Neuroscience High-Yield Exam (100 Items) ● Answer: B.

Dorsal Column-Medial
1. Which glial cell is primarily responsible for forming Lemniscus (DCML). Rationale: The DCML
the myelin sheath in the Central Nervous System handles fine touch and proprioception;
(CNS)? Spinothalamic handles pain/temp.

A. Schwann cells
5. Which artery supplies the lateral surface of the brain
(including Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas)?
B. Oligodendrocytes
A. Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA)
C. Astrocytes
B. Middle Cerebral Artery (MCA)
D. Microglia
C. Posterior Cerebral Artery (PCA)
● Answer: B. Oligodendrocytes. Rationale:
Oligodendrocytes myelinate axons in the CNS
D. Basilar Artery
(one cell wraps multiple axons), whereas
Schwann cells myelinate the PNS.
● Answer: B. Middle Cerebral Artery (MCA).
Rationale: The MCA supplies the majority of
2. Which ionic event is primarily responsible for the the lateral hemisphere, critical for language
depolarization phase of the action potential? and motor control of the face/arm.

A. Potassium efflux
6. Which cranial nerve exits from the dorsal aspect of
the brainstem?
B. Chloride influx
A. CN III
C. Sodium influx
B. CN IV
D. Calcium efflux
C. CN V
● Answer: C. Sodium influx. Rationale:
Voltage-gated Na+ channels open, allowing
D. CN VI
Na+ to rush into the cell, making the interior
positive.
● Answer: B. CN IV (Trochlear). Rationale: It is
the only cranial nerve to arise from the dorsal
3. Which structure connects the third ventricle to the brainstem and cross over before exiting.
fourth ventricle?
7. Which hypothalamic nucleus regulates circadian
A. Foramen of Monro
rhythms?
B. Cerebral Aqueduct (Sylvius)
A. Supraoptic nucleus
C. Foramen of Magendie
B. Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)
D. Foramen of Luschka
C. Ventromedial nucleus
● Answer: B. Cerebral Aqueduct (Sylvius).
D. Mammillary bodies
Rationale: The aqueduct runs through the
midbrain to connect the third and fourth
● Answer: B. Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN).
ventricles.
Rationale: The SCN acts as the "master
clock" receiving light input from the retina.
4. Which pathway conveys discriminative touch,
vibration, and conscious proprioception?
8. Where are the auditory receptor hair cells located?
A. Spinothalamic Tract
A. Tympanic membrane
B. Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscus (DCML)
B. Semicircular canals
C. Spinocerebellar Tract
C. Organ of Corti
D. Corticospinal Tract
D. Otoliths
 ● Answer: C. Organ of Corti. Rationale: ● Answer: B. Hippocampus. Rationale: Lesions
Located in the cochlea, this structure here prevent the formation of new declarative
transduces sound waves into neural signals. memories (anterograde amnesia).

9. Where is Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) primarily 13. Which artery connects the internal carotid system
reabsorbed into the venous circulation? to the posterior cerebral artery in the Circle of Willis?

A. Choroid plexus A. Anterior Communicating

B. Arachnoid granulations B. Posterior Communicating

C. Pia mater C. Basilar

D. Cavernous sinus D. Vertebral

● Answer: B. Arachnoid granulations. ● Answer: B. Posterior Communicating

Rationale: These villi project into the dural Artery (PCOM). Rationale: It links the anterior
venous sinuses (mainly Superior Sagittal (Carotid) and posterior (Vertebrobasilar)
Sinus) to drain CSF. circulations.

10. Where does the majority of the corticospinal tract 14. From which germ layer is the nervous system
decussate? derived?

