07-09-2025

1001CMD303101250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) The upper end of a wire of radius 4 mm and length 100 cm is clamped and its other end is twisted
through an angle of 30°. The angle of shear is

(1) 12°
(2) 0.12°
(3) 1.2°
(4) 0.012°

2) The Bulk Modulus for an incompressible liquid is :

(1) zero
(2) unity
(3) infinity
(4) between 0 and 1

3) Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are connected by a metal wire going over a smooth pulley as
shown in the figure. The breaking stress of the metal is (40/3π) × 106 N/m2. If g = 10 m/s2, then what

should be the minimum radius of the wire used if it is not to break ?

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 1 mm
(3) 1.5 mm
(4) 2 mm

4) A metal cylinder of length L is subjected to a uniform compressive force F as shown in the figure.
The material of the cylinder has Young's modulus Y and Poisson's ratio σ. The change in volume of
the cylinder is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Two wires A and B of same length and made of same material are hanging from the same roof.
The figure shows the load F versus extension Δℓ graph for the two wires then :-

(1) The elasticity of wire A is greater than that of B

(2) The cross-sectional area of wire A is equal to that of B
(3) The ratio of radii of wires A to B is 1 : 2
(4) The ratio of area of cross-section of wires A to B is 4 : 1

6) A vertical U-tube of uniform inner cross section contains mercury in both sides of its arms. A
glycerin (density = 1.3 g/cm3) column of length 10 cm is introduced into one of its arms. Oil of
density 0.8 gm/cm3 is poured into the other arm until the upper surfaces of the oil and glycerin are
in the same horizontal level. Find the length (in cm) of the oil column, (Density of mercury = 13.6

g/cm3)

(1) 10.4
(2) 8.2
(3) 7.2
(4) 9.6
7) A cube of aluminium of side 0.1 m is subjected to a shearing force of 100 N. The top face of the
cube is displaced through 0.02 cm with respect to the bottom face. The shearing strain would be

(1) 0.02
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.005
(4) 0.002

8) A bar of cross section A is subjected to two equal and opposite tensile force as shown. Consider a
cross section BB as shown in figure. The shearing stress at this section is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

9) A steel rod is projecting out of a rigid wall. The shearing strength of steel is 345 MN/m2. The
dimensions AB = 5 cm BC = BE = 2cm. The maximum load that can be put on face ABCD is:-

(1) 3450 kg
(2) 1380 kg
(3) 13800 kg
(4) 345 kg

10) A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is stretched by attaching a weight of 200 N to
the lower end. The weight stretches the wire by 1mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the wire :-

(1) 0.1 J
(2) 0.2 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 20 J

11) The increase in length of a wire on stretching is 0.025%. If its Poisson's ratio is 0.4, then the
percentage decrease in diameter is :-

(1) 0.01
(2) 0.02
(3) 0.03
(4) 0.04

12) A rectangular block of size is kept in three different positions P, Q and R in

turn as shown in the figure. In each case, the shaded area is rigidly fixed and a definite force F
is applied tangentially to the opposite face to deform the block. The displacement of the upper face
will be

(1) Same in all the three cases

(2) Maximum in P position
(3) Maximum in Q position
(4) Maximum in R position

13) For a given material, the Young's modulus is 2.4 times that of rigidity modulus. Its
Poisson's ratio is :

(1) 2.4
(2) 1.2
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.2

14) A liquid 'X' of density 3.36 gm/cm3 is poured in right arm of a U-tube, containing mercury.
Another liquid Y is poured in left arm with column of height 8 cm. Upper levels of X and Y are same
as shown in figure. If density mercury is 13.6 g/cc, then the density of liquid Y is :-
(1) 0.8 gm/cc
(2) 1.2 gm/cc
(3) 1.4 gm/cc
(4) 1.6 gm/cc

15) The acceleration a of the vertical U-tube is :-

(1) g
(2) g/2
(3) 2g
(4) Zero

16) Three containers of same base area, same height are filled with same liquid as shown in the
figure. If F1, F2, F3 are the force exerted by the liquid on the base of the container in case I, II and III

respectively, then we have the relation:

(1) F1 = F2 = F3
(2) F1 > F2 > F3
(3) F3 > F2 > F1
(4) F2 < F3 < F1

17) For a gas . For this gas degree of freedom

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 1

18) Find the work done by the gas is the process ABC

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 4P0V0

19) Consider a process shown in the figure. During this process the work done by the system :-

(1) Continuously increases

(2) Continuously decreases
(3) First increases, then decreases
(4) First decreases, then increases

20) Order of work done for adiabatically expanding monoatomic, diatomic and triatomic gas from
initial volume V to final volume 2V will be :

(1) WMono > WDi > WTri

(2) WDi > WMono > WTri
(3) WMono < WDi < WTri
(4) WDi < WMono < WTri

21) Assertion (A) :- Two bodies at different temperatures, if brought in thermal contact do not
necessarily settle to the mean temperature.
Reason (R) :- The two bodies may have different thermal capacities.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

22) Match the following two column for 4 moles of an ideal diatomic gas at room temperature T.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Translational kinetic energy (P) 4RT

(b) Rotational kinetic energy (Q) – 8RT

(c) Potential energy (R) 6RT

(d) Total internal energy (S) None

(1) a-P, b-Q, c-R, d-S
(2) a-R, b-P, c-S, d-S
(3) a-R, b-P, c-S, d-Q
(4) a-R, b-Q, c-P, d-S

23) Assertion :- Melting of solid causes change in it's internal energy.

Reason :- Latent heat of fusion is the heat required to melt a unit mass of solid.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) A tube is inverted in a mercury vessel as shown in the figure. If the pressure P is increase then
match the following

Column I Column II

(A) height h (i) will increase

(B) pressure at O (ii) will decrease

(C) Pressure at 1 cm above O (iii) will remain same

(1) A - iii, B - i, C - i
(2) A - i, B - i, C - iii
(3) A - ii, B - iii, C - iii
(4) A - ii, B - i, C - iii

25) In the figure shown a rod is kept on floor and applied some forces. The area of cross-section is A
and Young’s modulus is Y (Assume all forces are applied uniformly distributed throughout cross

section of rod) (a) Stress at P & Q are equal

(b) Stress at P is times stress at Q

(c) Elongation of rod under the forces is

(d) Strain at Q is

(1) a, c
(2) a, b
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, d

26) Statement-I :- One of the two identical container is empty and the other contains two ice cubes.
Now both the containers are filled with water to same level as shown. Then both the containers shall
weigh the same.
Statement-II :- The weight of volume of water displaced by ice cube floating in water is equal to
the weight of ice cube. Hence both the container in above situation shall weigh the same.

(1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true ; Statement-II is a correct explanation for Statement-I.
Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true ; Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true.

27) If value of acceleration due to gravity at a place decreases by 3% then find the change in the
height of mercury in a barometer :-

(1) Increases by 3%
(2) Decreases by 3%
(3) Increases by 6%
(4) Decreases by 6%

28) A cubical block is floating in a liquid with half of it's volume immersed in the liquid. When the
whole system accelerates upwards with acceleration of g/2, the fraction of volume immersed in

liquid will be _______

(1) 1/2
(2) 3/4
(3) 2/3
(4) 3/8

29) Two solids A and B float in water. It is observed that A floats with half its volume immersed and
B floats with 2/3 of its volume immersed. Compare the densities of A and B (ρA : ρB)

(1) 4 : 3
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 4
(4) 1 : 3

30) Shown below is a cylinder of radius R floating in vessel containing liquids A and B. Neglecting
atmospheric pressure match the quantities mentioned in column-I with corresponding expression in

column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(P) Net force exerted by liquid A of density ρ on the cylinder. (1) 9 ρgRh2

(Q) Net force exerted by liquid B of density 2ρ on the cylinder. (2) πρgR2h

Net force exerted by liquids A and B on the left half of the curved part of
(R) (3) 4πρgR2h
cylinder.

