26-11-2025

1001CMD303029250064 MD

PHYSICS

1) One end of a capillary tube with a radius r is immersed into water. What amount of heat will be
evolved when the water rises in the tube ? If surface tension of water ‘T’ and density of water = ρ.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A metal block of base area 0.10 m2 is connected to a 0.010 kg mass via a string that passes over
an ideal pulley (consider massless and frictionless) as in fig. A liquid with a film thickness of 0.30
mm is placed between the block and the table. When released the block moves to the right with a
constant speed of 0.085 ms–1. Find the coefficient of viscosity of the liquid:-

(1) 3.5 × 10–3 pa-s

(2) 5.25 × 10–2 pa-s
(3) 7.3 × 10–2 pa-s
(4) 1.1 × 10–2 pa-s

3) Three particles of masses 1kg, m (kg) and 3kg are situated at the corners of an equilateral
triangle move at speed 6 ms–1, 3ms–1 and 2ms–1 respectively. Each particle maintains a direction
towards the particle at the next corner symmetrically. If the velocity of centre of mass of the system

at this instant is zero then find the value of m.

(1) 1 kg
(2) 2 kg
(3) 3 kg
(4) 4 kg

4) A block Q of mass M is placed on a horizontal frictionless surface AB and a body P of mass m is

released on its frictionless slope. As P slides by a length L on this slope of inclination θ, the block Q

would slide by a distance :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A body of mass m moving with velocity v collides head on with another body of mass 2m which is
initially at rest. The ratio of K.E. of the colliding body before and after collision will be :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 9 : 1

6) Graph of force of impact 'F' vs time 't' for short duration of collision of two bodies is as shown.

Find coefficient of restitution for given graph.

(1) 0.56
(2) 1
(3) 0.64
(4) 0.26

7) A particle falls from a height ‘h’ upon a fixed horizontal plane and rebounds. If ‘e’ is the
coefficient of restitution the total distance travelled before rebounding has stopped is :-

(1)
h

(2)
h
(3)

(4)

8) A collides to a surface as shown in figure. If coefficient of restitution , then θ will be:-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 0°

9) A smooth sphere of mass m is moving on a horizontal plane with a velocity . It collides

with a smooth vertical wall which is parallel to the vector . If coefficient of restitution , then
impulse that acts on the sphere is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Assertion : If two different axes are at same distance from centre of mass of a rigid body, then
moment of inertia of the given rigid body about both axis will always be same.
Reason : From parallel axis theorem I = Icm + md2, where all terms have usual meaning.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

11) Find moment of inertia of a semi circular disc about axis passing through center of mass and
perpendicular to its plane.
(1)
MR2

(2)
MR2

(3)
MR2

(4)
MR2

12) A small body of mass m slides down from the top of a hemisphere of radius r. The surface of
block and hemisphere are frictionless. The height (h) at which the body loses contact with the

surface of the sphere is :- (hemisphere is fixed)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A point mass 'm' is moved in a vertical circle of radius 'r' with the help of a string. The velocity of
the mass is at the lowest point. The tension in the string at the highest point is :

(1) 6 mg
(2) 7 mg
(3) 8 mg
(4) 1 mg

14) A stone is rotated in a vertical circle. Speed at bottommost point is where R is the radius
of circle. The ratio of tension at the top and the bottom is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 4

15) A particle is projected vertically upwards from the surface of the earth (radius Re) with a speed
equal to one fourth of escape velocity. What is the maximum height attained by it from the surface of
the earth ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

16) A small planet is revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with a
period of revolution T. If the gravitational force between the planet and the star were proportional
to R–5/2 , then T would be proportional to :-

(1) R3/2
(2) R3/5
(3) R7/2
(4) R7/4

17) A body of mass m rises to a height from the Earth's surface where R is Earth's radius. If
g is acceleration due to gravity at the Earth's surface, the increase in potential energy:-

(1) mgh

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Figure shows elliptical path abcd of a planet around the sun S such that the area of triangle csa

is the area of the ellipse. (See figure) With db as the semimajor axis, and ca as the semiminor axis.
If t1 is the time taken for planet to go over path abc and t2 for path taken over cda then :

(1) t1 = 4t2
(2) t1 = 3t2
(3) t1 = t2
(4) t1 = 2t2

19) A particle is projected with velocity kve in vertically upward direction from the ground into the
space (ve is the escape velocity & k<1) then the maximum height from the center of the earth upto
which it can go, will be (R is radius of earth)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A body weighs 144 N at the surface of earth. When it is taken to a height of h = 3R, where R is
radius of earth, its weight would be :

(1) 48 N
(2) 36 N
(3) 16 N
(4) 9 N

21) A cord is wound round the circumference of wheel of radius r. The fixed axis of the wheel is
horizontal and moment of inertia about it is I. A weight mg is attached to the end of the cord and
falls from rest. After falling through a distance h, the angular velocity of the wheel will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Two childrens ‘A’ & ‘B’ use bicycles, having wheels of ring type and disc type respectively.
During a race, cycles are given the same velocity from the bottom of the inclined bridge to ascend
the bridge without pedaling, then (assuming pure rolling) :

(1) Both bicycles with reach upto same height.

(2) Cycle of child ‘A’ will reach a greater height.
(3) Cycle of child B will reach a greater height.
(4) Depends on the masses of bicycle and the child.

23) A particle of mass m is describing a circular path of radius r with uniform speed. If L is the
angular momentum of the particle (about the axis of the circle), then the kinetic energy of the
particle is

(1)

(2) mr2L
(3)

(4)

24) A uniform disc of radius 20 cm is performing pure rolling on a moving surface, if it's angular

velocity is 5 rad/s then find velocity of it's centre of mass:-

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 3 m/s
(4) None of these

25) A wheel having radius 20 cm is coupled by a belt to another wheel of radius 30 cm. First wheel
increases its angular speed from rest at a uniform rate of 1.57 rad/s2. The time for second wheel to
reach a rotational speed of 100 rev/min is :-
(Assume that the belt does not slip)

(1) 10 sec.
(2) 20 sec.
(3) 5 sec.
(4) 40 sec.

26) A particle of mass m has been thrown up with initial speed u making an angle θ with the
horizontal. Find the torque of its weight about the point of projection when it just reached the
highest point.

(1) mu sinθ·cosθ
(2) mu2 sin θ cos θ

(3)

(4)

27) The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is 2.4 kg-m2. Time taken to produce a
rotational kinetic energy of 750 J, an angular acceleration of 5 rad/s2 must be applied about that axis
for :

(1) 6 sec
(2) 5 sec
(3) 4 sec
(4) 3 sec

28) The Sun rotates around its centre once in 27 days. What will be the period of revolution if the
Sun were to expand to twice its present radius without any external influence? Assuming mass is
constant and the Sun to be a sphere of uniform density.

(1) 100 days

(2) 105 days
(3) 115 days
(4) 108 days

29)

A cube of mass m and side 'a' is moving on a smooth surface with speed v as shown. After hitting
point P, it rotates about point P, angular velocity of cube just after the collision will be-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A uniform rod of length L and mass M is hung from two strings of equal length from a ceiling as

shown. Tension in two string is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) T1 = Mg, T2 = 0

31) Assertion (A) :- When no external torque is applied and moment of inertia of a rotating body
changes, then its angular momentum remains conserved, but its kinetic energy changes. Reason
(R) :- Angular momentum does not depend upon moment of inertia of the body.

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

32) Assertion (A) :- Bulk modulus of incompressible liquid is infinity.

Reason (R) :- The volume of incompressible liquid does not change by applying force.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

33)

Column-I Column-II

Splitting of bigger drop into

(A) (P) Temperature changes
small drops

Formation of bigger drop from Temperature remains

(B) (Q)
small drops. constant

(C) Spraying of liquid (R) Surface energy changes

Splitting of bigger soap bubble

Surface energy remains
(D) into small soap bubble of same (S)
unchanged
thickness
(1) (A)-(P),(S) ; (B)-(P),(S) ; (C)-(P),(S) ; (D)-(Q),(S)
(2) (A)-(P),(R) ; (B)-(R),(S) ; (C)-(P),(R) ; (D)-(Q),(R)
(3) (A)-(P),(R) ; (B)-(P),(R) ; (C)-(P),(R) ; (D)-(Q),(S)
(4) (A)-(P),(S) ; (B)-(P),(S) ; (C)-(P),(R) ; (D)-(Q),(S)

34) A satellite of mass m is orbiting the Earth at a height h above its surface. The mass of the Earth
is M and its radius is R. Match the physical quantities in List–II with the expression in List–I

List-I List-II
(P) (1) Potential energy of the earth satellite system.