A. Midbrain A. Endoderm

B. Pons B. Mesoderm

C. Lower Medulla C. Ectoderm

D. Spinal Cord D. Notochord

● Answer: C. Lower Medulla. Rationale: The ● Answer: C. Ectoderm. Rationale: The neural
"decussation of the pyramids" occurs at the plate/tube forms from the dorsal ectoderm.
medullary-spinal junction.
15. Which part of the cerebellum is responsible for
11. What is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in balance and eye movements?
the CNS?
A. Vestibulocerebellum (Flocculonodular lobe)
A. GABA
B. Spinocerebellum
B. Glycine
C. Cerebrocerebellum
C. Glutamate
D. Dentate Nucleus
D. Serotonin
● Answer: A. Vestibulocerebellum. Rationale:
● Answer: C. Glutamate. Rationale: Glutamate It receives input from the vestibular system to
is the main excitatory transmitter; GABA and maintain equilibrium.
Glycine are inhibitory.
16. A lesion at the optic chiasm causes which visual
12. Which structure is critical for consolidating defect?
short-term memory into long-term memory?
A. Monocular blindness
A. Amygdala
B. Bitemporal hemianopsia
B. Hippocampus
C. Homonymous hemianopsia
C. Caudate Nucleus
D. Quadrantanopsia
D. Cerebellum
 ● Answer: B. Bitemporal hemianopsia. ● Answer: C. Substantia Nigra pars
Rationale: Compression (often by pituitary compacta. Rationale: Loss of these
tumors) affects crossing nasal fibers, causing dopaminergic neurons disrupts the basal
"tunnel vision." ganglia motor loop.

17. Which brainstem network maintains arousal and 21. Which ion influx triggers neurotransmitter vesicle
consciousness? fusion at the synapse?

A. Medial Lemniscus A. Sodium

B. Reticular Activating System (RAS) B. Calcium

C. Pyramidal System C. Potassium

D. Striatum D. Magnesium

● Answer: B. Reticular Activating System ● Answer: B. Calcium. Rationale:

(RAS). Rationale: This diffuse network Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open at the
projects to the cortex to keep you awake. terminal, leading to exocytosis.

18. What forms the floor of the fourth ventricle? 22. Sensory information enters the spinal cord via the:

A. Tectum A. Ventral Root

B. Rhomboid Fossa B. Dorsal Root

C. Thalamus C. Lateral Horn

D. Corpus Callosum D. Anterior Funiculus

● Answer: B. Rhomboid Fossa. Rationale: The ● Answer: B. Dorsal Root. Rationale: Dorsal =
dorsal aspect of the pons and medulla forms Afferent (Sensory); Ventral = Efferent (Motor).
this diamond-shaped floor.
23. Which nerve controls facial expression and taste
19. The parasympathetic nervous system outflow is to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
described as:
A. CN V
A. Thoracolumbar
B. CN VII
B. Craniosacral
C. CN IX
C. Cervical
D. CN XII
D. Ganglionic
● Answer: B. CN VII (Facial). Rationale: Motor
● Answer: B. Craniosacral. Rationale: to face, sensory (taste) via Chorda Tympani.
Originates from Cranial Nerves (3,7,9,10) and
Sacral segments (S2-S4).
24. The Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGN) relays
information for:
20. Parkinson’s disease involves the depletion of
dopamine in the: A. Vision

A. Caudate B. Hearing

B. Putamen C. Touch

C. Substantia Nigra pars compacta D. Motor control

D. Globus Pallidus
 ● Answer: A. Vision. Rationale: LGN receives ● Answer: C. Contralateral Leg. Rationale: The
input from the optic tract and projects to the ACA supplies the medial motor cortex, which
visual cortex. maps to the lower limb.

25. The Blood-Brain Barrier is primarily formed by: 29. Broca’s area is located in the:

A. Tight junctions of endothelial cells A. Superior Temporal Gyrus

B. Astrocytes alone B. Inferior Frontal Gyrus

C. Dura mater C. Postcentral Gyrus

D. Ependymal cells D. Occipital Lobe

● Answer: A. Tight junctions of endothelial ● Answer: B. Inferior Frontal Gyrus. Rationale:

cells. Rationale: Induced by astrocyte foot Specifically the pars opercularis and
processes, but the physical barrier is the tight triangularis, usually on the left.
junctions.
30. The primary neurotransmitter of postganglionic
26. Dysdiadochokinesia is a sign of damage to the: sympathetic neurons (except sweat glands) is:

A. Basal Ganglia A. Acetylcholine

B. Cerebellum B. Norepinephrine

C. Motor Cortex C. Dopamine

D. Thalamus D. Serotonin

● Answer: B. Cerebellum. Rationale: It is the ● Answer: B. Norepinephrine. Rationale: The

inability to perform rapid alternating Sympathetic system uses ACh at the
movements, a hallmark of cerebellar ataxia. ganglion, but NE at the target organ.

