
Bone marrow, Thymus, Spleen, Lymph nodes, Peyer’s patches of small intestine

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

70) Which is the "Allergic antibody" ?

(1) IgE
(2) IgA
(3) IgD
(4) IgM

71) Which of the following is a parasite in large intestine of humans ?

(1) Salmonella typhi

(2) Entamoeba histolytica
(3) Filarial worm
(4) Trichophyton

72) Lesions accompanied by intense itching may be caused by ?

(1) Microsporum
(2) Trichophyton
(3) Epidermophyton
(4) All of the above

73) Which of the following is an airborne disease ?

(1) Common Cold

(2) Ascariasis
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Both (1) and (3)

74) Public hygiene includes which of the following?

(1) Observing standard practices of hygiene in public catering
(2) Proper disposal of waste and excreta
(3) Periodic cleaning and disinfection of water reservoirs
(4) All of the above

75) Which disease is completely eradicated from the world ?

(1) Polio
(2) Chicken pox
(3) Malaria
(4) Small pox

76) In the given list how many diseases are controlled to a large extent by use of vaccines ?
Polio, Diphtheria, Pneumonia, Tetanus

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

77) In which disease the eggs of the parasite are excreted along with the faeces of the infected
person ?

(1) Typhoid
(2) Amoebiasis
(3) Ascariasis
(4) Filariasis

78) Which of the following is not an intestinal pathogen ?

(1) Ascaris
(2) Entamoeba histolytica
(3) Salmonella typhi
(4) Wuchereria

79) Which disease can be transmitted through contaminated books, cups and doorknobs to a healthy
person?

(1) Typhoid
(2) Malaria
(3) Amoebiasis
(4) Common cold

80) Which of the following requires two hosts to complete it's life cycle ?

(1) Ascaris
(2) Salmonella typhi
(3) Plasmodium
(4) Epidermophyton

81) Which of the following statement is false?

Health for a long time, was considered as a state of body and mind where there was balance of
(1)
certain 'humors'.
(2) Mind and mental state can never affect our heath
(3) William Harvey disproved good humor hyphothesis
(4) Heath is affected by habits that we have or lack

82) Which of the following statement is true ?

(1) MALT forms about 70 percent of lymphoid tissue

(2) Thymus is the main lymphoid organ of the body
(3) Spleen only contains lymphocytes and phagocytes
(4) The thymus is a lobed organ located near the heart and beneath the breast bone

83) Common examples of allergens are ?

(1) Animal dander

(2) Mites in dust
(3) Pollens
(4) All of the above

84) Which of the following pair is not matched correctly ?

(1) Primary immune response → Low intensity

(2) Macrophages → in tissue
(3) Cancer → fatal infectious disease
(4) Malignant malaria → Plasmodium falciparum

85) In the given list human immune system includes how many of the following ?
Lymphoid organs, Cells, tissues, antibodies

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

86) Which disease is caused by a bacteria?

(1) Filariasis
(2) Hepatitis-B
(3) Dengue
(4) Dysentery

87) Statement-I : The primary and secondary immune response are carried out with the help of two
special types of lymphocytes present in our blood i.e. B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.
Statement-II : Interferons protect non infected cells from further viral infection.
Choose the correct answer from the given options :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and statement II are correct

88) Which of the following statement is false ?

Vaccines produced by recombinant DNA technology allow large scale production and hence
(1)
greater availability for immunisation
(2) The principle of vaccination is based on the property of memory of the immune system
(3) Colostrum contains only IgA antibodies
(4) The vaccines also generates memory B and T cells

89) Which of the following pair is not matched correctly?

(1) Plasmodium → Gametocyte

(2) Entamoeba histolytica → Protozoa
(3) Common round worm → Ascariasis
(4) Filarial worm → Ringworm

90) Which of the following viral disease has live attenuated vaccine ?

