BASIC IELTS

READING
 Unit 1 – IELTS Reading Question Types
1. Multiple Choice Questions
2. Short-Answer Questions
3. Sentence-Completion Questions
4. Note/Summary/Diagram/Flow Chart/Table-Completion Questions
5. Choosing from a Heading Bank for Identified Paragraphs/Sections of a Passage
6. Identification of Writer's Viewpoints/Claims and Information in a Passage-Yes/No Not Given; True/False/Not
Given
7. Classification
8. Matching Lists/Phrases
1. Multiple-Choice Questions: Example - Survival
The main elements required for survival are food, fire, shelter and water. Their order of importance will
depend upon where you happen to be. In the desert water will head the list; in polar regions shelter and fire will be
the main concerns. Ordering your priorities is the first step to survival.
It takes a healthy person quite a long time to die of starvation, for the body can use up its stored resources,
but exposure to wind, rain and cold can be fatal even in mild climates and death comes in only minutes in the icy
waters of the poles. Food is rarely the first priority. Even in those places where it is difficult to find, there are usually
other problems to face first. Shelter will often be the prime necessity in extremes of climate or temperatures such as
in the frozen polar regions or in the baking deserts. The need for fire is closely linked.
Water is something that most people in the modern world take for granted. They are so used to turning on a
tap that until an extreme drought causes water rationing they seldom think about it. Yet the survivor at sea, or after a
flood, though surrounded by water, may be desperate for drinkable water. And there are many places where, unless
it rains, no obvious water is available. Although there could be other survival necessities to deal with, water is always
universally important.
Questions 1-4: Read the passage and answer the following multiple-choice questions by circling the letter of the
correct answer.
1. The factor which decides the order of importance or the main elements required for survival is
A. your health. B. your location. C. your job. D. your strength
2. The basic need that may NOT be equally important as the others in extremely cold places is
A. water. B. shelter. C. fire. D. none of the above
3. Fire is described as
A. universally B. being taken for C. the prime D. closely linked
important. granted. necessity. with shelter.
4. According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Exposure to wind B. People may die C. Looking for food D. Survivors after a
is not dangerous in quickly in the water is the first thing to flood won't need
mild climates. of polar regions. do most of the time. water for drinking
2. Short-Answer Questions: Example - The Peace Corps
On March 1, 1961, President John F. Kennedy issued an order creating the Peace Corps. Its mission was to
promote world peace and friendship by providing qualified volunteers to interested countries. Today it sends an
average of 6,000 U.S. citizens abroad each year. Volunteers live at a local level in their host countries. They are paid
in local currency. Each month they receive a small sum of money that covers basic living expenses, and varies with
the local economy. For example, volunteers in Micronesia make the equivalent of $300 per month, while those in
Turkmenistan make $75. Most volunteers live with host families. This is a great chance to learn the language and the
culture. For each month that they spend overseas, volunteers receive a sum of about $200. This money helps them to
get back on their feet in the United States. Serving countries all over the world, the Peace Corps lives up to its promise
as "the toughest job you'll ever love." Volunteers do everything from teaching English to sharing tips on growing
food to providing preventive health care. However, the application process to become a Peace Corps volunteer is
very competitive. You must be a U.S. citizen, at least eighteen years old, in good health, and willing to serve for two
years. Nearly all volunteers have a bachelor's degree in their chosen field, and about 18 percent have their master's
or doctorate degrees. Knowing a language, especially French and Spanish, helps.
Questions 1-5: Read the passage The Peace Corps and answer the following questions with NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS taken from the passage.
1. What kind of U.S. citizens does the Peace Corps send abroad to fulfil its mission? ……………………………….
2. What does the monthly payment in local currency to volunteers cover? ……………………………….
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 3. Whom do the volunteers stay with in their host countries? ……………………………….
4. What is the shortest time that volunteers can work for the Peace Corps? ……………………………….
5. Which languages are given as an example of what can benefit volunteers? ……………………………….
3. Sentence-Completion Questions: Example - Solar Collector
Solar collectors absorb heat from the sun's rays. They can be used to effectively heat and cool buildings.
The most common type of collector for space heating is a flat plate designed to absorb both radiation falling
directly on it, as well as radiation scattered by the atmosphere. Collectors are usually panels of aluminium, copper,
or steel. The panels are usually painted black. The black colouring inhibits reflection and encourages absorption.
Insulation is placed behind the collector to prevent heat loss. The collector is covered with glass or plastic. This
layer allows short-wave radiation - or light - to enter the collector. As the radiation passes through the glass or
plastic, it is transformed from short-wave radiation to long-wave radiation - or heat. Long-wave radiation cannot
pass through the glass or plastic back into the atmosphere. Therefore, the heat is trapped within the collector.
Collectors are usually placed at an angle to maximise the amount of radiation falling on them.
A transfer agent (air or water) is circulated through the collector and becomes heated. As it leaves
the collector and travels through the heating ducts of a house, it warms the air inside the house or brings
hot water to sinks, tubs, and appliances. With solar collectors, storage is a problem: great amounts of heat
must be stored for night time use and for use during cloudy days.
Questions 1-5: Refer to the passage Solar Collector and choose from the passage NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS to complete the following sentences.
1. Solar collectors can heat and cool houses with heat absorbed from ……………………………….
2. Collectors are coloured black to prevent ……………………………….
3. Glass and plastic are used to cover the collector so that short-wave radiation can ……………………………….
4. The glass or plastic cover on the collector helps to trap the ……………………………….
5. For night time and cloudy days, heat needs to be ……………………………….
4. Note/Summary/Diagram/Flow Chart/Table-Completion Questions:
Example - How to Borrow Books
Most libraries require you to register before you are allowed to borrow any of their materials. This means
you will probably be asked to fill out and sign a registration card. When you do this, you are not only giving the
library your name and address for their files, you are also signing an agreement. The agreement says, basically, that
you will obey the rules of the library. A parent or guardian is sometimes also required to sign the card.
To be entitled to use your school library, you probably must only be enrolled in that school. Once you are
registered, you will be issued a library or borrower's card. On this card will be your name and a number. Each time
you check out, that is, officially borrow something from the library, you will have to present this card to the
librarian. If your library is large enough, it may have film equipment that you may borrow. To do so, however, the
library usually requires a separate registration. You may also have to take and pass a course the library gives on
how to operate the different pieces of equipment.
You usually check out and return borrowed materials at the same desk. The sign on this desk may read
Circulation Desk, Check Out Here, or perhaps Charge Desk. The library staff member at this desk will take your
card and stamp the book card with a date. This is the date by which you are expected to return the material to the
library, so others can have the chance of borrowing it. Many libraries allow you to renew the book if it has not been
requested by others.
Some libraries charge a fine for each day a library book is overdue, kept out beyond the date stamped on
the book card. There are also often fines for books returned damaged or written in. Should you lose a library book,
you may be required to pay the library the amount it was worth. Not paying fines could result in your losing all
library privileges.
Questions 1-6: Complete the summary below by choosing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Most libraries require you to register before you borrow any books. First of all, you will need to fill out and
sign 1. ………………………………. and while doing so, you are also 2. ………………………………. with the library. Later
each time you check out, you will have to present a library card to the librarian. In some libraries, you will be
required to make a separate registration if you want to borrow 3. ………………………………. and at the same time, you
will have to take and 4. ………………………………. on how to operate the equipment. When you borrow library books,
the librarian will put a 5. ………………………………. on the book card so that you know when to return them. If you
want to keep the books longer, you can 6. ………………………………. it if nobody requests them.

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5. Choosing from a Heading Bank for Identified Paragraphs/Sections of a
Passage: Example - The Cancer-Prone Personality
Paragraph A: One of the reasons scientists think that there is a link between stress and cancer is the idea
that there may be a cancer-prone personality. The cancer-prone personality consists of a set of personality traits that
are found more frequently in people who have cancer than in those who do not.
Paragraph B: What personality traits make up the cancer-prone personality? Most often, people who are
polite, unaggressive, and agreeable are said to have this type of personality. They seem to have trouble showing
when they are angry. Even in situations in which they should be angry, they appear to be calm and happy.
Paragraph C: When faced with a stressful event, people with the cancer-prone personality do not show
stress outwardly. Instead, they keep their emotions bottled inside. They repress, or hide, their emotions, even from
themselves.
Paragraph D: The cancer-prone personality is linked to the likelihood of getting cancer, and the same
personality traits seem to help affect a cancer victim's recovery. For example, some studies have looked at cancer
patients who accept the cancer without getting angry. These patients get sick faster and they die sooner than people
who became angry at their cancer and fight the disease.
Paragraph E: However, it is important to keep in mind that some scientists interpret these research
findings differently. First of all, not everyone who has a cancer-prone personality gets cancer. And not everyone
who has cancer has a cancer-prone personality. Even more important, there is no proof that having a cancer-prone
personality causes cancer. In fact, it may be the other way around: getting cancer may cause people to develop a
cancer-prone personality.
Questions 1-5: The reading passage The Cancer-Prone Personality has 5 paragraphs A-E. Choose the most
suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (I-VII). There
are more headings than you can use
I – Get angry, live longer IV – Which one causes which?
II – Nothing to see on the surface V – Who is likely to get cancer?
III – Try to overcome anger VI – Why join stress and cancer?
VII – Scientists agree
Paragraph A Paragraph B Paragraph C Paragraph D Paragraph E
6. Identification of Writer's Viewpoints/Claims and Information in a Passage
(Yes/No/Not Given; True/False/Not Given): Friends of the Earth Trust
Friends of the Earth Trust is an educational charity set up to help people of all ages become aware of the
threats to our environment. Pollution is just one of these. The destruction of wildlife and wasting our natural
resources are others. In Britain, the countryside is disappearing or being destroyed- modern farming, mining,
motorways and power stations are all adding to this destruction. By the year 2010, about half the world's animal
and plant species could be extinct.
Every year a forest the size-of Wales is cut down to make paper for use in Britain. If more people used
recycled paper, fewer trees would be cut down, and there would be less waste to dispose of. Another important
benefit would be the new jobs created in the collection of waste paper. New jobs would also be created if there was
a large programme to save energy in buildings. It is cheaper to save energy than to produce electricity, but vast
amounts of money are spent on nuclear power. From the mining of uranium to the disposal of radioactive waste,
there are a number of threats to the environment. In addition, there are close connections between nuclear power
and nuclear weapons. There are safer sources of energy. Energy could also be saved if more short journeys were
made by bicycle. This would reduce pollution and traffic congestion. Cycleways should be built to make cycling
safer. The threats to our environment are all related. For instance, building cycleways instead of unnecessary new
roads would save energy and reduce pollution and the destruction of our wildlife.
Questions 1-5: Read the passage Friends of the Earth Trust and look at the following statements. Write YES if the
statement agrees with the writer; NO if the statement does not agree with the writer; NOT GIVEN if there is no
information about this in the passage.
1. Friends of the Earth Trust organises lots of activities to help people understand the environmental problems …….
2. The forest cut down every year to make paper in Britain is bigger than the size of Wales is. …………………………….
3. Using recycled paper and saving energy in buildings can both create new jobs. ……………………………….
4. It is more difficult to save energy than to produce it. ……………………………….
5. People can reduce pollution and traffic jams by using more bicycles on short journeys …………………………….

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7. Classification: Example – Shopping at the Supermarket
When you visit a supermarket you probably think you know exactly what you are going to buy, but the truth
is you are very easily persuaded. Over half the decisions you make are made suddenly, on impulse, while you are
inside the store, so it is important that a product is displayed in an eye-catching position if it is to have any chance of
success. Today's supermarkets invest millions of pounds in powerful computers which tell them what product sells
best and where. "Space management" is the name given to a highly complicated way of influencing the way we shop
to make sure that stores make the maximum profit. You walk into a supermarket. You pull out a trolley and stare up
and down row after row of packed shelves. You step out into the aisles. You are faced with possibly the widest choice
of food and drink in the world. But over the next hour or so, you will shop in a completely predictable way. This is
what the space management teams who work for supermarkets have found out. They believe that everything depends
on the following rules about our behaviour in supermarkets. The modern supermarket offers too many images for our
brains to absorb so we switch off and notice only parts of the goods on display. A product will be more noticeable in
some parts of the store than others, so manufacturers and retailers must work hard to attract our Attention.
In general, products sell best when they are placed at eye level. Products placed at the beginnings of aisles
don't sell well. In tests, secret fixed cameras have filmed shoppers' movements around a store over a seven-day period.
When the film is speeded up, it clearly shows that we walk straight past these areas on our way to the centre of the
aisle. These early shelves are known as "the graveyard". When we finally stop to consider in the centre of an aisle,
we look along the length of it. And because we read from left to right, we look from left to right too. So, we see
products displayed on the left side of the aisle first. As a result, more products are taken from those shelves.
Any spot where the supermarket can be sure we are going to stand still and concentrate for more than a few
seconds is good for sales. That is why the shelves at the check-out have long been a favourite for manufacturers of
sweets, perhaps the most popular "impulse" buy of all.
Questions 1-6: Look at the following list of places in supermarkets and use the information provided in the
passage to answer the questions. Write
A. for places where products tend to sell well; 1. shelves which are at the same level as your eyes
B. for places which tend to be neglected by the 2. shelves along the left wall of the supermarket
customers; 3. shelves at the beginning of an aisle
C. for places not mentioned in the passage. 4. left-side shelves in the middle of an aisle
5. shelves by the cashiers
6. shelves along the middle aisle
8. Matching Lists/Phrases: Example - Crowding Human Life
In 1950, there were only 2.5 billion people in the world. Now there are 5.3 billion. Human population may
reach 8.5 billion by the year 2025. Experts disagree about how serious a problem this very fast growth is. And they
disagree about what should be done about it. It could be said that growth is slowing down. Most industrial countries-
Japan, Canada, the United States, and the nations of Europe- are hardly growing at all. In Asia, Mrica, and Latin
America, growth is somewhat slower than it was twenty years ago.
Industrial nations all went through a time of fast growth when their industry was developing. When they
reached the point where most people could live in comfort, population growth slowed. Many experts believe that
today' s developing nations will go through a similar change. The best way to control population, they say, is to raise
the standard of living. Industrial nations are beginning to look for ways to produce goods without the pollution that
is one of the harmful effects of overcrowding. Developing countries will also use such methods if they are to take
care of their people. Educating children everywhere is expensive, but the cost is worthwhile because children will
contribute to their country's development when they are grown. Perhaps children now in school will invent ways to
help people live at peace with the earth.
Questions 1-4: Read the passage above and choose, according to the passage, one phrase (A-F) from the list of
phrases to complete each key point below. There are more phrases than key points, so you will not use them all.
1. By the year of 2025, A. ways to solve the problem of population
2. Experts argue about B. educate the new generation
3. In industrial countries, C. effects of fast growth of population
4. It is worth the cost to D. the population was once growing fast
E. there may be a lot more people in the world
F. produce better products without pollution