(S) Net force exerted by liquid A and B on the cylinder. (4) 3πρgR2h
(1) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(2) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(3) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(4) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

31) A liquid of mass "m" is filled in a container given below having base area "A" then pressure at its
base will be:- (Atmospheric pressure is zero)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

32) Figure here shown the vertical cross-section of a vessel filled with a liquid of density ρ. The
normal thrust per unit area on the walls of the vessel at point. P, as shown, will be

(1) h ρ g
(2) H ρ g
(3) (H – h) ρ g
(4) (H – h) ρ g cosθ

33) Three uniform rods A, B and C of identical dimensions (A, L) but having different Young's
modulus; YA = Y, YB = 3Y and YC = 1.5Y. An elastic rod is equivalent to an ideal spring. Macth the
following rod combinations in List-I with their equivalent spring constant in List-II. (Assume all
connecting rods except A, B and C to be massless and rigid).

List-I List-II

(P) (1)

(Q) (2)
 (R) (3)

(S) (4)

(1) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

(2) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(3) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(4) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

34) An ideal gas follows PVn = const. calculate the value of for the gas :-

(1) n
(2) 1/n
(3) n+1
(4) n–1

35) Average kinetic energy of 1 mol of oxygen atomic gas at 127°C is –

(1) 600 cal

(2) 1200 J
(3) 600 J
(4) 1200 cal

36) The average degree of freedom per molecule of a gas is 6. The gas performs 25 J work, while
expanding at constant pressure. The heat absorbed by the gas is

(1) 75 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 150 J
(4) 125 J

37) A monoatomic gas is taken along path AB as shown. Calculate change in internal energy of

system :-

(1) 279.8 J
(2) 341 J
(3) 241 J
(4) 0

38) One gas γ = 1.5 is suddenly compressed so that its volume becomes one fourth of its initial
volume. Find the ratio of final and initial pressure :-

(1) 1 : 16
(2) 1 : 8
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 8 : 1

39) Four spheres P, Q, R and S are of same radius but made of different metals. Their densities are
in the ratio 3 : 4 : 6 : 5 and specific heats are in the ratio 2 : 5 : 3 : 6. These are initially kept at same
temperature and placed in the same surrounding. The sphere which has the slowest rate of cooling
is

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) S

40) Two rods A and B of identical dimensions are at temperature 30°C. If A is heated upto 180°C and
B upto T°C, then the new lengths are the same. If the ratio of the coefficients of linear expansion of
A and B is 4 : 3, then the value of T is :-

(1) 270°C
(2) 250°C
(3) 230°C
(4) 200°C

41) A copper rod (initially at room temperature 20°C) of non-uniform cross section is placed between
a steam chamber at 100°C and ice-water chamber at 0°C.

List-I List-II

maximum at section
(I) (P)
Initially rate of heat flow will be A

maximum at section
(II) At steady state rate of heat flow (Q)
B
will be
 At steady state temperature gradient
minimum at section
(III) (R)
B
will be

At steady state rate of change

(IV) (S) same for all section
of temperature at a
(1) I-P, II-S, III-Q, IV-R
(2) I-P, II-R, III-Q, IV-S
(3) I-P, II-S, III-Q, IV-S
(4) I-R, II-S, III-Q, IV-P

42) A gas is filled in the cylinder shown in the figure. The two pistons are joined by a string. If the

gas is heated, the pistons will

(1) Move towards left

(2) Move towards right
(3) Remain stationary
(4) None of these

43) "Heat can not be itself flow from a body at lower temperature to a body at higher temperature"
is a statement or consequence of-

(1) second law of thermodynamics

(2) conservation of momentum
(3) conservation of mass
(4) first law of thermodynamics

44) In a home experiment, Ram brings a new electric kettle with unknown power rating. He puts 1
litre water in the kettle and switches on. But to his dismay, the temperature becomes constants at
600° C after some time. The room temperature is 200° C. Ram gets bored and switches off the
kettle. He sees that during first 20 s water cools down by 20°C. Which is the best graph for
temperature v/s time?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) The number of air molecules per cm3 increased from 3 × 1019 to 12 × 1019. The ratio of collision
frequency of air molecules before and after the increase in number respectively is

(1) 1.25
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.50

CHEMISTRY

1) Number of chiral centers in the following molecule is/are ......

(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 9

2) Identify, number of compounds that can show geometrical isomerism.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

3)

Total numbers of geometrical isomers of following compound is :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

4) Which of the following is correct set of physical properties of the geometrical isomers ?

and

Dipole Boiling Melting

Stability
moment Point point
1 II > I II > I I > II I > II
2 I > II I > II II > I I > II
3 I > II I > II I > II I > II
4 II > I II > I II > I II > I
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Absolute configuration of given compound is :

(1) 2R, 3S
(2) 2S, 3S
(3) 3R, 2S
(4) 2R, 3R

6)

Total number of phenolic structure in molecular formula C7H8O will be ?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 2
7)

The molecules formula C4H10O can show :-

(a) Chain isomerism
(b) Position isomerism
(c) Functional group isomerism
(d) Metamerism
Choose the correct option ?

(1) a,b,c only

(2) a,b,d only
(3) b,c only
(4) a,b,c,d

8) Which of the following will show both geometrical and optical isomerism :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Which of the following compounds can exist in meso form :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

10) Which of the following has opposite absolute configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Assertion :- A compound whose molecule has D-configuration will always be dextrorotatory.
Reason :- Compound having D-configuration is always rotate the plane of plane polarised light in
clockwise direction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion and Reason both are false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

12)

Which conformation of HO–CH2–CH2–F is most stable :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)
The correct statement for I and II

(1) Both are optical isomers of each other

(2) Both are optically inactive therefore meso
(3) Both are optical as well as geometrical isomers of each other
(4) Both are diastereomers of each other

14) How many cyclic isomers of C5H10 are possible which are optically active ?

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 2
(4) 5

15) The total number of stereoisomers in the compound is-

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 6

16) If 'A' rotates plane polarised light by +60°, then 'B' will rotate it by :

(1) +60°
(2) zero
(3) –60°
(4) Unpredictable

17)

Which pair (List-I) having incorrect relationship (List-II).

List-I List-II

(1) Diastereomer

(2) Enantiomer

(3) Identical

(4) Diastereomer

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Total number of secondary amines (structural isomers) are possible for a compound having
molecular formula C5H13N.

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8
19) Statement-1 : According to CIP sequence rule the priority of the group is
–CH = CH2 < –C ≡ CH < –C ≡ N < –CH = O
and
Statement-2 : Priority of the given groups are based on molecular mass of groups.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement is True ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation of Statement-1

Statement-1 is True, Statement is True ; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement is True

20)
I and II are not geometrical isomers of each other because

(1) ℓ1 = ℓ2
(2) ℓ1 > ℓ2
(3) ℓ2 > ℓ1
(4) They are geometrical isomers

21) Chiral molecules are those which are :

(1) Superimposable on their mirror image

(2) Not superimposable on their mirror image
(3) Having no mirror images
(4) Capable of showing geometrical isomerism

22) Relation between Ethyl benzene carboxylate and Phenyl propanoate is :

(1) Metamers
(2) Functional isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) Homologues

23) Which pair of the following compounds is the pair of enantiomers?