(Q) (2) Kinetic energy of the satellite.

(R) (3) Orbital velocity of the satellite.

(S) (4) Total energy of satellite.

–
(1) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4
(2) P-3; Q-2; R-1; S-4
(3) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3
(4) P-1; Q-4; R-3; S-2

35) Statement-1 : Areal velocity of earth about centre of sun remains constant (areal velocity is
defined as area swept per unit time by line joining the centre of earth and centre of sun).
Statement-2 : Torque on earth due to gravitational force of sun about centre of sun remains
constant.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

36) The following four wires of length L and radius r are made of the same material. Which of these
will have the largest extension, when the same tension is applied ?

(1) L = 100 cm, r = 0.2 mm

(2) L = 200 cm, r = 0.4 mm
(3) L = 300 cm, r = 0.6 mm
(4) L = 400 cm, r = 0.8 mm

37)

Water column pressure of 10 atm is applied on a glass slab. Find fractional volume compression
(bulk modulus of glass, B = 40 × 109 Pascal)

(1) 4 × 10–5
(2) 2.5 × 10–5
(3) 10–4
(4) 4 × 10–6

38) Two wires, one of steel (Ysteel = 2 × 1011 N/m2) and the other of copper (YCu = 1011 N/m2) have
same length and radii. If on applying a force F, the length of first wire increases by ℓ0, then force
required to increase the length of second wire by same amount is :-

(1) 4F

(2)

(3)

(4) 2F

39) Young's modulus of steel is 2 × 1011 N/m2. A steel wire has a length of 1 m and area of cross
section 1 mm2. The work required to increase its length by 1 mm is :-

(1) 0.1 J
(2) 1 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 100 J

40) Two solids A and B float in water. It is observed that A floats with half of its volume immersed
and B floats with 2/3 of its volume immersed. The ratio of densities of A and B is :-
(1) 4 : 3
(2) 3 : 4
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 2 : 3

41) Two water pipes P and Q having diameter 2 × 10–2 m and 4 × 10–2 m respectively are joined in
series with the main supply line of water. The velocity of water flowing in pipe P is

(1) 4 times that of Q

(2) 2 times that of Q

(3)
times that of Q

(4)
times that of Q

42) The height of water in a tank is H. The range of the liquid emerging out from a hole in the wall of

the tank at a depth from the upper surface of water, will be :-

(1) H

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The work done in increasing the size of a rectangular soap film with dimensions 8 cm × 3.75 cm
to 10 cm × 6 cm is 2 × 10–4 J. The surface tension of film is :

(1) 1.64 × 10–2 N/m

(2) 3.3 × 10–2 N/m
(3) 6.6 × 10–2 N/m
(4) 8.25 × 10–2 N/m

44) A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both
the ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular
velocity ω. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is :–

(1)

(2)

(3) M L ω2

(4)
45) Two turns of a smooth road are banked with the same angle. What is the ratio of maximum
velocities for the two turns if the ratio of radii of curvature is 1 : 5 ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) If ‘X’ is ionization energy of hydrogen then the energy required for excitation of electron of
Li2+ ion from 2nd excited state to 5th excited state is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) What is the maximum number of electrons that can be associated with d-subshell with n = 5 and
m = 0?

(1) 2
(2) 10
(3) 6
(4) 30

3) If wave length of limiting line of lyman series of H is xÅ then calculate wave number of third line
of Balmer series of He+ ion :-

(1)
(Å)–1

(2)
(Å)–1

(3)
(Å)–1

(4)
(Å)–1

4) Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of He+ and Li2+ are
[Given RH = 2.18 × 10–18 J, a0 = 52.9 pm]
 En(Li2+) = –19.62 × 10–18 J;
r (Li2+) = 17.6 pm
(1) n
En(He+) = –8.72 × 10–18 J;
rn(He+) = 26.4 pm
En(Li2+) = –8.72 × 10–18 J;
r (Li2+) = 26.4 pm
(2) n
En(He+) = –19.62 × 10–18 J;
rn(He+) = 17.6 pm
En(Li2+) = –19.62 × 10–16 J;
r (Li2+) = 17.6 pm
(3) n
En(He+) = –8.72 × 10–16 J;
rn(He+) = 26.4 pm
En(Li2+) = –8.72 × 10–16 J;
rn(Li2+) = 17.6 pm
(4)
En(He+) = –19.62 × 10–16 J;
rn(He+) = 17.6 pm

5) Match the following :-

(A) Energy of ground state of He+ ion (i) +6.04 eV

(B) Potential energy of first orbit of H–atom (ii) –27.2 eV

Kinetic energy of second excited state of

(C) (iii) 8.72 ×10–18 J
He+ ion

(D) Ionisation energy of He+ ion (iv) –54.4 eV

(1) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
(3) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iii)
(4) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (iv)

6) Energy of 24.6eV is required to remove first of electrons from He-atom. The energy required to
remove both the electrons from He-atom :-

(1) 38.2 eV
(2) 49.2 eV
(3) 51.8 eV
(4) 79.0 eV

7) The de Broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass 1 kg having kinetic energy 0.5 J is :-

(1) 6.626 × 10–34 m

(2) 13.20 × 10–34 m
(3) 10.38 × 10–21 m
(4) 6.626 × 10–34 Å

8)
Find the de-Broglie wavelength of SO2 molecule if it travels with the velocity of 0.01 m/sec. :-
(Molecular wt. SO2 = 64)

(1) 6 × 10–9 m
(2) 8 × 10–5 m
(3) 6 × 10–7 m
(4) 7 × 10–4 m

9) Given that the mass of electron is 9.1 × 10–31 kg and velocity of electron is 2.2 × 106 ms–1. If the
uncertainty in its velocity is 0.1%, the uncertainty in position would be :-

(1) 26 nm
(2) 32 nm
(3) 48 nm
(4) 50 nm

10) In two H–like species two corresponding electrons move around the nucleus in circular orbits of
radii R and 4R. The ratio of the time taken by them to complete one revolution is :-

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 8 : 7

11)
On the basis of given part of periodic table, incorrect statement is :-

(1) A is an alkaline earth metal

(2) Atomic number of B is 103 which belongs to III B group
(3) Atomic number, group no. and period number of D are 72, IVB and 6th respectively
(4) C is a transuranic element.

12) In which of the following elements d-orbitals do not have any electrons in their outer electronic
configuration :-

(1) Am
(2) Lr
(3) Th
(4) Lu

13) In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of
property indicated against it ?

(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (increasing ionic size)
(2) B < C < O < N (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
(3) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)

14) For given elements :-

X – 1s22s22p5
Y – 1s22s22p63s23p5
Z – 1s22s22p63s1
Correct statement is

(1) IE of Z is more than that of X

(2) EA of Y is more than that of X
(3) IE of Y is more than that of X
(4) EA of Y is more than IE of Y

15) Which of the following is not related with lanthanoid contraction :-

(1) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf is almost similar

(2) If difference in atomic radius of C and Si is x and Si & Ge is y then x > y
(3) IE of Hg is much higher than Cd as well as Zn
(4) IE of Pb is more than Sn

16) Which of the following order is incorrect :-

(1) Al > Ga → Radius

(2) F+ > Cl+ → Electron affinity
(3) N+ > O+ → Ionization energy
(4) O > Se → Electron negativity

17) A, B, C are oxides of element X, Y and Z respectively. X, Y, Z are in same period. 'A' gives an
aqueous solution which turns blue litmus red. 'B' reacts with both strong acids and strong Alkalies.
'C' gives aqueous solution which is strongly alkaline. The incorrect statement is:-

(1) X > Y > Z (Pauling EN order)

(2) X > Y > Z (atomic radius)
(3) B is an amphoteric oxide
(4) X, Y, Z could be phosphorous, Al and Na respectively

18) The second electron gain enthalpies (in kJ/mol) of oxygen and sulphur respectively are:

(1) –780, + 590

(2) –590, + 780
(3) +590, + 780
(4) +780, + 590

19) Which of the following is planar ?