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 Common Roots and Affixes
Roots and Affixes Meanings Examples
1. -able, -ible capable of eatable, playable
2. -al relating to national, political
3. -ance, -ence state, action or quality of appearance, difference
4. -an, -ian of or belonging to American, Christian
5. anti- against antislavery, antiwar
6. audi-, audio- connecting with hearing auditor, auditorium
7. auto- by oneself or by itself automatic, autobiography
8. bi- two bicycle, bimonthly
9. bio- of life and living things biology, biography
10. cent-, centi- hundred or hundredth century, centimetre
11. counter- opposite, against countermarch, counterattack
12. dic- say, speak diction, dictate
13. dis- not, negative disagree, dishonest
14. en- put into; cause to be endanger, enrich
15. -en make or cause to be widen, strengthen, shorten
16. -er, -or a person or thing that does an action teacher, actor,
17. -ent, -ant that is or does something different, pleasant
18. -ese nationality or language Chinese, Japanese
19. ex- former ex-wife, ex-student
20. -ful full of; having the qualities of harmful, joyful
21. -fy, -ify make or become purify, terrify, nullify
22. geo- of the earth geology, geography
23. -graph- something written or drawn autograph,
24. -hood state or quality of childhood, livelihood
25. homo- same, like homosexual, homophone
26. il- not, negative, against illegal, illogical
27. im- not, into impossible, import
28. in- not, into incomplete, inhale
29. inter- between, among international, intermediate
30. intra- inside, within intracity, intracompany
31. ir- not, negative irresponsible, irregular
32. -ish having the qualities of; childish,
from the country mentioned Swedish
33. -ism principles or teachings of Buddhism, socialism
34. -ist a person who is skilled in an area artist, scientist
35. -ive, -tive having the nature of effective, sensitive
36. -ize, ise cause to be or become realise, rationalise,
37. kilo- 1000 kilogram, kilometre
38. -less lack of, without careless, helpless
39. -logy, -ology the science or study of psychology, biology
40. -ly in the manner of quickly, quietly
41. mal- bad or badly malpractice, maltreat
42. -ment the action or condition of movement, statement
43. milli- 1000th part of milligram, millimetre
44. mini- very small or short miniskirt, minicab
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 45. mis- bad, wrong or badly, wrongly misfortune, misunderstand
46. mono- one, single monologue, monotonous
47. multi- many multiply, multinational
48. -ness the condition of sadness, illness
49. non- not, lack of nonfiction, non-profit
50. -ous having the nature of joyous, monotonous
51. out- do more than, greater, better outrun, outnumber
52. over- too much overwork, oversleep
53. -phon- sound, voice telephone, phonology
54. -port- carry, movement transport, portable
55. post- after postwar, postgraduate
56. pre- before prewar, pretest
57. re- back, again replay, rewrite
58. semi- half; happening twice semicircle, semiannual
59. -sens- feel sensitive, sensitise
60. -ship the quality or state of friendship, scholarship
61. -spect- look, see spectator, inspect
62. sub- under; less important subzero, subeditor
63. super- over; more than usual supernatural, superpower
64. tele- over a distance television, telegram
65. thermo- related to heat thermometer, thermoplastic
66. -tion, -sion, ion, the action or process of explanation, explosion
67. -ation, -ition, -xion
68. trans- across translate, transplant
69. tri- three tricycle, triangle
70. un- not, negative unfortunate, unfair
71. uni- one, single uniform, unisex
72. under- not enough underworked, undercook
73. vis- see vision, visible
74. -ward, -wards in the direction of downward, northward
75. -y in the condition of rainy, cloudy

Unit 2 – Passage one: Emergency Fire Procedures

Rowne Plaza, Los Angeles Airport
• If you detect a fire, call emergency, 1999, and the Fire Department, 9+911. Engage the fire alarm, alert other guests,
and exit the building.
• If a fire is detected inside the room, exit the room immediately, close the door, and activate the nearest emergency
alarm. Notify in-house personnel by dialling 1999 and the Fire Department at 911.
• If you are alerted to fire in the building, make sure it is safe to leave your room. Check for heavy smoke. Once you
have determined it is safe, take your room key and proceed to the exit nearest to you.
• If it is not safe to leave your room, fill your bathtub and other containers with water. Block all openings, such as
vents and under the door, with wet towels. This will prevent fumes from entering your room. Call the hotel staff,
informing them of your location.
• If smoke already exists in your room, hold a wet towel over your mouth and stay low.
• Do not break any windows unless absolutely necessary. This will only worsen the situation.
• Do not try to exit by use of the elevators.
It is important to remember that in any emergency situations your ability to STAY CALM during the evacuation
process is the key to success

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Exercise 1 - Word Use: Decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in
the sentence and write down the corresponding letter.
1. If you detect a fire, call emergency, 1999, and the Fire Department, 9+911.
A. see B. hear C. both of the above
2. If a fire is detected inside the room, exit the room immediately, close the door, and activate the nearest
emergency alarm.
A. run fast to B. shake with all might C. bring into use
3. Once you have determined it is safe, take your room key and proceed to the exit nearest to you.
A. check carefully B. move forward to C. look for
4. Block all openings, such as vents and under the door, with wet towels.
A. holes that smoke can come through
B. places that can hold back water C. places that can block the smoke

Exercise 2 - Multiple-Choice & Sentence-Completion Questions: Choose one answer from the choices
given or complete the following sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the passage.
5. Which one of the following steps may NOT be correct when the hotel you stay in is on fire?
A. Activate the emergency alarm. D. Take the room key.
B. Run to the nearest elevator.
C. Block the space between the floor and the door. E. Fill the sink with water

6. When you decide it is safe to leave your room, run quickly to the nearest ……………………………….
7. When you don't feel it is safe to leave the room, call the hotel staff to tell them about ……………………………….
8. If you detect heavy smoke in your room, cover your mouth with ……………………………….
9. Unless necessary it is not suggested to ……………………………….
10. The key to success in all emergency situations is ……………………………….
Unit 2 – Passage two Out of the Wild, into Our Homes
Many of the earth's creatures die because of choices humans make. These choices have nothing to do with
food or shelter or anything else that helps humans survive. What kills these millions of animals from all over the
world is human greed - the desire for money. People use parts of animals for everything from hats to handbags,
from ornamental jewellery and ashtrays to powders that supposedly improve a person's life. Declaring a species
endangered and protecting it by laws is not always enough. Poachers, people who kill wildlife illegally, rarely get
caught.
During the late 1980s, saving elephants became a popular cause. Wildlife protection groups made sure
everyone saw pictures or films of elephants with their faces sawed off for their ivory tusks. These groups also
proved that certain populations of elephants were dwindling. As a result, most people stopped buying objects made
of ivory. Laws against poaching were strengthened. Many countries made bringing ivory in from other countries
illegal. Killing elephants for their ivory became more risky and less profitable.
However, concern for a certain species tends to fade after a while. In the late 1970s, people protested
against the slaughter of seal pups. Everyone was shocked at the sight of pups being clubbed to death in their icy
habitat. The brutality came to a halt. But ten years later, the number of seal pups killed was higher than ever.
Other animal protection movements have come and gone, such as saving the whales and protecting
dolphins from the tuna fishermen. The whale population appears to have increased for now. And the laws are
finally changing in the United States to protect the dolphins that swim with tuna fish in parts of the Pacific Ocean.
In the 2010s, the protests and the publicity will probably turn to some other endangered species. Plenty of
them urgently need attention. During this time, will the elephants be forgotten?
Exercise 1 Word Use:
1. Declaring a species endangered and protecting it by laws is not always enough.
A. in danger B. out of danger C. causing danger
2. These groups also proved that certain populations of elephants were dwindling.
A. becoming more B. becoming smaller C. becoming weaker
3. However, concern for a certain species tends to fade after a while.
A. strengthen B. disappear C. change
4. Everyone was shocked at the sight of pups being clubbed to death in their icy habitat.
A. shot B. kicked C. beaten
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Exercise 2 Short-Answer Questions: Read the passage Out of the Wild, into Our Homes and answer the following
questions with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the passage.
5. According to the passage, what do people use to make things that people think can improve their lives? …………….
6. What do people kill elephants and cut their faces off for? ……………………………….
7. What animal is mentioned after elephants as a victim of humans? ……………………………….
8. Whom do some animal protection movements want to protect dolphins from? ……………………………….
Exercise 3: True/False/Not Given Questions:
9. Many of the animals on Earth die because humans have to survive. ……………………………….
10. It is normally enough when an animal species is declared endangered and protected by laws. ………………………….
11. People who kill animals illegally often get away without being caught. ……………………………….
12. Wildlife protection groups proved that the number of some elephant species is decreasing. ………………………….
13. Poachers are severely punished if they kill the endangered species such as elephants. ……………………………….
14. In the late 1980s, people killed more seal pups than they did in the late 1970s. ……………………………….
15. The whale population is finally increasing because of stricter laws. ……………………………….
16. In the 2010s, people may not be so concerned about elephants as before. ……………………………….
Unit 3 – Passage one: What Is Happening to Our Planet?
Sometimes humans kill animals indirectly. Few places on the planet are untouched by humans. The ever-
increasing human population needs more space. Industries use more and more of the Earth's natural resources. The
result: in less than one hundred years, as many as two hundred known species of birds and mammals have vanished.
How? Many natural habitats are disappearing. The Earth's rainforests are being destroyed, along with their
inhabitants. Toxic wastes, air pollution, and radiation take terrible tolls on wildlife. Changes in the planet's ozone
layer and in its climate threaten all animals, including humans.
In 1977, President Jimmy Carter asked for an official study of the environment. What, he asked, would our
planet be like in the year 2000 if present trends continue? This study was done by several U.S. government
departments at the direction of Dr. Gerald Barney. Published in 1980, the Global 2000 Report to the President
provided startling warnings & predictions about the fate of the Earth if we do not make changes in the way we treat
it. The report predicted, among other things, that "between half a million and 2 million species - 15 to 20 percent of
all species on earth- could be extinguished by the year 2000." It warned of more hardship for the Earth's human
inhabitants as well- more starvation, for example. This report strongly urged the government to take immediate
action. It gave recommendations for change. But by the time the study was completed, Ronald Reagan had been
elected president and his administration ignored the report.
The 1980s were not a good decade for the environment. It is likely that a global report now would be even
bleaker than the one published after the 1970s. Many environmentalists wonder if we can stop the destruction of
our planet before it is too late. When, they ask, will humans realise that they are not meant to be masters of the
Earth, only one of its guests?
Exercise 1 Word Use: Decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the
sentence and write down the corresponding letter.
1. The result: in less than one hundred years, as many as two hundred known species of birds
and mammals have vanished.
A. changed B. disappeared C. decreased
2. The Earth's rainforests are being destroyed, along with their inhabitants
A. animals which live in a B. animals which are being destroyed C. animals which move to other
particular place places
3. Published in 1980, the Global 2000 Report to the President provided startling warnings and predictions about the
fate of the Earth if we do not make changes in the way we treat it.
A. shocking B. serious C. terrible
4. This report strongly urged the government to take immediate action.
A. forced B. supported C. encouraged
5. It is likely that a global report now would be even bleaker than the one published after the 1970s.
A. more discouraging B. more shocking C. more encouraging
Exercise 2 Sentence Completion: Refer to the passage Mat Is Happening to Our Planet? and choose from the
passage NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to complete the following sentences.
6. Humans kill animals indirectly because industries need more and more of the ………………………………. on the Earth.
7. The changes in the Earth's ………………………………. as well as its climate are harmful to all animals.
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8. The official study of the environment in 1977 was directed by ……………………………….
9. One of the difficulties which humans were warned of by the report is ……………………………….
Exercise 3 True/False/Not Given Questions: Read and Write
10. The increase of human population & the needs of industries result in the death of lots of birds & mammals …….
11. In 1977, President Jimmy Carter believed that the present trends would continue. ……………………………….
12. According to the report, more than 2 million species on earth would disappear by 2000. ……………………………….
13. Ronald Reagan was elected president after the study was completed. ……………………………….
14. Ronald Reagan's administration didn't think that the report was necessary. ……………………………….
15. It is possible that it will be too late when we stop the destruction of the Earth. ……………………………….
16. The environmentalists don't think that humans are masters of the Earth . ……………………………….

Unit 4 – Passage one: What Is Stress?

Most people would say they know what stress is. But for scientists who study stress, it has been
surprisingly hard to define. This is because there are so many ways of looking at stress. Some researchers have
studied how our bodies react to stress. You know how your heart beats faster, you perspire more heavily, and your
words do not come out right when you are placed in a stressful situation. But knowing how we feel when we
experience stress does not explain it; nor does it tell us what causes it.
Other scientists have looked at stressors: events or situations that produce stress. A deadline, a poor test
performance, or bothersome noises all may be thought of as stressors. Even pleasant events can be stressors.
Planning a party or starting a new job can be just as stressful as being called to the principal's office. Stress, then,
can be caused by both negative and positive events, or stressors. Of course, whether an event is thought of as
positive or negative is, in some ways, a matter of personal choice.
In sum, it is the way people interpret an event that makes it stressful or not stressful. This process of
interpretation is called appraisal. Depending on how people appraise, or judge, circumstances, they may or may not
consider them stressful. What, specifically, causes people to appraise a situation as stressful? The answer depends
on how much of a threat or challenge it appears to be. Circumstances that bring a threat or challenge to a person's
sense of well-being produce stress. Those that do not threaten or challenge us are not stressful.
Looking at stress this way gives us a general definition of the concept of stress: Stress is a response to
circumstances that seem threatening or challenging. The circumstances that cause stress vary from one person to
another. It all depends on how we appraise circumstances. In addition, the things that cause us stress today may not
cause us stress at another time. And the opposite is true: things that once caused no stress may now be stressful.
Exercise 1 Word Use: Decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the
sentence and write down the corresponding letter.
1. Planning a party or starting a new job can be just as stressful as being called to the principal's office.
A. teacher B. headmaster C. assistant
2. A deadline, a poor test performance, or bothersome noises all may be thought of as stressors.
A. annoying B. surprising C. continuous
3. Depending on how people appraise, or judge, circumstances, they may or may not consider them stressful.
A. feel about B. judge C. adapt to
4. The circumstances that cause stress vary from one person to another.
A. differ B. move C. start
Exercise 2 Sentence Completion: Complete the summary below by choosing NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS from the passage What Is Stress? for each answer.
It is hard for the scientists to define the word 5. ………………………………. because there are many ways of
looking at it. Your body reacts to stress with a fast-beating heart, heavy perspiration and so on when you are in 6.
………………………………. 7. ………………………………. refer to events or situations that produce stress and they may even
include 8. ………………………………. such as 9. ………………………………. and starting a new job. In general, stress can be
caused by both negative and positive events.
Exercise 3 True/False/Not Given Questions: Read and Write
10. Knowing our feelings about stress can explain what causes the stress. ……………………………….
11. Bothersome noises are more likely to cause stress than a poor test performance. ……………………………….
12. Negative events cause more stress than positive ones do. ……………………………….
13. Sometimes whether an event is negative or not is based on a personal decision. ……………………………….
9
14. Whether an event is considered stressful may be determined by the way people interpret it. …………………………….
15. Sometimes those circumstances that are not threatening to us are also stressful. ……………………………….
16. An event or situation may not always be a stressor. ……………………………….