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) I & II
(2) II & III
(3) III & IV
(4) II & IV
24) 0.5 amp of electrical current passed in AgNO3 solution. Then the 0.108 g of Ag deposite at the
cathode. Calculate the time for electrolysis :-

(1) 193 sec

(2) 965 sec
(3) 200 sec
(4) None

25) In the electrolysis of silver nitrate, the mass of silver deposited is plotted against the charge

(coulomb):- Slope of the line represents :

(1) The equivalent mass of silver

(2) Electrochemical equivalent of silver
(3) The value of faraday
(4) The current passed through the cell

26)

E°(Ni2+ |Ni) = –0.25 volt, E° (Au3+ | Au) = 1.50 volt.

The standard emf of the voltaic cell.
Ni(s) | Ni2+(aq) (1.0 M) || Au3+(aq) (1.0 M) | Au(s) is :

(1) 1.25 volt

(2) –1.75 volt
(3) 1.75 volt
(4) 4.0 volt

27)

The emf of the following galvanic cells :-

(a) Zn | Zn+2(1M) || Cu+2(1M) | Cu
(b) Zn | Zn+2(0.1M) || Cu+2(1M) | Cu
(c) Zn | Zn+2(1M) || Cu+2(0.1M) | Cu
(d) Zn | Zn+2(0.1M) || Cu+2(0.1M) | Cu

are represented by E1, E2, E3 and E4. Which of the following is true.
(1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4
(2) E3 > E2 > E1 > E4
(3) E3 > E1 = E4 > E2
(4) E2 > E1 = E4 > E3

28) A solution is one molar in each of NaCl, CdCl2, ZnCl2 and PbCl2. To this, tin metal is added.
Which of the following is true ? Given :-
(1) Sn can reduce Na+ to Na
(2) Sn can reduce Zn2+ to Zn
(3) Sn can reduce Cd2+ to Cd
(4) Sn can reduce Pb2+ to Pb

29) Charging reaction of Lead-storage battery is 2 PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(ℓ)→PbO2(s) + Pb(s) + 2H2SO4

then the equivalent weigth of PbSO4 is

(1) M

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

30) How many moles of H2SO4 are consumed in a lead storage battery, when it is used to produce 1
Faraday electricity during discharging :

(1) 0.5
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

31) Electrolysis of aquous CuSO4 produces -

(1) An increase in pH
(2) An decrease in pH
(3) Either decrease or increase
(4) None

32) In the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of NaOH, 2.8 litre of oxygen gas at NTP was liberated
at anode. How much of hydrogen as was liberated at cathode ?

(1) 2.8 litre

(2) 5.6 litre
(3) 11.2 litre
(4) 22.4 litre

33) Assertion : In electrolysis, the quantity of electricity needed for depositing 1 mol of silver is
different from that required for 1 mole of Cu.
Reason : Cu and Ag have different Atomic weight.

(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct
(4) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect

34) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion-A and the other is labelled as
Reason-R.
Assertion (A) : For measuring the resistance of an ionic solution, alternating current (AC) source of
power is used.
Reason (R) : Passing direct current (DC) through ionic solution changes its composition.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

35) The process which occur spontaneously are

(I) Flow of heat from colder to warmer body
(II) Gas expanding to fill the available volume
(III) Gas in one container contracting into one corner
select the correct statements-

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) All of these

36) Combustion of gaseous octane takes place at a certain temperature. The homogeneous equation
of combustion is :

The signs of ΔH, ΔS and ΔG for the reaction will be :-

(1) +ve, -ve, +ve

(2) -ve, +ve, -ve
(3) -ve, +ve, +ve
(4) +ve, +ve, -ve

37) If a gas absorbs 200 J of heat and expands by 500 cm3 against a constant pressure 2 × 105 Nm–2
then change in internal energy is :-

(1) – 300 J
(2) – 100 J
(3) + 100 J
(4) + 300 J

38) A piston filled with 0.04 mole of an ideal gas expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a
constant temperature of 37°C. As it does so, it absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and W for the
process will be : (R = 8.314 J/mol K, log (7.5) = 0.87)

(1) q = +208 J, W = –208 J

(2) q = –208 J, W = –208 J
(3) q = –208 J, W = +208 J
(4) q = +208 J, W = +208 J

39) Two moles of an ideal gas are expanded isothermally & reversibly from 1 litre to 10 litre at 300
K. The enthalpy change (in kJ) for the process is :-

(1) 11.4
(2) –11.4
(3) 0
(4) 4.8

40) One mol of gas absorbs 30 J of heat at const. volume and its temperature raises from 30°C to
35°C. The value of ΔU is :-

(1) 60 J
(2) 150 J
(3) 30 J
(4) 200 J

41) Which of the following relation is not correct ?

(1)

For isothermal process

(2)
wreversible = –nRTln

(3)

(4) K = e–ΔG°/RT

42) For the reaction :

= 2.1 kCal, at 300 K
Hence is :-

(1) 2.7 kCal

(2) - 2.7 kCal
(3) 9.3 kCal
(4) - 9.3 kCal
43)

For 1 mole of ideal gas. Calculate w = ?

(1) – 283 R
(2) – 253 R
(3) – 263 R
(4) – 273 R

44) 1 mol monoatomic ideal gas expanded adiabatically, against a constant pressure of 2 atm from
10 L to 20 L. Select the correct option for above process.

(1) q = 20 L-atm
(2) ΔU = 0
(3) ΔU = –20 L-atm
(4) w = 10 L-atm

45) P–V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes are given in the given figure.

Plot A and plot B should correspond to

(1) He and O2
(2) He and Ar
(3) O2 and He
(4) O2 and F2

BIOLOGY

1) In the given flow chart, the replication of retrovirus in a host cell is shown. Observe it carefully
and fill up the blank A, B and C.
(1) A–Bacteriophage, B–Viral DNA is produced, C–New viral RNA is produced
A–Transcriptase, B–Bacterial RNA is produced, C–New viral DNA is produced by the infected
(2)
cell
(3) A–Bacteriophage, B–Viral DNA is produced, C–New viral RNA is produced by the infected cell
A–Retrovirus, B–Viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase, C–New viral RNA is produced
(4)
by the infected cell

2) Observe the following table very carefully, which contains souce of drug, biological name and
their uses. Choose the correct option :-

Papaver Stimulant action

(1)
somniferum on body
 Claviceps
(2) Hallucination
purpura

Papaver Depressant action

(3)
somniferum on body

Cannabis
(4) Relieving pain
sativa

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is

shown below
(1) Stimulant
(2) Pain-killer
(3) Hallucinogen
(4) Depressant

4) Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative
organism and mode of infection.

Causative Mode of
Disease
Organisms Infection

Bite of male Anopheles

(1) Malaria Plasmodium vivax
Mosquito

(2) Typhoid Salmonella typhi With inspired air

Streptococcus
(3) Pneumonia Droplet infection
pneumoniae

Wuchereria With infected

(4) Elephantiasis
bancrofti water and food
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Which pair is matched correctly ?

(1) Ascariaris → Blockage of intestinal passage

(2) Typhoid → Inflammation of lymphatic vessels
(3) Filariasis → Stool with mucus and blood clot
(4) Amoebiasis → Dry, scaly lesions

6) Match List I with List II.

List I List II

A. Heroin I. Effect on cardiovascular system

B. Marijuana II. Slow down body function

C. Cocaine III. Painkiller

D. Morphine IV. Interfere with transport of dopamine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

7) Select the correct match pair :

(1) AIDS – HIV (Retro virus), Diagnosed by radiography and histopathological studies
(2) Cancer – Cells shows metastasis and lose the property of contact inhibition.
Primary lymphoid organs – Provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with antigens and
(3)
bone marrow, thymus are example of primary lymphoid organs.
(4) NACO – Educate the people about cancer, malaria and auto-immune disorders.

