10-08-2025

1001CMD303101250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) From the following P-T graph, what inference can be drawn ?

(1) V2 > V1
(2) V2 < V1
(3) V2 = V1
(4) None of the above

2) An ideal gas has an initial pressure of 3 pressure units and an initial volume of 4 volume units.
The table gives the final pressure and volume of the gas (in those same units) in four processes.
Which state lies on the same isotherm

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

3) When an ideal gas is compressed isothermally then its pressure increases because

(1) Its potential energy decreases

(2) Its kinetic energy increases and molecules move apart
(3) Its number of collisions per unit area with walls of container increases
(4) Molecular energy increases
0
4) An ideal gas at 17 C has a pressure of 760 mm of Hg. The gas is compressed at constant
temperature until its volume becomes halved. The final pressure of the gas will be

(1) 2010 mm of Hg
(2) 1890 mm of Hg
(3) 1520 mm of Hg
(4) 1650 mm of Hg
5) A vessel has 6g of oxygen at pressure P and temperature 400 K. A small hole is made in it so that
oxygen leaks out. How much oxygen leaks out if the final pressure is P/2 and temperature 300 K?

(1) 5g
(2) 4g
(3) 2g
(4) 3g

6) When a sample of a gas is taken from state i to state f along path iaf , heat supplied to the gas is
50 cal and work done by the gas is 20 cal. If it is taken by path ibf, then heat supplied is 36 cal.

List-I List-II

(P) Work done by the gas along path ibf is (1) 6 cal

If work done upon the gas is 13 cal for the return path
(Q) (2) 18 cal
fi, then heat rejected by the gas along path fi is

If internal energy of the gas at state i is 10 cal,

(R) (3) 40 cal
then internal energy at state f is

If internal energy at state b is 22 cal and at i is 10

(S) (4) 43 cal
cal then heat supplied to the gas along path ib is
(1) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(2) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(3) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(4) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

7)

One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cyclic process ABCA as shown in figure.

List-I List-II

The work done by the gas during

(P) (1)
complete cycle

Heat absorbed by the gas in the

(Q) (2)
path AB
 The minimum temperature
(R) attained by the gas during the (3) P0V0
cycle.

The maximum temperature

(S) attained by the gas during the (4) 3P0V0
cycle.

(5) 2P0V0
(1) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(2) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(3) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(4) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

8)

Two identical vessels A & B contain equal amount of ideal monoatomic gas. The piston of A is fixed
but that of B is free. Same amount of heat is absorbed by A & B. If B's internal energy increases by
100 J the change in internal energy of A is :-

(1) 100 J

(2)

(3) 250 J
(4) none of these

9)

A sample of an ideal gas is taken through the cyclic process abca as shown in the figure. The change
in the internal energy of the gas along the path ca is –180J. The gas absorbs 250 J of heat along the
path ab and 60 J along the path bc. The work done by the gas along the path abc is :

(1) 100 J
(2) 120 J
(3) 140 J
(4) 130 J
10) Two solid objects of the same mass are supplied with heat at the same rate ΔQ/Δt. The
temperature of the first object with latent heat L1 and specific heat capacity c1 changes according to
graph 1 on the diagram. The temperature of the second object with latent heat L2 and specific heat
capacity c2 changes according to graph 2 on the diagram. Based on what is shown on the graph, the
latent heats L1 and L2 and the specific heat capacities c1 and c2 in solid state obey which of the

following relationships ?

(1) L1 < L2 ; c1 < c2

(2) L1 < L2 ; c1 > c2
(3) L2 < L1 ; c1 > c2
(4) L2 < L1 ; c2 > c1

11) In the given figure a steel wire is just held taut between fixed wall and a 3 kg block. If the wire is
cooled by a temperature ΔT, the 3 kg block is on the verge of moving. What is ΔT ?

(1) 1.25°C
(2) 8.5°C
(3) 3.75°C
(4) 11.5°C

12)

According to law of equipartition of energy the molar specific heat of a diatomic gas at constant
volume where the molecule has one additional vibrational mode is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) 500 gm of water at 25°C is added to 100 gm of ice at 0°C. The final temperature of the mixture
is :

(1)
°C

(2)
°C
(3) 5°C
(4) 0°C

14) If a thermometer reads freezing point of water at 20° and boiling point as 150°. How much
thermometer reads when the actual temperature is 60°C :

(1) 98°
(2) 110°
(3) 40°
(4) 60°

15) Coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in a glass vessel is 153 × 10–6/°C and in a steel
vessel is 144 × 10–6/°C. If α for steel is 12 × 10–6/°C, then that of glass is :-

(1) 36 × 10–6/°C
(2) 6 × 10–6/°C
(3) 27 × 10–6/°C
(4) 9 × 10–6/°C

16) The ratio of change in internal energy for an ideal diatomic gas to the heat supplied by the gas in
an isobaric process is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17)

The internal energy (U), pressure (P) and volume (V) of an ideal gas are related as U = 3PV + 4. The
gas is :-

(1) Diatomic only

(2) Polyatomic only
(3) Either monoatomic or diatomic
(4) Monoatomic only

18) An ideal gas is taken along the path AB as shown in the figure. The work done by the gas is :-
(1) 600 J
(2) 1200 J
(3) –600 J
(4) –1200 J

19) One mole of a gas mixture is heated under constant pressure, and heat required Q is plotted
against temperature difference acquired. Find the value of γ for mixture.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The P-V diagram of a gas system undergoing cyclic process is shown here. The work done during

isobaric compression is :

(1) 100 J
(2) 200 J
(3) 400 J
(4) 500 J
21) The rms speed of helium gas molecules at 27°C and 1 atm pressure is 900 ms–1. Then the rms
speed of helium gas molecules at temperature 27°C and 2 atm pressure is

(1) 450 m/s

(2) 900 m/s
(3) 1800 m/s
(4) 750 m/s

22) How many degrees of freedom does N2,H2,He,H2O,CO2 have at normal temperature :

(1) 5,5,3,5,6
(2) 3,5,3,5,6
(3) 5,3,3,5,5
(4) 5,5,3,6,5

23) The first law of thermodynamics can be written as ΔU = ΔQ + ΔW for an ideal gas. Which of the
following statements is correct?

(1) ΔU is always zero when no heat enters or leaves the gas

(2) ΔW is the work done by the gas in this written law.
(3) ΔU is zero when heat is supplied and the temperature stays constant
(4) ΔQ = –ΔW when the temperature increases very slowly.

24) The value of Cp – Cv is 1.00 R for a gas sample in state A and is 1.08 R in state B. Let pA, pB
denote the pressure and TA and TB donote the temperature of the states A and B respectively. Most
likely.