(1) XeO4
(2) XeOF4
(3) XeO2F2
(4) XeF4

20) Electronic configuration of some elements is given in Column I and their electron gain enthalpies
are given in Column II. Match the electronic configuration with electron gain enthalpy.

Column-II
Column-I
(Electron gain enthalpy/kJ
(Electronic configuration)
mol–1)

(i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (A) –53

(ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (B) –328

(iii) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (C) –141

(iv) 1s2 2s2 2p4 (D) +48

(1) (i)→(D); (ii)→(A); (iii)→(B); (iv)→(C)
(2) (i)→(C); (ii)→(A); (iii)→(D); (iv)→(B)
(3) (i)→(B); (ii)→(C); (iii)→(D); (iv)→(A)
(4) (i)→(A); (ii)→(B); (iii)→(C); (iv)→(D)

21) Correct relation for second ionisation enthalpy :-

(1) Be > B
(2) B > C
(3) N > O
(4) Ne > Na

22) Match the correct ionisation enthalpies and electron gain enthalpies of the following elements.

Elements ΔH1 ΔH2 ΔegH

(i) Most reactive non metal A. 419 3051 –48

(ii) Most reactive metal B. 1684 3374 –328

(iii) Least reactive element C. 738 1451 –40

(iv) Metal forming binary halide D. 2372 5251 +48

(1) i-B, ii-A, iii-D, iv-C
(2) i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D
(3) i-C, ii-B, iii-A, iv-D
(4) i-D, ii-B, iii-A, iv-C
23) Which of the following shapes of SF4 is more stable and why?

(1) (i), due to 3 lp - bp repulsions at 90°.

(2) (ii), due to 2 lp - bp repulsions.
(3) Both are equally stable due to 2 lp - bp repulsions.
(4) Both are unstable since SF4 has tetrahedral shape.

24) Assertion : Second period consists of 8 elements.

Reason : Number of elements in each period is twice the number of atomic orbitals available in the
energy level that is being filled.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

25) Which of the following configuration is incorrect regarding to given block ?

(1) ns2p6d10 (n + 1) s2p6(n+2)s1 → s-block

(2) (n–2)s2p6d10f14 (n – 1) s2p6ns2 → p-block
(3) (n–2)s2p6d10f14 (n – 1) s2p6d2ns2 → d-block
0
(4) 5s2p6d10f . 6s2p6d2 . 7s2 → f-block

26) Statement-I : Each series of d-block contains 10 elements.

Statement-II : Capacity of d-subshell to occupied maximum 10 electrons.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

27) Select the correct statement :

(1) F has maximum electron affinity in the periodic table

(2) KMnO4 > MnO2 > MnO (order of EN of Mn)
(3) CrO > Cr2O3 > CrO3 (Acidic character)
(4) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (Acidic character)

28)
In which of the following formal charge on oxygen atom is equal to – :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) Choose the molecules in which hybridisation occurs in the ground state ?
(i) BCl3 (ii) NH3
(iii) PCl3 (iv) BeF2
The correct answer is -

(1) i, ii, iv
(2) i, ii, iii
(3) ii, iii
(4) iii, iv

30)

Match column-I with column–II and select the correct answer :-

Column-I Column-I
(Molecules) (Property)

(P) IF7 (1) Planar and Polar

(Q) SO2 (2) Non planar and polar

(R) SF4 (3) Planar and Nonpolar

(S) CS2 (4) Non polar and non planar

(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 4 2 1 3
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 3 1 4 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Consider the following table :-

Steric no.
lp on central atom Shape of molecule
(σ bp + lp)

5 a Linear

b 1 See-Saw
 6 c Square Planar

d 2 T-Shaped

The value of a + b + c + d is :-
(1) 10
(2) 9
(3) 15
(4) 8

32) Assuming the bond direction to the z-axis, which of the overlapping of atomic orbitals of two
atom (A) and (B) will result in bonding ?
I. s-orbital of A and px orbital of B
II. s-orbital of A and pz orbital of B
III. py- orbital of A and pz orbital of B
IV. s-orbital of both (A) and (B)

(1) I and IV
(2) I and II
(3) III and IV
(4) II and IV

33)

Which of the following combinations of atomic orbitals will form bonding molecular orbital

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
34) O – P – X (X = halogen) bond angle is maximum in

(1) POF3
(2) POCl3
(3) POBr3
(4) POI3

35) Assertion :- The electronic structure of O3 is

Reason :- structure is not allowed because octet around 'O' cannot be expanded.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

36) Which of the following set of species have planar structures?

(1)

(2)
(3) SCl2, N2O5, SF4, XeOF4
(4)

37)

Match the column :

Kessome
(A) (p)
attraction

Debye
(B) Xe + H2O (q)
attraction

London
(C) (r)
force

Ion-dipole
(D) CO2 + CS2 (s)
attraction
(1) A – s, B – q, C – p, D – r
(2) A – q, B – s, C – p, D – r
(3) A – s, B – p, C – q, D – r
(4) A – s, B – q, C – r, D – p

38) Identifiy incorrect order of bond strength or bond energy:-

(1) N-H < O–H < F–H
(2) C–C<Si –Si < Ge – Ge < Sn – Sn
(3) C≡C < C≡N < C≡O
(4)

39) Valency with respect to H in group can be represented by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Oxygen is more electronegative, than sulphur, yet H2S is acidic in nature while H2O is neutral.
because :-

(1) H2O molecule are associated due to inter-H bonding

(2) H2O has higher boiling point than H2S
(3) H–S bond is weaker than O–H bond
(4) H2S is gas at ordinary temperature while H2O is liquid

41) Correct order is :-

(1) SiCl4 < CCl4 (Bond angle)

+ –
(2) NO2 < NO2 (Bond angle)
+ –
(3) H2 : H2 : H2 = 0.5 : 1 : 0.5 (Bond order)
(4) AgF > AgCl > AgBr > AgI (Ionic character)

42) Which of following are isostructural pairs :-

2–
(1) CO3 and ClF3
+
(2) NH4 and PH3
2–
(3) CO3 and BCl3
(4) PH3 and ClF3

43) Pick out the incorrect statement :

(1) sp3d hybridisation involves orbital

(2) Hybridised orbital form σ-bond when overlaps with other orbitals.
(3) SF2 molecule is more polar than CS2
(4) o-nitrophenol is more volatile than p-nitrophenol.

44) Which of the following is INCORRECT ?

(1) LUMO level for C2 molecule is σ2pz orbital

(2) In C2 molecules both the bonds are π bonds
(3) In ion there is one σand two π bonds
(4) HOMO level for C2 molecule of σ2pz orbital

45) Which of the following can not act as Lewis Base ?

(1) PF3
(2) CO
(3) F–
(4) BF3

BIOLOGY

1) Cell theory is not applicable to:

(1) Algae
(2) Fungus
(3) Viruses
(4) Bryophytes

2) Packaging and secretion takes place from which part of golgi body ?

(1) Trans or forming face

(2) Cis or maturing face
(3) Trans or maturing face
(4) Cis or forming face

3) What is found in plant cell which differentiate it from animal cell ?

(1) Large central vacuole, plastid and cell wall

(2) Cell wall, plastid and centriole
(3) Cell wall, Plastid and mitochondria
(4) Cell membrane, Plastid and flagella

4) First gap phase in cell cycle is :-

(1) interval between mitotic phase and DNA replication phase

(2) interval between G2 phase and S-phase
(3) interval between karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(4) interval between DNA replication phase and second gap phase

5) If a cell has 15 bivalents in zygotene stage how many kinetochores are found in it ?

(1) 30
(2) 60
(3) 15
(4) 45

6) “The homologous chormosome separate, while sister chromatids remains associated at the their
centromere.” This quote is applied on:

(1) Prophase-I
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-II
(4) Telophase-I

7) Plastids differ from mitochondria on the basis of which of the following features ?