Unit 4 – Passage two Hot Days, Hot Nights

Paragraph A: Here is what global warming could do in a few years: in Dallas, a doubled level of carbon
dioxide would increase the number of days a year with temperatures above 100 degrees from nineteen to seventy-
eight. On sixty-eight days, as opposed to the current four, the temperature wouldn't fall below 80 degrees at night.
One hundred and sixty-two days a year, the temperature would top 90 degrees.
Paragraph B: Although most scientists agree that increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other.
greenhouse gases will inevitably lead to global warming, no one is certain how fast and how much temperatures
will rise and what the effects will be in any geographical areas. This gives policymakers an excuse for delaying
action. Some experts predict that within two centuries glaciers in the North and South Poles will melt, ocean levels
will rise, and much of what is now the coast of the United States will be under water. They also predict great
droughts and hurricanes, as a result of climate changes.
Paragraph C: Other scientists think the changes will be much more gradual, even beneficial. After all,
Canada would not complain if the productive corn-growing lands - now located in the U.S. Midwest - were shifted
north across the border.
Paragraph D: While many nations could end up with milder climates, the change - perhaps 100 times
faster than at any time in human history- could be so drastic that many of the benefits would be lost. There could be
crowds of environmental refugees, as well, making the tragedy of the Dust Bowl era seem mild in comparison.
Paragraph E: What can we do? Humanity's contribution to the greenhouse effect comes from so many
basic activities that we can't hope to eliminate it completely. Some steps have already been taken. Since the 1970s,
the use of CFCs as aerosol-can propellants has been banned in the United States.
Paragraph F: Another strategy is to burn as much methane as possible. This adds C0 to the air, but since
methane traps twenty times as much heat as CO2, the net result is worthwhile. The gas in many garbage landfills is
already being used in a number of places around the United States. It is being used to heat thousands of homes.
Exercise 1 Word Use: Please match the following words with the definitions.
1. delay A. gentle; soft
2. shift B. move from one place to another
3. mild C. strong, sudden and often violent
4. drastic D. put off
5. ban E. forbid
6. eliminate F. get rid of
Exercise 2 Matching the Headings: The reading passage Hot Days, Hot Nights has 6 paragraphs A-F.
Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph A-F from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate
numbers (I-VIII). Please note that there are more headings than you can use.
I – Possible problems due to global warming 7. Paragraph A
II – Warmer summer in Dallas 8. Paragraph B
III – Help from methane 9. Paragraph C
IV – One important step 10. Paragraph D
V – Disagreement about temperatures 11. Paragraph E
VI – Warmer and warmer in some places 12. Paragrap
VII – But possible benefits too
VIII – Problems bigger than benefits
Exercise 3 Yes/No/Not Given Questions: Read and Write YES/ NO/ NOT GIVEN
13. The number of days in Dallas with temperatures above 100 degrees would increase. ……………………………….
14. Currently in Dallas, there are only four days when the temperature falls below 80 degrees at night ………………….
15. Some scientists are sure how fast the temperature will rise due to global warming. ……………………………….
16. Policymakers are not at all interested in taking any action to solve the environmental problem. …………………….
17. Some scientists think that the climate changes may even bring benefits. ……………………………….
18. Humans contribute to the greenhouse effect through many basic activities. ……………………………….
19. Burning too much methane worsens the problem of greenhouse effect. ……………………………….
20. In the United States, people prefer to bum methane gas for heating the homes. ……………………………….
10
Unit 5 – Passage one A health education booklet
Cuts: Bleeding can usually be stopped by applying pressure to the cut for 2 or 3 minutes. The cut
can then be carefully inspected. If it has bled freely, any germs will normally have been washed away by the blood.
Apply a plaster dressing firmly, bringing the edges of the cut together so that it knits quickly. Keep dry for 1 to 3
days. If the cut is deep and the edges cannot be pulled together with a dressing, consult the doctor or practice nurse.
A tetanus injection may be needed.
Grazes: Dirt will often enter a graze caused by falling on a hard or rough surface. It must be
cleaned out carefully. After cleaning, leave the graze uncovered. Exposure to the air will cause a scab to form. This
will gradually dry and fall off. It is not a good idea to apply a dressing. This may stick to the graze or make it
infected.
Bruises: Bruises are very common in children. They normally get better in 7 to 10 days. Parents
sometimes worry that a bone may be broken. Children's bones are rubbery and rarely break, but if in doubt consult
the doctor. If a child gets up at once after a fall and moves about normally, it is unlikely that a bone has been broken.
But the child may be stiff the next day because of the bruising which has occurred. Severe bruising can be treated by
rest for 24 to 48 hours. In the case of a badly bruised leg, the limb should be raised. Lying in bed is the easiest way
to do this. A cold compress may ease a bad bruise if applied at once. This is made by soaking some material in water
and applying it to the bruise. Bruises on the head may cause anxiety. If the patient was not "knocked out" and can
remember the accident, it is unlikely that serious injury has resulted. But if the patient was knocked unconscious and
cannot remember what happened, he or she should be taken to a hospital Casualty Department.
Insect Bites: These are common in the summer. They look like spots about 5mm across. They are very
itchy and usually appear on exposed parts, e.g. arms and legs. The itching can be relieved by calamine lotion.
Burns and Scalds: Minor burns and scalds cause redness of the skin. Immediate treatment by pouring
cold water over a burn is often helpful. If burns cause severe blistering or break the skin, the doctor should be
consulted. Sunburn should, if possible, be prevented by avoiding long exposure and covering exposed areas
adequately. It may be treated by calamine lotion and soluble aspirin to relieve the pain.
Exercise 1 Word Use:
1. Dirt will often enter a graze caused by falling on a hard or rough surface.
A. soft B. uneven C. high
2. But the child may be stiff the next day because of the bruising which has occurred.
A. difficult to bend B. difficult to move C. difficult to jump
3. But if the patient was knocked unconscious and cannot remember what happened, he or she should be taken to a
hospital Casualty Department.
A. a place for people who have died C. a place for people who need an operation
B. a place for people who have had an accident

4. It may be treated by calamine lotion and soluble aspirin to relieve the pain.
A. lessen B. cure C. change
Exercise 2 Classification: Look at the following list of injury-treating instructions or symptoms and use the
information in the passage to answer the questions. Write
A. if it is for treating cuts; D. if it is for treating insect bites;
B. if it is for treating grazes; E. if it is for treating bums and scalds.
C. if it is for treating bruises;
5. The injury needs to be left open and exposed to the air. ………………………………
6. You may use some special lotion to ease the itching. ………………………………
7. Some pressure on the injury can usually stop the bleeding. ………………………………
8, Materials soaked in cold water may help if applied immediately. ………………………………
9. Ask the doctor for advice if a dressing does not work. ………………………………
10. The skin may appear red because of the injury. ………………………………
11. It is unlikely to be a serious problem if the person can remember what happened. ………………………………
12. You will have to stop the bleeding before you check the injury. ………………………………
13. You'd better rest for one day or two when the injury is serious. ………………………………

11
Exercise 3 Short-Answer Questions: Refer to the passage and answer the following questions with NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS taken from the passage.
14. What can you do to the cut to stop the bleeding quickly? ………………………………
15. When the cut bleeds freely, what may be brought out by the blood? ………………………………
16. What may cause a graze to become infected? ………………………………
17. What types of people are likely to get bruises? ………………………………
18. When may a child feel uncomfortable because of a bruise he or she gets after a fall? ………………………………
19. What is the easy way suggested to treat a badly bruised leg? ………………………………
20. Where could the injury be if anxiety is a symptom? ………………………………
Unit 5 – Passage two Global Warming
It seems as if every time you turn on the television news, you hear one or the other of the following
catchphrases of the 1990s: global warming, greenhouse effect, climate change. As it often is with catchphrases,
hardly anyone knows what these terms really mean or how they relate to each other. In the past 100 years, in our
effort to make the Earth a more civilised place, industrial production has increased by fifty times. Four fifths of that
growth has come since 1950. This production - most of it based on the burning of wood, and of fossil fuels like
coal, oil, and natural gas - has greatly increased the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
When fossil fuels are burned, they release carbon into the air in the form of carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide
allows heat that would normally escape from the Earth's atmosphere to remain trapped, as it would in a greenhouse
- thus the greenhouse effect. When do you burn fossil fuels? When you turn on a light, or run an air conditioner, or
take a hot shower, or make toast, you contribute to the greenhouse effect. It is a by-product of the use of energy-
electricity, gasoline, or oil. But how can carbon dioxide be bad when human beings exhale it every time they
breathe? Plants need carbon dioxide; they use it to grow. Oceans absorb it. And forests drink it in. Without carbon
dioxide, the average surface temperature on Earth would be 0 degrees Fahrenheit, instead of 59 degrees Fahrenheit.
In nature, carbon dioxide is necessary and harmless. Here is the problem: in our effort to make the world a more
comfortable place, people have produced far too much of it. By drilling holes into glaciers and testing the air
bubbles trapped in ancient ice, by looking at the fossilised plant tissues, even by looking at the air sealed in old
telescopes, scientists have calculated that the atmosphere before the Industrial Revolution contained about 280 parts
per million of carbon dioxide - the highest level recorded in the past 160,000 years.
The current reading is near 360 parts per million. In the next 140 years, the carbon dioxide level should
reach at least 560 parts per million. We have increased the amount of carbon dioxide in the air by 25 percent in the
past century. Carbon dioxide is not exclusively responsible for the greenhouse problem, however. Other greenhouse
gases include chlorofluorocarbons, nitrogen oxides and methane.
Exercise 1 Word Use: Decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the
sentence and write down the corresponding letter.
1. When fossil fuels are burned, they release carbon into the air in the form of carbon dioxide.
A. absorb B. change C. emit
2. Carbon dioxide allows heat that would normally escape from the Earth's atmosphere to
remain trapped, as it would in a greenhouse - thus the greenhouse effect.
A. escaped B. caught C. heated
3. When you tum on a light, or run an air conditioner, or take a hot shower, or make toast, you contribute to the
greenhouse effect.
A. help in bringing about B. lead indirectly to C. are mainly responsible for
4. But how can carbon dioxide be bad when human beings exhale it every time they breathe?
A. breathe out B. take into C. breathe in
5. Carbon dioxide is not exclusively responsible for the greenhouse problem, however.
A. greatly B. usually C. only
Exercise 2 Matching the Phrases: Choose, according to the passage, one phrase (A-F) from the list of phrases to
complete each key point below. There are more phrases than key points, so you will not use them all.
6. Industrial production A. has increased by fifty times in the past 100 years
7. The burning of fossil fuels B. is not growing as fast as it was before 1950
8. Carbon dioxide influences C. produces carbon dioxide
9. According to the scientists, D. the surface temperature on Earth
E. the carbon dioxide level in the atmosphere has been increasing
F. carbon dioxide belongs to harmful gases
12
Exercise 3: Yes/No/Not Given Questions: Read and write
10. People usually do not understand what catchphrases really mean. ………………………………
11. Most of the growth in industrial production in the past 100 years came before 1950. ………………………………
12. Carbon dioxide allows heat to be trapped in the Earth's atmosphere. ………………………………
13. People burn more fossil fuels when they take a hot shower than when they make toast. ………………………………
14. People who use electricity help to produce the greenhouse effect. ………………………………
15. The carbon dioxide level in the next 140 years will increase at least by two times what it was before the
Industrial Revolution. ………………………………
16. Carbon dioxide causes more problems than the other greenhouse gases do. ………………………………

Unit 6 – Passage one University of Western Sydney Macarthur

University of Western Sydney Macarthur has two campuses, one located in the city of Campbelltown, the
other in the city of Bankstown. Campbelltown is a city within the Southwestern suburbs of the Sydney metropolitan
area, and is 50 minutes by train from the Sydney Central Business District. Bankstown is a city within the Sydney
metropolitan area, and it is 25 minutes by train from the Sydney Central Business District.
University of Western Sydney Macarthur is a member of University of Western Sydney with UWS
Hawkesbury and UWS Nepean. Total enrolment in 2008 exceeded 27,000 including 2,000 international students.
UWS Macarthur has over 10,000 students including 500 inter- national students.
University of Western Sydney Macarthur's courses are taught through its six faculties: Arts & Social
Sciences (at Campbelltown and Bankstown); Business (at Campbelltown); Education & Languages (mainly at
Bankstown); Health (at Campbelltown and Bankstown); Informatics, Science & Technology (at Campbelltown);
and Law (at Campbelltown).
Courses Offered in 2008/2009: Courses available to international students in 2008/2009 are listed
in this booklet. All courses are full-time. Fees indicated are annual and include tuition for a standard full-time load,
and the other University charges (except for English course fees). Extra fees are charged for repeating sub- jects
and attempting subjects in Summer Term. Fees remain constant for the normal duration of a programme. Some
courses listed have a fourth year for an Honours degree. Entry is on merits and application may be made by
graduates of UWS Macarthur or graduates of other institutions. You should contact Office of International
Programmes for further details on the Honours degrees available.
Admission Requirements for Bachelor's Degree Courses: Admission into Bachelor's
degrees usually requires satisfactory completion of the final year of secondary education, or equivalent
qualifications. Mature age students who do not meet these requirements will still be considered on the basis of other
qualifications and/or work experience.
English Language Requirements: Applicants must have clearly demonstrated proficiency in
English either by achieving, for example, 570 in TOEFL or 6.0 in IELTS, or by providing evidence of studies in
English at a school or university which has English as the language of instruction and is deemed satisfactory by
UWS Macarthur. A higher level of English is required for some programmes. English courses are available through
the Macarthur English Language Centre at the Campbelltown campus.
Semester & Term Dates for 2008/2009
Semester 1, 2009: March 1, 2009-June 25, 2009*
Semester 2, 2009: August 2, 2009-November 26, 2009*
MBA 2008: September 28, 2008-September 10, 2009*
MBA 2009: April, 2009 March 18, 2010*
MBA 2009: September 27, 2009; September 9, 2010*
*All dates are subject to final confirmation.
For Further Information and Application Forms Contact:
Office of International Programmes
University of Western Sydney Macarthur
PO Box 555 Campbelltown NSW 2560, AUSTRALIA
Tel: +61 2 4620 3313; Fax: +61 2 4626 6677
E-mail: [Link]@[Link]; Internet: [Link] [Link]
Exercise 1 Word Use: Decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the
sentence and write down the corresponding letter.

13
1. Campbelltown is a city within the southwestern suburbs of the Sydney metropolitan area, and is 50 minutes by
train from the Sydney Central Business District.
A. city centre and suburbs B. city centre only C. suburbs only
2. University of Western Sydney Macarthur's courses are taught through its six faculties.
A. the particular power to do something
B. branches of learning in a university
C. all the teachers and students of one university
3. Fees indicated are annual and include tuition for a standard full-time load, and the other
University charges (except for English course fees).
A. (happening) every year B. (happening) every month C. (happening) every semester
4. Admission into Bachelor's degrees usually requires satisfactory completion [Link] final year of secondary
education, or equivalent qualifications.
A. higher B. lower C. equal
5. Mature age students who do not meet these requirements will still be considered on the
basis of other qualifications and/or work experience.
A. fully grown and developed B. teenaged C. retired
Exercise 2: Read the passage about University of Western Sydney Macarthur and answer the following
questions with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the passage.
6. Which one of the two campuses of the University of Western Sydney Macarthur is closer to the Sydney Central
Business District? ………………………………………
7. What does the indicated annual fee exclude? ………………………………………
8. Which one of the two campuses is the Office of international Programmes located on? ……………………………………
9. Please list one of the English exams that can be used to judge applicants' English proficiency. …………………………
Exercise 3: Refer to the passage University of Western Sydney Macarthur and look at the following statements.
Write TRUE, FALSE or NOT GIVEN
10. Bankstown is a small city quite close to the Sydney metropolitan area. ………………………………………
11. The enrolment of UWS Macarthur in 2008 exceeded that of the previous year. ………………………………………
12. The Faculty of Education & Languages is mainly located at Bankstown. ………………………………………
13. Some of the courses listed for the international students are part-time courses. ………………………………………
14. Charges for the summer courses are not included in the fees indicated. ………………………………………
15. Only those who finished secondary education can be admitted into the University for Bachelor's degree studies.
……………………..……
16. Applicants who have studied in schools with very good English courses do not have to take TOEFL or IELTS.
…………………..…..
17. The date from which the MBA 2009 programme will start has been finally confirmed. ………………………

Unit 6 – Passage two Our Diet Matters

Section I: The average person swallows about half a ton of food a year ~ not counting drink – and
though the body is remarkably efficient at extracting just what it needs from this huge mixture, it can only cope up
to a point. If you go on eating too much of some things and not enough others, you'll eventually get out of condition
and your health will suffer. So think before you start eating. It may look good. It may taste good. Fine! But how
much good is it really doing you?
Section II: What you eat and the way it affects your body depend very much on the kind of person you
are. For one thing, the genes you inherit from your parents can determine how your body-chemistry (metabolism)
copes with particular foods. The tendency to put on weight rather easily, for example, often runs in families - which
means that they have to take particular care.
Reading Practice: And your parents may shape your future in another way. Your upbringing shapes
some basic attitudes to food -like whether you have a sweet tooth, nibble between meals, take big mouthfuls or eat
chips with everything. And there is your lifestyle. How much you spend on food (time as well as money), how
much exercise you get - these can alter the balance between food and fitness. And finally, both your age and your
sex may affect this balance. For example, you are more likely to put on weight as you get older, especially if you
are a woman. So, everybody's different and the important thing is to know yourself.
Section III: If you are eating a fairly varied diet, it is just about impossible to go short of proteins,
vitamins or minerals. It is likely, too, that you have more than enough fats and carbohydrates. Take proteins for
instance. On average, we eat about twice as much protein as we need. Vitamin pills are not likely to help either. A
14
varied diet with plenty of fresh fruit, vegetables and cereals along with some fish, eggs, meat and dairy products
will contain more than enough vitamins. Unless you have some special medical reason, it is a waste of time and
money to take vitamin pills. As for minerals, there is no shortage in the average diet and it is useless to have more
than you need.
Section IV: Just about everything you eat contains energy- measured as calories; the higher the number
of calories, the more energy. But don't make the mistake of thinking that eating extra energy-rich foods will make
you more energetic. The amount of energy in your daily diet should exactly balance the energy your body-machine
burns up. If you eat more than you use, the extra energy is stored as body fat. And this is the big problem.
Section V: Over hundreds of thousands of years, man's food came mainly from plants. He ate cereals
(like wheat), pulses (like beans and peas), vegetables, fruit and nuts. So our ancestors were used to eating the sort of
food that contains a lot of fibre. In comparison with our ancestors, the sort of food we eat today contains very little
fibre. Our main foods are meat, eggs and dairy products, which contain no fibre at all. Lack of fibre seems to be
connected with various disorders of the digestive system. Some experts also believe that lack of fibre may even lead
to heart disease. If you are worried about your weight, eating more fibre may actually help you to slim! Food with
plenty of fibre like potatoes or bread can be satisfying without giving you too many calories.
Exercise 1:Find in Section II and Section V words which are closest in meaning to the following definitions.
Section II:
1. to receive from one's parents or grandparents ………………………………….
2. training and caring for a child ………………………………….
3. to eat (something) with small bites ………………………………….
4. to (cause to) become different ………………………………….
Section V:
5. a person from whom someone is descended ………………………………….
6. lack of order; confusion ………………………………….
7. connected with digesting food ………………………………….
8. attractively thin; not fat ………………………………….
Exercise 2: The reading passage Our Diet Matters has 5 sections numbered I-V. Choose the most suitable heading
for each section from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate letters (A-G). There are more headings than
you can use.
A. Extra energy makes us fat. 9. Section I
B. Eating more fibre is important. 10. Section II
C. It is better to change the bad eating habits. 11. Section III
D. A bad diet is harmful. 12. Section IV
E. People differ from each other. 13. Section V
F. Enough proteins, vitamins and minerals are provided in a good diet.
G. We do not need vitamin pills.