8) Read the following statements and choose the correct option

Statement (A): In HIV, DNA of virus replicates to form more viral DNA with the help of enzyme
reverse transcriptase
Statement(B): First case of AIDS was reported in the year 1891

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both A and B statements are incorrect
(4) Both A and B statements are correct

9) Select the correct sequence of HIV infection.

(a) Viral DNA incorporates into host genome
(b) New viral RNA is produced by the infected cell
(c) Viral RNA is introduced into cell
(d) Viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

(1) b → d → a → c
(2) c → a → d → b
(3) c → d → a → b
(4) d → a → b → c

10) All of the following statements are correct regarding AIDS, except

(1) It is caused by HIV which is an enveloped, RNA virus.

(2) It is a hereditary, congenital disease as HIV can pass on from mother to her child.
(3) Symptoms of AIDS begin to appear when TH-lymphocyte count decreases drastically
A person could be detected as HIV positive, but it is not necessary that he is suffering from
(4)
AIDS at that point in time

11) In the last twenty five years or so, AIDS has spread all over the world killing more than ______
persons.
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

(1) 2.5 billion

(2) 250 million
(3) 25 million
(4) 25 billion

12) Read the following statements regarding cancer and select the correct option stating which one
is true (T) and which one is false (F).
A. Cancer cells do not show contact inhibition.
B. Metagenesis is the most feared property of malignant tumor.
C. Depletion of ozone layer in atmosphere can lead to increased incidence of skin cancer.
D. Immunotherapy can be used to treat various forms of cancer.

A B C D
(1) F F F T
(2) T F T T
(3) T F T F
(4) F F T T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Assertion(A): Tobacco can raise BP and increases heart rate.

Reason(R): Tobacco contains nicotine which stimulates adrenal cortex to release epinephrine and
nor-epinephrine.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

14) Which type of radiations can cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation ?
(a) Ionising radiations
(b) X-rays
(c) Non-ionising radiations
(d) UV-rays

(1) a and c
(2) b and d
(3) a and b
(4) a, b, c and d

15) Among the following which motivates youngsters towards drug and alcohol abuse?

(1) Need for adventure

(2) Need for excitement
(3) Experimentation
(4) All of these

16) In the given list smoking is associated with the increased risk of how many of the following ?
Cancer of urinary bladder, Bronchitis, Emphysema, Gastric ulcer, Coronary heart disease

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 2

17) 'Infected cell can survive while viruses are being replicated and released'; during HIV infection
given statement is true for which cell ?

(1) T-Helper
(2) B-Plasma
(3) Macrophage
(4) Both (1) and (3)

18) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) Health is not just the absence of disease.

(2) All vector borne diseases are transmitted by plasmodium.
(3) On subsequent exposure to same pathogen the immune response is rapid and more intense.
(4) Many cancers are curable, if detected early and appropriate therapeutic measures are taken

19) The chronic use of drugs and alcohol damages which of the following ?

(1) Liver
(2) Nervous system
(3) Only kidney
(4) Both (1) and (2)

20) In the given list how many are misused by certain sportspersons ? anabolic steroids, narcotic
analgesics, certain hormones, diuretics

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

21) Which of the following pair is not matched correctly ?

(1) Drugs → inherent additive nature

(2) Adolescence → 12-18 years of age
(3) Smoking → paves the way to hard drugs
(4) Barbiturates → Synthetic stimulant

22) Statement-I: There may even be some far reaching implications of drug/alcohol abuse.
Statement-II: At times, a drug/alcohol addict becomes the cause of mental and financial distress to
his/her entire family and friends.
Choose the correct answer from the given options:-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

23) Which of the following statement is false ?

The human immune system consists of lymphoid organs, tissues, cells and soluble molecules like
(1)
antibodies.
(2) The immune system has no role in allergic reactions.
(3) The bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ.
(4) Spleen mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes.

24) The immediate adverse effects of drugs and alcohol are manifested in the form of ?

(1) Reckless behaviour

(2) Vandalism
(3) Violence
(4) All of the above

25) Assertion (A): Dependence may result in many social adjustment problems.
Reason (R): Dependence leads patient to ignore all social norms in order to get sufficient funds to
satiate his/her needs.
Choose the correct answer from the given options:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

26) In the given list how many are warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse ?
Withdrawal, isolation, fatigue, aggressiveness

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

27) The drug which is very effective in patients who have undergone surgery is included in ?

(1) Cannabinoid
(2) Coca alkaloid
(3) Datura
(4) Opioid

28) In the given list how many of the following are not depressants ?
Heroin, Cocaine, smack, Amphetamine.

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3

29) The common approaches for treatment of cancer are ?

(1) Surgery
(2) Radiation therapy
(3) Immunotherapy
(4) All of the above

30) Which of the following statement is false ?

Techniques of molecular biology can be applied to detect genes in individuals with inherited
(1)
susceptibility to certain cancers.
(2) In our body, cell growth and differentiation is highly regulated.
Cells sloughed from benign tumours reach distant sites through blood and wherever they get
(3)
lodged in the body, they start a new tumour there.
(4) Normal cells show a property called contact inhibition.

31) Vincristine is used for the treatment of which disease ?

(1) Typhoid
(2) AIDS
(3) Malaria
(4) Cancer

32) Statement-I: People who are at high risk of getting HIV infection includes-individuals who have
multiple sexual partners, drug addicts who take drugs intravenously, individuals who required
repeated blood transfusion and children born to a healthy, non infected mother.
Statement-II: HIV infection, more often, spreads due to conscious behaviour pattern.
Choose the correct answer from the given options:-

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

33) The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to :-

(1) Growth of LAB

(2) Production of O2 & ethanol
(3) Production of CO2
(4) Growth of Monascus yeast

34) How many alcoholic drinks of following are formed by distillation :-

(A) Wine (B) Beer (C) Whisky
(D) Brandy (E) Rum

(1) Only one

(2) Only three
(3) Only four
(4) All five types

35) Fill up the blanks.

I. Ethanol is produced by .....A..... .
II. Large scale production of beverages in industries is done in very large vessels called ...B.... .
III. Penicillin is discovered by ....C.... .
IV. LAB checks disease causing microbes in ....D.... .
A to D in the above statements refers to

(1) A-virus, B-fermentors, C-Alexander Fleming, D-intestine

(2) A-yeast, B-Fermentors, C-Alexander Fleming, D-stomach
(3) A-bacteria, B-fermentors, C-S Waksman, D-chest
(4) A-bacteria, B-fermentors, C-S Waksman, D-liver

36) Mark the correct statement with respect to sewage treatment :

(1) In primary treatment all solids that settle form the activated sludge.
(2) The greater is BOD of waste water, more is its polluting potential.
(3) Biological treatment involves physical removal of particles through filtration.
(4) In primary treatment biogas production takes place by some algae.

37) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Dragonflies (i) Attack insects and Arthropods

(b) Baculovirus (ii) Biogas production

(c) Glomus (iii) Get rid of mosquitos

(d) Methanogens (iv) Absorb phosphorus from soil

(1) a - (iii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (ii)
(2) a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(3) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i)
(4) a - (i), b - (iii), c - (iv), d - (ii)

38)

The following diagram represents

(1) Adenovirus which is capable of causing respiratory infections
(2) Proteinaceous infectious agents
(3) A prokaryote which causes respiratory disorder
(4) Fungal colony growing in a petridish

39) The diagram given below represents a typical biogas plant. Select the correct option for A, B and

C, respectively.