(1) pA < pB and TA > TB

(2) pA > pB and TA < TB
(3) pA = pB and TA < TB
(4) pA > pB and TA = TB

25) Cp and Cv are gram specific heats at constant pressure and constant volume respectively. It is
observed that
Cp – Cv = a for hydrogen gas
Cp – Cv = b for nitrogen gas
The correct relation between a and b is :

(1) a = 14 b
(2) a = 28 b

(3)

(4) a = b

26) A chain consisting of five links each with mass 100 gm is lifted vertically with constant
acceleration of 2 m/s2 (↑) as shown. Find the net force on third link :

(1) 6N
(2) 5N
(3) 0.2N
(4) 1N

27) Figure shows a wedge of mass 2 kg resting on a frictionless floor. A block of mass 1 kg is kept on
the wedge and the wedge is given an acceleration of 5 m/sec2 towards right. Then :

(1) Block will remain stationary w.r.t wedge

(2) The block will have an acceleration of 1 m/sec2 w.r.t. the wedge
(3) Normal reaction on the block is 11 N
(4) Net force acting on the wedge is 2 N

28) Three monkeys A, B and C with masses of 10, 15 and 8 kg respectively are climbing up and down
the rope suspended from D. At the instant represented, A is descending the rope with an
acceleration of 2 m/s2 and C is pulling himself up with an acceleration of 1.5 m/s2. Monkey B is
climbing up with a constant speed of 0.8 m/s. Calculate the tension T in the rope at D. (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 92 N
(2) 242 N
(3) 362 N
(4) 322 N

29) A 60 kg body is pushed horizontally with just enough force to start it moving across a floor and
the same force continues to act afterwards. The coefficient of static friction and sliding friction are
0.5 and 0.4 respectively. The acceleration of the body is :

(1) 6 m/s2
(2) 4.9 m/s2
(3) 3.92 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

30) Statement-I : In free fall, the rate of change of velocity with time is constant for all objects.
Statement-II : In free fall, the change in velocity with distance increases with increasing distance
of fall.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
(4) Statement I is true and Statement II is false

31) A block is moving along y–axis with velocity on a plank relative to ground and the plank
is moving along x–axis with velocity at any instant of time. The unit vector in direction of

friction force acting on block at this moment of time is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The upper half of an incline plane with inclination ϕ is perfectly smooth while the lower half is
rough. A body starting from rest at the top will again come to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of
friction for the lower half is given by

(1) 2 tan ϕ
(2) tan ϕ
(3) 2 sin ϕ
(4) 2 cos ϕ

33) A force F acting on a particle varies with the position x as shown in the graph. Find the work

done by the force in displacing the particle from x = –a to x = +2a.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Two persons A and B are sitting in two cars 1 and 2 such that the velocity of the cars is given by

and respectively. The fictitious (pseudo) force on B as observed by

A at t = 1 sec will be :- (mA = 70 kg, mB = 50kg)

(1)

(2)
N

(3)
N

(4)
N

35) A spring of spring constant k placed horizontally on a rough horizontal surface is compressed
against a block of mass m placed on the surface so as to store maximum energy in the spring. After
removing the external force, spring and block system is at rest. If the coefficient of friction between
the block and the surface is µ, the potential energy stored in the spring is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
36)

The system shown in figure is in equilibrium find the initial acceleration of all three blocks (A,B,C)
when string S is cut.

(1) 15, 15, 0

(2) 15, 0, 15
(3) 0, 15, 15
(4) 10,10,0

37) A block of mass 2kg is at rest on a rough surface, of coefficient of friction 0.5. A force F is
applied on the block, variation of force is represented in the figure. Speed of the block at t = 4sec is

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 15 m/s

38) A rope is stretched between two boats at rest. A sailor in the first boat pulls the rope with a
constant force of 100 N. First boat with the sailor has a mass of 250 kg whereas the mass of second
boat is double of this mass. If the initial distance between the boats was 100 m, the time taken for
two boats to meet each other is (neglect water resistance between boats and water)

(1) 13.8 s
(2) 18.3 s
(3) 3.18 s
(4) 31.8 s

39) A fixed U-shaped smooth wire has a semi-circular bending between A and B as shown in figure.
A bead of mass m moving with uniform speed v through the wire enters the semicircular bend at A
and leaves at B. The average force exerted by the bead on the part AB of the wire is

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

40) Two blocks A and B are connected by a light inextensible string passing over a fixed smooth
pulley as shown in figure. The coefficient of friction between the block A and B the horizontal table
is μ= 0.5. If the block A is just to slip, find the ratio of the masses of the blocks.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Two blocks A and B of masses 6 kg and 3 kg rest on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in the
figure. If coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.4, the maximum horizontal force . which can

make them move without separation is

(1) 72 N
(2) 40 N
(3) 36 N
(4) 20 N

42) A system is pushed by a force F as shown in figure. All surfaces are smooth except between B
and C. Friction coefficient between B and C is μ. Minimum value of F to prevent block B from

down ward slipping is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A chain of length L is placed on a horizontal surface as shown in figure. At any instant x is the
length of chain on rough surface and the remaining portion lies on smooth surface. Initially x = 0. A
horizontal force P is applied to the chain (as shown in figure). In the duration, x changes from x = 0

to x = L. For chain to move with constant speed,

(1) The magnitude of P should increase with time.

(2) The magnitude of P should decrease with time.
(3) The magnitude of P should increase first and then decrease with time.
(4) The magnitude of P should decrease first and then increase with time.

44) A block of mass 4 kg is pressed against the wall by a force of 80 N as shown in figure. Determine

the value of friction force and block's acceleration (take μs = 0.2, μk = 0.15).

(1) 8 N, 0 ms–2
(2) 32 N, 6 ms–2
(3) 8 N, 6 ms–2
(4) 32 N, 2 ms–2
45) Figure shows a wooden block at rest in equilibrium on a rough horizontal plane being acted
upon by forces F1 = 10 N, F2 = 2 N as shown. If F1 is removed, the resultant force acting on the

block will be :

(1) 2 N towards left

(2) 2 N towards right
(3) 0 N
(4) cannot be determined

CHEMISTRY

1) Favourable condition for freezing of water is :-

(1) High-pressure
(2) High temperature
(3) Low pressure
(4) 2 & 3 both

2) H2O(s) H2O(l)
In above equilibrium if pressure is increased then correct :
(a) freezing point of ice increases
(b) more ice melts
(c) reaction shifted in backward direction
(d) no effect on equilibrium

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b
(4) b

3)
If at room temperature, the equilibrium mixture is blue due to [COCl4]–2, when this equilibrium
mixture is cooled in freezing mixture, the colour of mixture is :

(1) Blue
(2) Pink
(3) Colourless
(4) Unpredictable

4) For the reaction:

at 500K.
At an instant, the reaction mixture has
3 mol L–1 N2, 2molL–1 H2 and 0.5 mol L–1 NH3.
Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Reaction is at equilibrium

(2) Reaction will proceed in forward direction
(3) Reaction will proceed in backward direction
(4) Cannot be predicted

5) The following equilibrium exists in a 10 litre flask at 500 K. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g).
Initially 1 mol each of SO2 & O2 is taken.
if at equilibrium the number of moles of SO3 is twice the number of moles of SO2 then the number of
moles of O2 at equilibrium is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) In a reversible reaction , the initial concentration of A and B are a and b and the
equilibrium concentration are (a – x) and (b + x) respectively. Express "x" in terms of k1, k2, a and b

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)
The gas A2 in the left flask allowed to react with gas B2 present in right flask as
A2(g) + B2(g) 2AB(g); Kc = 4
What is the concentration of AB when equilibrium is established ?

(1) 1.33 M
(2) 2.66 M
(3) 0.66 M
(4) 0.33 M

8) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

Initially the molar ratio of N2 and H2 was 1 : 3. At equilibrium 50% of each reactant has reacted. If
the equilibrium pressure is P then the partial pressure of NH3 at equilibrium is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The Ksp for a sparingly soluble Ag2CrO4 is 4 × 10–12. The molar solubility of the salt is

(1) 2.0 × 10–6 mol L–1

(2) 1.0 × 10–4 mol L–1
(3) 2.0 × 10–12 mol L–1
(4) 1.0 × 10–15 mol L–1

10) Which of the following behaves as Lewis base :-

(a) OH– (b) H+ (c) NH3
(d) BCl3 (e) H2O

(1) a, c, e only
(2) b, d, e only
(3) a, b, c only
(4) b, d only

11) In the following :

species behaving as bronsted – lowry acid are :-

(1) (A), (D)

(2) (A), (C)
(3) (B), (C)
(4) (B), (D)

12) If following reactions proceed in forward side

HNO2 + HF ⇌ H2F+ + NO2–
CH3COOH + HF ⇌ F– + CH3COOH2+
H2O + CH3COOH ⇌ H3O+ + CH3COO–
then increasing order of acid strength is :-

(1) H2O < CH3COOH < HF < HNO2

(2) HNO2 < HF < CH3COOH < H2O
(3) HNO2 < HF < H2O < CH3COOH
(4) HNO2 < CH3COOH < HF < H2O

13) 20ml of 0.5N HCl and 35 mℓ of 0.1N NaOH are mixed. The resulting solution will :-

(1) be neutral
(2) be basic
(3) turn phenolphthalein solution pink
(4) turn methyl orange solution orange red

14) An acidic indicator has Ka = 3 × 10–5. The acid form of indicator is red and basic form is blue,
then (log 3 = 0.48) :-

(1) pH is 4.04 when indicator is 75% red

(2) pH is 5 when indicator is 75% blue
(3) both above are correct
(4) None of above is correct

15) Which of the following will produce a buffer solution when mixed in equal volumes ?