Exercise 3: Multiple-Choice Questions: Refer to the reading passage Our Diet Matters and choose the correct
answer by writing down the corresponding letters.
14. According to the passage, which THREE of the following factors could affect your body system?
A. Genes D. Excessive worries
B. Vitamin pills E. Attitudes to food
C. Physical exercises
There are four choices for each question. Refer to the passage and choose the correct answer by writing down the
corresponding letter.
15. Generally speaking, which one of the following four puts on weight comparatively easier?
A. A male aged 35 B. A female aged 35
C. A male aged 45 D. A female aged 45
16. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. A person is likely to put on weight if his father is overweight.
B. Eating habits could be shaped by one's parents.
C. Generally speaking, we eat more proteins than our bodies need.
D. The amount of energy in your diet should be higher than the energy your body-machine bums up.
17. Compared with that of our ancestors, our diet tends to lack
15
 A. vitamins. C. fibre.
B. minerals. D. calories.
18. If your daily diet is a rather varied one, it is almost impossible that
A. your body store extra body fat. B. your body need vitamin pills as supplement.
C. your body take in more carbohydrate than it can use. D. your body need to take in more fibre.
19. Which word can best describe the main purpose of the passage?
A. Informative C. Argumentative
B. Descriptive D. Persuasive

Unit 7- Passage one: All about Renting

To make your move into an apartment as smooth as possible, we would like to make you aware of what
will take place before you are settled. Being prepared and avoiding problems can make it an easier and happier
experience. The first thing you must decide is how much of your income can be spent for your monthly rental.
Besides the rent, the coverage of the monthly electric bill and your phone charges should also be considered. Heat
and water costs are almost always included in your rent. Some rental units contain an individual heating system, in
which case you will have heating costs.
APPLICATION- When you make application to rent an apartment, it has always been common practice to
check your credit and references. You may now be required to pay a fee to have your application professionally
checked. If you do not want to hold up the process of confirming your rental, you should be prepared for the costs
of application, security and pet deposits.
DEPOSITS -You must expect to pay a deposit which can come under the name of security, damage or
cleaning deposit. They can range from a fee of $50 and up, or equal to a full month's rent. This is insurance for the
building owner against damage or unusual cleaning after you have left, which means part or all of the deposit could
be retained; otherwise, it is refunded to you. The exact requirements for the deposit should be in writing so that you
know what the money is for and under what circumstances it can be retained or returned to you. You must also
expect to pay an additional deposit if you have a pet. Many buildings may have a form available to check off items
in the apartment and indicate their condition. If there is a tear in the carpet or a scratch on an appliance, it will be a
matter of record and you cannot be charged for that later. If such a form is not available, you can walk
through the apartment with the manager making your own list, having it signed by the manager and yourself. All of
this is a protection for you as well as the building owner and note that under a law enacted in 1973, your deposit
will earn interest at an annual rate of 3%. The deposit must also be returned to you within 3 weeks after you have
vacated, or the owner must provide you a written notice about the specific reason for withholding the deposit. You
are required to provide your building owner with a mailing address in order to receive your deposit within 3 weeks.
COMPLAINTS- It is not unusual that something may not function properly in your apartment. It certainly
has happened wherever you have lived before. If an appliance is not working, a faucet is leaking, and so on, put the
problem in writing and give it to your manager or caretaker. If you have any serious complaints, you should call the
building manager. If some action is not following, you can call the Minnesota Multi-Housing Association "Hot
Line" at 858-8222 between 2:00 and 5:00 p.m. during weekdays for help or service. Decide which of the following
choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence and write down the corresponding letter.
Exercise 1- Word use:
1. This is insurance for the building owner against damage or unusual cleaning after you have left, which means
part or all of the deposit could be retained; otherwise, it is refunded to you.
A. withheld B. repaid C. lent
2. The deposit must also be returned to you within 3 weeks after you have vacated, or the owner must provide you a
written notice about the specific reason for withholding the deposit.
A. agreed B. moved out C. signed
3. It is not unusual that something may not function properly in your apartment.
A. be repaired B. last C. work
Exercise 2- Sentence completion: Refer to the passage headed All about Renting I and choose from the passage
NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to complete the following sentences.
4. You will have to be responsible for the heating costs if you rent a unit with an ………………………………….
5. The minimum amount of the deposit that you are expected to pay can be ………………………………….
6. If you break anything in the apartment, part or all of the deposit could be ………………………………….
7. Small problems of the items in the apartment would be recorded and you cannot be that later ……………………….
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8. After you move out of the apartment, the building owner is required to return your deposit within …………………….
9. If the owner wants to keep your deposit for an extra month, he must let you know the reason with …………………….
Yes/No/Not Given Questions Read the passage & look at the following statements. Write YES/ NO/ NOT GIVEN
10. The electric and telephone bills are probably excluded in the monthly rental. …………………………………
11. When you apply for renting an apartment, professionals hired by the building owner will check your
application……………….
12. If you want to have a pet in the rented apartment, you should pay the deposit for the pet. …………………………………
13. Making your own list of the items in the apartment is better than using the form provided by the buildings. ……
14. The building owner is not supposed to send the deposit to you after you have left. …………………………………
15. It is quite common that something in the apartment may not be working properly. …………………………………
16. You are advised to call the manager if the TV set in your apartment is not working properly. …………………………
17. The Minnesota Multi-Housing Association "Hot Line" offers help and service seven days a week. ………………

Unit 7- Passage two: All about Renting II

SAFETY- It is important to all of us to feel safe and secure in our homes. First of all, your neighbours and
the building manager begin to know about your schedule, and any irregularity would make them question any
activity that was out of pattern. It is better for you to notify your neighbours or the manager that you will be gone
for a few days and ask them to pick up your mail or paper. A building with controlled entry systems seems the
ultimate in safety, but not when residents carelessly let anyone through the door as they enter, or let anyone in who
rings with a particular reason to enter the building. Fire protection in the form of alarm systems and many
neighbours to warn you if there
is a fire in the building is extra security in an apartment building In addition, you should know that apartment
owners carry extensive insurance on the apartment building and property within the building or the rental unit, but
not on the property belonging to you. Burglary, damage from fire, smoke, windstorm, explosion, or other
misfortunes must be covered by you. It is recommended that you contact your insurance agent regarding a Renter's
Insurance Policy.
LEASE: - A lease or rental agreement becomes your next task and could be your most important
consideration. A lease term could be for month to month, 6 months or one year. Your rent may be more per month
on a short-term lease, typically if for under 6 months. Some buildings will require a one-year lease and some will
accept or only give a 6-month’s lease.
When it comes to terminating your lease, you must remember that Minnesota State Law requires that you
give the building owner 30 days notice of your intent to vacate. You should present this notice in writing and
deliver it the day before your rent is due. If the owner needs to evict a resident, he is also required to give 30 days
notice in writing and deliver it the day before the rent is due. However, the owner may require 60 days notice of
termination of a lease as stated in the rental agreement. It is important that you read your lease and understand it
before signing. It is for your protection as well as the owner.
1. It specifies some of in the writing reasons: what the building owner's responsibilities are and what yours are.
2. It protects you against rent increases for the term of your lease and against being evicted without any proper
reasons.
3. It describes policies and procedures to avoid misunderstanding and problems in the future.
4. It explains procedures for terminating your lease if the necessity arises. If there is any part of your lease or rental
agreement that you do not understand, be sure to question it before signing. The management prefers to clear up
any confusion at the start than have an unhappy resident at some later date.
Exercise 1- Word use: Decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the
sentence and write down the corresponding letter.
1. It is better for you to notify your neighbours or the manager that you will be gone for a few days and ask them to
pick up your mail or paper.
A. convince B. inform C. warn
2. When it comes to terminating your lease, you must remember that Minnesota State Law requires that you give
the building owner 30 days notice of your intent to vacate.
A. ending B. signing C. changing
3. You should present this notice in writing and deliver it the day before your rent is due.
A. copy B. read through C. hand over

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4. If the owner needs to evict a resident, he is also required to give 30 days notice in writing and deliver it the day
before the rent is due.
A. force to leave B. criticise C. refuse
5. It specifies in writing what the building owner's responsibilities are and what yours are.
A. discusses fully B. describes fully C. controls fully
Exercise 2- Matching the phrase: Read the passage All about Renting II and choose, according to the
passage, one phrase (A-H) from the list of phrases to complete each key point below. There are more phrases than
the key points, so you will not use them all.
6. It is suggested that before you leave you'd better ………………………………………………………………
7. It seems to be quite safe to live in the building with ………………………………………………………………
8. Residents are careless when ………………………………………………………………
9. Your neighbours may ………………………………………………………………
10. If the property belonging to you in the apartment is stolen, ……………………………………………
A. you will be responsible for the loss B. controlled entry systems
C. inform the neighbours or the manager of your absence D. a very responsible building owner
E. the insurance carried by the owner will cover the loss for you F. warn you if there is a fire in the building
G. they let anyone in who claims to have some special reason H. they do not contact their insurance agent.
Exercise 3: Read the passage & look at the following statements. Write YES/ NO/ NOT GIVEN
11. Your neighbours and the building manager will ask you about your schedule when you move in. ………………………
12. According to the passage, the longest term for the lease could be one year. ………………………
13. The building owner will charged you double if the lease term is only for two months. ………………………
14. You can either phone to inform the building owner of your plan to move out or give him a written notice. …………
15. The building owner is required by law to give the resident 60 days notice if he wants to end the lease. …………….
16. You can find in the rental agreement the building owner's responsibilities as well as yours. ………………………
17. According to the rental agreement. the building owner cannot evict the residents without any proper reasons. ……...
18. You should ask before signing about any part of the lease which yd derstand. ………………………

Unit 8- Passage one: How New York Became America's Largest City
Section 1: In the 18th century New York was smaller than Philadelphia and Boston. Today it is the largest
city in America. How can the change in its size and importance be explained? To answer this question we must
consider certain facts about geography, history, and economics. Together these three will explain the huge growth
of America's most famous city.
Section 2: The map of the Northeast shows that four of the most heavily populated areas in this region are
around seaports. At these points materials from across the sea enter the United States, and the products of the land
are sent there for export across the sea.
Section 3: Economists know that places where transportation lines meet are good places for making raw
materials into finished goods. That is why seaports often have cities nearby. But cities like New York needed more
than their geographical location in order to become great industrial centres. Their development did not happen
simply by chance.
Section 4: About 1815, when many Americans from the east coast had already moved toward the west, trade
routes from the ports to the central regions of the country began to be a serious problem. The slow wagons of that
time, drawn by horses or oxen, were too expensive for moving heavy freight very far. Americans had long admired
Europe's canals. In New York State, a canal seemed the best solution to the transportation problem. From the
eastern end of Lake Erie all the way across the state to the Hudson River, there is a long strip of low land. Here the
Erie Canal was
constructed. After several years of work, it was completed in 1825.
Section 5: The canal produced an immediate effect. Freight costs were cut to about one tenth of what they had
been. New York City, which had been smaller than Philadelphia and Boston, quickly became the leading city of the
coast. In the years that followed, transportation routes on the Great Lakes were joined to routes on the Mississippi
River. Then New York City became the end point of a great inland shipping system that extended from the Atlantic
Ocean far up the western branches of the Mississippi.

18
Section 6: The coming of the railroads made canal shipping less important, but it tied New York even more
closely to the central regions of the country. It was easier for people in the central states to ship their goods to New
York for export overseas.
Section 7: Exports from New York were greater than imports. Consequently, shipping companies were eager
to fill their ships with passengers on the return trip from Europe. Passengers could come from Europe very cheaply
as a result.
Section 8: Thus New York became the greatest port for receiving people from European countries. Many of
these people remained in the city. Others stayed in New York for a few weeks, months, or years, and then moved to
other parts of the United States. For these great numbers of new Americans, New York had to provide homes,
goods, and services. Their labour helped the city become great.
Exercise 1: Word Use: Decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in
the sentence and write down the corresponding letter.
1. About 1815, when many Americans from the east coast had already moved toward the west, trade routes from
the ports to the central regions of the country began to be a serious problem.
A. methods used B. ways planned C. areas travelled
2. The slow wagons of that time, drawn by horses or oxen, were too expensive for moving. heavy freight very far.
A. goods B. boxes C. bags
3. From the eastern end of Lake Erie all the way across the state to the Hudson River, there is a long strip of low
land.
A. a narrow piece B. a thick piece C. a small piece
4. The coming of the railroads made canal shipping less important, but it tied New York even more closely to the
central regions of the country.
A. states B. countries C. areas
5. Exports from New York were greater than imports. Consequently, shipping companies were eager to fill their
ships with passengers on the return trip from Europe.
A. In fact B. As a result C. In addition
Exercise 2- Matching the headings: Reading the passage above has 8 sections numbered 1 – 8. Choose the
most suitable heading for each section from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (I-VIII). The
heading of section 4 has been given as example.
I Then came the rain V Not just because of where it is
II Cheap fares from Europe VI Most popular place to arrive
II Seaports VII Beginning of canal shipping
IV Three factors VIII Further development of water transport
Section 1 Section 4: (Example) VII Section 7
Section 2 Section 5 Section 8
Section 3 Section 6
Exercise 3: Read and write TRUE, FALSE, or NOT GIVEN
13. New York is typical of cities that became industrial centres simply because of their geo-graphical locations ……..
14. In 1815, people moved to the central regions of the country in wagons drawn by horses. ………………………..
15. All Americans agreed that they should build a canal for transportation. ………………………..
16. The Erie Canal was constructed between Lake Erie and the Hudson River. ………………………..
17. The Erie Canal was not successful in bringing the freight costs down immediately. ………………………..
18. Canal transportation was affected by the coming of the railroads. ………………………..
19. The labour of people whom shipping companies brought back from Europe helped New York become great. …..