27. Gate Control Theory of pain modulation occurs in 31. Hydrocephalus caused by aqueductal stenosis is
the: classified as:

A. Thalamus A. Communicating

B. Dorsal Horn (Substantia Gelatinosa) B. Non-communicating (Obstructive)

C. Cortex C. Normal Pressure

D. Periaqueductal Gray D. Ex-vacuo

● Answer: B. Dorsal Horn. Rationale: ● Answer: B. Non-communicating. Rationale:

Non-painful input (A-beta fibers) inhibits pain The obstruction is inside the ventricular
transmission (C fibers) at the spinal level. system.

28. An Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA) stroke causes 32. The Primary Auditory Cortex is located in:
weakness primarily in the:
A. Heschl’s Gyri (Transverse Temporal)
A. Contralateral Face
B. The Uncus
B. Contralateral Arm
C. The Cingulate
C. Contralateral Leg
D. The Precentral Gyrus
D. Ipsilateral Leg
● Answer: A. Heschl’s Gyri. Rationale: Located
in the superior temporal lobe.
33. The Direct Pathway of the Basal Ganglia: A. Anterior Limb

A. Inhibits movement B. Posterior Limb

B. Excites the Thalamus (Disinhibition) C. Genu

C. Uses Glutamate in the striatum D. Retrolenticular

D. Bypasses the cortex ● Answer: B. Posterior Limb. Rationale: The

posterior limb carries motor fibers to the body;
● Answer: B. Excites the Thalamus. Rationale: the Genu carries them to the face
It inhibits the inhibitors (GPi), releasing the (Corticobulbar).
thalamus to drive movement.
38. The motor nucleus for the Gag Reflex (CN IX, X) is:
34. Unconscious proprioception is carried by the:
A. Nucleus Solitarius
A. DCML
B. Nucleus Ambiguus
B. Spinocerebellar Tracts
C. Dorsal Motor Nucleus
C. Spinothalamic Tract
D. Hypoglossal Nucleus
D. Corticospinal Tract
● Answer: B. Nucleus Ambiguus. Rationale: It
● Answer: B. Spinocerebellar Tracts. innervates the pharyngeal and laryngeal
Rationale: These bring position sense to the muscles.
cerebellum for coordination.
39. Olfactory nerves pass through the:
35. A lesion of the Right Optic Tract causes:
A. Superior Orbital Fissure
A. Right monocular blindness
B. Cribriform Plate
B. Bitemporal hemianopsia
C. Optic Canal
C. Left Homonymous Hemianopsia
D. Foramen Ovale
D. Right Homonymous Hemianopsia
● Answer: B. Cribriform Plate. Rationale:
● Answer: C. Left Homonymous Perforations in the ethmoid bone allow CN I
Hemianopsia. Rationale: It blocks fibers from axons to reach the bulb.
the left visual field of both eyes.
40. The Edinger-Westphal nucleus provides:
36. The resting membrane potential is largely
determined by: A. Sympathetic to the eye

A. K+ leak channels B. Parasympathetic to the pupil (constriction)

B. Na+ leak channels C. Motor to the rectus muscles

C. Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels D. Sensory from the cornea

D. Cl- pumps ● Answer: B. Parasympathetic to the pupil.

Rationale: It controls the sphincter pupillae
● Answer: A. K+ leak channels. Rationale: The and ciliary muscle.
membrane is most permeable to Potassium at
rest.
41. The Primary Somatosensory Cortex is the:

37. Corticospinal fibers pass through which part of the A. Precentral Gyrus
internal capsule?
B. Postcentral Gyrus
C. Superior Temporal Gyrus B. Inferior Sagittal Sinus