–3 –3
(1) 0.1 mol dm NH4OH and 0.1 mol dm HCl
–3 –3
(2) 0.05 mol dm NH4OH and 0.1 mol dm HCl
–3 –3
(3) 0.1 mol dm NH4OH and 0.05 mol dm HCl
–3 –3
(4) 0.1 mol dm CH3COONa and 0.1 mol dm NaOH

16) When 100 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH solution is titrated with 0.1 M HCl solution the variation of pH of
solution with volume of HCl added will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) Which buffer solution has maximum pH ?

(1) Mixture which is 0.1M in CH3COOH and 0.1M in CH3COONa (pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.74)
(2) Mixture which is 0.2M in CH3COOH and 0.2M in CH3COONa
+
(3) Mixture which is 0.1M in NH4Cl and 0.1M in NH4OH (pKa (NH4 ) = 9.26)
(4) All the solution have equal pH which is 4.74

18) Assertion (A) :– In the acid base titration involving a strong base and a weak acid methyl
orange can be used as an indicator.
Reason (R) :– Methyl orange changes its colour in pH range 3.1 to 4.5.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

19) Assertion : pH of x M HCl is less than pH of x M CH3COOH.

Reason : The degree of ionization of HCl and CH3COOH are equal at infinite dilution.

(1) Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

20) Assertion (A) : On dilution, pH of mixture of weak acid (HX) and its salt (NaX) increases.
Reason (R) : Mixture of weak acid (HX) and its salt (NaX), resist the change in pH, with the
addition of small amounts of acid or alkali.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

21) Variation of concentration with time for following reaction in the figure below is:
H2(g) + I2(g) – heat ⇌ 2HI(g) At the instant 3 min, what change was
imposed into the equilibrium ?

(1) Pressure was increased

(2) Temperature was decreased
(3) Temperature was increased
(4) Hydrogen was added

22)
Above graph represent chemical equilibrium in the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g), which can be

attained from either direction. Then calculate KC of the reaction HI(g) ⇌ H2(g) + I2(g)

(1) 0.25
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 0.5

23) The solubility of silver benzoate (C6H5COOAg) in H2O and in a buffer solution of pH = 2, 3 and 4
are S1, S2, S3 and S4 respectively. The decreasing order of solubility is :-

(1) S1 > S2 > S3 > S4

(2) S4 > S3 > S2 > S1
(3) S2 > S3 > S4 > S1
(4) S4 > S2 > S4 > S1

24) In the third group of qualitative analysis, the precipatitating reagent is NH4Cl/NH4OH. The
function of NH4Cl is to :-

(1) Increase the ionisation of NH4OH.

(2) Supress the ionisation of NH4OH.
(3) Convert the ions of group third into their respective chlorides.
(4) Stabilise the hydroxides of group III cations.
25) 0.5M HCl solution has ions Hg+2, Cd+2, Sr+2, Fe+2, Cu+2. To pass the H2S gas in this solution.
Which are precipitated out :-

(1) Cd+2, Fe+2, Sr+2

(2) Cd+2, Hg2+, Cu+2
(3) Hg+2, Cu+2, Fe+2
(4) Cu+2, Sr+2, Fe+2

26) Solid Ba(NO3)2 is gradually dissolved to 1 × 10–4 M Na2CO3 solution. At what concentration of
Ba+2 precipitation of BaCO3 will start ?
(Ksp for BaCO3 = 5.1 × 10–9)

(1) 4.1 × 10–5 M

(2) 5.1 × 10–5 M
(3) 8.1 × 10–5 M
(4) 8.1 × 10–7 M

27) Silver ions are added to a solution with [Br–] = [Cl–] = [CO3–2] = [AsO4–3] = 0.1 M Which
compound will precipitate with lowest [Ag+] ?

–13
(1) AgBr (Ksp = 5 × 10 )
–10
(2) AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 × 10 )
–12
(3) Ag2CO3 (Ksp = 8.1 × 10 )
–22
(4) Ag3AsO4 (Ksp = 1 × 10 )

28) M(OH)n has a Ksp of 4 × 10–9 and its solubility is 10–3 M. The value of 'n' is :

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 2

29) The aqueous solutions of HCOONa, C6H5NH3Cl, and KCN are, respectively :-

(1) acidic, acidic, basic

(2) acidic, basic, neutral
(3) basic, neutral, neutral
(4) basic, acidic, basic

30) If 20 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH is added to 20 ml, 0.1 M NaOH, the pH of the resulting solution is ?
[pKa of CH3COOH = 4.74]

(1) 5.285
(2) 7.2
(3) 6.7
(4) 8.715

31) 0.05 M ammonium hydroxide solution is dissolved in 0.001 M ammonium chloride solution. What
will be the OH– ion concentration of this solution if Kb (NH4OH) = 1.8 × 10–5 :

(1) 3.0 × 10–3

(2) 9.0 × 10–4
(3) 9.0 × 10–3
(4) 3.0 × 10–4

32) Which of the following solutions of NaCl will have the highest specific condutance?

(1) 0.001 N
(2) 0.1 N
(3) 0.01 N
(4) 1.0 N

33) The conductance of a salt solution (AB) measured by two parallel electrodes of area 100 cm2
separated by 10 cm was found to be 0.0001 Ω–1. If volume enclosed between two electrode contain
0.1 mole of salt, what is the molar conductivity (S cm2 mol–1) of salt at same concentration :-

(1) 10
(2) 0.1
(3) 1
(4) none of these

34) Assertion : Molar conductivity increases with decreases in concentration for weak electrolytes.
Reason : No. of ions per unit volume decreasesd due to dilution.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

35) A graph was plotted between molar conductivity of various electrolytes (NaCl, HCl and NH4OH)

and (in mol L–1). Correct setting:-

(1) I(NaCl), II(HCl), III(NH4OH)

(2) I(HCl), II(NaCl), III(NH4OH)
(3) I(NH4OH), II(NaCl), III(HCl)
(4) I(NH4OH), II(HCl), III(NaCl)

36) Which of the following option will be the limiting molar conductivity of CH3COOH if the limiting
molar conductivity of CH3COONa is 91 Scm2mol–1? Limiting molar conductivity for individual ions are
given in the following table.

Limiting molar
[Link]. Ions
conductivity/Scm2mol–
1 H+ 349.6
2 Na +
50.1
3 K+
73.5
4 OH –
199.1
(1) 350 Scm2mol–1
(2) 375.3 Scm2mol–1
(3) 390.5 Scm2mol–1
(4) 340.4 Scm2mol–1

37) Which of the following is not an essential requirement for Kohlrausch's law of independent
migration of ions to hold true ?

(1) The solution must be infinitely dilute.

(2) Electrolyte must be strong
(3) Electrolyte must be completely ionized.
(4) There should be no inter-ionic interaction.