(1) Presence of two layers of membrane

(2) Presence of ribosome
(3) Presence of thylakoids
(4) Presence of DNA

8) Which of the following option correctly described the cell as shown in figure ?

(1) 8 chromosomes ; 8 homologous pair

(2) 16 chromosomes ; 4 homologous pair
(3) 8 chromosomes ; 4 homologous pair
(4) 16 chromosomes ; 8 homologous pair

9) Select the correct match :-

(1) Quiescent phase - G1 phase

(2) Centriole duplication - G2 phase
(3) Centromere division - Anaphase
(4) Chromosome decondensation - Prophase

10) 'Endoreduplication' leads to :-

(1) Formation of polytene chromosomes

(2) Formation of lampbrush chromosomes
(3) Formation of polyploid cell
(4) Formation of multinucleated cell

11) Which of following statement is incorrect for interphase stage ?

(1) Period of great cytoplasmic activity

(2) Absence of replication of DNA
(3) Also called as preparatory phase
(4) It covers over 95% of the total duration of cell cycle in human.

12) Choose the correct option for phases of cell cycles :

(1) During prophase each chromosome has one ds DNA molecule

(2) During metaphase each chromosome has two ss DNA molecule
(3) During anaphase each chromosome has one ds DNA molecule
(4) During telophase each chromosome has two ds DNA molecule

13) If you are provided with root tips of onion in your class and asked to count the number of
chromosome and study of structure of chromosome which of the following stage can you most
conveniently look ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Telophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Metaphase

14) Middle lamella represents :-

(1) Common wall between adjacent fungal cells

(2) Common membrane covering of two adjacent cells
(3) Pore between adjacent cells
(4) Cementing material between two adjacent cells

15) Find the correctly matched pair and choose the correct one :

(1) Interphase : Division phase

(2) M-phase : Quiescent phase
(3) S-phase : Synapsis phase
nd
(4) G2-phase : 2 growth phase
16) Which one of the following event is not related with G1-S transition ?

(1) Influenced by DNA damage

(2) Influenced by cell size and nutrients
(3) Influenced by growth factors
(4) influenced by DNA replication

17) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

A. Mitochondria 1 Without membrane

B. Lysosome 2 Single membrane

C. Ribosome 3 Double membrane

D. Nucleus 4 Double membrane with pores

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(3) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(4) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-3

18) Select the correct statement regarding mitochondria and chloroplast.

A. ATP synthesis
B. Outer membrane is highly folded
C. Circular Naked DNA, RNA and 70 s ribosome.
D. Oxidation phosphorylation

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A & C
(4) A & D

19) Study the following diagram carefully and identify the correct match:

(1) a : Centriole
(2) b : Astral ray
(3) c : Chromatin fibre
(4) d : Tetrad

20) Match List-I with List-II.

 List-I (Events) List-II (Prophase-I)

(A) Terminalisation of chiasmata (I) Zygotene

Crossing over take place between non-sister

(B) (II) Pachytene
chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

(C) X-shaped structure called chiasmata. (III) Diakinesis

Chromosomes becomes gradually visible

(D) (IV) Diplotene
under light microscope
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

21) Assertion :- Cell growth can be the cause of induction of cell division.
Reason :- Cell growth results in disturbing the nucleo - cytoplasmic ratio of the cell.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The individual chromosomes can no longer be seen and chromatin material tends to
collect in a mass at two poles in Telophase.
Reason (R) : During telophase of mitosis the chromosomes that have reached their respective poles
decondense and lose their individuality and converts in chromatin material.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

23) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Chromosome synapsis is accompanied by the formation of complex structure called
synaptonemal complex.
Statement II : Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs during pachytene stage just after
crossing over.
Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
24) Statement-I : Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed at the beginning
of third phase of prophase-I.
Statement-II : The tendency of recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to separate
from each other starts in diplotene

(1) I is true; II is false

(2) Both are true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Both are false

25) Which is not characteristics of anaphase of mitosis ?

(A) Centromere split and chromatids separate.
(B) Daughter Chromosome move to opposite poles.
(C) Homologous chromosomes separate.
(D) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear.
(E) Bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate.

(1) A, B and E
(2) B and C
(3) C, D and E
(4) B, C and D

26) Few events regarding cell cycle are given below. Arrange these events in correct order and
select the correct option from option given below:
A. DNA replication
B. Centromere division
C. Cell organelle synthesis
D. Condensation of chromatin material completed
E. Division of cytoplasm

(1) C,B,A,D,E
(2) C,D,B,A,E
(3) C,A,D,B,E
(4) C,D,A,B,E

27) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Somatic cell that has just completed the S-phase of its cell cycle, as compared to
gamete of the same species, has two times the number of chromosome and four times the amount of
DNA.
Statement-II : Some mother cell of angiosperm divides meiotically to produce 4 haploid daughter
cell having same number of chromosome and half the amount of DNA as compared to mother cell.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
28) Assertion :- In cell membrane, the lipids are arranged within the membrane with the polar head
towards inner sides and the hydrophobic tails towards the outer part.
Reason :- Primary wall is capable of growth, which gradually diminishes as the cell matures.

(1) Assertion and reason both are correct but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion

29) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in mechanical support, nuclear division,
motility etc.
Statement II : An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures consisting of
microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm is collectively
referred to as the cytoskeleton.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

30)
How many statements are correct with respect to given diagram.
(A) Cisternal are disc shape structure
(B) It act as important site of formation of glycolipids and glycoprotein.
(C) Cis-face and trans-face of the organelle are entirely similar but connected.
(D) It is densly stained reticular structure present near the nucleus.
Options-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

31) Match the following column :-

Column-I Column-II
(Organelles) (Features)
 Nucleoprotein
A. Nucleolus I.
structure

Cytoplasmic
B. Centriole II.
connection

Ribosomal RNA
C. Plasmodesmata III.
synthesis

9+0 microtubule
D. Chromatin IV.
arrangement
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

32) Correctly match column-I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(A) Golgi apparatus (P) Chromatin (i) Protein synthesis

(B) Ribosome (Q) Cristae (ii) Packaging and secretion

(C) Nucleus (R) Cisternae (iii) Controller of cell

(D) Mitochondria (S) RNA and proteins (iv) Aerobic respiration

(1) (A)-(P)-(i), (B)-(Q)-(ii), (C)-(R)-(iii), (D)-(S)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(R)-(ii), (B)-(P)-(i), (C)-(S)-(iii), (D)-(Q)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(R)-(ii), (B)-(S)-(i), (C)-(P)-(iii), (D)-(Q)-(iv)
(4) (A)-(S)-(ii), (B)-(R)-(i), (C)-(P)-(iii), (D)-(Q)-(iv)

33) Find the correct match -

Metacentric chromosome
(1)
– Centromere forming two unequal arms of chromosome
Telocentric chromosome
(2)
– Centromere close to end of chromosome
Acrocentric chromosome
(3)
– Terminal centromere chromosome
Sub-metacentric chromosome
(4)
– Centromere slightly away from middle of the chromosome

34) Select the incorrect statement ?

(1) Membrane bound organelles having co-ordinated functions are part of endomembranous system
(2) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum in animals is the major site for synthesis of cellulose
(3) Varied number of cisternae are present in a Golgi complex
(4) The vacuole is the membrane bound space found in the cytoplasm

35) Select the correct match -

(1) Nucleus → Flemming
(2) Golgi complex → Robert Brown
(3) Chromatin → Singer & Nicolson
(4) Ribosome → George Palade

36) What is the function of GLUT-4?