(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Cholera
(4) Measles
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 1 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 1 1 3 3 3 1 1 4 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 4 1 4 4 2 2 3 2 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 4 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 1 1 4 3 2 3 2 1 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 1 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 4 2 4 2 3 1 1 2 4 1 1 1 2 1 3 4 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 2 4 1 3 3 4 4 3 4 4 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 3 1 1 2 3 3 3 4 1 2 3 4 4 3 1 4 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 2 2 1 2 4 4 2 4 3 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 4 3 4 1 3 2 2 1 2 4 4 4 4 1 3 4 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 4 3 2 4 4 3 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) H1 = H2

(θ – 0)
θ = 10.6° C

2)
Also, KA = KB = K(say)
Given ; Q1 = Q2

Therefore,

⇒ 4 = 4tB ⇒ tB = 1 min

3)

Figure (i) → Isothermal process (PV = constant = ⇒ )

Figure (ii) → Adiabatic process (PVγ = constant)
Figure (iii) → Isobaric process (v ∝ T, P = constant)
Figure (iv) → Cyclic process (ΔU = 0)
Figure (v) → Polytropic process (PVγ = constant)
(P) → 1,3,5
i.e. ΔQ > 0 for figures (i), (iii) & (v)
(Q) → 4
ΔW < 0 for figure (iv)
(R) → 4
ΔQ < 0 for figure (iv)
(S) → 1,2,3,5
ΔW > 0 for figures (i), (ii), (iii) & (v)

4) When two liquids are mixed,

when three liquids are mixed,

Answer option (2)

A →S, B→R, C→Q, D→S

5)
Assertion is true & reason is false

6)

λm. T = b ⇒ T =

7) Area = Emissive power ∝ T4

8) ....(i)

....(ii)
solving (i) & (ii), θ = 28 C
o

9)

10)

λm.T = b

So,
∴ ve' sign indicates decrease in rule of λm.

11)

For the given internal energy (U) verses density (ρ) graph, PV = µRT
For process BC, density → constant, therefore volume constant → Isochoric process
For process CA, ΔU = 0, so process is isothermal for process AB, given that the curve is

rectangular hyperbola i.e. ⇒

So, it is isobaric process
12) Loop I has (+)ve work while loop II has negative work.
Since area of loop I is more than II hence net work is (+)ve.
In cyclic process, net work is equal to heat exchanged.

13) Area under PV curve is more for A.

14)

Process – I is an adiabatic process

ΔQ = ΔU + W ΔQ = 0
W = –ΔU
Volume of gas is decreasing ⇒ W < 0
ΔU > 0
⇒ Temperature of gas increases.
⇒ No heat is exchanged between the gas and surrounding.
Process – II is an isobaric process
(Pressure remain constant)
W = P ΔV = 3P0[3V0 – V0] = 6P0V0
Process - III is an isochoric process
(Volume remain constant)
ΔQ = ΔU + W
W=0
ΔQ = ΔU
Process – IV is an isothermal process
(Temperature remains constant)
ΔQ = ΔU + W
ΔU = 0

15)
Work done in AB process

Q = –70 × 4.2 = – 294 J

ΔU = Q – W = –294 + 52.5 = –241.5 –241 J

16) In the graph between T v/s t, lines with zero slope represents phase change.

17)
18)

θ↓ L1↑ L2↓

19) Ist combination :-

Req =

R1 = , R2 =

IInd combination
Req = R1 + R2

R1 =

R2 =

Req =

20)

Depends on heat current, not just temperature difference.

21) Question Explanation :

When water is heated from 0°C to 10°C. We need to determine how its volume changes.

Concept :
The concept based on Anonalous behaviour of water.
0°C to 4°C → Density increases (Volume decreases)
4°C to 10°C → Density decreases (Volume increases)

Final Answer: (4) : First decreases and then increases

22) Asking About: The rise in temperature of a metal sphere when 50% of its rotational
kinetic energy is converted into heat.
Concept: The rotational kinetic energy of the sphere is converted into thermal energy,
causing a rise in temperature. We need to equate half of the initial rotational kinetic energy to
the heat gained by the sphere.
Formula:
 A. Rotational kinetic energy of a solid sphere: , where is the moment of inertia
and ω is the angular velocity.
B. Heat gained: Q = mcΔT, where m is the mass, c is the specific heat s in the question), and ΔT
is the rise in temperature.
C. Angular velocity: ω = 2πf, where f is the frequency of rotation (n rotations per second).

Calculation / Explanation:

1. Rotational kinetic energy: .

2. Energy used to increase temperature: = .

3. Heat gained by the sphere: Q = msΔT.

4. Equating the heat gained to the energy used: msΔT = .

5. The mass m cancels out: sΔT = .

6. Rise in temperature: ΔT = .

A. Final answer: The rise in temperature of the sphere is .

B. Correct Option: 1

23) With rise of altitude, pressure decreases and boiling point decreases.