Unit 8- Passage two Public Libraries

Paragraph A: The word public comes from a Latin word, publicus, meaning people. A public library is
for all the people in a community to use. It charges no fee for its services. The public library will have available,
within the limits of its budget, a wide variety of books and other materials. These books or other materials may be
borrowed, or taken out for a specific time, by anyone in the community. The library loans its materials.
Paragraph B: Public libraries are usually tax-supported. There are a few that are instead supported from
money that has been donated. And there are some that receive part of their money from taxes and part from gifts.
Paragraph C: Few public libraries are exactly alike. Not only ate the shapes and sizes of the buildings
different, but so are the number of books and other materials in each. Your nearest library may be like the Los
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Angeles Public Library, which has over 4,538,458 books and bound periodicals (magazines and journals) in its
collection. Or it may be like the Cherokee County Public Library, which has only about 3,800 books in its
collection.
Paragraph D: Libraries vary in other ways, too, for instance, in the number of hours (or days) they are
open or in the number of people who work there. Most public libraries, however, arrange their books and other
materials in similar ways. They divide their collections into two basic age groups, children and adult. Adult books
are in one place; children's books are in another. Then the books are further separated by the kind of book.
Storybooks -works of fiction - are separated from information, or fact books - nonfiction.
Paragraph E: People often want to refer to, that is, look something up in a certain basic information
book. Thus reference books, which are rarely read cover to cover, are put in a special place in the library, a
reference section or perhaps a reference room. Reference books are never to be taken out of the library building.
Paragraph F: Each library decides for itself how it should further arrange its books and other materials.
In a large city library, certain nonfiction materials may be put into a special area or separate room. For instance,
there may be a separate room just for all the materials a library has on music. In another large city, the music
materials might not be kept so separate. It would depend on what the people in that city had indicated they found
useful.
Paragraph G: A library's holdings are everything the library has in its collection. These holdings almost
always reflect the community's special interests. Suppose, for example, there were a town where Morgan horses
were widely raised and trained. That town's library would most likely have a great deal of material_ about Morgan
horses. Since the people who were interested in Morgan horses would probably be less interested in other breeds of
horses, the library might have only a small amount of material on Mustangs or Appaloosas.
Exercise 1- Word use: Decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the
sentence and write down the corresponding letter
1. A public library is for all the people in a community to use. It charges no fee for its services.
A. asks in payment B. requires C. increases
2. The library loans its materials.
A. lends B. borrows C. sells
3. There are a few that are instead supported from money that has been donated.
A. loaned B. asked in payment C. given for free
4. It would depend on what the people in that city had indicated they found useful.
A. agreed B. pointed out C. decided
Exercise 2- Matching the headings: The reading passage Public Libraries has 7 paragraphs A-G. Choose the
most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (I - IX).
There are more headings than you can use.
I. Financial support 5. Paragraph A
II. Local decisions 6. Paragraph B
III. Influence of people’s interests 7. Paragraph C
IV. Materials about Morgan horse 8. Paragraph D
V. History of public libraries 9. Paragraph E
VI. Certain books stay in the library 10. Paragraph F
VII. Free services for everyone 11. Paragraph G
VIII. A wide variety
IX. Similar ways to arrange books

Exercise 3: Refer to the passage Public Libraries and choose from the passage NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS to complete the following sentences.
12. A public library provides free services to everyone ………………………………
13. People who borrow the books can keep them for ………………………………
14. The money used to support public libraries may come from donations, gifts and ………………………………
15. The collections in most public libraries are arranged according to two age groups, ………………………………
16. Books that people can only read in the library are probably ………………………………
17. In some libraries, people may find certain nonfiction materials kept in ………………………………
18. From the holdings a library has, we can see if the community has any ………………………………

20
Unit 9 – Passge one Children in Crisis
Growing up in America is different for most young people today than it was for their parents. Fear of
violence and crime seems to be everywhere, from the streets of large cities to the halls of suburban and rural
schools. Teenage boys, who once fought over their places in the drug markets, now shoot so readily that the reasons
may be only sneakers, leather jackets, or insults. Bystanders are caught in the crossfire of drug wars and people can
be shot just because a young person feels like killing someone. Some kids have become so desensitised to shooting
that they laugh about it. On the streets in many cities, robbing the others is considered a symbol of honour.
There seem to be more senseless crimes done by juveniles that appear to lack a motive. For example, young
people tried to set fire to homeless men sleeping in subway stations as many as twenty times in 1992. In these
crimes, no one takes anything of value; there is nothing to take. The victims all appeared to be strangers to their
torturers. One fire setter explained that he and his friends were playing near a man who was sleeping in the subway
and they accidentally spilled some of their beer on him. Then they threw matches at him and when his blanket
caught fire, they ran. Two other homeless men, who happened to come along soon after the fire started, threw
themselves on the man and put the flames out. They called the police, and ran after the boys. At the police station,
the boys were charged with assault and attempted murder. They gave no good reasons for the attempts, although the
fun of it was suggested as a motive.
Almost everyone agrees that many young criminals are becoming more violent. The number of murders
under the age of eighteen has climbed 93 percent since the 1980s. Murder is more common among today' s
children, many of whom are in trouble because of the violence around them. The Children's Defense Fund, a non-
profit organisation, reports period of time, about 7,000 children are reported abused or neglected. Many more cases
are not reported.
Many adults are not, or do not want to be, aware of what is happening to today' s children. They move
farther from the cities, believing they can escape the problems of children in trouble. But even conservative
magazines that usually devote their pages more business than social problems are printing articles about today’s
‘children in crisis’. For example in one issue of Forbes magazine boys and girls from different cities talk about
violence, hopes, cops, racism, drugs, school, and family. Others talk about suicide and abuse.
The Committee for Economic Development states publicly that it is concerned about whether or not
children of today will have sufficient education, motivations, and undamaged brains to provide the needs of
tomorrow's labour force.
Exercise 1: Decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence
and write down the corresponding letter.
1. Bystanders are caught in the crossfire of drug wars and people can be shot just because a young person feels like
killing someone.
A. adults B. onlookers C. people
2. Some kids have become so desensitised to shooting that they laugh about it.
A. less considerate B. less worried C. less sensitive
3. At the police station, the boys were charged with assault and attempted murder.
A. criticised for B. accused of C. punished for
4. The Committee for Economic Development states publicly that it is concerned about whether or not children of
today will have sufficient education, motivations, and undamaged brains to provide the needs of tomorrow's labour
force.
A. better B. proper C. enough
Exercise 2: Read the passage and write TRUE/ FALSE/ NOT GIVEN:
5. Teenage boys are ready to shoot for small reasons like shoes or clothes ………………………………………..
6. In many cities, children regard robbing others as something honourable. ………………………………………..
7. Most of the time, young people know personally the homeless people whom they set fire to. ……………………………
8. Most people argue about whether many young people are getting more violent. ………………………………………..
9. According to reports by the Children's Defense Fund, young children are murdered in America each day. …………
10. Many adults are so afraid that sometimes they do not want to know about the things happening to children
today….
11. Conservative magazines are more related in content to social problems than to business. …………………………………
12. Forbes magazine is considered a conservative magazine. ………………………………………..
Exercise 3: Complete the summary below by choosing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS

21
 It seems that many senseless crimes done by juveniles do not have a 13. …………………………………… . For
example, victims even include those people who sleep 14. …………………………………… . For as many as 15.
…………………………………… in 1992, young people tried to 16. …………………………………… to them. As one
17. …………………………………… described, while playing he and his friends 18. …………………………………… spilled
some beer on a homeless man in the subway and later they set his 19. …………………………………… on fire by throwing
matches at him. The boys caught by the police could not explain why they did that except that 20. ………………………
of it could be a possible reason.

Unit 9-Passge two Real-Time Electronic Discussion for Teaching Writing

The most obvious use of real-time electronic discussion is for the teaching of writing. Students in general, and
particularly second language students, often have a great fear of expressing their ideas in writing. To help overcome
this fear and give their students as much writing practice as possible, some composition teachers conduct almost all
of their courses through electronic discussion. They find that the more students write, the more comfortable they get
with it especially because their writing occurs in such a powerful communicative context. Every word they put
down is not for the purpose of being corrected by their teacher, but rather for the purpose of sharing ideas with their
classmates.
Janice Cook teaches several ESL writing courses at Kapiolani Community College in Honolulu. All of
Cook's classes are taught 100% online, with students writing back and forth together in pairs, in small groups, and
as a class. Students write about the writing process, discuss electronically things they have read, share their own
work with the others and compose compositions together. Cook contributes to the process as a guide rather than as
an all-knowing expert. She has taught this way for 3 years and says she feared even the thought of going back to
non-networked writing instruction.
Pratt and Sullivan conducted a semester-long study on the effects of electronic discussion on teaching ESL
writing at the University of Puerto Rico. They compared two ESL writing classes taught with the same syllabus but
under different conditions. One class met one or two times a week in a computer-networked classroom where
virtually all class discussion was carried out electronically. The other class was conducted in a traditional classroom
with oral discussion.
An analysis of the transcripts of large group discussions, one from each class, showed strong differences in
participation patterns. Whereas only 50% of the students spoke up even once during the oral discussion, 100% of
the students participated in the electronic discussion. Furthermore, in the oral discussion the teacher took 85% of
the conversational turns, whereas in the electronic discussion the teacher took only 35% of the turns.
Pratt and Sullivan used pre- and post-writing samples to compare the writing improvement of the two
groups. They found that students in the computer-networked class showed significantly greater gains in writing
than the students did in the traditional class. Studies of native speaker composition classes have also shown similar
advantages for computer-networked writing instruction, particularly for students who come into a course less
skilled or confident about their writing. Linguists have found that less confident students not only communicate
more during electronic discussions than during face-to-face ones but also make more useful comments in their own
writing.
Exercise 1-Word use:
1. Students write about the writing process, discuss electronically things they have read, share their own work with
the others and compose compositions together.
A. collect B. revise C. write
2. One class met one or two times a week in a computer-networked classroom where virtually all class discussion
was carried out electronically.
A. almost B. barely C. actually
3. An analysis of the transcripts of large group discussions, one from each class, showed
strong differences in participation patterns.
A. printed copies B. conducted studies C. ·experiments
4. Whereas only 50% of the students spoke up even once during the oral discussion, 100%
of the students participated in the electronic discussion.
A. supported B. joined in C. were interested in
5. Studies of native speaker composition classes have also shown similar advantages for computer-networked
writing instruction, particularly for students who come into a course less skilled or confident about their writing.
A. feeling full trust B. feeling worried C. feeling interested
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Exercise 2- Note completion: Refer to the passage Real-Time Electronic Discussion for Teaching Writing and
complete the following notes about the advantages of the use of real-time electronic discussion for teaching writing
with ONE WORD taken from the passage.
6. Students are put in a highly ………………………… context.
7. Students write for …………………………ideas with each other.
8. He /She works for the process as a …………………………
9. The percentage for the students' participation is …………………………
10. Students take …………………………percent of the conversational turns.
11. The …………………………of the students in writing are significantly greater.
Exercise 3: Read and Write YES/ NO/ NOT GIVEN
12. The use of electronic discussion helps overcome the students' fear of expressing their ideas in writing. ……………
13. Students hate their compositions to be corrected by the teachers. …………………………
14. Janice Cook taught her classes online for years and did not want to go back to the traditional writing instruction.
15. The two classes Pratt and Sullivan compared in their study were both taught online with the same syllabus. ……
16. In the class conducted in a traditional way in Pratt and Sullivan's study, half of the students remained silent. ……
17. In composition classes, native speakers feel more confident about their writing than non-native speakers. ………
18. Studies show that the use of electronic discussion doesn't work in native speaker composition classes. ……………

Unit 10- Passage one Help! Volunteers Wanted

Where? When? How Long? The University of Victoria (Uvic) ESL teacher Sherri Williams needs
volunteers to help in her Tutorial Room, which is a self-access, drop-in clinic located at the Wallace Lounge (next
to Cadboro Commons Cafeteria, above the end of Parking Lot 5). This clinic is offered Tuesdays, Wednesdays and
Thursdays from 11 :00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. every week. ESL students from around the world currently taking Uvic's
EIP (English Intensive Programme) attend regular classes for 4 hours every morning or afternoon. In addition, if
they wish, they can drop in for as long or as short as they want for extra help in the Tutorial. So we need volunteers
to help for an hour or more at a time during this time frame.
What Do Volunteers Do? The Tutorial handles all sorts of questions and needs. Volunteers in the
Tutorial most often have conversations with the students, thereby helping them with grammar, pronunciation,
vocabulary and general listening/speaking skills. ESL students are often assigned interviews for homework by their
classroom teachers, and go to the Tutorial to interview volunteers for their opinions on such things as marriage,
dating, taxes, Canadian attitudes, examples of slang or idiom use, etc. The Wallace Lounge is ideal for
conversations, as it is big and has an outside patio next to the grass. We encourage our ESL students to come with
food or drinks and relax in this comfortable environment.
Volunteers also help run the small lending library by helping students choose abridged books or helping
them choose from a variety of magazines, listening or pronunciation tapes. Volunteers sometimes help students
make 20-minute appointments at the Pronunciation Clinic, which is a sub-part of the Tutorial. Students can listen to
tapes on individual recorders in the Tutorial Clinic, or borrow some of them from the CALL Facility; volunteers
help explain how to do this. There is a TV with an 8-headphone listening station in the Tutorial, so a volunteer can
work with up to 7 students to help them understand the CBC TV daily news. ESL students also arrive at the
Tutorial wanting help with grammar, writing or questionnaires which they've been asked to complete by their
classroom teachers. The Tutorial has grammar worksheets, writing information and general resource books which
volunteers can use to help students. Volunteers may also work directly with the students' classroom textbooks.
There are also vocabulary games such as Scrabble. Sherri is always in the Tutorial to help if a volunteer has any
questions.
What's the Commitment and Benefits? Ideally, Sherri likes volunteers to commit themselves to at least an
hour a week on a regular basis for the term, which ends December 6. However, ANY time a volunteer can help is
always appreciated. So if you have not signed up, please call, whether you are able to commit for part of the term,
or just drop in once in a while. Every volunteer who has worked in our clinic has commented how much fun they
have had working there, and how much it has helped them deepen their understanding of intercultural differences,
their studies and/or teaching work they may be struggling to master.
How Do Volunteers Sign Up? Please leave a message for Sherri at the English Language Centre,
721-8469, or come by and talk to her in the Wallace Lounge any Tuesday, Wednesday or Thursday between 11:00
a.m. and 3:00 p.m.

23
Exercise 1: Decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence
and write down the corresponding letter.
1. Uvic ESL teacher Sherri Williams needs volunteers to help in her Tutorial Room, which is a self-access, drop-in
clinic located at the Wallace Lounge.
A. people who offer services without payment
B. people who are willing to help
C. people who work in spare time
2. ESL students are often assigned interviews for homework by their classroom teachers.
A. asked to finish B. given as a share or for use C. persuaded to prepare for
3. We encourage our ESL students to come with food or drinks and relax in this comfortable environment.
A. become less active and stop worrying
B. make friends with the others
C. become more sociable and active
4. Volunteers also help run the small lending library by helping students choose abridged books or helping them
choose from a variety of magazines, listening or pronunciation tapes.
A. cut short B. made longer C. easily understood
5. Volunteers sometimes help students make 20-minute appointments at the Pronunciation Clinic, which is a sub-
part of the Tutorial.
A. part that is equally important
B. part that is more important
C. part that is less important
6. Every volunteer who has worked in our clinic has commented how much fun they have had working there, and
how much it has helped them deepen their understanding of inter-cultural differences, their studies and/or teaching
work they may be struggling to master.
A. between countries B. within one culture C. between cultures
Exercise 2- Multiple choice question: There are four choices for each question. Refer to the passage Help!
Volunteers Wanted and choose the correct answer by writing down the corresponding letter.
7. The Tutorial Room is at the
A. Cadboro Commons Cafeteria. C. English Language Centre.
B. Wallace Lounge. D. end of Parking Lot 5.
8. How often is the Tutorial offered a week?
A. Twice C. Four times B. Once D. Three times
9. The ESL students
A. are required to come to the Tutorial after the regular classes.
B. can come freely to the clinic and stay as long as they wish.
C. must sign up for the Tutorial before they come to the room.
D. need to contact the volunteers before they come.
10. How many people including the volunteer can watch TV in the Tutorial at the same time?
A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9
11. What is suggested to do in the passage when the volunteers have any questions?
A. Ask Sherri for help
B. Call the Wallace Lounge
C. Ask the other volunteers
D. Leave a message on the phone
Exercise 3: Read and Write TRUE/ FALSE/ NOT GIVEN
12. Volunteers are often being interviewed about their opinions on certain topics…………………..
13. The size of the Wallace Lounge helps to make it an ideal place for conversations. …………………..
14. The Tutorial will provide the students with all the food and drinks. …………………..
15. Students can bring home the books borrowed from the small lending library. …………………..
16. The CALL Facility can lend students some tapes. …………………..
17. Students enjoy playing vocabulary games with the volunteers. …………………..
18. The volunteers are encouraged to work an hour a week or more for the term.
19. If people sign up as volunteers, they will have to work until December 6. …………………..