(1) Fight infectious agents

(2) Sensory reception
(3) Enzymatic activity
(4) Enable glucose transport into cells

37) Starch forms blue colour with iodine because :

(1) It is a linear molecule

(2) It contains complex helices and hence hold iodine molecules
(3) It breaks down when iodine reacts with it
(4) It is a disaccharide

38)

Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction :
S – G + S# → S + S# – G
Where, G → a group other than hydrogen
S → a substrate
S# → another substrate

(1) Hydrolase
(2) Lyase
(3) Transferase
(4) Ligase

39) An enzyme is called biocatalyst, and it :-

(1) Is always a protein

(2) Enhances substrate concentration
(3) Decreases the activation energy
(4) Decreases the rate of reaction

40) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

A. Primary structure of protein I. Human haemoglobin

B. Secondary structure of protein II. Disulphide bonds

C. Tertiary structure of protein III. Polypeptide chain

 D. Quaternary structure of protein IV. Alpha helix and β sheet

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D -IV
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

41) Match Column I and Column II

Column I Column II

Removal of groups from substrate by mechanism

(1) Hydrolases (a)
other than hydrolysis

Hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, C-C or P-N

(2) Lysases (b)
bonds

Enzyme catalyzing linking together of 2

(3) Isomerases (c)
compounds

Include all enzymes catalyzing inter-conversion of

(4) Ligases (d)
optical, geometric or positional isomers.
(1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(2) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
(3) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
(4) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

42) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a permanently inactive state whereas high
temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured at high temperature.
Statement-II : When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and
inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is called as non-competitive inhibitor.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both the statement I and statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(4) Both the statement I and statement II are true

43) Which of the following are correct ?

(A) Catalytic activity is unaffected when the cofactor is removed from the enzyme
(B) Co-enzymes are inorganic compounds and their association with the apoenzyme is only transient
(C) Prosthetic groups are organic compounds and are distinguished from other co-factors as they
are tightly bound with enzymes.
(D) Metal ions form coordination bond with side chains at the active site and at the same time forms
coordination bond with the substrate.

(1) A and B
(2) C and D
(3) B and C
(4) A and D

44) Choose the correct match for the figures given below :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) A-Ribose, B-Glucose, C-Glycine, D-Thymine

(2) A-Deoxy ribose, B-Glucose, C-Alanine, D-Thymine
(3) A-Deoxyribose, B-Glucose, C-Alanine, D-Uracil
(4) A-Ribose, B-Glucose, C-Glycine, D-Uracil

45) Following are the statements with reference to lipids.

(a) Fatty acids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids.
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms
Choose the correct statements from the options given below :-

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (b) and (e) only

46) Thrombocytes are cell fragments produced from ?

(1) Monocytes
(2) Macrophages
(3) Megakaryocytes
(4) Fibroblasts

47) One is more in lymph than blood.

(1) RBC
(2) Oxygen
(3) Lipid
(4) Platelets

48) Which of the following situation is responsible for the closing of cuspid valve.
(1) Increasing the atrial pressure from ventricular pressure.
(2) Decreasing of atrial pressure from vena cava
(3) Increasing the ventricular pressure from Atrial Pressure.
(4) Increasing the ventricular Pressure from Aortic Pressure

49) In the mechanism of blood clotting the enzyme required for the formation of Fibrin from
Fibrinogen is -

(1) Thrombokinase
(2) Prothrombin
(3) Thrombin
(4) Ca++

50) Choose the blood cells which normally form 2 - 3% of all WBCS and are associated with allergic
reactions

(1) Monocytes
(2) Lymphocytes
(3) Neutrophils
(4) Eosinophils

51) Assertion :- In a healthy individual the volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per
minute is about 5 litre.
Reason :- In a healthy individual the stroke volume in about 70 ml & heart rate is 72/min.

(1) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

(2) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(3) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

52) Which of the following statement is NOT correct.

(1) P-wave represents depolarisation of the atria.

(2) QRS complex represent the depolarisation of the ventricles.
(3) T-wave represents ventricular diastole.
Parasympathetic neural signals decrease the rate of heart beat and speed of conduction of
(4)
action potential.

53)

Column - I Column - II

(i) Joint diastole (a) Cuspid valves open

(ii) Ventricular systole (b) 70 ml

(iii) Atrial systole (c) Semilunar valves open

(iv) Stroke volume (d) 30% of more filling of ventricles

Match the column I and II and choose the correct option.
(1) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d
(2) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a
(3) i - a, ii - c, iii - d, iv - b
(4) i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b

54) Statement-I : Rh antigen present on the surface of RBCs of nearly 50 percent of humans.
Statement-II : A special case of Rh incompatibility has been observed between the Rh +ve blood of
pregnant mother with Rh –ve blood of the foetus.
Read the above statements and select the correct option from the following :

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

55) Match the column-I and column-II and select appropriate option.

Column-I Column-II

(i) Eosinophil (a) Blood clotting

(ii) Thrombocytes (b) Immune response

(iii) Lymphocyte (c) Inflammatory

(iv) Basophil (d) Allergic reaction

(1) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
(2) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
(3) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)

56) Find out the end systolic volume, stroke volume and cardiac output, if the person has end
diastolic volume is 135ml and normal healthy heart rate?

(1) 50ml, 70ml, approx 5Lt/min

(2) 50ml, 85ml, approx 6Lt/min
(3) 65ml, 70ml, approx 6Lt/min
(4) 65ml, 70ml, approx 5Lt/min

57) Which component of the conduction system has the slowest conduction rate?

(1) SA node
(2) AV node
(3) Left bundle branch
(4) Purkinje fibres

58) Erythroblastosis foctalis can cause _______ and _______ ?

(1) Anaemia, Jaundice
(2) Thalassemia, Jaundice
(3) Jaundice, Pneumonia
(4) Anaemia, Thyphoid

59) Increase in secretion of which of the following will decrease heart beat?

(1) Adrenal medullary hormones

(2) Thyroxin
(3) Sympathetic nerves
(4) Parasympathetic nerves

60) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately......A......of CO2 to the alveoli identify
'A' :-

(1) 4 ml.
(2) 40 ml.
(3) 450 ml.
(4) 5 ml.

61) Which statement incorrect regarding to regulation of Respiration ?

(1) Respiratory rhythm centre is primarily responsible for regulation of respiration

(2) Pneumotoxic centre can moderate the function of the respiratory rhythm centre.
(3) Chemosensitive area is situated adjancent to the pneumotoxic centre
(4) The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.

62) Which part of the brainstem is responsible for decrease the duration of Inspiration :

(1) Medulla oblongata

(2) Pons
(3) Cerebellum
(4) 1 and 3 both

63) What is the term for the volume of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a normal exhalation ?

(1) IRV
(2) ERV
(3) RV
(4) VC

64) Which of the following does not shift the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve to the right ?

(1) Increased pH
(2) Increased CO2
(3) Increased temperature
(4) Increased 2,3 DPG

65) When under certain conditions the P50 value of haemoglobin and H+ concentration rises the
affinity of the pigment of combining with O2 will ?

(1) Remain same

(2) Rise
(3) Fall
(4) First rise and then fall

66) Which of the following do not occur during normal inhalation ?

(1) Contraction of diaphragm

(2) Contraction of external inter costal muscle
(3) Contraction of internal inter costal muscle
(4) Volume of thoracic chamber increases

67) Which is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory
surface is decreased ?

(1) Asthma
(2) Rhinitis
(3) Emphysema
(4) Occupational respiratory disorder

68) Partial pressure of O2 and CO2 is 40 mm Hg respectively in-

(1) Deoxygenated blood and Alveoli

(2) Atmospheric air and oxygenated blood
(3) Alveoli and Deoxygenated blood
(4) Oxygenated blood Tissues

69) Assertion : Inspiration is the active process. Which occur due to contraction in EICM and radial
muscle of dome shape diaphragm.
Reason : Contraction in EICM, Ribs and sternum lift upward & outward. Causing an increase in the
volume of thoracic chamber.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct & reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

70) Assertion : Long exposure of sllica can give rise to inflammation leading to proliferation of
fibrous tissue.
Reason : Dust particle cause inflammation and leads to severe lung damage.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

71) Arrange the given steps of expiration in the sequence of event occurring first :
(I) Relaxation of the diaphragm and sternum
(II) Reduction of pulmonary volume
(III) Expulsion of air from the lungs
(IV) Increase intrapulmonary pressure

(1) I → II → III → IV
(2) I → II → IV → III
(3) IV → III → II → I
(4) IV → II → III → I

72) Match the list-I, II & III –

List-I List-II List-III

(A) Vital capacity (P) TV + IRV (i) 2200 ml

(B) Functional residual capacity (Q) TV + ERV (ii) 3500 ml

(C) Inspiratory capacity (R) ERV + TV + IRV (iii) 1500 ml

(D) Expiratory capacity (S) ERV + RV (iv) 4500 ml

(1) (A)-(R)-(i), (B)-(S)-(iv), (C)-(P)-(iii), (D)-(Q)-(ii)
(2) (A)-(R)-(iv), (B)-(S)-(i), (C)-(P)-(iii), (D)-(Q)-(ii)
(3) (A)-(R)-(iv), (B)-(S)-(i), (C)-(P)-(ii), (D)-(Q)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(R)-(i), (B)-(S)-(iv), (C)-(P)-(ii), (D)-(Q)-(iii)

73) On an average ____ of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute.