38) The conductivity of 0.1 M HCOOH(aq) is

8 × 10–3 Scm–1. Find the dissociation constant of HCOOH with the help of following dates :

(1) 4 × 10–4
(2) 5 × 10–3
(3) 4 × 10–5
(4) 5 × 10–5

39) The specific conductance of a saturated solution of silver bromide is k Scm−1. The limiting ionic
conductivity of Ag+, and Br− ions are x and y, respectively. The solubility of silver bromide in gL−1 is :
(molar mass of AgBr = 188)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

40) The conductivity of saturated solution of BaSO4 is 3.06 × 10–6 ohm–1 cm–1 and its equivalent
conductance is 1.53 ohm–1 cm2 equiv–1. The Ksp for BaSO4 will be:

(1) 4 × 10–6
(2) 2.5 × 10–13
(3) 25 × 10–9
(4) 10–6

41) From the following E° values of half cells, what combination of two half cells would result in a
cell with the largest potential ?
(I) A + e– → A– ; E° = –0.24 V
– – –2
(II) B + e → B ; E° = +1.25 V
– – –3
(III) C + 2e → C ; E° = –1.25 V
(IV) D + 2e– → D–2 ; E° = +0.68 V

(1) II, IV
(2) II, III
(3) III, IV
(4) I, II

42)

If the standard reduction potential E° for four divalent elements X, Y, Z, W are –1.46V, –0·36 V, 0·15
V and –1·24 V respectively, than–

(1) X will replace Z+2 from aqueous solution

(2) Y will replace Z+2 from aqueous solution
(3) W will replace Z+2 from aqueous solution
(4) All the above statements are correct

43)

Consider the cell potentials = – 2.37 V and = – 0.04 V. The best reducing agent
would be

(1) Mg2+
(2) Fe3+
(3) Mg
(4) Fe

44) Assertion (A) : zinc sulphate can be stored in copper vessel.

Reason (R) : Copper is less reactive than zinc.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

45) When 20 g of CaCO3 were put into 10 litre flask and heated to 800°C, 35% of CaCO3 remained
unreacted at equilibrium. Kp for decomposition of CaCO3 is

(1) 1.145 atm

(2) 0.145 atm
(3) 2.145 atm
(4) 3.145 atm

BIOLOGY

1) Select the correct option -

Statement-I : ABO blood group are controlled by the gene 1
Statement-II : In case of pleiotropic gene a single gene products may produce more than one
effect.

(1) Statement-I & II both are correct

(2) Statement-I & II both are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-II is correct but Statement-I is incorrect

2) When Mendel crossed true-breeding tall and dwarf plants, in F1-generation all tall plants were
obtained. On self crossing in F2 generation, he obtained phenotypic ratio

(1) 1/4th tall and 3/4th dwarf plants

(2) 3/4th tall and 1/4th dwarf plants
(3) 2/4th tall and 2/4th dwarf plants
(4) All dwarf plants

3) Statement-I : In male grasshoppers, 50% sperm have no sex chromosome.

Statement-II : Human males have one of their sex chromosome much shorter than the other.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

4) Size of starch grain in seeds of garden pea plant character show which of the following
characteristics ?

(1) Co-dominance
(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Multiple allele
(4) Polygenic inheritance

5)

In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not used :-

(1) Flower colour

(2) Flower position
(3) Pod colour
(4) Pod length

6) The following table shows the genotypes for ABO blood grouping and their phenotypes. In which
one of the four options the components of table labelled as W, X, Y and Z are identified correctly?

[Link]. Genotype Blood Group

1 IAIA A

2 A

3 IBIB B

4 B

5 IAIB

6 O
W X Y Z
(1) IAi IBi AB ii
(2) IBi IAi B ii
(3) IBi IBi A ii
(4) IAi IAi O ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I. The gene I has three alleles IA, IB & io. Choose one
of the following incorrect statement :-

(1) The alleles IA & IB produces a slightly different form of sugar

(2) The allele io does not produce any sugar
(3) IA & IB are completely dominant over Io allele
(4) IA incompletely dominant over IB

8) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Multiple alleles are formed due to mutations

(2) Multiple alleles are located on same locus of homologous chromosomes
(3) ABO blood group system are determined by 3 alleles
(4) ABO blood group have 4 genotype and 6 phenotypes

9) The figure below shows three types of sex determination. Select the option giving correct

identification.

(1) C- ZZ males, ZW females

(2) A - XO Males, XX females
(3) B - XY females, XX males
(4) C - ZZ females, XX males

10) The figure depicits. :-

(1) Linkage
(2) Independent assortment
(3) Law of dominance
(4) Equational division

11) Predict from the following chart:

(1) Character is sex linked recessive

(2) Character is autosomal recessing only
(3) Character is recessive and may be x-linked or autosomal
(4) Character is holandric & carried by y-chromosome

12) Observe the given diagram & select the correct option :-

(1) It is the diagrammatic representation of a out cross.

(2) It is the comparison of two monohybrid crosses, used to find out the phenotype of organisms.
(3) It is the diagrammatic representation of reciprocal cross to find out the genotype of organism.
(4) It is the diagrammatic representation of test cross to find out the genotype of organisms.

13) Identify A, B and C from the following diagram.

(1) A: CTC; B: GAG; C: Glu
(2) A: GAG; B: CTC; C: Pro
(3) A: CTC; B: GAG; C: Thr
(4) A: CTC; B: GAG; C: Leu

14)

Column-A Column-B

(I) Gregor Mendel (A) Chromosomal theory of inheritance

(II) Sutton and Boveri (B) Law of inheritance

(III) Henking (C) Checker Board

(IV) R.C. Punnett (D) Discovered X-body

The correct match is
(1) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
(2) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
(3) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
(4) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A

15) Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Dominance (i) Many genes govern a single character

In a heterozygous organism only one

(b) Codominance (ii)
allele expresses itself
 In a heterozygous organism both
(c) Pleiotropy (iii)
alleles express themselves fully

A single gene influences many

(d) Polygenic inheritance (iv)
characters
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) If blood group of mother is A (IAIO) and father is B (IBIO) then, ratio for blood group of offspring A
: B : AB : O will be –

(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 0 : 2 : 0
(3) 0 : 0 : 4 : 0
(4) 0 : 2 : 2 : 0

17) How many types of gametes will be produced by individuals of AABbcc genotype ?

(1) Two
(2) four
(3) Six
(4) Eight

18) If substrate 'S' is transformed into product 'P' with the help of enzyme 'E'. Enzyme 'E' has been
produced from wild allele 'A'. After mutation 'A' changes into modified forms as follows :-

After considering the above findings,

which of the following allele pair will produce recessive phenotype ?

(1) a, α
(2) a, β
(3) A, a
(4) β, γ

19) Which one of the following condition could be an example of the pattern shown here :-

(1) Phenylketonuria
(2) Myotonic dystrophy
(3) Thalassemia
(4) Colourblindness

20) Some step's of Mendelian techniques are given below :-

A. Dusting of pollen grain
B. Rebagging
C. Bagging
D. Emasculation
Choose the correct sequence from the options given below :-

(1) D-C-A-B
(2) B-D-A-C
(3) B-D-C-A
(4) C-A-D-B

21) Which of the following is not based on law of dominanee ?

(1) Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors

(2) Factors occur in pairs
In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the pair dominates (dominant) the other
(3)
(recessive)
The alleles do not show any blending and both the characters are recoverted as such in F2
(4)
generation.