24
Unit 10- Passage two Modern Examinations
In ancient times the most important examinations were spoken, not written. In the schools of ancient
Greece and Rome, testing usually consisted of saying poetry aloud or giving speeches. In the European universities
of the Middle Ages, students who were working for advanced degrees had to discuss questions in their field of
study with people who had made a special study of the subject. This custom exists today as a part of the process of
testing candidates for the doctor's degree.
Generally, however, modern examinations are written. The written examination, where all students are
tested on the same questions, was probably not known until the nineteenth century. Perhaps it came into existence
with the great increase in population and the development of modern industry. A room full of candidates for a state
examination, timed exactly by electric clocks and carefully watched over by managers, resembles a group of
workers at an automobile factory. Certainly, during examinations teachers and students are expected to act like
Machines. There is nothing very human about the examination process.
Two types of tests are commonly used in modern schools. The first type is sometimes called an "objective"
test. It is intended to deal with facts, not personal opinions. To make up an objective test, the teacher writes a series
of questions, each of which has only one correct answer. Along with each question, the teacher writes the correct
answer and also three statements that look like answers to students who have not learned the material properly.
In objective tests the student has just one task: he must recognise the correct answer and copy its letter (or
number) on his examination paper. Sometimes there is an answer sheet on which the four letters or numbers are
printed. Then the student has only to circle the one that goes with the correct answer.
For testing a student's memory of facts and details, the objective test has advantages. It can be scored very
quickly by the teacher or even by a machine. In a short time, the teacher can find out a great deal about the student's
range of knowledge. For testing some kinds of learning, however, such a test is not very satisfactory. A lucky
student may guess the correct answer without really knowing the material. Moreover, some of the wrong answers
are usually more incorrect than others, yet the scores on the test will not take account of this fact.
For a clearer picture of what the student knows, most teachers use another kind of examination in addition
to objective tests. They use "essay" tests, which require students to write long answers to broad and general
questions. One advantage of the essay test is that it reduces the element of luck. The student cannot get a high score
just by making a lucky guess. Another advantage is that it shows the examiner more about the student's ability to
put facts together into a meaningful whole. It should show how deeply he has thought about the subject.
Sometimes, though, essay tests have disadvantages, too. Some students are able to write rather good answers
without really knowing much about the subject, while other students who actually know the material have trouble
expressing their ideas in essay form. Besides, in an essay test the student's score may depend upon the examiner's
feelings at the time of reading the answer. If he is feeling tired or bored, the student may receive a lower score than
he should. Another examiner reading the same answer might give it a much higher mark. From this standpoint, the
objective test gives each student a fairer
chance, and of course it is easier and quicker to score.
Most teachers and students would probably agree that examinations are unsatisfactory. Students dislike
taking them; teachers dislike giving them and scoring students' answers. Whether an objective test or an essay test
is used, problems arise. When some objective questions are used along with some essay questions, however, a fairly
clear picture of the student's knowledge can usually be obtained.
Exercise 1: Match the following words with the definitions in the right column.
1. consist of A. not influenced by personal feelings
2. advanced B. not particular
3. candidate C. a person who wants to be chosen for a position
4. resemble D. look like
5. objective E. be made of
6. broad F. far on in development
Exercise 2- Multiple-Choice Questions
There are four choices for each question. Read the passage Modern Examinations and choose the correct answer by
writing down the corresponding letter.
7. Which of the countries in ancient times had poetry as the test subject?
A. China B. India C. Rome D. Britain
8. What is a possible reason mentioned in the passage which brought written examinations into existence?
A. The population increased rapidly. B. The written one was easier to take.
25
C. The spoken test was not fair. D. The test subject was more difficult.
9. What are teachers and students taking the written tests compared to?
A. automobiles B. machines C. electric clocks D. managers
10. Compared with an objective test, the essay test
A. prevents students from getting high scores. C. improves greatly the students' ability.
B. reduces the students' chances of guessing. D. helps the students think more about the subject.
11. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the essay test?
A. How the examiner feels while grading may influence the score.
B. Different examiners may give an answer different scores.
C. The essay test is more difficult to score than an objective test is.
D. The essay test is satisfactory according to most teachers and students.
Exercise 3: True / False/Not Given Questions
12. The custom of students' discussion with some experts on the subject can be dated back to the Middle Ages. ……
13. Written examinations came into use in the nineteenth century ………………..
14. Most people preferred written examinations to oral ones in the nineteenth century. ………………..
15. To students who do not study the material carefully, the three wrong statements in the objective test seem to be
correct. ………………..
16. With objective tests, teachers cannot quickly find out about student's range of knowledge. ………………..
17. One reason that objective tests are not satisfactory is that students may guess the answers. ………………..
18. Students who can write good essays always prefer the essay test to an objective one. ………………..
19. Students who have problems writing essays are those who do not know the material. ………………..
20. Both teachers and students are quite satisfied when objective and essay questions are ………………..

Unit 11- Passage one More Cavities Needed

Bluebirds live in cavities, but they can't make their own cavities. Like woodpeckers, bluebirds prefer trees
in open areas. The best habitat for bluebirds is an open area with scattered trees such as an old garden. By clearing
sections of forest to create more fields, early settlers happened to improve bluebird habitat. Bluebirds feed on
insects on the ground, and insects were abundant in the fields.
In the early 1900s, eastern bluebirds were one of the most common songbirds, but by 1969 fewer than 100
bluebirds nested in Minnesota. Other states also reported severe declines in the populations of all three bluebird
species. Why did the populations decline? One factor may have been the widespread use of insecticides, but the
most important factor was probably the loss of habitat. At first, fences were built with wooden posts, and wooden
posts develop cavities. While bluebirds like fence posts with cavities, farmers do not. Cavities make the fence posts
weak, and cattle escape through weak fences. After World War II, most farmers replaced wooden posts with new
posts made of steel. With less suitable habitat, the bluebirds were forced to compete with other birds for the few
remaining nesting sites. More aggressive birds such as the tree swallow and the house wren often drive the
bluebirds from their nests. Starlings and house sparrows- both introduced to this country from Europe - also
compete with the bluebirds for nesting sites. All three bluebird populations- eastern, western, and mountain-
declined nearly 90 percent between 1935 and 1985. The North American Bluebird Society and others are working
to increase the number of bluebirds. The most successful method is to improve the habitat by providing the
bluebirds with boxes as living places. Thousands of boxes are placed and being managed by individuals interested
in helping the little bird.
If placed in the right environment, the boxes do attract bluebirds. Bluebirds prefer boxes placed next to
open areas. If placed near a brushy area, the boxes are more likely to attract house wrens. Tree swallows would
compete for isolated sites in open areas. Competition from tree swallows will decrease if the boxes are placed in
pairs, less than three feet apart. Boxes for mountain and western bluebirds must have slightly larger holes than
those for eastern bluebirds, but if the holes are too large, starlings will take the boxes.
Another cavity programme helped the wood duck population. When seeking for houses, the female wood
duck looks for a cavity in a tree that is in or near the water. Often she chooses a cavity with a hole too small for a
raccoon to enter. Human activities -logging mature trees and hunting- threaten the wood duck population. In 1918,
the United States and Canadian governments banned the hunting of this species. Groups of citizens and
conservation organisations built living boxes and placed them on poles or in trees that are in or near the water.
Today the wood duck population is greater than one million, and hunting is once again permitted.

26
Exercise 1: Decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence
and write down the corresponding letter.
1. The best habitat for bluebirds is an open area with scattered trees such as an old garden.
A. closely planted B. carefully trimmed C. widely separated
2. Why did the populations decline? One factor may have been the widespread use of insecticides.
A. chemical substances m;;tde to kill insects
B. chemical substances made to help insects
C. chemical substances made to strengthen insects
3. More aggressive birds such as the tree swallow and the house wren often drive the bluebirds from their nests.
A. always ready to escape B. always ready to sing C. always ready to attack
4. Boxes for mountain and western bluebirds must have slightly larger holes than those for
eastern bluebirds, but if the holes are too large, starlings will take the boxes.
A. a few B. a bit C. a lot
5. In 1918, the United States and Canadian governments banned the hunting of this species.
A. controlled B. forbade C. encouraged
Exercise 2: Refer to the passage More Cavities Needed and answer the following questions with NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS taken from the passage.
6. What place is given as an example of the best habitat for bluebirds? ……………………………….
7. According to the passage, who accidentally helped with improving bluebird habitat? ……………………………….
8. How many species do bluebirds have? ……………………………….
9. What is the most important reason for the severe decline in the population of bluebirds? ……………………………….
10. Which material do most farmers prefer when they made fences? ……………………………….
11. Among the bluebirds species, which one prefers boxes with smaller holes than the other bluebirds do? ……………
Exercise 3: Look at the following list of nesting sites for birds and use the information in the reading passage
More Cavities Needed to answer the questions. Write
A. if they are likely to attract bluebirds; 12. boxes with very large holes
B. if they are likely to attract tree swallows; 13. boxes on poles by the river
C. if they are likely to attract starlings; 14. fence posts with holes
D. if they are likely to attract wood ducks. 15. boxes next to an open area
16. trees with cavities in the pond
17. a single box in an open area

Unit 12- Passage one Victoria Explore

Be an Explorer: The charm of the Victoria region holds many different and unique landscapes. The
farmlands of the Saanich Peninsula complement the old English setting of Oak Bay Village. The marine viewpoints
of Esquimalt Harbour together with the dramatic scenery of the Sooke Hills embrace the city of Victoria. Get
onboard our comfortable buses, enjoy the sights and neighbourhoods and let our bus drivers - the best in the west -
show you around.
Victoria Regional Transit: The Victoria by Bus guidebook lists many attractions which are served by
our buses - but there is lots more within walking distance of the bus routes. Buses run seven days a week, usually
from 6 a.m. until midnight. Many of our suburban routes cannot offer the high frequency as some of our busier
urban routes. The transit system serves all ferry terminals (Sidney, Swartz Bay, Odgen Point and downtown).
Accessible Transit Getting around Victoria on public transit has never been easier for people with a
disability. Low-floor accessible buses feature the absence of steps making it easier for everyone to use, especially
people using wheelchairs, walkers or pushing baby strollers. The entry level of the bus can be lowered to within
four inches of a standard sidewalk so that a ramp can be used for people in wheelchairs.
Customer Information: For complete information on fares, routes and schedules, pick up a
Victoria Rider's Guide, available on board the red, white and blue regional transit buses. Busline, our 24-hour
automated transit information system will help with route and scheduling planning. For personal service, you can
reach our friendly customer information agents through Busline, Monday through Saturday; 7 a.m. to 10:30 p.m.
and Sunday or holidays from 8 a.m. to 10:30 p.m.
Bus Stops While exploring the area by bus, you will see two different types of bus stop signs.
The long skinny ones identify a bus stop served by one route only. The rectangular signs indicate all the bus routes
which will pick up or drop off at that bus stop. When catching the bus, note that the route number and name are
27
displayed on the front and both the left and right side panels of the bus; the route number appears in the bus's rear
window too. This is important as sometimes the name changes when the bus changes direction, e.g. 14 University
and 14 Craigflower. Many downtown bus stops have information tubes which list the schedule of bus routes
serving that bus stop.
Transfer Tips: When paying cash or using tickets, if you need to travel on more than one bus to complete
your trip, ask your driver for a "transfer" when you get on the bus. Transfers are free and are good for one-way
travel only, unlike some other transit systems. The transfer you receive will only be valid for the first connecting
bus.
Fare Zones: The transit service area is divided into two fare zones. The fare you pay is based on the
number of zones you are travelling through. When making trips crossing a zone boundary, passengers pay a two-
zone fare when using cash or tickets. Day passes are valid region wide. On board our buses, you may pay your fare
in cash (exact coin fare only please, drivers do not carry change), or by ticket, by showing your pass or a valid
transfer when you board.
Save Money: If you plan to make several trips, consider a day pass and save money. The day pass can be
used as many times as you wish in one day. These prepaid fares are sold in advance at convenience stores, Tourism
Victoria and many other places through the area. Reduced fares are available for children 5-14, for persons 65+
with proof of age, and for students 15-20 (to grade 12) who carry a valid GoCard. All others must pay the adult
fare, including students who do not live in British Columbia.
Busline- 383-6161: Transit service for the Greater Victoria area is provided by the Victoria Regional
Transit System in partnership with BC Transit. The Transit System is responsible for planning routes, setting fare
levels, administering local funding and operating the system.
Exercise 1: Decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence
and write down the corresponding letter.
1. Low-floor accessible buses feature the absence of steps making it easier for everyone to use, especially people
using wheelchairs, walkers or pushing baby strollers.
A. easily used B. easily paid C. easily made
2. The transfer you receive will only be valid for the first connecting bus.
A. legal B. cheap C. necessary
3. When making trips crossing a zone boundary, passengers pay a two-zone fare when using cash or tickets.
A. something that indicates standards B. something that indicates limits
C. something that indicates levels
4. The Transit System is responsible for planning routes, setting fare levels, administering local funding and
operating the system.
A. managing B. distributing C. collecting
Exercise 2: The following is a summary of part of the passage. Fill in the gaps by choosing from the words or
phrases listed in the box below the summary. Remember that there are more choices than you can use.
The charm of the Victoria region holds many different and unique landscapes, such as Saanich Peninsula,
Oak Bay Village, Esquimalt Harbour and the Sooke Hills. In the Victoria by Bus guide-book, you will find lots of
5………………….…… which can be reached by buses and with regional buses, you can also get to all 6.……………….……
like Sidney and Swartz Bay. 7………………….…… buses enable people on wheelchairs and people with
8………………….…… to travel easily. For complete bus information, you can either pick up a Victoria Rider's Guide
on the bus or call our busline for more information. While travelling by bus, you may find two types of bus stop
signs. The 9………………….…… one indicates a one-route bus stop while the 10. ………………….…… one identifies all
the bus routes 11………………….…… there at that stop. And at many bus stops downtown, you can find the bus routes
schedule on the 12………………….…… You may pay cash or use the tickets when you board and with a 13………….……
from the driver" you can get on the first 14………………….…… bus for free .

guidebook schedules babystrollers attractions low-floor

started transfer ferry ternimals customer information
tubesday pass served long skinny rectangular connecting
Exercise 3: True / False / Not Given Questions
15. Buses normally run after midnight on Sundays………………………………….
16. Suburban buses offer the same frequency as all the other buses do. ………………………………….
17. The entry level of the bus can be changed to help people with a disability. ………………………………….

28
18. The route number is displayed in four places on the bus. ………………………………….
19. The names of the buses will always remain the same. ………………………………….
20. You can ask for another transfer when you get on the second connecting bus. ………………………………….
21. The fare will be doubled when you are travelling through two zones. ………………………………….
22. A day pass is recommended when you plan to take several buses. ………………………………….
23. Discount fares are available to all students who are between 15 and 20. ………………………………….