(1) A-Sludge, B-Dung + Water, C-Gas holder

(2) A-Dung + Water, B-Sludge, C-CH4 + CO2
(3) A-Sludge, B-Gas holder, C-Dung + Water
(4) A-CH4 + CO2, B-Dung + Water, C-Sludge

40) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : An organ transplant patient is administered regular dose of cyclosporin-A.
Reason (R) : Cyclosporin-A is an immunosupressive agent
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct Explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

41) Match the organic acids with their source microbes –

Organic acids Microbes

A Butyric Acid i Acetobacter

B Citric Acid ii Clostridium

C Acetic Acid iii Aspergillus

D Lactic Acid iv Lactobacillus

(1) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv
(2) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
(3) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv
(4) A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–v

42) ‘Swiss cheese’ bears large holes due to the production of CO2 by which microbes?

(1) Lactobacillus
(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(4) Aspergillus niger

43) Statement-I : Conventional farming practices often uses chemical methods to kill only harmful
life.
Statement-II : Organic farmer work to create a system where the insect pests are completely
eradicated.

(1) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

44) Consider the following statements.

I. Ladybirds and dragonflies are used to get rid of aphids and mosquitoes respectively.
[Link] bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) are used to control butterfly.
III. Trichoderma sp. free living fungi, are present in root ecosystems where they act against several
plant pathogens.
IV. Rhizobium is a symbiotic bacterium that lives in the stem of legumes.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) I, II and III

(2) I, III and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) II and IV

45) Choose incorrect statement about multiple alleles:

(1) They arise due to mutations.

(2) They govern the same character.
(3) They can be found only when population studies are made.
(4) All alleles can be found in an individual.

46) Which of the following option is incorrect ?

(1) Analysis of traits in a several of generation of a family is called the pedigree analysis.
(2) Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by mutation in single gene.
The pattern of inheritance of Mendelian disorders can be traced in a family by the pedigree
(3)
analysis.
(4) Down's syndrome is an example of Mendlian disorder.

47) Which is not an application of modern Biotechnology ?

(1) Production of humulin

(2) Developing a DNA vaccine
(3) Gene therapy
(4) Production of cheese & butter

48) Statement - I : Asexual reproduction preserves the genetic information.

Statement - II : Genetic engineering allows to isolate and introduce only one or a set of desirable
genes without introducing undesirable genes into the target organism.

(1) Both statement are correct.

(2) Both statement are incorrect.
(3) Only statement - I is correct.
(4) Only statement - II is correct.

49) Which statement is/are correct about modification in GM plants?

(a) It has made crops more tolerant to abiotic stress
(b) Enhanced nutritional value of food eg. golden rice
(c) It helps to reduce post harvest loss
(d) Increased efficiency of minerals usage by plants
(e) Transgenic Cow, Rosie produced human protein enriched milk

(1) (d) and (e) only

(2) (c), (d) and (e)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)

50) Assertion : Biolistic or gene gun method is generally suitable for plant cell.
Reason : In this method cell are bombarded with high velocity micro particles of gold & tungsten
coated with protein

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

51) Choose the incorrect pair from the following :-

(1) Cohen and Boyer - Made first recombinant DNA

(2) Restriction endonuclease - Cut DNA at specific sites
(3) First restriction endonuclease - Hind II
(4) Modern biotechnology - Based on natural capabilities of microorganisms

52)
Which of the following statement is incorrect

(1) Plasmids are autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA.

(2) Genetic engineering is a techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material.
EFB has given a definition of biotechnology that encompasses both traditional view and modern
(3)
molecular biotechnology.
Boyer developed a method of removing plasmids from the cell and then reinserting them in
(4)
other cells

53) What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an
alien organism?
A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the
organism.
B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient.
C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.
D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of chromosome.
E. It shows ability to replicate.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B only

(2) D and E only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and E only

54) Consider the following statements regarding restriction endonuclease enzyme:

(A) This enzyme cuts the sugar-nitrogen, N-Glycosidic bond at specific sites of DNA.
(B) This enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotides sequence in the DNA
(C) This enzyme is a part of defence system of bacteria.
(D) This enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts always only one strand of DNA.
Select the option with only true statements:

(1) A and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) B and C
(4) A, B and D

55) The enzyme responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in E-coli were isolated in
1963, this enzyme is:

(1) DNA ligases

(2) Alkaline phosphatases
(3) DNA polymerases
(4) Restriction endonuclease

56) The genetic defect adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by:

(1) Enzyme replacement therapy

 Periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA are
(2)
subsequently returned to the patient.
(3) Administering adenosine deaminase activators
If the gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic
(4)
stages.

57) Choose the correct pair from the following:-

(1) Exonucleases: - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA

(2) Ligases :- Join the two DNA molecules
(3) Polymerases: Break the DNA into fragments
(4) Nucleases : Separate the two strands of DNA

58) The fourth letter in the name of restriction endonuclease comes from :-

(1) Species
(2) Genus
(3) Order in which strain is isolated
(4) Strain

59) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R) .
Assertion (A) : Unless one cuts the vector and source DNA with the same restriction enzyme, the
recombinant vector molecule can not be created.
Reason (R) : There are several GM crop plants with improved nutritional value of foods and
reduced the reliance on chemical pesticides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

60) The given diagram represents simple stirred tank bioreactor. Which of the following represents
the correct labelling.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) Which of the following is/are not the characteristic feature of pBR322 vector.
(i) Ori
(ii) Selectable markers ampR and tetR
(iii) Restriction sites for Pvu II, Pst I, Pvu I, Hind II
(iv) Presence of more than one recognition sites for a restriction enzyme
(v) rop

(1) (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i) and (v)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

62) Which is responsible for controlling the copy number of linked DNA in a plasmid?

(1) Cloning sites

(2) Ori
(3) Restriction endonuclease
(4) Insertional inactivation

63) The construction of first r-DNA emerged from the possibility of linking a gene encoding
antibiotic resistance with native plasmid of :-

(1) Salmonella typhimurium

(2) E. coli
(3) Yeast
(4) Thermus aquaticus

64) What happens when DNA fragment is inserted into plasmid PBR322 using enzyme Pst-I ?
(a) Inactivation of ampR gene
(b) Inactivation of tetR gene
(c) Unable to grow in presence of ampicillin
(d) Unable to grow in presence of tetracycline
(e) Unable to replicate

(1) b & d are correct

(2) a and c are correct
(3) a, c & e are correct
(4) b, d & e are correct

65) Vector which is commonly used to transfer foreign gene in a crop plant is :

(1) Plasmids of Salmonella

(2) λ bacterio phage vector
(3) Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(4) Retrovirus

66) Statement - I : Purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after the addition of chilled ethanol.
Statement - II : In order to cut the DNA with restriction enzymes, it mads to be in pure form free
from other macromolecules.

(1) Both statement are correct.

(2) Both statement are incorrect.
(3) Only statement - I is correct.
(4) Only statement - II is correct.

67) Read the following statement and select the incorrect option :-

(1) Nucleic acid is the genetic material of all living organism without exception.
(2) In majority of organisms, genetic material is DNA.
The RNA can be removed by treatment with ribonuclease whereas proteins can be removed by
(3)
lysozyme.
(4) Competent cell is formed by treating them with a specific concentration of calcium.

68) Which of the following statement is incorrect for PCR ?

(1) PCR is a in-vitro technique

(2) It is also known as thermal cycle.
(3) Primer is attached in annealing process
(4) Primer is attached in extension process.

69) A typical agarose gel electrophoresis showing migration of set of DNA fragments :-

which of the following statement is correct regarding this ?

(1) Only lane 1 shows undigested DNA fragment

(2) Only lane 4 shows digested DNA fragment
(3) Lane 1 to lane 3 show digested DNA
(4) Only lane 4 shows undigested DNA fragments

70) Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique ?

(1) The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.
(2) The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.
(3) Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.
(4) The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.