(1) 1100-1200 ml
(2) 1100-1200 L
(3) 5000 ml
(4) 650 ml

74) On an average, about ____A____ of blood pumped out by each ventricle in ____B____ is filtered by
the kidneys per minute. Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks labelled as A & B.

(1)
a- ; B - cardiac cycle

(2)
a- ; B - one minute

(3)
a- ; B - one minute
(4)
a- ; B - cardiac cycle

75) Glomerular filtration rate is :-

(1) Amount of blood filtered by kidneys in an hour.

(2) Amount of filtrate formed by kidneys per minute.
(3) Only decreased by action of JGA.
(4) About 125 L/minute

76) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) & the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- Filtrate gets diluted as it moves upwards in ascending limb of loop of henle.
Reason (R) :- Ascending limb is impermeable to water but allow transport of electrolytes actively or
passively.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :-

(1) A is correct but R is not correct.

(2) A is not correct but R is correct.
(3) Both A & R are correct & R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A & R are correct & R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

77) Which of the following is incorrect about ANF ?

(1) It inhibits RAAS

(2) Increases urine formation
(3) Stimulates adrenal gland to secrete aldosterone
(4) Decrease in reabsorption of NaCl

78) In interstitial fluid of kidney there is an increasing osmolarity from cortex to the inner medulla.
This gradient is mainly caused by :-

(1) Na+, K+
(2) NaCl, Urea
–
(3) NaCl, water, HCO3
+ –
(4) Urea, K , HCO3

79) Which of the following excretory structure is found in cephalochordates?

(1) Protonephridia
(2) Nephridia
(3) Malpighian tubule
(4) Antennary gland

80) Minimum reabsorption occurs in which part of nephron?

(1) PCT
(2) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
(3) Descending limb of Henle’s loop
(4) Collecting duct

81) JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in

(1) Distal convoluted tubule

(2) Afferent arteriole
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Efferent arteriole

82) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(I) 1100-1200ml/min (a) remove CO2

(II) 180 Lt/day (b) Urine formation

(III) 25-30gm/day (c) Kidney receive blood

(IV) 200ml/min (d) Urea Excrete out

(V) 1.5Lt/day (e) GFR

(1) I-(c), II-(e), III-(d), IV-(a), V-(b)
(2) I-(e), II-(b), III-(c), IV-(d), V-(a)
(3) I-(a), II-(b), III-(c), IV-(d), V-(e)
(4) I-(e), II-(d), III-(c), IV-(b), V-(a)

83) Match the list-I with list-II –

List-I (Animal) List-II (Excretory structure)

(A) Earth worm (i) Malpighian tubules

(B) Planaria (ii) Green gland

(C) Cockroach (iii) Flame cells

(D) Prawn (iv) Nephridia

(1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
(2) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

84) Given below are two statements –

Statement-I : In the nephron, the ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water but allows
transport of electrolytes actively or passively.
Statement-II : The PCT is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and decreases surface
area for reabsorption.
(1) Both statements are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

85) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Proximal convoluted tubule helps to maintain the PH and ionic balance of the body
fluids by selective secretion of hydrogen ions and ammonia into the filtrate and by absorption of
from it.
Statement-II : DCT is capable of reabsorption of and selective secretion of hydrogen and
potassium ions and NH3 to maintain the PH and sodium potassium balance in blood.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is in correct
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

86) Which of the following diagrams is not correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D)
tubule of the Nephron.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

87) Which of the following is not reabsorb through PCT?

(1) Essential nutrients

(2) Electrolytes
(3) Water
(4) Urea

88) Read the following statements:-

(a) The cortex extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal coloumns called coloumns of
bertini.
(b) Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule is called the Malpighian body or renal corpuscle.
(c) In cortical Nephrons the loop of Henle is very long and runs deep into medulla.
(d) G.F.R. in a healthy individual is approximately 125 ml/minute.
(e) Reabsorption is maximum in ascending limb of loop of Henle.
Choose the correct options:-

(1) b, c and d
(2) c, d and e
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, b and c

89) Read column-I, II & III and identify their correct match :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Causes reabsorption
Released from the of Na+ and water
(A) ADH (P) (i)
adrenal cortex from distal parts of
the tubule

Facilitates water
Released from the reabsorption from
(B) Renin (Q) (ii)
atria of the heart latter parts of the
renal tubule

Cause vasodilation
Released from the and thereby
(C) Aldosterone (R) (iii)
neurohypophysis decreases the blood
pressure

Converts
Released from the
(D) ANF (S) (iv) angiotensinogen in
JG cells
blood to angiotensin-I
(1) (A)-(R)-(i), (B)-(S)-(iii), (C)-(P)-(iv), (D)-(Q)-(ii)
(2) (A)-(Q)-(iii), (B)-(R)-(iv), (C)-(P)-(ii), (D)-(S)-(i)
(3) (A)-(S)-(ii), (B)-(R)-(iv), (C)-(P)-(i), (D)-(Q)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(R)-(ii), (B)-(S)-(iv), (C)-(P)-(i), (D)-(Q)-(iii)

90) Read the following statements :-

(a) Dialysis fluid contains all the constituents as in plasma except nitrogenous wastes.
(b) ADH helps in water elimination, making the urine hypotonic.
(c) Protein-free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman's capsule.
(d) Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule.
(e) Descending limb of Henle's loop is impermeable to water whereas the ascending limb is
permeable to it.
Choose the option with correct statements :

(1) (a), (b) & (c)

(2) (b), (c) & (e)
(3) (a), (c) & (d)
(4) (a), (b) & (d)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 2 4 4 1 1 2 1 4 1 2 4 2 2 4 3 2 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 4 1 1 1 4 3 1 2 1 2 3 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 2 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 4 1 3 4 1 3 1 3 2 1 3 2 2 3 2 4 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 3 3 1 3 4 3 1 1 4 1 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 1 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 3 3 1 2 3 4 4 4 4 3 3 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 2 3 3 3 1 2 1 3 1 3 4 2 4 4 2 3 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 3 3 3 4 4 2 2 1 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 2 1 3 3 3 1 2 2 2 3 1 3 2 3 3 2 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 1 4 1 3 4 3 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Here, the work done by surface tension force is being converted into gravitational potential
energy and heat.
so WFs = Ug + heat
⇒ (2πr) (T) × (h) = mg h/2 + heat {h/2 because of P. E. of com.}

get heat evolved =

2) coefficient of viscosity

× 10–3 Pa-s

3)

3m = 6
m=2

4) Here, the centre of mass of the system does not move in horizontal direction when the mass
m moved a distance L cos θ, let the mass (m + M) moves a distance x in the backward
direction.
∴ (M + m) x – mL cos θ = 0
∴ x = (mL cosθ) / (m + M)

5) Velocity of first body after collision is :-

=
6)

7)
Total distance = h + 2e2h + 2e4h + ....
= h + 2e2h(1 + e2 + e4+...)