D. Middle Frontal Gyrus C. Transverse Sinus

● Answer: B. Postcentral Gyrus. Rationale: D. Straight Sinus

Located in the parietal lobe, posterior to the
central sulcus. ● Answer: A. Superior Sagittal Sinus.
Rationale: The main midline sinus draining the
superior cortex.
42. Hemispatial Neglect is most common with lesions
to the:
46. The Papez Circuit involves the Fornix connecting
A. Left Frontal Lobe the Hippocampus to the:

B. Right Parietal Lobe A. Amygdala

C. Left Occipital Lobe B. Mammillary Bodies

D. Right Temporal Lobe C. Thalamus

● Answer: B. Right Parietal Lobe. Rationale: D. Septum

The non-dominant parietal lobe attends to
both sides of space; damage leads to ignoring ● Answer: B. Mammillary Bodies. Rationale: A
the left. key pathway in the limbic system for memory.

43. The Alar plate of the neural tube develops into: 47. Horner’s Syndrome includes:

A. Motor structures A. Mydriasis, Ptosis, Hemianopsia

B. Sensory structures B. Miosis, Ptosis, Anhidrosis

C. Autonomic ganglia C. Ptosis, Diplopia, Strabismus

D. Bones of the skull D. Facial palsy, Hyperacusis, Loss of taste

● Answer: B. Sensory structures. Rationale: ● Answer: B. Miosis, Ptosis, Anhidrosis.

Alar = Dorsal/Sensory; Basal = Ventral/Motor. Rationale: Caused by the loss of sympathetic
innervation to the face/eye.
44. Brown-Séquard Syndrome (spinal hemisection)
causes: 48. Ependymal cells are responsible for:

A. Bilateral loss of pain A. Phagocytosis

B. Contralateral loss of pain/temp; Ipsilateral loss of B. Producing CSF

motor/proprioception
C. Myelination
C. Complete paralysis
D. Forming the BBB
D. Cape-like sensory loss
● Answer: B. Producing CSF. Rationale:
● Answer: B. Contralateral pain/temp; Specialized ependymal cells in the choroid
Ipsilateral motor/proprioception. Rationale: plexus secrete CSF.
Spinothalamic crosses immediately (contra
loss), DCML and CST cross in brainstem (ipsi 49. The Decussation of the Medial Lemniscus occurs
loss). in the:

45. Which sinus runs along the superior border of the A. Spinal Cord
falx cerebri?
B. Medulla
A. Superior Sagittal Sinus
C. Pons
D. Midbrain ● Answer: B. II. Rationale: The site of pain
modulation in the dorsal horn.
● Answer: B. Medulla. Rationale: Internal
arcuate fibers cross here to form the medial
54. The largest commissural fiber bundle is the:
lemniscus.
A. Anterior Commissure
50. The Medial Geniculate Nucleus (MGN) relays:
B. Corpus Callosum
A. Visual information
C. Posterior Commissure
B. Auditory information
D. Fornix
C. Somatosensory information
● Answer: B. Corpus Callosum. Rationale:
D. Motor information Connects the left and right hemispheres.

● Answer: B. Auditory information. Rationale:

55. An Upper Motor Neuron (UMN) lesion of the facial
"M" is for Music (Auditory).
nerve causes:

51. Wallenberg Syndrome (Lateral Medullary) is A. Paralysis of the entire half of the face
caused by occlusion of:
B. Paralysis of the lower quadrant of the face only
A. PICA (Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery)
C. Loss of taste only
B. AICA
D. Hyperacusis
C. Anterior Spinal Artery
● Answer: B. Paralysis of the lower quadrant
D. MCA only. Rationale: The forehead receives
bilateral UMN innervation and is spared.
● Answer: A. PICA. Rationale: Affects vestibular
nuclei, sympathetic tract, and spinothalamic
56. Vital centers for respiration and circulation are
tract.
found in the:

52. Myasthenia Gravis targets which receptor? A. Midbrain

A. Muscarinic ACh B. Medulla Oblongata

B. Nicotinic ACh C. Thalamus

C. Dopamine D. Cortex

D. GABA ● Answer: B. Medulla Oblongata. Rationale:

Damage here is life-threatening.
● Answer: B. Nicotinic ACh. Rationale:
Autoantibodies block receptors at the
57. The Arcuate Fasciculus connects:
Neuromuscular Junction.
A. Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas
53. Substantia Gelatinosa corresponds to Rexed
Lamina: B. Visual and Motor cortex