24) Time taken by ice to grow a thickness y,

Hence, time intervals to change thickness from 0 to y, from y to 2y and so on will be in the
ratio
Δt1 : Δt2 : Δt3 :: (12–02) : (22–12) : (32 – 22)
or Δt1 : Δt2 : Δt3 :: 1 : 3 : 5
According to question, Δt1 = 12 minutes
Hence, Δt2 = 3Δt1 = 3 × 12 min = 36 min

25) According to Kirchoff's law good absorbers also are good emitters.

26)

Radiation emitted from chromosphere as photosphere is not visible.

27) Kirchhoff's Law :- good emitter is a good absorber

28)

As temperature increases, most probable wavelength decreases.

29)

If gas is compressed, pressure may decrease or increase depending on process.

30)

31)

Both are correct and correct explanation

32) Based on thermal conductivity

33) (i)

(ii)

(iii)

(for 2 unit of time Q2 = Q1 = H × 2 for solid state)

(iv) Q2 for liquid state, (for 2 unit of time
Q2 = Q1 = H × 2)

34) At near absolute zero, molecules are at lowest potential energy level. Thus from graph, A
expands, B neither expands nor contract while C contracts on heating.

35)

36)

37)

38) ΔU = nCVΔT = n(5/2)RΔT

ΔQ = nCPΔT = n(7/2)RΔT
 W = ΔQ – ΔU =

39)
In a closed rigid container ΔV = 0, and hence, ΔW = 0

So, ΔQ = ΔU = nCVΔT = n ΔT

40)

\(y \propto \frac{1}{{\text{ढाल}}}\)

41)

Depends on material's property

42)

In series, force is same so stress will be same as area is also same.

43)
So slope of graph will give young's modulus.
Slope for wire A > Slope for wire B

44) Plastic zone is larger for wire A.

So it is good for making wire.

45)

CHEMISTRY
46)

Cu+2 + 2e– → Cu

Ecell =

⇒
More the concentration of Cu+2, more will be Ecell

∴ Order

47)

(1)

Fe+6 + 3e– → Fe+3 (1)

Fe+3 + 1e– → Fe+2 (2)

Add equation (1) & (2)
Fe+6 + 4e– → Fe+2

Now
–4 × E° × F = – 3 × 2.20 × F – 1 × 0.76 × F
–E° = –6.6 – 0.76

48) Lower the S.R.P value better is the tendency to get oxidized.

49) Metals which have SRP less than zero they can evolve H2 gas.

50)

E = E° –

0.24 = 0.36 + 0.06log

–2 = log

= 10–2

51)
At Eq E = 0 Q=K
 (ii)

(i)

(iv)

52)

⇒ 0.15 – (– 0.44) = 0.59

E = Eº – logQ
At eq.

Eº = log keq

0.59 = = log keq

keq = 1010

53) 2H+ + 2e → H2

Er = E°R + –
= 2 atm, [H+] = 1 M

54) NCERT intext Example Q. 3.6

ΔGo =
= –2(96500) 0.2

=
ΔGo = –38.6 KJ/mole

55)

where (number of electrons transferred), and the reaction quotient is:

Hence,

Step-by-Step Calculation: To determine spontaneity, must be positive:

If the chlorine gas pressures are equal ( ), then:

Hence, the reaction is spontaneous if with equal gas pressures.

56)

NCERT Pg. # 69

57) W = [Link] ⇒ Z = = 0.0012

58) Question is Asking About:

In the question various conversions are given for which the required charge is asked.

Calculation:
(A) 2H2O → O2 + 4H+ + 4e–
∵ 1 mole of O2 required 4F of charge.
∴ At STP 1 mole (22.4L) O2 required 4F of charge.

∴ For 5.0 L O2 moles of O2 =

∵ Charge required = 0.25 × 4 = If (R)

(B)
∵ 1 mole of requires 6 F.
∴ For 0.5 mole = 0.5× 6 = 3F (P)

(C) The Reduction of Al+3 to Al requires 3 moles of electrons per mole of Al.
∵ For 18 g Al (0.6667 moles) 0.6667×3 = 2 F charge
– charge required = 2 F (S)

(D) 1 mole of Cu+2 requires 2 moles of electrons to be deposited as Cu.