71) Read the following statements :

(A) Heat shock enable the bacterial cell to take up the recombinant DNA.
(B) In micro-injection method recombinant DNA is directly injected into animal cells.
(C) Cells are bombared with high velocity micro particle of gold coated with DNA in a biolistic
method.
Select the correct option.

(1) Statement A, B are correct but statement C is incorrect.

(2) Statement B, C are correct but statement A is incorrect.
(3) Statement A, C are correct but statement B is incorrect.
(4) All statement A, B and C are correct.

72) Choose incorrect option –

(1) Elution - Cuting of gel for removal of DNA.

(2) Spooling - Removal of DNA that separates out after the addition of chilled ethanol.
(3) Competent cell - This cell is more efficient for uptake of DNA.
(4) Taq polymerase - In vivo RNA replication in PCR

73) Which of the following statement is not true regarding downstream processing?

(1) Downstream processing starts after the completion of biosynthetic phase.

(2) The product has to be formulated with suitable preservatives.
(3) Clinical trials has to be done as in case of drugs.
(4) Downstream processing and quality control testing are same for all types of product

74) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Heterologous host - Recombinant protein

(2) Bioreactors - Large scale production of products.
(3) Lag phase - Physiologically most active phase.
(4) Down stream processing - Include separation and purification process.

75) Read the following statements :

(a) In translation, the formation of a peptide bond requires energy.
(b) The cellular factory responsible for synthesising proteins is the ribosome.
(c) 28s rRNA in bacteria is the enzyme-ribosome for the formation of peptide bond.
(d) In continuous culture system the cells are maintain in their physiologically most active log phase.
(e) In sparged stirred bioreactor bubbles dramatically increase the oxygen transfer area.
Choose the option with correct statements :

(1) a, b, d & e
(2) b, c, d & e
(3) a, b & c
(4) c, d & e

76) The "Ti plasmid" of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for

(1) Tumour inhibiting plasmid

(2) Tumor independent plasmid
(3) Tumor inducing plasmid
(4) Temperature independent plasmid

77) Consider the following statements. Which statement is wrong?

(1) RNAi takes place in all prokaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
(2) This method involves silencing of a specific mRNA.
The source of complementary RNA could be from a mobile genetic element (transposons) that
(3)
replicate via RNA intermediate.
(4) Agrobacterium vectors can be used to transfer gene in host plant which induce RNAi.

78) Match the following and select the correct option :-

(A) ELISA (i) To detect mutations in genes

(B) Insulin (ii) Nematode resistance
(C) PCR (iii) Antigen-antibody reaction
(D) RNAi (iv) Chain A and chain B
(1) A–i ; B–iv ; C–iii ; D–ii
(2) A–iii ; B–iv ; C–i ; D–ii
(3) A–iv ; B–iii ; C–ii ; D–i
(4) A–iii ; B–ii ; C–i ; D–iv

79) Match the Column - I with Column - II.

Column - I Column - II

(A) Transgenic Cow (a) Rosie

(B) Transgenic mice (b) Emphysema

(C) α - 1 - antitrypsin (c) GM - organism

(D) GEAC (d) Polio vaccine

(1) (A) - (a); (B) - (d); (C) - (b); (D) - (c)
(2) (A) - (a); (B) - (b); (C) - (d); (D) - (a)
(3) (A) - (b); (B) - (c); (C) - (d); (D) - (a)
(4) (A) - (d); (B) - (c); (C) - (a); (D) - (b)

80) Statement-I : The Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins but once an insect ingest the
inactive toxin, it is converted into an active form.
Statement-II : The activated toxin binds to the surface of mid gut epithelial cells.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

81) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Many important food plants like tomato, banana, etc have been produced on
industrial scale using micropropagation.
Statement-II : Plants produced by micropropagation are genetically identical to the original plant
from which they were grown.
Select the correct option.
(1) Only Statement-I is correct.
(2) Only Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

82) Which of the following is not a technique of molecular diagnosis :-

(a) Serum analysis
(b) PCR
(c) ELISA
(d) Urine analysis
(e) Recombinant DNA Technology
Option :-

(1) a, b, c, e
(2) b, c, e
(3) a, d
(4) a, b, c, d, e

83)

Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Bt toxin (i) Somatic hybridisation

(b) Pomato (ii) Insecticide

(c) Meristem culture (iii) Amplification of DNA

(d) PCR (iv) Virus free plant

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

84) Select the true statements from the following regarding insulin.
(A) Insulin from animal source, may develop allergy in some patients
(B) Recombinant insulin do not induce unwanted immunological response
(C) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin
(D) Insulin can be administered orally to diabetic patients

(1) A and C only

(2) A and B only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) B, C and D only

85)
Which of the following is/are true ?
(I) At present, about 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use in the world
over.
(II) Biopiracy is the unauthorised use of bioresources and traditional knowledge related to
bioresources for commercial benefits

(III) Biopatent is exploitation of bioresources of other nations without proper authorisation

(1) II only
(2) I only
(3) I & II
(4) I, II & III

86) Which of following pair is correct ?

(1) Lab to land technique-M.S. Swaminathan

(2) Method for removal of plasmid from cell – Boyar
(3) Transformation experiment – Crick
(4) Method of DNA replication – Griffith

87) Given below are some steps of formation of insulin by genetic engineering :-
A. Chain A and B extracted separately.
B. Introduced gene of chain A and B transfer in plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains
C. Chain A and B combined by creating disulfide bonds
D. Chain A and B were produced separately
E. Prepared two DNA sequence corresponding to A and B chains
Choose the correct sequence of steps from the options given below :-

(1) C-E-D-A-B
(2) E-B-D-A-C
(3) B-D-E-A-C
(4) E-C-A-D-B

88) Over 95 percent of all existing transgenic animals are :

(1) Pigs
(2) Cows
(3) Fish
(4) Mice

89) Transgenic mice are being developed for use in :

(1) Testing the safety of polio vaccines before they are used on human
(2) Molecular diagnosis of diseases
(3) Production of human protein enriched milk
(4) Production of human insulin

90) Transgenic models exist for the study of human diseases except.
(a) Cancer
(b) Emphysema
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Rheumatoid arthritis
(e) Alzheimer’s
(f) SCID

(1) b, c and d
(2) b and f
(3) c and d
(4) d, e and f
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 4 3 4 4 3 3 1 1 4 4 1 2 1 1 3 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 2 3 3 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 2 1 4 2 4 4 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 1 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 2 1 2 3 4 3 3 2 3 4 4 3 3 4 3 2 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 3 1 2 3 4 4 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 3 1 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 3 3 1 4 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 4 4 2 3 2 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 2 4 4 2 4 1 4 3 4 1 3 2 2 2 1 1 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 4 1 4 4 4 1 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 4 2 4 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 1 2 4 4 4 3 1 3 1 2 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 2 3 3 1 2 4 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

rθ = Lϕ ⇒ ϕ = (30°) = 0.12°

2)

dV = 0 ⇒ B = ∞

3)
Breaking stress = T/A

4)

We know that

= (1 – 2σ)

ΔV = (1 – 2σ)

= (1 – 2σ)

5) As seen from graph,

6)

ρ1gh1 = ρ2gh + ρ3g(h1 – h)

7)
Shearing strain = = 0.002

8)

area of section BB = x cosθ =

shearing stress =

9)

m = 345 × 105 × 4 × 10–4

m = 13800 kg

10)

11)

12)

η=

⇒x=

⇒x∝

xP ∝ , xQ ∝ , xR ∝

xP ∝ , xQ ∝ , x R ∝
So maximum disp will be in position Q

13)

Y = 2η(1 + σ)
⇒ 2.4η = 2η ( 1 + σ)
 ⇒ σ = 0.2

14)
Pressure along a horizontal line AB as shown will be same for both arms of U-tube.
Pr at left side = Pr at right side 8 × ρy × g + 2 × 13.6 × g = 10 × 3.36 × g
⇒ ρy = 0.8 gm/cc

15)

Explanation : We need to find the acceleration a of the vertical U-tube from the data given in
the figure.
Concept : This question is based on Fluid in accelerated vessel.
Solution :

tan θ =
Final answer :- (2)

16) Force on bottom surface = ρgH × A

17)
f=3

18)

W = Area under the curve.