Unit 12- Passage two U.S. Public Schools: What's Wrong with Them
Paragraph 1 There are many people in the U.S. today who are not satisfied with the education that their children
are receiving in the public schools. They are very worried about a number of developments that are taking place in
the schools. However, not all of these people are worried about the same things. In fact, they often do not agree
about the problem in public education.
Paragraph 2 One group of people is concerned about the quality of the education which young people are
receiving. According to these parents, their children are not learning enough in school, and some researchers agree
with them. For example, according to recent studies, the number of high school students who cannot read is
increasing, not decreasing. Also the number of high school students who have difficulty with simple mathematics is
increasing. Even students who graduate from high school and go to college show a depressing lack of knowledge.
In a geography class at a large university, 40% of the students could not find London on a map and almost 9%
could not find the city where they were attending college.
Paragraph 3 There are a number of possible reasons for the increase in the number of students who are not
receiving a good basic education. First, classes are sometimes too large. In some city schools, for example, there are
often between forty and fifty students in a class. Second, there are many teachers who do not know enough about
the subjects that they are teaching. The college programmes which train future teachers are not always good and do
not always attract the top students. But the problems are not always the fault of the teachers or the education
system. Often students who do not want to learn behave badly and disturb classes. Finally, according to some
people, television is also to blame for the lack of success of the public schools. Young people do not take time for
their homework. They grow to depend on television for entertainment and information, and therefore, they cannot
see any reason for reading in this modern world.
Paragraph 4 Clearly there are a number of different reasons for the poor quality of education that some students
are receiving in U.S. public schools. Any solutions to this problem will have to answer at least four questions. How
can we bring down the number of students in a class? How can we improve the quality of teachers and teacher
training? How can we solve the problem of students who disturb classes? How can we fight against the negative
influence of television? However, we do not have a great deal of time to find the answers to these questions.
Already, as a result of their dissatisfaction with the schools, some concerned parents are taking their children out of
public schools.
Paragraph 5 A second group of people is dissatisfied with the public schools for very different reasons.
These people usually have very conservative beliefs about life. They do not like the changes which they see every
day in American society, and they disagree with many of the ideas which their children hear and read about in
school. For example, they object to the sex education classes that some schools give. For them, sex education is not
a suitable subject for schools. They also object to schoolbooks that describe the lives of mothers who work outside
the home or of parents who are divorced. They do not like history books which criticise the U.S. for mistakes which
the U.S. made in the past.
Paragraph 6 These people have a solution to the problems of unsuitable books and classes. Their solution is not
to take their children out of the public schools. They put pressure on the people on the local school boards. They
also elect to the school boards people who share their ideas. Then the school boards will stop sex education and the
use of schoolbooks that do not agree with their ideas about life.
Paragraph 7 There are, however, many other people who completely disagree with the actions of these
conservatives. Thus, in the U.S. today there is a lot of discussion about very important questions in education. Who
will decide school programmes and books? Does the government have the right to decide? Can teachers decide? Do
only parents have the right to decide the things that their children learn in school? Watch the television and read
news magazine; you will hear a lot of different answers to these questions.
Exercise 1: Please decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the
sentence and write down the corresponding letter.
1. For example, according to recent studies, the number of high school students who cannot
29
read is increasing, not decreasing.
A. getting more in size or number C. getting worse in quality
B. becoming less in quantity
2. Even students who graduate from high school and go to college show a depressing lack of knowledge.
A. exciting B. shocking C. discouraging
3. Often students who do not want to learn behave badly and disturb classes.
A. change the usual order of B. leave without permission C. argue with the teachers of
4. Finally, according to some people, television is also to blame for the lack of success of the public schools.
A. be avoided B. be careful about C. be held responsible
Exercise 2: The reading passage has 7 paragraphs (1-7). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph
from the list of headings below. There is one extra heading which you do not have to use.
A. Why not learning enough in schools 5. Paragraph 1
B. Gerneral dissatisfactions of parents 6. Paragraph 2
C. Not learning enough in schools 7. Paragraph 3
D. A number of problems we need to solve 8. Paragraph 4
E. Trying to change school programmes 9. Paragraph 5
F. Discussion and disagreement about eduction 10. Paragraph 6
G. Better solutions to be same problem 11. Paragraph 7
H. Dissatisfaction of some conservatives

Exercise 3: There are four choices for each question. Refer to the passage U.S. Public Schools: What's Wrong
with Them and choose the correct answer by writing down the corresponding letter.
12. According to the passage, the first group of critics is worried that
A. high school students are not learning enough. B. there are not enough high schools.
C. teachers do not give enough homework. D. there are not enough teachers in schools.
13. Recent studies show that
A. more students cannot read. C. more students get worse scores.
B. more students prefer math. D. fewer students can read maps.
14. What doesn't the writer give as a reason why students in public schools do not learn enough?
A. Teachers C. Students B. Books D. Television
15. What does the second group of people criticise about the public schools?
A. The textbooks are too difficult to understand.
B. The teachers are not strict enough with the students:
C. The children are reading about ideas which these people don't like.
D. There are not enough suitable subjects to learn in schools.
16. How does the second group of critics solve its dissatisfaction with the public schools?
A. Try to change the regulations of the school boards. B. Take children out of the public schools.
C. Argue with people on the local school boards. D. Appoint people they like to the school boards.
Refer to ·the reading passage again and choose the correct answer by writing down the corresponding letters.
17. Which FOUR of the following reasons can explain why students do not learn enough in public schools?
A. There are too many students in one class. E. Some students are not well disciplined in class.
B. Public schools are too small. F. Students do not spend time on homework.
C. Many teachers are not qualified. G. TV programmes are not good enough.
D. There are not enough training programmes.

Unit 13- Passage one Getting Started with E-mail!

Electronic mail (e-mail) was started in the late 1960s by the U.S. military. Military officials were looking
for a way that communications could be carried out in the event of a large-scale nuclear war. They needed a system
that would be very decentralised, reliable, and fast in case central institutions were destroyed. They came up with e-
mail. Through the early 1970s, e-mail was limited to the U.S. military, defense contractors, and universities doing
defense research. By the 1970s, it had begun to spread more broadly within university communities. By the 1980s,
academics in a number of fields were using e-mail for professional collaboration. The early 1990s saw an explosion
of the use of e-mail and other computer networking tools for a wide range of professional, academic, and personal

30
purposes. A few thousand people were using e-mail in 1980, but it is estimated that more than 25 million people
throughout the world were using it in the mid-1990s.
E-mail is a way of sending a message from one computer to one or more other computers around the world.
First, you write down the e-mail address of the person you are sending the message to. Then, you write the
message, either directly in a special e-mail software program (such as Eudora, Pine, Elm, or MM) or first in a word-
processing program, and then transferring (uploading) it into the e-mail software. You should push a button to give
a simple command to send the message. The computer system you are connected to will break the message up into
tiny pieces and send them electronically to the destination. The pieces might travel numerous routes through other
computers on the way. Usually within 2-3 minutes, the pieces will all arrive at their destination, where the receiving
computer will reassemble them into a message. The person receiving the message can check his or her mail box at a
convenient time and read the mail. Normally the message would come in two parts: the heading and the body.
E-mail is both similar to and different from other means of communication (see table). Compared with
mail, for example, e-mail is a high-speed method of transferring information that allows rapid exchanges. You can
also send large amounts of information by e-mail that would be difficult to communicate by telephone. Unlike the
telephone, e-mail allows people to retrieve their messages at any time (although this is possible to a limited extent
with answering machines), e-mail allows easier data management than mail, fax, and telephone because all
communications and documents arrive via computer and can easily be stored, printed, or forwarded. A major
advantage of e-mail is that it allows one message to be sent to hundreds or even thousands of people all over the
world very inexpensively.

Characteristics Email Mail Fax Telephone

Transmits at high speed Yes No Yes Yes
Transmits Yes Yes Yes No
Allows easy data management Yes No No No
Allows transmission to one or many people Yes No No No
Costs little Yes ? ? ?

You will have to obtain Internet access first to be able to use e-mail as a powerful way of communication. But how
do you choose a means of lnternet access? The first point is to request and push for your school district or
university to provide Internet access. Internet access for teachers or students is seldom granted without a demand.
Present a concrete plan to your administration of what you would like to do, based on information in books and
discussion with other people, and you will likely have a better chance of succeeding.
Exercise 1: Please match the following words with the definitions.
1. transmit A. a member of a college or university
2. numerous B. very small
3. academic C. send from one person to another
4. military D. many
5. tiny E. of or connected with armies
6. reliable F. dependable
Exercise 2: Look at the following list of events and use the information in the passage Getting Started with E-
mail! to answer the questions. Please write
A. if it happened in the 1960s; C. if it happened in the 1980s;
B. if it happened in the 1970s; D. if it happened in the 1990s.
7. E-mail had a very limited usage in military-related areas. ……………………..
8. People tried to figure out a way of communication if central institutions were ruined. ……………………..
9. About 3,000 or 4,000 people were using e-mail. ……………………..
10. More professors in different universities started to use e-mail. ……………………..
11. Officials in army forces were seeking for a way to communicate in war-time. ……………………..
12. E-mail was widely used for personal information exchanges. ……………………..
13. University professors used e-mail for professional cooperation in certain areas. ……………………..
14. Millions of people in the world were using e-mail. ……………………..
Exercise 3: Multiple-Choice Questions: There are four choices for each question. Please refer to the
passage Getting Started with E-mail! and choose the correct answer by writing down the corresponding letter.
15. Which of the following steps may NOT be correct when you write your e-mail message?
31
 A. Writing the message directly in the software program Eudora
B. Uploading the message in Pine into a word-processing program
C. Transferring the message in the word-processing program into Elm
D. Writing the message directly in any special e-mail software programs
16. When you press a button to send the message, the message will
A. be sent electronically by the computer in 2 or 3 minutes.
B. be broken into small pieces first and later be reassembled.
C. travel only one route but through different computers.
D. be read by the receiver as soon as the message arrives.
17. How many parts is an e-mail message mainly composed of?
A. Three B. Five C. Four D. Two
18. What is the advantage stated in the passage which e-mail has over fax?
A. The information can be transmitted at a high speed.
B. The information can be transmitted in large quantity.
C. The information can be transmitted to one or many people.
D. The cost of transmission is less than that of the other ways.
19. To apply for Internet access to your university, you should write a plan based on
A. discussion with other people C. information from computer stores
B. newspaper advertisements D. advice from Internet-service providers
Unit 13- Passage two Educating Our Mobile Children
One of the greatest concerns parents have when facing an international move is "What schooling will be
available to my child? Will my child be disadvantaged academically as a result of this move?" Although this fear is
certainly strongest in families moving overseas for the first time, even those who may be more experienced often
have concerns about their children's education.
Dr. Ernest Mannino, Director of the State Department's Office of Overseas Schools, and Dr. Keith Miller,
Deputy Director of the office, spoke candidly about some of the common concerns parents have regarding the
education of their children. Dr. Mannino and Dr. Miller caution parents against making assumptions about their
children's education. To make an educated choice, parents need to think through schooling issues and to research.
Post schools as far in advance of a move as possible.
Children who are internationally mobile have many choices of schools to attend. In most major cities, there
are schools based on the U.S., French, German, and British systems. Some parents also choose to become their
children's teachers through home education. Which school is appropriate for your child is an individual decision
based on many factors.
One of the primary factors that should be considered is what type of college or university your child will
attend after high school. Some parents want an international education instead of just an education within an
American system school and fortunately, they have the opportunity to go to these types of schools. But what
parents must keep in mind is whether this school will best prepare your child for education beyond high school.
Parents may be tempted to alternate their children's school system in order to enhance cross-cultural
understanding, but many experts suggest just the opposite. Mannino and Miller warn that differences in the
sequencing of curriculum exist in the high school grades; moving your child from one academic system to another
during this time can handicap a child academically. At the very least, the parents should learn what the differences
in curriculum are and try to keep the child in one system (although this may be in more than one location) for all of
the high school years. It is clear that whatever continuity you can provide these children is important. The nice
thing about the American school system or the French, German or whichever, is that it is the same school system
throughout their lives.
Many parents are hoping their children will enter a college or university in their home country. Especially
in the high school years, it is important to select the school system that will best prepare your child for the college
of choice and stick with that system throughout the high school years. Other factors that affect school choice
include your child's grade, language skills and personality. Despite some parents' desires to have their children learn
other languages through their schooling option, most children will want to go to school that has other children from
their passport culture.
The international school systems offer considerable benefits to the mobile child. Unlike some students in
domestic schools, students in international schools have a stronger sense of empathy for new kids since almost
everyone has been new at one time or another. Many of the international schools also have excellent academic
32
standards. The Office of Overseas Schools reports that graduates of the approximately 190 schools it assists achieve
SAT scores well above the national average. These children also often make it into excellent universities, in part
because of their international schooling.
Exercise 1: Match the following words with the definitions.
1. assumption A. in a sincerely honest way
2. candidly B. of one's own country
3. alternate C. fairly large
4. domestic D. something that is taken as a fact without proof
5. enhance E. to (cause to) follow by turns
6. considerable F. to increase
Exercise 2- Matching the phrase: Read the passage Educating Our Mobile Children and choose, according to
the passage, one phrase (A-H) from the list of phrases to complete each key point below. There are more phrases
than key points, so you will not use them all.
7. Most of the families moving overseas will worry about ……………………..
8. To parents who need to make choices for their children's education, ……………………..
9. An important factor which parents should think about is……………………..
10. Many experts agree that……………………..
11. To keep the children in one system in high schools, parents may have to ……………………..
A. the type of university their children will attend. B. where to move internationally
C. making decisions about their children’s education D. it is advised to make some researches in advance
E. it is better to keep the child within one school system F. enhance their children’s tolerance
G. certain systems are better than the others H. stay in more than one location

Exercise 3: Summary Completion: The following is a summary of the passage. Fill in the gaps by choosing from
the words or phrases listed in the box below the summary. Remember that there are more choices than you can use.
One of the greatest concerns families moving overseas have is the 12…………………………....……. to their
children's education resulting from their international move. Some experts warn the parents against making
13. ………………………..……. about their children's education. To those who are making an educated choice for their
children, 14. ………………………..……. are something they need to think through in advance, There could be many
choices of schools for children who are 15. …………………….……. and parents will have to make decisions 16.
…………………..……. about the appropriate school for their children. One factor which affects the school choices is the
type of university your child will attend. Due to the differences in the 17. ………………….………..……. experts suggest
not to move your children from one 18. ………………………..……. to another. Otherwise children may be academically
19. ………………..……. . The international school systems 20. ………………………..……. the mobile children considerably.
Comparatively speaking, students in the international schools may 21. ………………………..……. more with the new
kids because everybody has been in a similar situation at one time or another. The report from the Office of
Overseas Schools shows that graduates from approximately 190 international schools have achieved SAT scores
well above the national average.
Internationally moble disadvantages empathise sequencing of curriculum
Available Benefit schooling issues handicapped
Individually academic system encourage average
Assumptions personality decisions

Unit 14- Passage one Which Is Better, Tap Water or Bottled Water?
Water from the tap- is it safe? Tap water is not always fit to drink. Most problems with water
contamination are not with public water supplies, but with private wells and small water companies. Bottled water
is only safer than tap water that has not been properly treated to remove contaminants. If a farm well contains
bacteria, drinking bottled water is an alternative to installing expensive filters. Some wells are contaminated with
toxic organic chemicals from leaking underground gasoline tanks or landfills. Other wells are contaminated with
pesticides. Removal of these chemicals may be too expensive or even impossible. In that case, bottled water may be
the only safe supply of water available.
The US Environment Protection Agency (EPA) estimated in 1986 that some 40 million Americans were
using drinking water containing a hazardous level of lead. If the level of lead in the drinking water is more than 5
parts per million, steps should be taken to reduce the level. If the lead level cannot be reduced sufficiently, bottled
33
water should be considered. The only way to determine if bottled water is safer to drink than water from the tap is
to compare the laboratory test results. The results of tests for substances regulated by EPA should be available from
the water company that supplies the tap water. If the source of tap water is a private well, the owner should have a
water sample analysed by an approved laboratory.
Is it healthier? The Fair Packaging and Labelling Act prohibits bottles from .making claims that
bottled water is healthier than tap water. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) requirements prohibit bottled
water labels from listing the minerals the water contains because they believe that the amounts are so small that
there is little if any added benefit from drinking bottled water. Some buyers may feel that the minerals in bottled
water make it healthier. According to the American Medical Association, there may be a slight chance that bottled
water is more
healthful, but any benefits would be very small when compared to exercising, eating properly or not smoking.
Some customers have switched from high calories drinks like soda or beer to bottled water. Others drink bottled
water because it is a socially acceptable alternative to alcohol.
Unless your tap water is contaminated, bottled water may offer few, if any, health or safety benefits. It may
simply be draining money from your wallet. In fact, some brands of bottled water may not be as healthy as your
own tap water. A study by Consumer Reports magazines tested more than forty bottled water products as well as
tap water from six different cities. They found the levels of some toxic chemicals in a few brands of bottled water
exceeded the standards.
Does it taste better? Some brands of bottled water do taste better than water from some taps. Most
public and private water suppliers use chlorine as a disinfectant. Most bottling companies purify the water with
ozone. Ozone, like chlorine, kills bacteria. It is more expensive to use, but the water has a better flavour. Some
people drink water from a bottle because they prefer the taste. The taste of water usually depends upon the minerals
that have been dissolved from rocks. The only water that is likely to be free of minerals is distilled water. Distilled
water is generally not purchased for drinking, but for use in batteries and steam irons. Distilled water is also used in
chemical laboratories where minerals might interfere with chemical reactions.
Although bottled water does not taste better than water from most deep wells, some deep wells are drilled
into rock with high sulfur content. The taste of sulfur may make water from these wells unacceptable for drinking.
There are several reasons why more and more people are buying bottled water. For some people it is a safety issue,
but for most it is a matter of taste.
Exercise 1: Decide which of the following choices is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence
and write down the corresponding letter.
1. If a farm well contains bacteria, drinking bottled water is an alternative to installing expensive filters.
A. another chance B. another choice C. another result
2. Americans were using drinking water containing a hazardous level of lead.
A. high B. dangerous C. average
3. Most public and private water suppliers use chlorine as a disinfectant.
A. a substance used to destroy bacteria B. a substance used to make the water taste better
C. a substance used to add minerals to the water
4. The taste of water usually depends upon the minerals that have been dissolved from rocks.
A. caused to be formed B. caused to become liquid C. caused to be valued
Exercise 2: Refer to the passage "Which Is Better, Tap Water or Bottled Water? and answer the following
questions with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the passage.
5. What kind of wells is comparatively easier to be contaminated? ………………………………….
6. What is suggested when it is too expensive to install filters for a farm well? ………………………………….
7. What is given as an example of chemicals which are sometimes impossible to remove? ………………………………….
8. According to an estimate given by EPA in 1986, what should be reduced? ………………………………….
9. What is very important in determining whether bottled water is safer than tap water? ………………………………….
10. Besides making improper claims, what else are the bottled water companies forbidden to do? ……………………….
11. What may affect chemical reactions if bottled water is used in laboratories? ………………………………….
12. What may cause a problem when people drink water from some deep wells? ………………………………….
Exercise 3: Yes/No/Not Given Questions.
13. Bottled water is generally considered safer than all tap water. …………………………..
14. Action should be taken when the level of lead in drinking water is too high. …………………………..
15. The owner of a private well should present a sample analysis to EPA. …………………………..