8)

vsin45° = V'sinθ .......... (1)

evcos45° = V'cosθ ............(2)
By (1) & (2)

9)
Component of velocity parallel to wall i.e.y- component remains unchanged Also, component of
velocity perpendicular to the wall becomes e times

10) The moment of inertia about both given axis shall be same if they are parallel. Hence
statement-1 is false.
 0

11) I = ICM + Md2

= iCM + M ⇒ ICM = MR2

12)
By conservation of energy

mv2 = mg(r – h) .....(1)

as block leaves contact at B,
so normal reaction at B = 0

∴ = mg cos θ ⇒ = mg ×
2
⇒ mv = mgh substitute this in eqn (1) we get

= mg(r – h)

or r= h ⇒ h= r

13)

Tmax – mg =

⇒ Tmax = mg +

= mg + = 7mg
Tmin = 7mg – 6 mg = mg

14)

Tension at the bottom TB​ = ​ + mg

Tension at the top TT​ = ​ – 5mg

vB ​=
Tension at the bottom TB​ = 9mg
Tension at the top TT​ = 3mg

15) From conservation of mechanical energy

mv2 =

Where R = maximum distance from centre of the earth Also v =

⇒R= Re

⇒h = R–Re =

16)

According to the question, the gravitational force between the planet and the star is

∴
where M and m be masses of star and planet respectively. For motion of a planet in a circular
orbit,

or

17)

ΔU = (PE)at height h – (PE)Surface

18)

Let area of ellipse = A

By Kepler's second law,
3t2 = t1.

19)

Total energy of surface = Total energy at h height

From the center

20)
mg = 144

21)

mgh = mV2 + Iω2

mgh = mr2ω2 + Iω2

ω=

22) = mgh

[Link] > [Link]

hRing > hDisk

23) Kinetic energy of particle

...(i)
and angular momentum, L = mvr
so,

putting v in (i),

so,

24)

v – ωr = 2
v = ωr + 2

v=
v = 3 m/s

25) r1α1 = r2 α2
20 × 1.57 = 30 × α2

α2 = rad/s2

t=

26) Torque = Force × perpendicular distance from the reference point

τ = mg

= mg

= mu2 sinθ cosθ

27) I = 2.4 kgm2, K.E. Rot. = 750 J

α = 5 rad/s2 ω0 = 0 rad s–1

K.E. = Iω2; ω = αt

28)
Angular Momentum conservation
I1ω1 = I2ω2 M = same

⇒ R2 = 2R1
I ∝ r2

But I2 = 4 I1

So T2 = 4T1 = 4 × 27
⇒ T2 = 108 days

29)

from conservation of angular momentum about P-

30) Force equilibrium equation:

Torque equilibrium equation (taking torques about one end, say A):

Calculation
From torque equilibrium about point A:

Using force equilibrium equation:

31)

Assertion is true but reason is false.

As no torque is applied, angular momentum remains constant
I1ω1 = I2ω2

∴
Now, Clearly, if moment of inertia decreases, KE of rotation
increases and vice-versa.

32) • Incompressible liquids are defined as liquids that have no change in volume when
pressure is applied, i.e., their volume remains constant under force. This is a defining
characteristic of incompressibility.
• The bulk modulus B is defined as the ratio of the change in pressure ΔP to the fractional

change in volume ⇒

• If the volume of a substance does not change when pressure is applied (i.e., = 0)

then B = =∞
Thus the Bulk Modulus of an incompressible liquid is infinity because there is no change in
volume.

33) (For water drops), R = n1/3r

(For soap bubbles of same thickness), R = n1/2r

34)

Energies of a satellite revolving around the earth at height 'h' above the earth surface is :-

TE = KE + PE = –

and orbital velocity,

35)

Torque on earth about sun is always zero hence its is constant. The areal velocity is a measure
of angular momentum of earth. The areal velocity is constant due to torque being zero and not
due to torque being constant. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a
correct explanation for Statement-1.

36)

→ max for L =100 cm & r = 0.2 mm

37)

1 atm = 105 pascal (approx)

38) As length of both wires increases by same amount
Δℓ1 = Δℓ2

39)

w = 0.1 J

40) or

Again, or

41)
APvP = AQvQ

or or vP = 4 vQ

42)

Range of a liquid, x =

but, h =

= =
 43) W = T × ΔA
2 × 10–4 = T × [2×(10×6 – 8 × 3.75) × 10–4]

T= = 3.3 × 10–2 N/m

44)
Mass per unit length = λ
dM = λdx
dF = dM ω2 x

F=

= =
OR

We can assume whole of the mass at centre of mass which is at distance from axis of rotation

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) (I.E.)H = – (E1)H = x

E ∝ Z2 ΔE = E6 – E3

47)

Question Explanation:
The question asks: for a d-subshell (l = 2) with principal quantum number n = 5 and
magnetic quantum number m = 0, how many electrons can be associated?

Concept:

A. For a given subshell (d → l = 2), the magnetic quantum number (m) can have 5 values:
−2, −1, 0, +1, +2.

B. Each m value represents one orbital, and each orbital can hold 2 electrons (with spins
+½ and −½).
Solution:

Since m = 0 corresponds to only one orbital, it can have 2 electrons regardless of n.

Final Answer: Option (1)

48)

= Rz2
(n1 = 2, n2 = 2 + 3 = 5)

49)

En = –2.18 × 10–18 × J

For He+ ⇒ E1 = –2.18 × 10–18 × J

–18
= –8.72 × 10 J

For Li2+ ⇒ E1 = –2.18 × 10–18 × J

–18
= –19.62 × 10 J

rn = 52.9 × pm

For He+ ⇒ r1 = 52.9 × pm = 26.4 pm

For Li2+ ⇒ r1 = 52.9 × pm = 17.6 pm

50)

Explain Question : Match the following column.

Concept : This question is based on energy of electron in bohr's orbit.

Solution :
Formula :
Energy of an electron in a hydrogen like atom : E = –13.6 (Z2/n2) eV.
Potential Energy (PE): PE = –2 E
Kinetic Energy (KE) : KE = –E
(A) Energy of ground state of He+
For He+ (Z = 2) in the ground state (n=1) : E1 = –13.6 (22/12) = –54.4 ev (iv)
(B) Potential energy of I orbit of H-atom
For H (Z = 1) in the first orbit (n = 1): E1 = –13.6 (12/12) = –13.6 eV, PE = 2 E1 = –27.2 eV (ii)
(C) Kinetic energy of II excited state of He+
For He+ (z = 2) in the II excited state (n = 3); E3 = –13.6 (22/32) –6.04 eV KE = –E3 = +6.04
eV (i)
(D) Ionisation potential of He+

Ionization potential is the energy required to remove an electron from the ground state.
For He+ (Z = 2) : E1 = –54.4 eV Ionization potential = –E1 = 54.4 eV
Convert eV to Joules : Ionization potential = 54.4 eV × 1.602 × 10–19 J/eV 8.72 × 10–18J (iii)

Final Answer : option (3) A→(iv), B → (ii), C→(i), D→(iii)

51) (I.E.)He = 13.6 × 4 = 54.4 eV

+

∴ required energy = 54.4 + 24.6 = 79 eV

52)

λ = 6.6 × 10–34 m

53)

Explanation

A. de-Broglie wavelength of SO2 molecule if it travels with the velocity of 0.01 m/sec.

Concept

A. The de Broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle is related to its momentum (p) by the
equation: λ=h/p, where h is Planck's constant.

B. Momentum (p) is the product of mass (m) and velocity (v): p=mv.

Given Data

A. Velocity (v) = 0.01 m/s

B. Molecular weight of SO2 = 64 g/mol

C. Planck's constant (h) = 6.626×10−34 J s

 D. Avogadro's number (NA​) = 6.022×1023 molecules/mol

Calculation

A. Calculate the mass of a single SO2 molecule:

A. Mass of one mole of SO2 = 64 g = 0.064 kg

B. Mass of one SO2 molecule (m) = (0.064 kg) / (6.022×1023)

C. m=1.06277×10−25 kg

B. Calculate the momentum (p) of the SO2 molecule:

A. p=mv

B. p=(1.06277×10−25 kg)×(0.01 m/s)

C. p=1.06277×10−27 kg m/s

C. Calculate the de Broglie wavelength (λ):

A. λ=h/p

B. λ=(6.626×10−34 J s)/(1.06277×10−27 kg m/s)

C. λ=6.234×10−7 m

Answer option 3, (6×10−7 m).