A. I C. Hippocampus and Thalamus

B. II D. Frontal and Parietal lobes

C. V ● Answer: A. Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas.

Rationale: Essential for repeating words
D. IX (conduction aphasia).
58. Semicircular canals detect: C. Motor Cortex

A. Gravity D. Limbic System

B. Linear acceleration ● Answer: A. Visual Cortex. Rationale: They

border the Calcarine fissure.
C. Angular (rotational) acceleration
63. Hemiballismus (violent flailing) is caused by a
D. Vibration
lesion in the:
● Answer: C. Angular acceleration. Rationale:
A. Caudate
Fluid movement tracks head rotation.
B. Subthalamic Nucleus
59. Which protein blocks the myosin binding site on
actin? C. Putamen

A. Troponin D. Globus Pallidus

B. Tropomyosin ● Answer: B. Subthalamic Nucleus. Rationale:

Loss of excitation to the GPi leads to
C. Titin disinhibition of movement.

D. Actin
64. Which artery runs inside the Cavernous Sinus?
● Answer: B. Tropomyosin. Rationale: Moved
A. Internal Carotid Artery
by Troponin-Ca2+ complex to allow
contraction.
B. Middle Cerebral Artery

60. The "Blind Spot" is the: C. Basilar Artery

A. Fovea D. Facial Artery

B. Macula ● Answer: A. Internal Carotid Artery.

Rationale: A unique anatomical relationship.
C. Optic Disc
65. Association fibers connect:
D. Ora Serrata
A. Two hemispheres
● Answer: C. Optic Disc. Rationale: Where the
optic nerve exits; no photoreceptors present.
B. Cortex to Brainstem

61. The afferent limb of the Corneal Reflex is: C. Areas within the same hemisphere

A. CN II D. Spine to Thalamus

B. CN III ● Answer: C. Areas within the same

hemisphere. Rationale: E.g., Superior
C. CN V1 Longitudinal Fasciculus.

D. CN VII
66. The Locus Coeruleus produces:
● Answer: C. CN V1 (Ophthalmic). Rationale:
A. Dopamine
Sensation of the eye surface.
B. Serotonin
62. The Cuneus and Lingual gyri are part of the:
C. Norepinephrine
A. Visual Cortex (Occipital)
D. Acetylcholine
B. Auditory Cortex
 ● Answer: C. Norepinephrine. Rationale: A. Telencephalon and Diencephalon
Involved in stress and panic responses.
B. Metencephalon and Myelencephalon
67. The Central Sulcus separates:
C. Mesencephalon and Rhombencephalon
A. Frontal and Parietal lobes
D. Tectum and Tegmentum
B. Parietal and Occipital lobes
● Answer: A. Telencephalon and
Diencephalon. Rationale: The forebrain
C. Temporal and Frontal lobes
vesicle splits to form the cerebrum and
thalamic structures.
D. Left and Right hemispheres

● Answer: A. Frontal and Parietal lobes. 72. Nissl bodies in neurons are composed of:
Rationale: Separates motor (precentral) from
sensory (postcentral). A. Smooth ER

B. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)

68. REM sleep is characterized by:
C. Golgi apparatus
A. Delta waves
D. Mitochondria
B. Muscle atonia and dreaming
● Answer: B. Rough ER. Rationale:
C. Sleep spindles
Responsible for high levels of protein
synthesis in neurons.
D. Sleepwalking

● Answer: B. Muscle atonia and dreaming. 73. Anterograde axonal transport is mediated by:
Rationale: "Paradoxical sleep" where the brain
is active but body paralyzed. A. Dynein

B. Kinesin
69. The spinal cord ends at vertebral level:
C. Actin
A. T10
D. Myosin
B. L1-L2
● Answer: B. Kinesin. Rationale: Kinesin moves
C. L5
cargo away from the soma (anterograde);
Dynein moves it toward the soma.
D. S2