22) Statement-I : Gene contain the information that is required to express a particular trait in an
organism.
Statement-II : Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.
23) Statement - I : Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs which were
similar except for one character with contrasting traits.
Statement - II : Mendel observed in monohybrid cross that all the F1 progeny plants were dwarf,
like one of its parents; none were tall.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

24) Match the column-l with column-ll and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

Sterile females with

Down's
(A) (i) lack of secondary
syndrome
sexual characters

Turner's
(B) (ii) Gynaecomastia
syndrome

Individuals with broad

Klinefelter's palm with
(C) (iii)
syndrome characteristic palm
crease

A B C

(1) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (ii) (i) (iii)

(3) (i) (iii) (ii)

(4) (iii) (i) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes ?

(1) Chromosome 1
(2) Chromosome X
(3) Chromosome Y
(4) Chromosome 22

26) "When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is
independent of the other pair of character." This explains:-

(1) Law of dominance

(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of independent assortment
(4) Postulate of paired factors

27) Which of the following symbols and its representation is incorrect :-

(1)
= Normal male

(2)
= Carrier male of sex linked dominant disease

(3)
= Death of female individual

(4)
= Sex unspecified

28) Thalassemia is differ from sickle cell anaemia because :-

(1) Thalassemia is a qualitative disease

(2) Thalassemia is a quantitative disease
(3) Thalassemia is an autosomal dominant disease
(4) Thalassemia is a chromosomal disorder

29) A husband and wife have normal vision but fathers of both of them were colour blind. Probability
of their first daughter to be colour blind is :-

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 0%

30)

Which of the following characters of Drosophila is not suitable for genetical studies ?
(a) They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in laboratory
(b) They complete their life cycle in about 2-weeks
(c) Single mating produces few number of progeny flies.
(d) They have many types of heredilaty variations that can be seen with low power microscope.
(e) Male & Female flies are not easily distinguishable

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) d and e
(4) c and e

31) Select the correct statement in given options with regarding to haemophilia ?
(i) A single protein that is a part of the cascade of proteins involved in the clotting of blood is
affected.
(ii) possibility of female becoming haemophillic is very high.
(iii) Queen Victoria was a carrier of the disease.
(iv) an affected individual a simple cut will result in non stop bleeding.

(1) i, iii and iv

(2) i, ii, iii and iv
(3) ii, iii and iv
(4) iii and iv only

32) Given below are the two statement :-

Statement-I :- Colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive disorder due to defect in either red or
green cone of eye resulting in failure to discriminate between red and green colour.
Statement-II :- It occurs in about 0.4 percent of males and only about 8 percent of female.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

33) Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides ?

(1) George Gamow

(2) Francis Crick
(3) Jacque Monod
(4) Franklin Stahl

34) Select the correctly matched pair

(1) Cystic fibrosis : X-linked recessive

(2) Phenylketonuria : Autosomal dominant
(3) Myotonic dystrophy : Autosomal recessive
(4) Sickle-cell anaemia : Autosomal recessive

35) Which of the following technique was used to elucidate the double helix model of DNA ?

(1) Electromagnetic radiation

(2) X-ray diffraction
(3) γ-radiation
(4) UV-spectroscopy

36) Match the column I with column II :

 Column-I Column-II

A Adapter molecular i Griffith

Semiconservative mode of DNA replication

B ii Watson and Crick
experimental proved

C Transformation experiment iii Meselson and Stahl

D Double helix model of DNA iv tRNA

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-i, B-iv, D-ii, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

37) Identify the incorrect match

(1) Ribozyme – Nucleic acid

(2) Spliceosome – Bacteria
(3) Genetic code – Triplet
(4) DNA fingerprinting – VNTR

38) Histones are enriched with :-

(1) Leucine and Lysine

(2) Lysine and Arginine
(3) Phenylalanine and Arginine
(4) Glycine and Lysine

39) Find out correct statement about transcription :

(1) In transcription of DNA only one strand is copied into RNA.

In all eukaryotes single DNA polymerase is capable of catalysing all the three steps of
(2)
transcription, which are initiation, elongation and termination.
(3) In all prokaryotes transcription and translation take place in the different compartments.
(4) In all eukaryotes primary transcript (hn RNA) contain exons only.

40) In Eukaryotes, RNA polymerase - II transcribes

(1) tRNA
(2) Precursor of mRNA
(3) sn RNA
(4) 23s RNA

41) Which of the following is not included in transcription unit ?

(1) Promoter
(2) Terminator
(3) Structural gene
(4) Co-repressor

42) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) The repressor of the lac operon is synthesised constitutively from the i gene
(2) Only product of y-gene in lac operon is required for metabolism of lactose
(3) Regulation of lac-operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation
(4) For initiation of translation, there is specific tRNA known as initiator tRNA

43) Which is not an application of DNA fingerprinting ?

(1) Find-out genetic difference between two individuals

(2) Forensic science
(3) Amplification of DNA
(4) Evolutionary biology

44) Transfer of DNA bands from an agrose gel to a nitrocellulose or nylon membrane is referred to
as:-

(1) Western blotting

(2) Northern blotting
(3) Eastern blotting
(4) Southern blotting

45) The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A

to B :

(1) A–translation B–extension

(2) A–transcription B–replication
(3) A–translation B–transcription
(4) A–transcription B–translation

46) A cross between tall plants was made resulting offsprings of tall and dwarf plants with ratio 3 : 1
:-
The genotype (s) of both the parents are :

(1) Tt and tt
(2) Tt and Tt
(3) tt and tt
(4) TT and TT

47) If pure green pod colour pea plant is crossed with pure yellow colour pea plant. In F2 generation
the progeny will show :-

(1) All green pod colour

(2) 75% green and 25% yellow pod colour
(3) 50% green and 50% yellow pod colour
(4) 25% green and 75% yellow pod colour

48) Read the following statements regarding to Mendelian dihybrid cross and choose the correct set
of statements:-
(a) Dihybrid cross used to explain Law of Independent Assortment
(b) In F2 generation 9 types of phenotype are obtained
(c) In F1 generation only one type of genotype is obtained
(d) Genes show Mendelian dihybrid cross always present on same chromosome
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

(1) (a),(b), and (c) only

(2) (a),(c) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (c) only

49) When a tall pea plant with round seeds was selfed, it produced the progeny of :
(a) tall plants with round seeds and
(b) tall plants with wrinkled seeds
Identify the genotype of the parent plant.

(1) TtRr
(2) TtRR
(3) TTRR
(4) TTRr

50) With respect to Character of pod colour and flower position genotype of a garden pea plant is
GGaa respectively. This plant is crossed with GgAa genotypic plant . What phenotypic ratio will be
obtained:-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 12 : 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1 : 3 : 1
(4) 3 : 1

51) In order to find out genotype of unknown dominant plant, which cross will you prefer:-

(1) Back cross

(2) Out cross
(3) Reciprocal cross
(4) Test cross

52) Match List I with List II

List-I List-II
 A. Two or more alternative forms of a gene I. Back cross

B. Cross of F1 progeny with homozygous recessive parent II. Ploidy

C. Cross of F1 progeny with any of the parents III. Allele

D. Number of chromosome sets in plant IV. Test cross

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

53) Who united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Mendelian principles and called it
the chromosomal theory of inheritance :-

(1) Sutton
(2) Boveri
(3) Morgan
(4) Sturtevant

54) Which of the following statement is correct:-

(1) Chromosomes occur in pairs while genes will never occur in pairs
(2) Chromosomes never segregate during meiosis
(3) Allels never segregate during meiosis
(4) Chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs

55) In case of human skin colour the genotype with three dominant alleles and three recessive
alleles will have :-

(1) an intermediate skin colour

(2) Lightest skin colour
(3) darkest skin colour
(4) Very dark brown

56) With the help of given pedigree find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease

in F3 generation ?