54) Question Explanation : uncertainity is position

Concept : He i senberg priniple

Solution :

Δx = 26 × 10–9m
= 26 nm
Final answer : option (1)

55)

Explain Question :
Find ratio of revolution times for electrons in orbits of radii R and 4R in a H-like atom.
Concept :
This question is based on time period in Bohr’s model: T ∝ r3/2
Solution :

=
So ratio T1 : T2 = 1 : 8
Final answer : option (3)

56)
A = 56, D = 72
B = 89 C = 104

0
57) Configuration of 95Am → [Rn]86 5f7 6d 7s2

58) order of EGE - [Cl > F > Br > I]

59)

X is F and 'Y' is Cl

60)

C < Si < Ge (size order) not related to lanthanoid contraction.

61)

N+ = 1s2 2s2 2p2

O+ = 1s2 2s2 2p3

62)

'B' is amphoteric oxide

'A' is acidic & 'C' is basic oxide

63) Successive electron gain enthalpies is always positive.

O¯ has higher positive value of electron gain enthalpy than S¯ m because more energy
required to overcome the electronic repulsion between small sized O¯ ion and the incoming
electron.

64)

XeF4 = Square planar

65)

(i) = Ne, (ii) = Na, (iii) F, (iv) = O

66)

2nd IP order B+ > C+

2s2 2p1

67)

NCERT Pg. # 98

68)

NCERT Pg. # 116

69)

Second period contains

2S, 2P total 4 orbitals.

70)

'2' option belongs to f-block

71)

In d-block, last electron enters d-subshell

72)

Mn+7 > Mn+4 > Mn+2 (order of EN)

73) EXPLANATION:- formal charge on each oxygen atom equal to −1/4

Concept Used: Formal charge
 SOLUTION:- ClO₄⁻ (perchlorate ion)

• Total charge = –1
• 4 equivalent O atoms (due to resonance)
Formal charge=−1/4

Final Answer : Option (3)

74)

Question Explanation: Identify molecules showing hybridisation in their ground state (not
excited).

Concept: Hybridisation.

Solution:

A. BCl₃: B (1s² 2s² 2p¹) → needs excitation → hybridisation in excited state

B. NH₃: N (1s² 2s² 2p³) → already has 3 unpaired + 1 lone pair → hybridises in ground state
C. PCl₃: P (3s² 3p³) → same as N → ground state hybridisation
D. BeF₂: Be (1s² 2s²) → needs excitation → hybridisation in excited state

Final Answer: Option (3)

75)

Polar molecule ⇒ µ ≠ 0
Planar molecule is which lies in same plane

76) [Link]. = σ + ℓ.P.

5 = 2 +(a = 3)
(b = 5) = 4 + 1
6 = 4 + (c = 2)
(d = 5) = 3 + 2

77)

NCERT Pg. # 120

78)

NCERT Pg. # 119

79) max bond angle

 80)

excitation is not possible in 'O'

81)

Molecule which lies in same plane

82)

intermolecular forces

83)

Bond energy decrease down the group as size increases

84) Valency remains constant in a group.

85)

Acidic nature of Non metal hydride ∝ bond length

86)

AgI is most covalent due to polarisation

87)

isostructural molecules have same shape

88)

sp3d involves orbital

89)

HOMO for C2 molecule is π 2px & π 2py

90)

BF3 is lewis acid

BIOLOGY
91)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 20,88

Question Explanation: Exceptions to cell theory

Concept: Viruses lack cell structure

Solution: The Cell Theory states that all living things are made of cells and cell products.
Viruses are acellular (lack cellular structure) and are essentially nucleic acid enclosed in a
protein coat.
They can only reproduce inside a host cell, so they are not considered true living organisms in
the cellular sense.

Final Answer: Option 3-Viruses

92)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95, 96

Explain Question: The question asks which part of the Golgi body is responsible for
packaging and secretion of molecules.
Concept : This question is based on Golgi apparatus
Explanation : The Golgi apparatus has two faces:
Cis face (forming face) – Faces the ER, receives newly synthesized proteins/lipids.
Trans face (maturing face) – Faces the plasma membrane, where packaging, sorting, and
secretion occur via vesicles.
Final answer : 3 – Trans or maturing face

93)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 88
Question Explanation :
Identify the structures that are present in plant cells but absent in animal cells.

Concept :
This question is based on plant vs Animal cell.

Solution :
Large central vacuole with tonoplast (animal cells usually have many small vacuoles).

Final Answer : Option (1) Large central vacuole, plastid and cell wall

94)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

95)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

Given:
 • The cell has 15 bivalents in the zygotene stage.
Step-by-step analysis:
1. Understanding Bivalents:

A. A bivalent consists of two homologous chromosomes paired together during meiosis I

(zygotene stage).
B. Since there are 15 bivalents, this means there are: 15x2=30 chromosomes.
15x2=30 chromosomes.

2. Kinetochores in a Cell:

A. Each chromosome has one centromere, and each centromere has two kinetochores (one
per chromatid).
B. Since there are 30 chromosomes, the total number of kinetochores is:
.

Answer: Option 2 (60).

96)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 127

The correct answer is:
2. Anaphase-I
Explanation:
The statement describes the key event of Anaphase-I in Meiosis-I, where:

A. Homologous chromosomes separate and move towards opposite poles. This process is called
disjunction.
B. Sister chromatids remain attached at their centromeres, unlike mitosis, where sister
chromatids separate during anaphase.

Why not the other options?

1. Prophase-I - Homologous chromosomes pair up (synapsis) and undergo crossing over but do not
separate yet.
2. Metaphase-I - Homologous chromosome pairs align at the metaphase plate but haven't separated.
3. Telophase-I - This is the stage after separation, where chromosomes reach opposite poles and
nuclear membranes may reform.
Since Anaphase-I is the phase where homologous chromosomes separate while sister chromatids
remain together, option 2 is correct.

97)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96, 97

98)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

99)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123

100)

Module

101)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

102) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123

103)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

105) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

106) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96,98,100

108)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96,97

109) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100,123

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

111)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 120,121

112)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 124

113) NCERT XI Pg # 126

114)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

115) NCERT-XI Pg. # 126

116) NCERT-XI Pg. # 121,122

117) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

118) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93, 94

119) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 98, 99

120) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

121) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99, 100

122) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95,96,98,100

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

124) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95, 96

125) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100

126)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 109

127) NCERT-XI, Pg.#110

128) NCERT-XI Pg # 117

129)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 112, 115

130)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 111, 112

 A. A-III (Primary structure = Polypeptide chain)
B. B-IV (Secondary structure = Alpha helix and β sheet)
C. C-II (Tertiary structure = Disulphide bonds) D-I (Quaternary structure = Human haemoglobin)

The correct answer is 2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

131) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 117

132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 116, 117

133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 117, 118

134)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 107

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 106

136) NCERT Pg.#195.

137)

NCERT Pg. No. # 282

138) NCERT Page No. # 199/200

139) NCERT Pg. No. 196

140) NCERT Pg.# No.194, 195

141) NCERT Pg. # 199

142) NCERT Pg.#201, 202.

143) NCERT Pg. # 199

144) NCERT Pg. No. # 196

145) NCERT Pg.#194-195.

146)
NCERT Pg. No. # 285

147) Module

148) NCERT Pg.#196.

149) NCERT Pg # 202

150) NCERT Pg. # 190

151) NCERT Pg. No. # 190

152) NCERT Pg. No. # 190

153) NCERT Pg. No. # 186

154) NCERT Pg. No. # 190

155) NCERT Pg. No. # 190

156) NCERT Pg. # 185

157) NCERT Pg. # 275

158) NCERT, Pg. # 187

159) NCERT Page No. 185, 186

160) NCERT Page No. 191

161) NCERT Pg.#186

162) NCERT Pg.#186.

163)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 208

164) NCERT, Pg. # 208

165) NCERT, Pg. # 209

166) NCERT, Pg. # 209

167) NCERT, Pg. # 212

168) NCERT, Pg. # 211

169) NCERT Pg # 206

170) NCERT Pg # 209

171) NCERT Pg # 209

172) NCERT_Pg. No. 294

173) NCERT Pg.#206.

174) NCERT Pg.#209.

175) NCERT, Pg. # 209

176) NCERT, Pg. # 210

177) NCERT, Pg. # (E)-209, (H)-209

178) NCERT XI Page No. # 206, 207, 208, 209

179) NCERT XIth Pg.# 212.

180) NCERT XIth Pg.# 208,209,212,214.