19)

Area is +ve and increasing

20)
WMono < WDi < WTri
Option (3)

21) Explanation:
To find correct option about given assertion reason.
Concept:
Principle of calorimetry
Formula
Heat loss = Heat gain
Calculation:
when two bodies at different temperatures are placed in contact they exchange heat until they
reach at common temperature. This final temperature depends on their thermal capacities (not
just initial temperatures) . If their thermal capacities are different the find temp. will not be
the simple average of their starting temp.
correct option: (4)

22)

= 6RT

P.E. = 0

= 10 RT

23) Melting of solid is associated with change in its internal energy, infact internal energy
increases when a solid melts ( in accordance with first law of thermodynamics), while latent
heat is defined as the heat required to melt a unit mass of solid.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.

24) hρg + P = Patm

if P increases then h decreases.

25) Stress at
OR

(i) StressP = StressQ =

(ii) StressP = StressQ

(iii) ΔL =

(iv) at Q =

26)

Both are correct and correct explanation

27)

ρgH = Const

H∝

= 3% increases

28) For floating body fraction of volume inside the liquid , only depends on densities.

29)

V1ρ1g = V2ρ2g

30) (P) Net force exerted by liquid A of density ρ on cylinder, FA = ρgh(πR2)

(Q) Net force exerted by liquid B of density 2ρ, FB = [ρg(2h) + 2ρgh]
FB = 4ρghπR2
(R) Net force exerted by liquid A and B on the left half of the curved part of cylinder

=
=
(S) Net force exerted by liquid A and B on the cylinder = FB – FA = 3ρghπR2
Final Answer:
The correct option is (1)
31) because of extra pressure due to walls on liquid

32) ρg(H – h)
because pressure varies with height.

33)

Keff =

(P)

(Q)

(R)

(S)

34)
=n

35)

36) For constant pressure process,

Work done (W) = nRΔT.

∴ ΔT =
Now, for above process f = 6,

So, CP

∴ Heat absorbed = nCPΔT = n × 4R

37)

ΔU = nCVΔT =

38)
 39)

40)

41)

(a) Initially more heat will enter through section A due to temperature difference and no heat
will flow through section B because initially there is no temperature difference.

(b) At steady state rate of heat flow is same for all sections

(c) At steady state = kA or =

is inversely proportional to area of cross-section. Hence is maximum at B and minimum at

A
(d) At steady state heat accumulation = 0

So = 0 for any section.

42)

Area of right side is more.

F∝A
So force is more towards right.

43) 2nd law of Thermodynamics states that heat flows from a body at high temperature to low
temperature.

44)

45)

Collision frequency,

∴ f ∝ nv, nv is number density

CHEMISTRY
46) 7 C.C.

47)

Theoretical.

48) (1) (2)

(3) (4)

49)

NCERT XI Pg. # 386

50)

51)

52)

Theoretical
53)

54) Achiral compound having chiral center are known as meso.

55)

(b)

56)

Theoretical

57)

58)

cis trans
diastereomers

59)

2 active
+1 meso.

60)

Total stereoisomers = 23 = 8
61)

Theoritical

62)
Both are non superimposable mirror image stereoisomers, called enantiomers. They are hot
identical compounds. OR 3-Enantiomers

63)

C5H13N → 2oAmine → 6

64)

Priority ∝ Atomic no.

65)

ℓ1 = ℓ2 (Theylie in plane)

66)

Theoretical

67)

68)

III & IV - Enantiomers.

69)

W = ZIt

0.108 =
t = 193 sec.

70) W = ZQ (same as y = mx)

 71)

72)

For higher EMF, conc. of cathode should be high & conc. at anode should be low in daniel cell.

73)

Higher SRP ⇒ Good O.A.

Higher SOP ⇒ Good R.A.

74) reaction is balanced by 2e–

i.e. 2 mole e– are transfer by 2 mole PbSO4
∴ n.f = (1) Eq. wt = M

75)

Anode : Pb + H2SO4 → PbSO4 + 2H+ + 2e–

Cathode : 2e– + PbO2 + H2SO4 + 2H+ → PbSO4 + 2H2O

H2SO4 is consumed at both anode and cathode. So, 2 moles of H2SO4 are consumed to produce 2F
charge.

76)

Anode : 2H2O → O2 + 4H+ +

Cathode : Cu2+ + → Cu
+
[H ]↑ ⇒ pH↓

77)

78)

Explaining Question:
Compare the electricity required to deposit 1 mol of Ag vs 1 mol of Cu during electrolysis.
Given Data
Metals: Ag (Ag⁺), Cu (Cu²⁺)
Concept: This question is based on Electrochemical equivalent (based on n-factor and atomic
weight).
Solution:
Ag⁺ needs 1 mol e⁻ to deposit 1 mol Ag → requires 1 Faraday (F).
Cu²⁺ needs 2 mol e⁻ to deposit 1 mol Cu → requires 2 Faradays.
Thus, different charges are needed due to different valencies, not atomic weights.
Final Answer
Assertion and Reason both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation. Correct
option is (2).
79)

DC causes electrolysis

80)

Heat flows from high T to low T.

81) -ve, +ve, -ve OR Combustion is Exothermic & Spontaneous process.

82) ΔE = q + w
ΔE = 200 – (2 × 105 × 5 × 10–4)
ΔE = 200 – (100)
= 100 J

83)

q = +208 J
W = –q = –208 J

84)

ΔH = 0 is isothermal process.

85)

W=0
q = 30
ΔU = 30 J

86) Question Explanation:

We need to find incorrect relation.
Concept:
This question is based on Thermodynamic equations
Solution:
Correct relation is ΔG° = ΔH° – T ΔS°
Correcr Option: 3 OR ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
ΔG = –TΔStotal

Wrev. = –nRT

87)

ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
 88)

Isobaric ⇒ W = –nRΔT
= –1 × R × 273
= –273 R

89)

q = 0, W = ΔU
W = –Pext ΔV

90)

Slope =

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 139, Fig. 7.6

92) NCERT Pg. # 142-143

93) NCERT PG 159

94)

NCERT-12th, Pg. # 131, 132, 133

95) NCERT Pg # 147-149

96) NCERT XII Pg # 158 & 159

97)

NCERT-12th, Pg. # 138, 140, 141, 142

98)

NCERT-12th, Pg. # 138, 140, 139

99)
NCERT-12th, Pg. # 139, 140

100)

NCERT-12th, Pg. # 138-140

101) NCERT Reference:

Zoology-XII Page No. 154

102)

NCERT-12th, Pg. # 141, 142

103) Zoology-XII Page No. 160

104)

NCERT-12th, Pg. # 141

105) NCERT page 144

106)

NCERT, Pg. # 144

107) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 139

108) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 147, 148

109) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 146

110) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 146

111) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 143, 144, 145

112) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 145

113) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 137, 138

114) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 145

 115) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 145

116) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 145

117) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 143

118) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 142,143

119) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 142

120) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 141, 142

121) Module

122) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 139, 140

123) Explain Question : The question asks why dough appears puffed-up during
fermentation.
Concept : Microbes in household products
Explanation : Puffing of dough is due to CO2 produced by yeast during fermentation.
Final answer : 3

124) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 152

125) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 181-182

126) Explanation:

A. Option 1: Incorrect. Primary treatment involves the physical removal of solid waste, not the
formation of activated sludge. Activated sludge is formed during secondary treatment, which
involves biological treatment.
B. Option 2: Correct. The greater the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of wastewater the
more oxygen is required to break down the organic matter in the water. Therefore, higher
BOD indicates higher pollution potential, as it reflects the amount of biodegradable organic
matter present.
C. Option 3: Incorrect. Biological treatment involves the formation of aerobic organisms (not
anaerobic) called flocs. These flocs help in the degradation of organic matter in wastewater
during secondary treatment.
D. Option 4: Incorrect. Biogas production (mostly methane) occurs during anaerobic
digestion, which happens in the later stages of treatment, especially after the secondary
treatment, not after primary treatment.