(1) 1/2
(2) 2/2
(3) 3/4
(4) 1/4

57) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied, white-eyed females to brown bodied, red-eyed
males drosophila and obtained 9:3:3:1 ratio in F2 generation.
Statement II: Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were
sex-linked.
In the light of above Statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

58) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: α Thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 on
chromosome 11
Statement II: β Thalassemia is controlled by a single gene HBB on chromosome 16
In the light of above Statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

59) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or
loss of a chromosome(s), called aneuploidy
Statement II: Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division results in an increase in a
whole set of chromosomes in an organism and, this phenomenon is known as polyploidy
In the light of above Statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

60) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In Down syndrome the affected individual is short statured with small round head,
furrowed tongue and partially open mouth
Statement II: In klinfelter syndrome females are sterile as ovaries are rudimentary besides other
features including lack of other secondary sexual characters.
In the light of above Statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

61) Which of the following is not a correct statement:-

(1) In a polygenic inheritance the effect of each allele is additive

(2) The sex determination in honey bee is based on the number of sets of chromosomes
(3) colourblindness is due to mutation in certain genes present in the Y chromosome
(4) Turner’s Syndrome is caused due to the absence of one of the X chromosomes in female.

62) Phenylketonuria manifests itself through phenotypic expression characterised by :-

(A) reduction in hair pigments
(B) pattern baldness
(C) mental retardation
(D) skin rashes
(E) furrowed tongue
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Only (B) ,(C) and (E)

(2) Only (B), (D) and (E)
(3) Only (A) and (D)
(4) Only (A) ,(C) and (D)

63) The phenomenon where a single gene exhibiting multiple phenotypic expressions is called:

(1) Pleiotropy
(2) Multiple allels
(3) Polygenic inheritance
(4) Co-dominance

64) Match Column - I with Column- II :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Pheyketoneuria (i) Complete dominance

(b) Trait of sickle cell anaemia (ii) Pleiotropic gene

(c) Flower colour of dog plant (iii) Incomplete dominance

(d) Pod colour of pea plant (iv) Co dominance

(1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

65) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disease in human. A normal male has affected father.
This male is married with normal female, her father is also affected. Find out percent of their child
to be carrier of phenylketonuria ?
(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

66) In phenylketonuria disease which of the following enzyme is not synthesise :-

(1) Tyrosinase
(2) Invertase
(3) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(4) Hexokinase

67) In garden pea plant gene which control seed shape also control which of the following
character:-

(1) Flower colour

(2) Pod colour
(3) Size of starch grain
(4) Flower position

68) In sickle cell anaemia disease at which of the following position in beta chain of haemoglobin
amino acid is changed:-

(1) 5th position

(2) 6th position
(3) 3rd position
(4) 2nd position

69) Read the following statements and choose the correct set of statements regarding to polygenic
inheritance : -
(a) Traits are generally controlled by three or more alleles of a gene
(b) In the development of phenotype the effect of each allele is additive
(c) the phenotype is influenced by environmental
(d) in the case of polygenic the F1 generation resembles both parents.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

(1) (a),(b), and (c) only

(2) (a),(c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (c) only

70) In case of human skin colour how many types of phenotype are obtained in a cross between
AaBBCC and AABbCC

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 7

71) In F2 generation of a quantitative inheritance 23 phenotypic categories are obtained. This

character is controlled by how many polygenes?

(1) 22
(2) 11
(3) 9
(4) 10

72) Genotype of a plant is ++/ab in which genes show 40% recombination. Find out percentage of
gamete contain ab genotype :-

(1) 30%
(2) 20%
(3) 40%
(4) 10%

73) Which term was given by Morgan for those genes which are physically associated on the same
chromosomes :-

(1) Independent assortment

(2) Segregation
(3) Linkage
(4) Recombination

74) Who used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a
measure of the distance between genes and ‘mapped’ their position on the chromosome :-

(1) Morgan
(2) Sutton and Boveri
(3) Correns
(4) Sturtevant

75) Genotype of plant is ++/ab in which gene show 22% recombination. Find out percentage of
gamete contain ++ genotype?

(1) 39%
(2) 44%
(3) 88%
(4) 22%

76) The recombination frequency between linked genes are

CB = 12
BD = 20
CD = 32
The correct sequence of linked genes are :-

(1) BCD
(2) DBC
(3) CDB
(4) BDA

77) In Morgan experiment , yellow body with white eyed drosophila is crossed with brown body with
red eyed (wild type) drosophila. Find out percent of parental phenotype in F1 generation?

(1) 100%
(2) 1.3%
(3) 98.7%
(4) 0%

78) In chicken, sex chromosomes of male and females are respectively:-

(1) ZZ and ZW
(2) XO and XX
(3) ZW and ZZ
(4) XY and XX

79) Which of the following is a correct statement regarding to sex determination ?

(1) In human female is heterogametic

(2) In birds male is heterogametic
(3) In honey bee male has 32 chromosomes in every cell
(4) In grasshopper female is homogametic

80) Which of the following is correctly match with respect to sex determination :-

(1) Moth:- ZW type

(2) Fowl :- XY type
(3) Drosophila :- haploid- diploid type
(4) Grasshopper:- XO type

81) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In honey bee the females are diploid having 16 chromosomes
Statement II: In honey bee the males produce sperms by mitosis
In the light of above Statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

82) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R).
Assertion(A): In honey bee male have grandfather and thus grand father can have grandsons.
Reason(R): Honey bee is an example of XO type of sex determination in which the males have only
one X-chromosome besides the autosomes, whereas females have a pair of X-chromosomes.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R)are correct and (R)is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R)are correct and (R)is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R)is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R)is correct

83) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The pattern of inheritance of Mendelian disorders can be traced in a family by the
pedigree analysis
Statement II: Chromosomal disorder can be easily studied by analysis of Karyotypes.
In the light of above Statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

84) Which of the following is a chromosomal disorder:-

(1) Colourblindness
(2) Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Down syndrome

85) Which of the following autosome-linked recessive blood disease transmitted from parents to the
offspring :-

(1) Thalassemia
(2) Haemophilia
(3) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Colourblindness

86) In humans :-

(1) A female has 22 pairs of autosomes and a pair of sex chromosomes as XY

(2) A male has 22 pairs of autosomes and a pair of sex chromosome as XX
(3) A male has 22 pairs of sex chromosome and a pair of autosomes as XY
(4) A female has 22 pairs of autosomes and a pair of sex chromosome as XX

87) Which of the following Mendelian law explain Characters are controlled by discrete units called
factors :-
(1) Law of Dominance
(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of independence assortment
(4) Law of Linkage

88) Which of the following is not a correct statement?

(1) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene

(2) According to Mendel factors show blending in F2 generation
(3) Based on monohybrid crosses Mendel proposed two general rules of inheritance
During meiosis I, the two chromosome pairs can align at the metaphase plate independently of
(4)
each other

89) The factors on chromosomes regulating the characters are called the ……A…….. and the physical
expression of the chraracters is called ……..B……...
Choose the correct word for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blanks

'A' 'B'

(1) Phenotype Allele

(2) Genotype Phenotype

(3) Gene Allele

(4) Trait Genotype

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Which of the following is not a correct statement?

(1) Linkage map, corresponded to arrangement of genes on a chromosome

The chromosomal disorders are caused due to absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of
(2)
one or more chromosomes.
(3) Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in the single gene.
(4) The total number of chromosomes in a normal human female cell is 22 pairs
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 4 1 3 4 2 1 4 1 2 4 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 3 1 1 3 3 4 4 4 2 1 1 2 3 1 3 2 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 1 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 2 2 4 1 3 1 2 1 1 1 4 3 3 3 3 3 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 3 2 2 2 1 4 4 4 2 4 2 2 2 3 2 2 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 3 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 4 1 2 2 4 1 1 2 1 1 4 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 3 4 1 3 2 2 4 4 1 2 1 4 2 1 2 2 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 3 4 4 2 2 4 4 1 4 3 1 4 1 1 1 2 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 1 2 1 3 3 2 3 1 2 1 3 4 1 2 1 1 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 4 4 1 4 1 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) T = P ⇒ y = mx

As θ2 > θ1⇒ Slope =

Slope ∝ V
θ2 > θ1 ⇒ V2 > V1

2) For same isotherm : T → constant

∴ ⇒ P1V1 = P2V2

3)

Upon compressing, no. of particles per unit volume increases

4)

At constant temperature, pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to volume.

