0% found this document useful (0 votes)
11 views33 pages

Aviation Radio Communication Guidelines

Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
11 views33 pages

Aviation Radio Communication Guidelines

Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

1. What is the correct readback for “Climb FL 70”?

A) Climbing FL 70

B) Wilco FL 70

C) Roger, climbing flight level seven zero

D) Climb to 70

2. Which call sign format is correct for the first contact?

A) Your call sign only

B) ATC call sign only

C) ATC call sign followed by your call sign

D) Any order

3. “Say again” means:

A) Repeat entire transmission

B) Repeat back last clearance

C) Correct previous message

D) Readback not required

4. Which of the following requires mandatory readback?

A) Weather information

B) Altimeter setting
C) ATC instructions related to altitude

D) Traffic information

5. “Standby” means:

A) I am changing frequency

B) Wait, I will call you

C) Ready to transmit

D) Acknowledge message

6. The correct acknowledgement for “ 3500 ft” is:

A) Roger

B) 3500 feet

C) Maintaining 3500 feet

D) Copy

7. Which term indicates inability to comply?

A) Negative

B) Unable

C) Reject

D) Decline
8. “Break break” is used when:

A) Breaking transmission

B) Separating messages for different aircraft

C) Ending conversation

D) High workload

9. If ATC says “Correction”, it means:

A) You must change heading

B) Their transmission contained an error

C) They need clarification

D) No readback required

10. What does “Readback correct” mean?

A) Proceed

B) Instruction cancelled

C) Your readback is accurate

D) Repeat message

11. For routine traffic, the priority order of messages is:

A) Flight safety > direction finding > administrative


B) Distress > urgency > direction finding > control

C) Urgency > distress > safety

D) Control > distress > urgency

12. “Monitor 121.9” means:

A) Switch and listen

B) Stay on current frequency

C) Readback required

D) Do not transmit

13. “Cleared to land” is valid until:

A) Pilot vacates runway

B) ATC cancels it

C) Aircraft crosses the threshold

D) Touchdown

14. “Orbit right” means:

A) 360° turn to the right

B) Hold position on ground

C) Enter racetrack pattern


D) Change heading to right

15. Which phrase is not standard?

A) Affirm

B) Roger

C) OK

D) Wilco

16. “Say again all after ___” is used for:

A) Asking for repetition from a specific word

B) Cancelling message

C) Confirming full message

D) Emergency

17. When ATC says “Report final”, the pilot must:

A) Acknowledge and report when on final

B) Descend immediately

C) Turn base

D) Stop descent

18. To cancel IFR flight conditions, pilot must say:


A) IFR cancelled

B) Cancel IFR

C) Terminating

D) IFR terminated

19. Correct phraseology for speed:

A) Do 150

B) Maintain speed 150 knots

C) Speed 150

D) 150

20. “Maintain runway heading” means:

A) Follow magnetic heading

B) Follow extended centerline

C) Follow ATC heading

D) Turn right after takeoff

21. A distress call begins with:

A) Pan-Pan

B) Emergency
C) Mayday (three times)

D) Help

22. Priority of handling is:

A) Routine > Safety > Urgency > Distress

B) Distress > Urgency > Safety > Routine

C) Safety > Distress > Urgency

D) Urgency > Distress

23. Frequency for emergency:

A) 121.5 MHz

B) 118.0 MHz

C) 123.45 MHz

D) 130.0 MHz

24. A “MAYDAY relay” is used when:

A) You hear another station in distress unable to call

B) Radio failure

C) Urgency

D) Loss of navigation
25. “Pan-Pan medical” means:

A) Passenger injured

B) Distress

C) Fuel emergency

D) Aircraft damage

26. Lost communication squawk:

A) 7500

B) 7600

C) 7700

D) 7000

27. General emergency squawk:

A) 7600

B) 7500

C) 7000

D) 7700

28. Which is NOT in a MAYDAY message?

A) Nature of distress
B) Intention

C) Fuel on board

D) Position

29. An urgency message always starts with:

A) Pan Pan (three times)

B) Pan (once)

C) Help

D) Info

30. A distress traffic message ends with:

A) Out

B) Over

C) Seelonce feenee

D) Roger

31. Which phrase imposes radio silence on others?

A) Seelonce feenee

B) Seelonce distress

C) Stop transmitting
D) Break break

32. Acknowledgement of MAYDAY is:

A) Roger

B) Wilco

C) Received MAYDAY

D) Not required

33. If you declare MAYDAY and later situation is resolved, you must say:

A) Cancel Mayday

B) Mayday cancelled

C) Distress cancelled

D) Seelonce feenee

34. Frequency 121.5 MHz is:

A) Air-to-air

B) VOR

C) Emergency VHF

D) ATIS

35. “Fuel MAYDAY” means:


A) Low fuel but safe

B) Emergency fuel — no extra reserves

C) Fuel unavailable at airport

D) Refueling accident

36. What is “seelonce mayday”?

A) End distress

B) Impose silence

C) Start urgency

D) Terminate urgency

37. “PAN PAN PAN” indicates:

A) Distress

B) Communication loss

C) Safety of aircraft not assured

D) Hijack

38. If pilot cannot maintain assigned altitude due to engine issue:

A) Declare PAN-PAN

B) Declare MAYDAY
C) Continue without informing

D) Say unable

39. In radio failure, pilot should:

A) Continue flight plan

B) Land immediately

C) Squawk 7600

D) Call tower

40. Priority of stations during distress:

A) Ground > Aircraft > Non-aviation

B) Aircraft in distress > All others

C) ATC > Aircraft

D) Military > Civilian

41. Aviation VHF range:

A) 108–117.95 MHz

B) 118–137 MHz

C) 300–330 MHz

D) 30–88 MHz
42. VHF propagation is mainly:

A) Ground wave

B) Sky wave

C) Line-of-sight

D) Surface scatter

43. HF propagation depends on:

A) Ionosphere

B) Troposphere

C) Stratosphere

D) Wind

44. SELCAL alerts crew when:

A) Fuel low

B) ATC wants contact

C) Weather alert

D) TCAS activated

45. ATIS broadcasts include:


A) Flight plan

B) METAR & runway info

C) Load sheet

D) Clearance

46. SSR Mode A provides:

A) Pressure altitude

B) Squawk code

C) Weather

D) Fuel

47. SSR Mode C provides:

A) Position

B) Speed

C) Altitude

D) Heading

48. Frequency used for VOR:


A) 108–117.95 MHz

B) 118–137 MHz

C) 200–400 MHz

D) 70–90 kHz

49. DME works on:

A) VHF

B) HF

C) UHF

D) LF

50. Guard frequency monitoring means:

A) Only ATC listens

B) All aircraft monitor 121.5

C) Nobody should use it

D) For training only

51. VHF communication failure is often due to:

A) Weather
B) Line-of-sight obstruction

C) Magnetic variation

D) Fuel imbalance

52. Which is an aircraft radio requirement?

A) Dual VOR

B) One serviceable VHF with 25/8.33 kHz spacing

C) Two HF radios

D) TCAS II

53. Which is NOT a radio hazard?

A) Terrain blockage

B) Atmospheric noise

C) Antenna shadowing

D) Wind direction

54. EGPWS alerts are:

A) Communication alerts

B) Terrain alerts
C) Fuel alerts

D) Weather alerts

55. CVR records:

A) Flight parameters

B) Audio from cockpit

C) Cabin pressure

D) Flight plan

56. FDR records:

A) ATC messages

B) Flight data

C) Audio

D) Only speed

57. HF is used mainly for:

A) Oceanic flights

B) Takeoff

C) Taxi
D) Approach only

58. ADF operates in:

A) LF/MF

B) VHF

C) UHF

D) SHF

59. Which equipment allows air-to-ground digital comms?

A) VOR

B) DME

C) ACARS

D) ADF

60. Transmitter power of aircraft VHF:

A) ~5–12 W

B) 100 W

C) 1 kW

D) 0.5 W
61. FLT Plan Item 7 contains:

A) Departure aerodrome

B) Aircraft ID

C) Fuel

D) Alternate

62. SSR code for VFR:

A) 7000

B) 7600

C) 7700

D) 7500

63. Readback is compulsory for:

A) Weather

B) Heading instructions

C) Traffic info

D) ATIS
64. Runway holding point is:

A) Start of runway

B) Yellow double-line position

C) Taxiway entry

D) Terminal

65. METAR gives:

A) Forecast

B) Actual weather

C) TAF

D) Volcano info

66. “Line up and wait” means:

A) Enter runway and depart

B) Enter runway, hold

C) Hold short

D) Taxi back

67. “Cleared for immediate takeoff” means:


A) Use minimum time on runway

B) Wait 2 min

C) Reject takeoff

D) Enter and hold

68. ATC instruction “Report downwind” requires:

A) Acknowledge

B) Report on downwind leg

C) Descend

D) Turn base

69. Which is NOT an ATC unit?

A) TWR

B) APP

C) ACC

D) PTI

70. Runway 27 direction is approx:


A) 270°

B) 090°

C) 180°

D) 360°

71. QNH refers to:

A) Altitude above ground

B) Pressure to indicate elevation

C) Pressure altitude

D) Tropopause

72. Visibility in METAR is in:

A) Feet

B) Meters

C) Nautical miles only

D) Statute miles only

73. “Request vectors” means:

A) Taxi instruction
B) Heading instructions for navigation

C) Weather information

D) Climb instructions

74. Wake turbulence categories include:

A) Heavy, Medium, Light

B) Strong, light

C) Large, small

D) Cat I, II

75. Flight level is based on:

A) QNH

B) Standard 1013.2 hPa

C) QFE

D) METAR pressure

76. SID stands for:

A) Standard Instrument Departure

B) Secondary identification
C) Short initial departure

D) Standard instrument descent

77. STAR stands for:

A) Standard Arrivals

B) Standard Arrival Route

C) Standard Terminal Arrival Route

D) Satellite route

78. “Cleared direct” means:

A) Fly heading

B) Shortcut direct to fix

C) Climb

D) Follow airway

79. “Resume own navigation” means:

A) Continue vectors

B) Pilot resumes navigation

C) Follow ATC path


D) Change frequency

80. Runway 18 is oriented:

A) 180°

B) 90°

C) 360°

D) 270°

81. Language of radiotelephony is:

A) Local language

B) English

C) ATC choice

D) Pilot choice

82. Readability 5 means:

A) Unreadable

B) Readable now and then

C) Perfectly readable

D) Very distorted
83. Position report includes:

A) ETA

B) Position, time, altitude, next point

C) Level only

D) Heading only

84. “Correction, standby” means:

A) Error + wait

B) Correction complete

C) End message

D) No response

85. Transmitting blind means:

A) No reception

B) No transmission

C) Distress

D) Blocked runway

86. “Roger” means:

A) Will comply
B) I have received your last transmission

C) Yes

D) No

87. “Wilco” means:

A) Received and will comply

B) Repeat

C) Confirm

D) Unable

88. “Negative contact” means:

A) No radar service

B) No visual contact

C) Loss of radio

D) No runway

89. The primary purpose of RT is:

A) Social communication

B) Air safety and control

C) Navigation

D) Weather
90. ATC has authority to:

A) Fly the aircraft

B) Issue instructions for safe traffic flow

C) Change pilot decisions

D) Land aircraft

91. “Unable” must be followed by:

A) Silence

B) Reason and alternative

C) Readback

D) Nothing

92. To improve clarity:

A) Speak fast

B) Speak slowly and clearly

C) Use local words

D) Speak loudly

93. Flight plan alternate aerodrome ensures:


A) ATC convenience

B) Safety if unable to land

C) More fuel

D) Shorter flight

94. Radio check “Read you 3” means:

A) Weak

B) Readable with difficulty

C) Readable

D) Good

95. “Closing watch” means:

A) Ending shift

B) Leaving frequency

C) No more communication expected

D) Ending watch on frequency

96. “Verify” in RT means:

A) Confirm

B) Explain

C) Turn
D) Repeat

97. Which is a safety message?

A) Weather

B) Flight plan

C) Emergency fuel

D) ATC staffing

98. “Over” means:

A) Finished

B) Response expected

C) End of conversation

D) Changing frequency

99. “Out” means:

A) End of transmission; no reply expected

B) Over

C) Acknowledge

D) Call me
100. RT licence validity (typical): -
A) 3 years
- B) 10 years
- C) Lifetime
- D) 5 years

---

ANSWER KEY — 100 MCQs

1C
2C
3A
4C
5B
6C
7B
8B
9B
10 C
11 B
12 A
13 B
14 A
15 C
16 A
17 A
18 B
19 B
20 B

21 C
22 B
23 A
24 A
25 A
26 B
27 D
28 C
29 A
30 C
31 B
32 C
33 A
34 C
35 B
36 B
37 C
38 A
39 C
40 B

41 B
42 C
43 A
44 B
45 B
46 B
47 C
48 A
49 C
50 B
51 B
52 B
53 D
54 B
55 B
56 B
57 A
58 A
59 C
60 A

61 B
62 A
63 B
64 B
65 B
66 B
67 A
68 B
69 D
70 A
71 B
72 B
73 B
74 A
75 B
76 A
77 C
78 B
79 B
80 A

81 B
82 C
83 B
84 A
85 A
86 B
87 A
88 B
89 B
90 B
91 B
92 B
93 B
94 C
95 D
96 A
97 C
98 B
99 A
100 C

You might also like