Thus, the correct statement is Option 2.

The correct answer is 2. The greater is BOD of wastewater, more is its polluting potential.
127)

NCERT Pg. # 187, 188

128)

Ncert Pg No. 180

129)

NCERT Pg. No. 156

130) NCERT Pg # 153

131) NEW NCERT 12 Pg-153

132) Explanation: In Swiss cheese production, Propionibacterium shermanii ferments lactic

acid to produce carbon dioxide (CO2) gas, which forms bubbles, creating the characteristic
holes in the cheese.
The correct answer is 3. Propionibacterium shermanii.

133) NCERT-XII Pg. # 156,157

134) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 187

135) NCERT Pg. # 78

136) NCERT-XII, 72, 73, 76

137)

The production of cheese and butter is a traditional biotechnological process that involves the
use of microorganisms like bacteria for fermentation.

138) NCERT Pg. No. # 164 [E]

NCERT Pg. No. # 180 [H]

139) NCERT Pg # 208

140)

Question Explanation :
The question is asking about assertion and reason.
 Concept :
This question is based on Gene transfer.

Solution :

A. The biolistic or gene gun method is suitable for plant cells. This method involves using high-
velocity micro-projectiles to deliver DNA into cells. Reason:
B. The reason states that the method uses micro-particles of gold & tungsten coated with RNA.
This is incorrect. The micro-particles are coated with DNA, not RNA.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

141) NCERT Pg. # 193 -196

142) NCERT Pg.# 163

143) NCERT 12th (Eng.) Page No :-163,164,165

144) NCERT XII, Pg. # 165

145)

The correct answer is 4. Restriction endonuclease

Explanation:

A. Restriction endonucleases (also called restriction enzymes) are enzymes that cut DNA at
specific recognition sites. They were discovered in bacteria, where they serve as a defense
mechanism against bacteriophages (viruses that infect bacteria). The restriction enzymes cut
the bacteriophage's DNA, preventing it from replicating within the bacteria.

146) Option 3 is correct

4. Introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages
This approach involves introducing bone marrow cells that produce the enzyme adenosine
deaminase (ADA) into the body at early embryonic stages, potentially offering a permanent
cure for ADA deficiency. This method can help correct the genetic defect early on, leading to a
long-term solution.
Again, thank you for pointing that out!

147) The correct answer is:

2. Ligases :- Join the two DNA molecules
Ligases are enzymes that join two DNA molecules by catalyzing the formation of a
phosphodiester bond between the sugar-phosphate backbone of the DNA. This is essential in
processes like DNA repair and recombinant DNA technology.
148)

The correct answer is: 4. Strain

Explanation: In the naming of restriction endonucleases, the fourth letter comes from the
strain of the organism from which the enzyme was isolated. The name is typically derived
from the genus and species of the organism, followed by the strain (if applicable) and a
number to indicate the enzyme.

149)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 168, 186

Option 1: Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
This could be considered correct in a certain context if the explanation is referring to the
overall validity of the statements without being directly tied together (despite A being
incorrect, R stands independently as correct).

150)

The correct answer is-3

(A) Steam for sterilization
(B) Motor
(C) Foam breaker
(D) Flat bladed impeller

151)

The correct answer is Option 3: (iii) and (iv).

(iii) pBR322 does not contain restriction sites for Pvu II and Pst I.
(iv) pBR322 has one recognition site for each enzyme, not multiple.
So, (iii) and (iv) are not characteristic features

152) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 199

153)
S. Cohen and H. Boyer constructed the first recombinant DNA using antibiotic resistance
genes present on the plasmid of drug resistance strains of E. coli.
This gene was linked to the native plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium.

154)

NCERT Page # 169

155) Correct Answer - Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens

Solution -The Ti plasmid (Tumor-inducing plasmid) from Agrobacterium tumefaciens is
commonly used as a vector for transferring foreign genes into crop plants. This bacterium
naturally infects plants and integrates part of its DNA (T-DNA) into the plant genome, making
it an ideal tool for genetic engineering in plants.

156) NCERT Pg. No. # 201 [E]

NCERT Pg. No. # 188 [H]

157) NCERT-XII, Pg # 201

158) NCERT, Pg. # 173

159) Explaining the Question :-The question is asking to identify which lane(s) in an agarose
gel electrophoresis image show undigested DNA fragments versus digested DNA
fragments.
Concept:- Agarose Gel Electrophoresis for DNA Fragment
Analysis
Solution :- Lane 1 shows undigested DNA (single, large band).Other lanes (2, 3, 4) show
digested DNA fragments (multiple bands)

Final Answer :- (1)

160)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 168

161) NCERT XII Page-No.201

162) NCERT Pg. # 168, 171–173

163) NCERT Pg. # 204, 205

164) NCERT Pg. # 173 &174

165) NCERT, Pg # 98 & 99/173,174

166) NCERT 12th (Eng.) Page No :- 173,174,175

167)

The incorrect statement is 1.

RNAi takes place in all prokaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
Explanation: RNAi is a mechanism found primarily in eukaryotic organisms (plants, animals,
fungi, etc.). It's a highly specific gene silencing process that plays a role in development,
defense against viruses, and regulation of gene expression. While prokaryotes have some
related systems, RNAi as it's typically understood is a eukaryotic system.

168)

NCERT Page # 180-183

169) XII NCERT Pg No - 212, 213

170) NCERT Page # 179

171)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 175 (E), 195 (H)

172)

The correct answer is: (3) a, d (Serum analysis and Urine analysis)
Molecular diagnosis involves detecting specific genetic material (DNA/RNA) or proteins to
diagnose diseases at the molecular level. The techniques involved are:
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) – Amplifies DNA for detecting infections/genetic disorders.
ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) – Detects specific proteins/antibodies in a
sample.
Recombinant DNA Technology – Helps identify genetic mutations and diagnose hereditary
diseases.
Serum analysis and Urine analysis – These are biochemical tests, not molecular diagnostic
techniques. They detect chemical imbalances, kidney/liver function, and general health
conditions but do not directly analyze DNA or RNA.

173)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 178, 179, 183

174) NCERT XII, Page # 211

175) NCERT XIIth Pg.# 185

176)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 128

177) NCERT Pg. # 182

178) Mice make up over 95% of all existing transgenic animals. They are widely used in
research due to their rapid reproduction rate, short lifespan. Transgenic mice are genetically
modified to carry specific genes from other organisms, allowing researchers to study various
diseases, develop new treatments, and gain insights into biological processes.

179)

Transgenic mice are genetically modified to express specific human proteins or genes. This
makes them valuable models for studying human diseases and testing the safety and efficacy
of drugs and vaccines. In the case of polio vaccines, transgenic mice can be engineered to
express human poliovirus receptors, allowing researchers to test vaccine efficacy and safety in
a controlled laboratory setting.

180)

The correct answer is Option 2: b and f.

Emphysema (b) and SCID (f) do not have as many established transgenic models as the
other diseases listed.