So if volume is halved, pressure becomes double

5)

7)

8)
ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW
For isobaric ΔQ =

9)

10) Length of horizontal portion of line or less than 2.

11)

12)

Diatomic gas molecules have three translational degree of freedom, two rotational degree of
freedom & it is given that it has one vibrational mode so there are two additional degree of
freedom corresponding to one vibrational mode, so total degree of freedom = 7

13) 100 × 80 = 8000

500 × 1 × 25 =
600 × 1 × t = 4500

14)

15)

(γapp)Hg + 3α1 = (γapp)Steal + 3α

153 × 10–6 + 3α1 = 144 × 10–6 + 3 × 12 × 10–6
 3α1 = (180 – 153) × 10–6
α1 = 9 × 10–6

16)

17)

U = 3PV + 4
U2 – U1 = 3(P2V2 – P1V1)

f=6
Since degree of freedom is 6 therefore gas is polyatomic

18)

Notice that the volume has been plotted along Y-axis.

19) Q = ΔU + W = n

Q= ⇒ ⇒f=4

γ1 = 1 +

20) Area under curve AD

= 2 × 102 × 2 = 4 × 102 = 400 J

21) At same temperature, RMS speed is independent of pressure.

22) 1. Explanation of Question:

The question asks for the number of degrees of freedom for different molecules (N2, H2, He,
H2O, CO2) at normal temperature, which refers to the independent ways in which the
molecules can store energy.

2. Concept: Degree freedom (f)

3. Calculation:
At normal temperatures (around room temperature), the vibrational modes of polyatomic
molecules are not fully excited. The degrees of freedom for each molecule are as follows:

A. He (monatomic) = 3 (translational)
B. H2 (diatomic) = 5 (3 translational, 2 rotational)
C. N2 (diatomic) = 5 (3 translational, 2 rotational)
D. H2O (triatomic) = 6 (3 translational, 3 rotational)
 E. CO2 (triatomic) = 5 ( 3 translational, 2 rotational)

Answer:

A. He: 3 degrees of freedom

B. H2: 5 degrees of freedom
C. N2: 5 degrees of freedom
D. H2O: 6 degrees of freedom
E. CO2: 5 degrees of freedom

23) ΔU = nCVΔT
⇒ ΔU = 0 if ΔT = 0

24) CP – CV = R ⇒ for ideal gas

A gas behaves like an ideal gas at higher temperature and low pressure (A)

25) CP – CV = R
where CP and CV are molar specific heat capacities
As per the question

a = 14 b

26)

fnet = ma

fnet =

27)
N = 8 + 3 = 11N
Acceleration of block w.r to wedge

28)
A ↓ 2 m/s2 + 100–T1=10×2 …(1)

B ↑ const. vel. T2 = 150 + T3 …(2)

C ↑ 1.5 m/s2 T3 – 80 = 8 × 1.5

T3 = 92 N
from the above equation T1 are calculate

29)

fL = 0.5 × 60 = 300 N
fK = 0.4 × 600 = 240 = 1 m/s2

30)

31)

Friction opposses relative slipping

direction of friction opposite to i.e.

32)

(W.D)mg + (W.D)f =
mgsinθ(2ℓ) – μmgcosθ.ℓ = 0
μ = 2tanθ

33)

Area =

34)
at t = 1 sec ; m/s2

35)
Block becomes to rest FNet = 0
fmax – Kxmax = 0
μmg = kxmax

Xmax =

36)

Let initial elongation is x

kx = 20 N

T = 10 + kx = 10 + 20 = 30 N
After cutting the thread S

T' = 1a ...(1)
30 – T' = 1a ...(2)
20 – 20 = 2a' ...(3)
From (1) & (2)
30 = 2a ⇒ a = 15 m/s2
a' = 0
So, 15 m/s2, 15m/s2, 0

37)

v–u= ×2×5
v = 5 m/s

38) The force of 100 N acts on both the boats.

250 a1 = 100 and 500a2 = 100
or a1 = 0.4 ms–2 and a–2 = 0.2 ms–2
The relative acceleration: a = a1 + a2 = 0.6 ms–2

Using S = ut + , we get
2
100 = (1/2) × 0.6 × t or t = 18.3 s

39) Choosing the positive x-y axis as shown in the figure the momentum of the bead at A is

. The momentum of the bead at B is

Therefore, the magnitude of the change in momentum between A and B
is i.e., Δp = 2 mv along the positive x-axis.
The time taken by the bead to reach from A to B is

Therefore, the average force exerted by the bead on the wire is

40) From FBD of A and B, shown in figure, the block A is just to slip, the friction will reach to
its limiting value
flim = μN …(i)

From FBD of A,
N + Tsin θ = mAg …(ii)
Tcos θ = fmax = μN …(iii)
From (ii), N = mAg – T sin θ …(iv)
From (iii) and (iv),
Tcos θ = μmAg – μTsin θ …(v)
T(cos θ + μ sin θ) = μ mAg …(vi)
From FBD of B, T = mBg …(vii)
Taking ratio of (vi) and (vii),

41) Maximum frictional force on block B is

μmBg = 0.4 x 3 x 10 = 12 N

Hence, maximum acceleration =

Hence, maximum force
F=(mA + mB)a = (6 + 3) × 4 = 36 N
Aliter: We can also apply the formula discussed in previous problem by putting μ2 = 0 and μ1
= 0.4.

42) Horizontal acceleration of the system is

 Let N be the normal reaction between B and C. Free-body diagram of C gives

N = 2ma =
Now B will not slide downwards if μN ≥ mBg

or or

or

43) For chain to move with constant speed, P needs to be equal to frictional force on the chain.
As the length of chain on the rough surface increases. Hence, the friction force fk = μkN
increases.

44) The FBD of the block is as shown in figure. N = 80 cos 37° =

64 N
So, fL = 0.2 x 64 = 32 N
As 4g < 80 sin 37°, friction force will act downwards. Net applied force in upward direction
(excluding friction force) is
80 sin 37° – 40 = 48 – 40 = 8 N
As Fapplied in vertical direction is less than fL, block will not move in vertical direction and value
of static friction force is f = 8N.

45) The driving force on the block F1 – F2 =10 – 2 = 8N

As the block is at rest the friction will be static and towards left.
f = fs = 8N

If F1 is removed only F2 = 2 N is acting on the block. If the

block is at rest f = F2 = 2 N this value of friction is within static range as in previous case even
f = 8 N is static case.

CHEMISTRY

46)

H2O(ℓ) H2O(s)
on decreasing pressure equilibrium shifts toward forward.
47) H2O H2O
(S) (l)
Vmore Vless
by applying pr. reaction shifted in forward direction.

48) ΔH = ⊕ve
(temp↓) (← backward)
So due to [Co(H2O)6]+3 colour is pink.