– In 2L of 1 M CuSO4 , there are 2 × 1 = 2
moles of Cu+2 .
For 2 moles of Cu+2 :- 2 × 2 = 4F charges.
 Charge required = 4F (Q)

Final answer : A → R, B → P, C → S, D → Q

59) (2)

Now again

Λm = 625 × 10–6 S m2 mol–1

Λm = 625 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1

60) Ag2CrO4 ⇌ 2 Ag2+ + CrO42–

1 0 0
1–S 2S S
⇒ Ksp = (2S)2S = 4 S3
or, 4 S3 = Ksp = 4 × 10–12
⇒ S3 = 10–12
⇒ S = 10–4 mol L–1

61) For 10–2 M Ca2+ and 10–3 M F–

Ionic product = 10–2 × 10–3 = 10–5
⇒ Ionic product > Solubility product
⇒ Precipitation occurs

62)

FCH2COOH + BOH → FCH2COOB + H2O

10m mol 5m mol 0 0
5m mol 0m mol 5m mol

For acidic buffer, pH = pKa + log

pKa = – log Ka

63) H+ = C ∝
=

64) NCERT Pg. # 222

65) E = E° –
as Q↑ {[Ag+]↓,[Fe3+]↑},E↓

66)
2-hydroxy methyl-2-methyl hex-4-yne-nitrile
Word root = 6C(Hex)
Side chain = –CH3 (methyl) and –CH2–OH
(Hydroxymethy)
1º suffix → yne
2° suffix → –CN(Nitrile)
Principal functional group must have least locant number.

67)

68)
5-cyano-N,3-diethyl hexanamide

69) Cyclohexane carbonyl chloride.

70) It has a further longer chain than the one indicated in the given name.

Given : 3 - (1 - butenyl) - 1, 5 - hexadiene

IUPAC : 4 - ethenyl - 1, 5 - octadiene

71)
4-(4-Hydroxycyclohex-2-enyl)-3-methylbutanoic acid

72)

73)

According to proirity table of functional group.

74) Aceto nitrile → CH3–C≡N but given CH2 = CHCN so it is incorrectly matched.

75) 5 – Ethenylcyclohexa – 1, 3 – diene

76)
2-Hydroxy-2-methylpropane nitrile

77)

Total 2° alcohol → 4

78)

σ = 26
π=3

79)

80)

Option (2) is acid while remaining are ester.

81)
NCERT XII Pg # 358

82)

6 functional group

83)

84)

PCC is different

85)

Molecular formula different.

86)

Metamerism → different arrangement of alkyl group across polyvalent functional group.

87)

88)
1-Hydroxy-2, 2-dimethyl propyl

89)
Allylic halide

90)

C3H8O →
Propanal (CH3CH2CHO) and propanone
 ( )are functional isomers

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT XI, Pg # 198

92)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 181

93) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 285

94)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 287

95) NCERT Pg. # 279

96) NCERT–XI, Fig. # 18.1, Pg. # 279

97) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 285

98) Option 4: the atria to empty completely. This delay ensures that the atria have enough
time to contract and completely empty their blood into the ventricles before the ventricles
begin to contract. This efficient filling of the ventricles maximizes the volume of blood pumped
with each heartbeat, improving cardiac output.

99)

A. Fibrinogen: This protein plays a crucial role in blood clotting. So, (a) matches with (ii).
B. Globulin: These proteins are involved in various functions, including immune response and
transport. So, (b) matches with (iii).
C. Albumin: This protein plays a major role in maintaining osmotic balance in the blood. So, (c)
matches with (i).

Therefore, the correct matching is:

(a) - (ii) (b) - (iii) (c) - (i)
So, the correct option is 4.

100) NCERT Page No. # E-280, H-281

101) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 288

102)

NCERT XI Page No. # 280

103) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 293

104)

NCERT XII Page # 297

105) NCERT Pg No # 205

106) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 292

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg. #

108)

NCERT XI(E) Page.293,294,295

109) NCERT XI, Pg 298

110) NCERT XI- Pg. No. # 294

111)

NCERT Pg. # 296

112)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 292, 293

113)

NCERT-XI Pg#227

114)

Ncert page 227.

 115)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 312

116) NCERT XI Pg # 311

117)

The spread of an action potential towards a T-tubule triggers the release of Ca2+ from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum.

118) Explanation :
Here's the correct matching :

Column-I Column-II

A H- Zone ii Light central area of A-band

B Sarcoplasmic reticulum iv Store house of Ca+2 ions

C Z-line i Elastic protein

D Cross Arm iii Part of meromyosin protein

So, the correct answer is option 3.

119)

The other options are incorrect because:

A. The scapula (shoulder blade) is not part of the rib cage.

B. The cervical vertebrae are in the neck and are not part of the rib cage.

C. The lumbar vertebrae are in the lower back and are not part of the rib cage.

The rib cage is a bony structure that protects the organs in the chest. It is made up of the
thoracic vertebrae, ribs, and sternum. The thoracic vertebrae are the bones of the spine in the
upper back. The ribs are a series of bones that curve around the chest. The sternum is a long,
flat bone in the center of the chest.
The correct answer is 3. Thoracic vertebrae, Ribs and Sternum.

120) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 312

121)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 135 (Fig. : 7.4)

122)

Module

123)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 133 (Fig. : 7.2)

124) NCERT PG 149

125)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 132 (Fig. : 7.1)

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 132 (Fig. : 7.1)

127) NCERT XII Pg # 137

128)

NCERT Page # 152

129) Allen module.

130) NCERT Pg # 153

131) NCERT, Page 153

132)

NCERT-XII, Hint Pg. # 150

133)

Explain Question :
Which of the following is not a component of innate immunity?

Concept :
This question is based on Innate immunity.

Solution : The correct answer is option (4)

• Skin: Physical barrier – innate immunity
• Phagocytes: Cellular barrier – innate immunity
 • Interferons: Cytokine barrier – innate immunity
• Antibodies: Produced by B-lymphocytes during an immune response – adaptive immunity

Final Answer :
Option (4) : Antibodies

134)

NCERT Pg. # 136

135)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 135, 136

136)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 134, 135

137)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 137 (Module)

138)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 135 (Fig. : 74)

139)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 137

140)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 134

141)

A. Statement 1 is incorrect: B-cells are involved in humoral immunity, not cell-mediated.

B. Statement 2 is correct: T-cells attack infected cells directly.
C. Statement 3 is correct: Plasma cells (from B-cells) secrete antibodies.
D. Statement 4 is correct: Vaccines stimulate the immune system → active immunity.

142)

A. Malaria → Plasmodium falciparum

B. Typhoid → Salmonella typhi
C. Filariasis → Wuchereria bancrofti
D. Pneumonia → Streptococcus pneumoniae

143)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 130

144) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 137, 138

145)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 130 (Module)

146)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 134 (Module)

147)

Module

148)

Module

149) Explanation:
• The diagram suggests that the mind influences health through a combination of the neural
system, endocrine system, and immune system. Let's break down why:
a (Neural System): The nervous system plays a crucial role in how our mind (thoughts,
emotions) affects our body. Stress, for example, can trigger neural signals that impact various
bodily functions.
b (Endocrine System): The endocrine system (hormones) is closely linked to both the
nervous system and the immune system. Stress hormones, for example, can affect immune
function.
c (Immune System): There's growing evidence of a connection between the mind and the
immune system. Psychological factors can influence immune responses, and vice versa.

Correct Answer: 1. a-neural system, b-endocrine system, c-immune system

150) NCERT-XII Pg. # 136

151)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you
 look for confirmatory evidence?

Key Concept:

A. Antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, are proteins produced by B cells that play a
crucial role in the immune system. They are found in the serum (the fluid part of the blood
after clotting).

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

A. Antibodies and Serum Globulins: Antibodies are a type of serum globulin. Globulins are a
group of proteins in the blood, and immunoglobulins (antibodies) make up a significant portion
of them. Therefore, if you suspect an antibody deficiency, measuring serum globulin levels
would be a logical first step. A low level of serum globulins could indicate a deficiency in
antibodies. However, other globulins are also present, so further testing may be required.
B. Other Options:
A. Fibrinogen: This is a protein involved in blood clotting. It's not directly related to
antibody production.
B. Serum albumin: This is the most abundant protein in the blood and primarily functions
to maintain osmotic pressure. It's not directly involved in antibody production.
C. Haemocytes: These are blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and
platelets. While white blood cells (lymphocytes, including B cells) produce antibodies,
simply looking at haemocyte counts wouldn't directly tell you about antibody levels. You
need to look at the antibody proteins themselves.

Conclusion:

Hence, option (1) is correct.

152)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 131

153) NCERT Pg#136(E), 149(H)

154)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 136

155) NCERT Pg.# 147

156)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 135 (Module)

157) NCERT XII Pg. # 146, 147, 148, 149

158) NCERT-XII, Pg # 146

159)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 138

160)

NCERT-XII, Hint Pg. # 153

161) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 132

162) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 133

163) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 133

164) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 133

165) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 134

166) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 134

167) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 133

168) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 133

169) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 131

170) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 133

171) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 130

172) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 138

173) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 137

174) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 135

175) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 137

176) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 131

177) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 135

178) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 136

179) NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 133

180) Module