● Answer: B. L1-L2. Rationale: The Conus 74. Myelinated axons propagate potentials via:
Medullaris.
A. Continuous conduction
70. The Achilles reflex tests nerve root:
B. Saltatory conduction
A. L4
C. Passive diffusion
B. L5
D. Gap junctions
C. S1
● Answer: B. Saltatory conduction. Rationale:
The signal "jumps" from Node of Ranvier to
D. S4
Node of Ranvier.
● Answer: C. S1. Rationale: Plantar flexion
reflex. 75. During the Absolute Refractory Period:

A. A stronger stimulus can trigger an AP

71. During neural development, the Prosencephalon
divides into:
B. Sodium channels are inactivated and cannot open
C. Potassium channels are closed D. Lymph

D. The cell is hyperpolarized ● Answer: C. Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF).

Rationale: CSF circulates between the
● Answer: B. Sodium channels are arachnoid and pia mater.
inactivated. Rationale: No action potential
can be generated regardless of stimulus
80. Watershed infarcts occur:
strength.
A. Deep in the basal ganglia
76. The insula is responsible for:
B. At the borders between major cerebral artery
A. Vision territories

B. Taste, Visceral sensation, and Pain C. In the brainstem

C. Motor coordination D. In the spinal cord

D. Hearing ● Answer: B. At the borders. Rationale: Areas

like the ACA-MCA border are most
● Answer: B. Taste, Visceral sensation, and susceptible to systemic hypotension
Pain. Rationale: Hidden deep within the lateral (hypoperfusion).
sulcus.
81. Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms affect:
77. An Epidural Hematoma is usually caused by
rupture of the: A. Circle of Willis

A. Bridging veins B. Lenticulostriate arteries

B. Middle Meningeal Artery C. Vertebral arteries

C. Berry aneurysm D. Cortical veins

D. Basilar Artery ● Answer: B. Lenticulostriate arteries.

Rationale: Small deep penetrating arteries,
● Answer: B. Middle Meningeal Artery. associated with chronic hypertension and
Rationale: Often associated with temporal intracerebral hemorrhage.
bone fracture at the Pterion.
82. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) affects:
78. A Subdural Hematoma is caused by rupture of:
A. Upper Motor Neurons (UMN) only
A. Bridging veins
B. Lower Motor Neurons (LMN) only
B. Middle Meningeal Artery
C. Both UMN and LMN
C. Carotid Artery
D. Sensory neurons only
D. Choroid Plexus
● Answer: C. Both UMN and LMN. Rationale:
● Answer: A. Bridging veins. Rationale: Veins Causes mixed signs (spasticity +
crossing from the arachnoid to the dural atrophy/fasciculations).
sinuses tear, often in elderly/trauma.
83. Vitamin B12 deficiency (Subacute Combined
79. What is the contents of the Subarachnoid space? Degeneration) damages:

A. Venous blood A. Spinothalamic tract

B. Arterial blood B. Dorsal Columns and Corticospinal Tracts

C. Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) C. Anterior Horn cells

D. Cerebellum C. Dilated pupil

● Answer: B. Dorsal Columns and CST. D. Loss of corneal reflex

Rationale: Leads to loss of
proprioception/vibration and spastic ● Answer: B. Medial Strabismus. Rationale:
weakness. The Lateral Rectus is paralyzed, so the eye
cannot look out (abduct).
84. Weber’s Syndrome (Midbrain lesion) presents with:
88. Deviation of the tongue toward the side of the
A. Ipsilateral CN III palsy and Contralateral lesion implies damage to:
Hemiparesis
A. CN IX
B. Facial palsy
B. CN X
C. Deafness
C. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
D. Ataxia
D. CN VII
● Answer: A. Ipsilateral CN III palsy and
Contralateral Hemiparesis. Rationale: Hits ● Answer: C. CN XII. Rationale: The "Licked
the oculomotor nerve fascicle and the cerebral wounds" mnemonic—the working muscle
peduncle. pushes the tongue to the weak side.

85. Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia (INO) is caused by a 89. Trigeminal Neuralgia affects:

lesion in the:
A. Motor sensation
A. Optic Nerve
B. Sensory fibers of V2/V3
B. Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus (MLF)
C. Taste fibers
C. Abducens Nucleus
D. Autonomic fibers
D. Occipital Cortex
● Answer: B. Sensory fibers of V2/V3.
● Answer: B. MLF. Rationale: Disconnects CN Rationale: Severe, shooting pain in the
VI nucleus from contralateral CN III; eye maxillary/mandibular divisions.
cannot adduct on lateral gaze.
90. A lesion to the Prefrontal Cortex (like Phineas
86. Decerebrate posturing (extension of all limbs) Gage) results in:
implies a lesion:
A. Blindness
A. Above the Red Nucleus
B. Paralysis
B. Below the Red Nucleus (Midbrain/Pons)
C. Personality changes and loss of executive function
C. In the Cortex
D. Aphasia
D. In the Spinal Cord
● Answer: C. Personality changes. Rationale:
● Answer: B. Below the Red Nucleus. This area controls inhibition, planning, and
Rationale: Unopposed extensor tone social behavior.
(Vestibulospinal). Decorticate (flexor) is above
the red nucleus. 91. Gerstmann Syndrome (Dominant Parietal Lobe)
involves:
87. Damage to the Abducens Nerve (CN VI) causes:
A. Aphasia and Hemiparesis
A. Ptosis
B. Acalculia, Agraphia, Finger Agnosia, Left-Right
B. Medial Strabismus (Eye turns in) disorientation
C. Neglect and Apraxia D. Thalamus

D. Visual loss ● Answer: A. Caudate Nucleus. Rationale:

Look for "boxcar ventricles" on imaging due to
● Answer: B. Acalculia, Agraphia, Finger caudate loss.
Agnosia, L-R disorientation. Rationale: A
classic tetrad of symptoms for the angular
96. Uncal Herniation leads to compression of:
gyrus.
A. CN I
92. The Ventral Posteromedial (VPM) nucleus of the
thalamus handles: B. CN III (Oculomotor)

A. Body sensation C. CN VII

B. Face sensation and Taste D. CN X

C. Vision ● Answer: B. CN III. Rationale: The medial

temporal lobe pushes on the midbrain,
D. Hearing causing a "blown pupil" and down/out eye.

● Answer: B. Face sensation and Taste.

97. Pancoast Tumor (Lung apex) often causes:
Rationale: Input from Trigeminal and Gustatory
pathways.
A. Horner’s Syndrome

93. The Ventral Posterolateral (VPL) nucleus handles: B. Bell’s Palsy

A. Body sensation (Spinothalamic/DCML) C. Phrenic nerve palsy only

B. Face sensation D. Hearing loss

C. Motor input ● Answer: A. Horner’s Syndrome. Rationale: It

compresses the sympathetic chain/stellate
D. Limbic input ganglion.

● Answer: A. Body sensation. Rationale: Input

98. The Pterion is a clinical landmark because:
from the spinal cord (neck down).
A. It is the strongest part of the skull
94. Kluver-Bucy Syndrome (Hypersexuality,
Hyperorality, Placidity) is caused by bilateral damage B. It overlies the Middle Meningeal Artery
to the:
C. It is the site of CSF drainage
A. Hippocampus
D. It protects the visual cortex
B. Amygdala
● Answer: B. Overlies Middle Meningeal
C. Frontal Lobe Artery. Rationale: A blow to the temple here
often causes Epidural Hematoma.
D. Cingulate
99. Foot drop is caused by damage to the:
● Answer: B. Amygdala. Rationale: Loss of fear
and inhibition processing.
A. Femoral Nerve

95. Huntington’s Disease is characterized by atrophy B. Sciatic Nerve

of the:
C. Common Peroneal (Fibular) Nerve
A. Caudate Nucleus
D. Tibial Nerve
B. Substantia Nigra

C. Cerebellum
 ● Answer: C. Common Peroneal Nerve.
Rationale: This nerve wraps around the fibular
head and innervates dorsiflexors.

100. Lumbar Puncture is performed at the level of:

A. T12-L1

B. L3-L4 or L4-L5

C. S1-S2

D. C7-T1

● Answer: B. L3-L4 or L4-L5. Rationale: To

enter the subarachnoid space below the
termination of the spinal cord (conus
medullaris) to avoid nerve damage.

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