49)
Reaction proceed in forward direction

50) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) t = 0 1 1 0

t = eqm. 1–2x 1–x 2x
2x = 2 (1 – 2x)
3x = 1

x=

mole of O2 =

51) Keq = = = K1a – K1x = K2b + K2x

K1a – K2b = (K1 + K2)x

x=

52)

⇒ mole

[AB(g)] =

53) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

initially 1 3 0
n
at eq (1–0.5) (3–1.5) 2×0.5 = 1 mole
∴ Total moles at equilibrium = 0.5 + 1.5 + 1 = 3

Partial pressure of NH3 =

54) Ag2CrO4 ⇌ 2 Ag2+ + CrO42–
1 0 0
1–S 2S S
⇒ Ksp = (2S)2S = 4 S3
or, 4 S3 = Ksp = 4 × 10–12
⇒ S3 = 10–12
⇒ S = 10–4 mol L–1

55)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 216, Part-1

56) According to bronsted-lowry concept, proton donor act as an acid

57)

H2O < CH3COOH < HF < HNO2

58) meq of HCl = N × V (in litre)

= 0.5 × 20 × 10–3
= 10 × 10–3
similarly ; meq of NaOH = 0.1 × 35 × 10–3
= 3.5 × 10–3
∵ meq of NaOH (base) < meq of HCℓ (acid)
Hence resultant mixture will be acidic.
colour of methyl orange indicator in acidic medium is orange red.

59)

pH = pKIn + log

pH = 4.52 + = 4.04
pH = 4.52 + log(3) = 5.00

60) In 0.1 mol dm–3 NH4OH and 0.05 mol dm–3 HCl, complete HCl reacts with NH4OH to form
NH4Cl and some NH4OH will be left unreacted. Thus, the resultant solution contains NH4Cl
and NH4OH which will produce a buffer solution.

61)

Initial pH: Basic

Final pH: Acidic

62)
Acidic buffer: pH = pKa +

Basic buffer: pOH = pKb + log

63)

Methyl orange is basic indicator & it dissociates in acidic medium.

64)

HCl is strong acid so it has less pH than CH3COOH.

65) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

NCERT (old) XIth part-1 Heading 7.12

66) At t = 3 min, according to graph

[H2] increases first ie, H2 was added to the equilibrium

67)

= 0.5

68)

C6H5COOAg

solubility of salt of weak acid increases in acidic medium

69)

common ion effect

70)

Group-2 ions make ppt with H2S

71)

72)
For precipitation ⇒ Q > ksp
[Ag+] [Br–] > 5 × 10–13
[Ag+][Cl–] > 1.8 × 10–10
[Ag+]2[ ] > 8.1 × 10–12
[Ag+]3[ ] > 10–22

73)

Ncert-Class 11th, Part-2, [Link] Edition-2023-24

74)

HCOONa : WASB
C6H5NH3Cl : WBSA
KCN : SBWA

75)

CH3COOH+NaOH→CH3COONa + H2O
milli
moles 0.2 × 20 0.1 × 20 – –
=2 =2
after
the rxn. 0 0 2 –

[CH3COONa] = = 5 × 10–2
WASB

pH = 7 + pKa + log C = 7 + (4.74) + log (5 × 10–2)

= 9.37 – 0.655
⇒ 8.715

76)

[OH–] = 1.8 × 10–5 ×

= 9 × 10–4 M

77)

78)
79)

Dilution cause increase in molar conductance.

80)

Linear graph for strong electrolyte.

81)
= (91 – 50.1) + 349.6
= 40.9 + 349.6
= 390.5 S.cm2. mol–1

82)

It is valid for both strong & weak.

83)

84)
S = mol/L

85)

= 3.06 [Link]–1

Ksp = S2 = 10–6

86)

Choose 1 half cell in which reduction potential (cathode) is maximum and another ray cell
having minimum reduction potential (anode).
 ⇒ 1.25 – (–1.25)
⇒ 250 V
∴ II & III half cells are used

87)

SRP: X < W < Y < Z

→ Lower SRP metal will displace higher SRP ion.

88)

Mg is more active metal due to high SOP.

89)

ZnSO4 + Cu → No reaction

90)

CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)

0.2 mol
⇒ 0.2 – 0.13 0.13 0.13 mol

= 1.145 atm

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. No. # 77

92) NCERT-XII Pg. # 61

93) NCERT Pg. # 86

94)

NCERT-XII, Pg#60

95)

NCERT-XII, Pg#55

96) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 77

97) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 61

98) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 77 Para- [Link]

99)

NCERT-XII, Pg#70 fig. 4.12

100)

NCERT-XII, Pg#66 fig. 4.9

101)

NCERT-XII, Pg#73

102)

NCERT-XII, Pg#59 fig. 4.5

103)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 74

104)

NCERT-XII, Pg#59,65

105)

NCERT-XII, Pg#61

106)

NCERT Pg. # 77-78

107)

NCERT-XII, Pg#57

108)

NCERT-XII, Pg#60,61
109)

NCERT-XII, Pg#73

110) NCERT Pg. # 55

111) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 75

112) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 72(E), 80(H)

113) NCERT- XII Pg. # 70, 71

114) NCERT Reference: Class XII. Page No. 92

115)

NCERT-XII, Pg#104

116)

NCERT-XII, Pg#64

117)

NCERT-XII, Pg#72

118)

NCERT-XII, Pg#74

119)

NCERT-XII, Pg#72

120)

NCERT-XII, Pg#67

121)

NCERT-XII, Pg#73

122) NCERT XII Pg # 89

123)

NCERT-XII, Pg#95

124)

NCERT-XII, Pg#73

125)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 81

126) XII NCERT Pg # 97, 100, 114, 104

127)

NCERT-XII, Pg#95,99

128)

NCERT-XII, Pg#83

129)

NCERT XII Pg # 107, 108

130) NCERT Page No.111

131)

NCERT-XII, Pg#91

132)

NCERT-XII, Pg#100,101

133) NCERT-XII, Pg # 108

134) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 122

135)

NCERT-XII, Pg#82
136) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 55 (E)

137) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 55 (E)

138) NCERT, Pg. # 63,64

139) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 63 (E)

140) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 63 (E)

141) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 58,59 (E)

142) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 58,59 (E), 65,66 (H)

143) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 65,66,67 (E), 72,73,74 (H)

144) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 65,66,67 (E), 72,73,74 (H)

145) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69 (E), 76,77 (H)

146) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 72,73,74,75,76 (E), 80,81,82,83,84,85 (H)

147) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 67,68 (E), 75,76 (H)

148) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 72,73,74,75,76 (E), 80,81,82,83,84,85

149) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 72,73,74,75,76 (E), 80,81,82,83,84,85 (H)

150) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 72,73,74,75,76 (E), 80,81,82,83,84,85 (H)

151) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69,70 (E)

152) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69

153) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69,74,79 (E), 77,82,83 (H)

154) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69,74,79 (E), 77,82,83 (H)

155)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 69

156) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69,74,79 (E), 77,82,83 (H)

157) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69,74,79 (E), 77,82,83 (H)

158) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69,74,79 (E), 77,82,83 (H)

159) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69

160) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69

161) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69

162) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 67,68 (E), 75,76 (H)

163) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 67,68 (E), 75,76 (H)

164) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 67,68 (E), 75,76 (H)

165) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 67,68 (E), 75,76 (H)

166) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 67,68 (E), 75,76 (H)

167) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 67,68 (E), 75,76 (H)

168) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69,70,71 (E), 77,78,79 (H)

169) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69,70,71 (E), 77,78,79 (H)

170) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69,70,71 (E), 77,78,79 (H)

171) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 69,70,71 (E), 77,78,79 (H)

172) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 71

173) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 72,73,74,75,76 (E), 80,81,82,83,84,85 (H)

174) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 72,73,74,75,76 (E), 80,81,82,83,84,85 (H)

175) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 72,73,74,75,76 (E), 80,81,82,83,84,85 (H)

176) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 72,73,74,75,76 (E), 80,81,82,83,84,85 (H)

177) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 55,56,57,58,59 (E), 62,63,64,65,66,67 (H)

178) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 62,66

179) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 53

180) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 62,66