34
16. The FDA thinks that minerals contained in bottled water are quite beneficial to health. …………………………..
17. Drinking bottled water is considered as equally beneficial as exercising. …………………………..
18. According to the passage, drinking bottled water sometimes could be a waste of money. …………………………..
19. A study by Consumer Reports magazines shows that it is not always safe to drink bottled water. ……………………..
20. Lots of bottling companies use ozone to bring water a better flavour. …………………………..

Unit 14- Passage two Job-Sharing: Half a Job Is Better than None
The social effects of job-sharing are likely to be beneficial, since it attempts to match work opportunities to
a wider variety of lifestyles. The combination of one full-time and one part-time spouse might become much more
common: which was the husband and which was the wife would vary according to taste, time of life and career
requirements.
What exactly is job-sharing? The Equal Opportunities Commission (EOC) defines it as "a form of part-time
employment where two people voluntarily share the responsibility of one full-time position." Salary and benefits
are divided between the two sharers. Each person's terms and conditions of employment are the same as those of a
full-timer. If each works at least 15 hours a week, then they enjoy certain employment rights that ordinary part-time
workers do not have.
Part-timers usually earn less per hour than full-timers, have fewer benefits and less job security. They have
virtually no career prospects. Employers often think that working part-time means that a person has no ambitions
and so offer no chance of promotion. But job-sharing bridges that gap and offers the chance of interesting work to
people who can only work part-time and that does not mean just married women. As Adrienne Broyle of "New
Ways to work" - formerly the London Job-Sharing Project- points out: "There are various reasons why people
decide they want to job-share and so have more free time. "
"A growing number of men want to job-share so that they can play an active role in bringing up their
children. It allows people to study at home in their free time, and means that disabled people or those who
otherwise stay at home to look after them, can work. Job-sharing is also an ideal way for people to ease into
retirement."
Many employers are careful of new work schemes, but a survey carried out by the EOC shows that they
can profit in various ways from sharing. If one sharer is away sick, at least half the job continues to be done. Skilled
workers who cannot work full-time can bring years of experience to a job.
One job-sharer in the EOC survey said, "Both I and my job-sharer do at least one and a half times the hours
of work we are paid for. Half-timers have to work flat out without a tea break." Another attraction is that two
people bring to one job twice as much experience, sets of ideas and discussion. At best, two workers can
complement one another's skills.
But there are financial pitfalls for the job-sharers. If you become unemployed, you should be eligible for
Unemployment Benefit. But you have to sign on as being available for full-time work. So, those who chose to job-
share because they could not work full-time cannot claim the benefit unless they are prepared to sign on for full-
time employment. Pensions are a big stumbling block. Many job-sharers may be ineligible to join company pension
schemes. The EOC paper points out that the Local Government Scheme excludes people who work under 30 hours
a week. Those who are attracted to job-sharing as a way of easing into retirement, beware. Most occupational
pension schemes are based either on the average annual earnings during member ship of the scheme, or on the
employee's final salary. In the latter case, it could mean that a person who has worked for 15 years full-time, and
job shares for the next five years for the same firm, will receive a very much smaller pension than if she or he had
worked those last five years full-time.
Exercise 1: Please match the following words with the definitions.
1. spouse A. unexpected danger or difficulty
2. pitfall B. advancement in rank or position
3. promotion C. a general view
4. voluntary D. a husband or wife
5. survey E. to make (something) complete
6. complement F. acting willingly without payment
Exercise 2: Yes/No/Not Given Questions
7. It is suggested that wives should try job-sharing. …………………………
8. Job-sharers volunteer to share the responsibility of one full-time job. …………………………
35
9. The job-sharers may enjoy employment rights which common part-timers do not have. …………………………
10. Not qualifying for any benefits is one of the disadvantages part-timers have. …………………………
11. Part-timers are not considered ambitious, but they will still be promoted. …………………………
12. Now there are more men than women who want to job-share. …………………………
Exercise 3: Note completion
Complement studying benefits earnings unemployed valued
Doubled experience pension schemes pension retirement disability
Advantages: Attractive to people who wish to spend their free time 13. ………………………………at home as well as
people with a 14. ………………………… .An ideal way to move into 15. ……………………………….. Years of 16.
………………………… brought to the job by some skilled job-sharers Sets of ideas brought to the job could be 17.
…………………………. 18. …………………………. in the skills between two workers
Disadvantages: Have problems while 19. …………………………. . Unable to claim 20. ………………………….. Not qualified
to join the 21. …………………………. of the company. Smaller 22. …………………………. for those who have job-shared
for last 5 years

Unit 15- Passage one:Food Agency Takes on Industry over Junk Labels
Consumers are to be presented with two rival new year advertising campaigns as the Food Standards
Agency (FSA) goes public in its battle with the industry over the labelling of unhealthy foods. The Guardian has
learned that the FSA will launch a series of 10-second television adverts in January telling shoppers how to follow a
red, amber and green traffic light labelling system on the front of food packs, which is designed to tackle Britain's
obesity epidemic.
The campaign is a direct response to a concerted attempt by leading food manufacturers and retailers,
including Kellogg's and Tesco, to derail the system. The industry fears that traffic lights would demonise entire
categories of foods and could seriously damage the market for those that are fatty, salty or high in sugar. The UK
market for breakfast cereals is worth £1.27bn a year and the manufacturers fear it will be severely dented if red
light labels are put on packaging drawing attention to the fact that the majority are high in salt and/or sugar.
The industry is planning a major marketing campaign for a competing labelling system which avoids
colour-coding in favour of information about the percentage of “guideline daily amounts" (GDAs) of fat, salt and
sugar contained in their products. The battle for the nation's diet comes as new rules on television advertising come
into force in January which will bar adverts for unhealthy foods from commercial breaks during programmes aimed
at children. Sources at the TV regulators are braced for a legal challenge from the industry and have described the
lobbying efforts to block any new ad ban or colour-coded labelling as "the most ferocious we've ever experienced".
Ofcom' s chief executive, Ed Richards, said: "We are prepared to face up to any legal action from the
industry, but we very much hope it will not be necessary." The FSA said it was expecting an onslaught from the
industry in January. Senior FSA officials said the manufacturers' efforts to undermine its proposals on labelling
could threaten the agency's credibility.
Terrence Collis, FSA director of communications, dismissed claims that the proposals were not based on
science. "We have some of the most respected scientists in Europe, both within the FSA and in our independent
advisory committees. It is unjustified and nonsensical to attack the FSA's scientific reputation and to try to
undermine its credibility."
The FSA is understood to have briefed its ad agency, United, before Christmas, and will aim to air ads that
are "non-confrontational, humorous and factual" as a counterweight to industry's efforts about the same time. The
agency, however, will have a tiny fraction of the budget available to the industry.
Gavin Neath, chairman of Unilever UK and president of the Food and Drink Federation, has said that the
industry has made enormous progress but could not accept red "stop" signs on its food. Alastair Sykes, chief
executive of Nestle UK, said that under the FSA proposals all his company's confectionery and most of its cereals
would score a red. "Are we saying people shouldn't eat confectionery? We're driven by consumers and what they
want, and much of what we do has been to make our products healthier," he said.
Chris Wermann, director of communications at Kellogg's, said: "In principle we could never accept traffic
light labelling." The rival labelling scheme introduced by Kellogg's, Danone, Unilever, Nestle, Kraft and Tesco and
now favoured by 21 manufacturers uses an industry-devised system based on identifying GDAs of key nutrients.
Tesco says it has tested both traffic lights and GDA labels in its stores, and that the latter increased sales of
healthier foods. But the FSA said it could not live with this GDA system alone because it was "not scientific" or
easy for shoppers to understand at a glance.
36
Exercise 1: Match the following words with the definitions.
1. amber A. stupid or full of nonsense
2. undermine B. a plan or suggestion
3. confectionery C. a person who buys goods and uses services
4. consumer D. a yellowish-brown colour
5. nonsensical E. sweet cakes, ice cream or sweets
6. proposal F. to weaken or to slowly destroy
Exercise 2: Short-Answer Questions. Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
7. When will instructions be given on reading the colour-coded labels? ………………………………
8. Where can customers find the red light labels? ………………………………
9. What problem is the FSA trying to handle with the labelling system? ………………………………
10. Which product mentioned sells well but may not be healthy? ………………………………
11. What information do the manufacturers prefer to label on products? ………………………………
12. What can NOT be advertised during children's programmes? ………………………………
Exercise 3: Use the information in the text to match the people (A-E) with the opinions (13-19) below.
Write the appropriate letters (A-E) for questions 13-19. NB You may use any letter more than once.
A. Ed Richards C. Gavin Neath E. Chris Wermann
B. Terrence Collis D. Alastair Sykes
13. Generally we will not agree to use the new system…………….
14. It is unreasonable to doubt if the FSA is trustworthy…………..
15. We are trying to meet our customers' needs…………….
16. The manufacturers have been improving greatly………………
17. The colour-coded labelling system is credible…………….
18. Our products will be labelled unhealthy by the FSA…………
19. We are ready to confront the manufacturers……………

Unit 15: How Shops Can Exploit People's Herd Mentality to Increase Sales
A trip to the supermarket may not seem like an exercise in psychological warfare – but it is. Shopkeepers
know that filling a store with the aroma of freshly baked bread makes people feel hungry and persuades them to
buy more food than they had intended. Stocking the most expensive products at eye level makes them sell faster
than cheaper but less visible competitors. Now researchers are investigating how "swarm intelligence" (that is, how
ants, bees or any social animal, including humans, behave in a crowd) can be used to influence what people buy.
At a recent conference on the simulation of adaptive behaviour in Rome, Zeeshan-ul-hassan Usmani, a
computer scientist from the Florida Institute of Technology, described a new way to increase impulse buying using
this phenomenon. Supermarkets already encourage shoppers to buy things they did not realise they wanted: for
instance, by placing everyday items such as milk and eggs at the back of the store, forcing shoppers to walk past
other tempting goods to reach them. Mr. Usmani and Ronaldo Menezes, also of the Florida Institute ofTechnology,
set out to enhance this tendency to buy more by playing on the herd instinct. The idea is that, if a certain product is
seen to be popular, shoppers are likely to choose it too. The challenge is to keep customers informed about what
others are buying.
Enter smart-cart technology. In Mr. Usmani's supermarket every product has a radio frequency
identification tag, a sort of barcode that uses radio waves to transmit information, and every trolley has a scanner
that reads this information and relays it to a central computer. As a customer walks past a shelf of goods, a screen
on the shelf tells him how many people currently in the shop have chosen that particular product. If the number is
high, he is more likely to select it too.
Mr. Usmani's "swarm-moves" model appeals to supermarkets because it increases sales without the need to
give people discounts. And it gives shoppers the satisfaction of knowing that they bought the "right" product - that
is, the one everyone else bought. The model has not yet been tested widely in the real world, mainly because radio
frequency identification technology is new and has only been installed experimentally in some supermarkets. But
Mr. Usmani says that both Wal-Mart in America and Tesco in Britain are interested in his work, and testing will get
under way in the spring.
Another recent study on the power of social influence indicates that sales could, indeed, be boosted in this
way. Matthew Salganik of Columbia University in New York and his colleagues have described creating an
artificial music market in which some 14,000 people downloaded previously unknown songs. The researchers
37
found that when people could see the songs ranked by how many times they had been downloaded, they followed
the crowd. When the songs were not ordered by rank, but the number of times they had been downloaded was
displayed, the effect of social influence was still there but was less pronounced. People thus follow the herd when it
is easy for them to do so.
In Japan, a chain of convenience shops called RanKing RanQueen has been ordering its products according
to sales data from department stores and research companies. The shops sell only the most popular items in each
product category, and the rankings are updated weekly. lcosystem, a company in Cambridge, Massachusetts, also
aims to exploit knowledge of social networking to improve sales.
And the psychology that works in physical stores is just as potent on the Internet. Online retailers such as
Amazon are adept at telling shoppers which products are popular with like-minded consumers. Even in the privacy
of your home, you can still be part of the swarm.
Exercise 1: Match the following words with the definitions.
1. visible A. to put something in place ready for use
2. impulse B. to give the latest information
3. install C. a strong pleasant smell from food or drink
4. update D. not natural but made by people
5. aroma E. a sudden strong wish to do something
6. artificial F. able to be seen
Exercise 2: Complete the sentences [Link] NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
7. Shop owners realise that the smell of ………………..……………. can increase sales of food products.
8. In shops, products shelved at a more visible level sell better even if they are more ………………..…………….
9. Mr. Usmani thinks that the use of"swarm intelligence" phenomenon can encourage ………………..…………….
10. On the way to daily necessities at the back of the store, consumers might be tempted to buy …………..…………….
11. If the number of buyers shown on the ………………..……………. is high, other customers tend to follow them.
12. Using the "swarm-moves" model, shop owners do not have to give customers …………..………… to increase sales.
Exercise 3: Yes/No/Not Given Questions.
13. The "swarm-moves" model was once tested experimentally in big supermarkets like Wal-Mart. ……………
14. People tend to download more unknown songs than songs they are familiar with. ……………
15. Songs ranked high by the number of times downloaded are favoured by customers. ……………
16. People follow others to the same extent whether or not it is convenient. ……………
17.1tems sold in some Japanese stores are chosen according to the sales data of other shops. ……………
18. "Swarm intelligence" can also be observed in everyday life. ……………

Unit 16 Sample Reading Test

Section 1: Question 1 – 11: The Air around Us
One factor that affects our weather is the atmosphere. The transfer of heat or light waves of energy is called
radiation. As the light energy travels through the atmosphere, some of waves are deflected by water droplets or dust
particles. This is why we often see a rainbow when the Sun shines after a rain.
Much of the solar energy (30%) coming from the Sun is reflected by the air, the clouds and objects on
Earth's surface. An additional 20 percent of the incoming solar radiation is absorbed by clouds, dust particles, water
vapour, and other gases in the atmosphere. Thus only 50 percent of the solar radiation coming from the Sun is
absorbed by Earth and objects on it.
When solar energy strikes an object, the energy that is absorbed is changed from a short wavelength form
(light energy) to a long wavelength form of energy. We cannot see the long wavelengths of energy given off by the
object, but we feel the energy as heat. It is the heat energy radiating from Earth's surface that warms up the
atmosphere.
In a desert, where the air is clear and dry, 90 percent of the solar radiation reaches Earth and is changed to
heat energy. While the daytime temperatures may be extremely high, the nights get cold because as much as 90
percent of the heat passes back into space. The desert is covered by only a very thin blanket of the major heat-
trapping gas- water vapour.
Where the air is humid, the daytime temperatures may be warm, but they do not reach the extreme highs
recorded in the desert. The water vapour in the atmosphere acts as a curtain that reflects light energy. The land may
receive only 40 percent of the incoming solar radiation. At night, the water vapour acts as a thick blanket that
prevents the heat from escaping, so the night time temperatures remain warm.
38
 Earth's atmosphere is like the glass in a greenhouse or car window. While the short wavelengths of light
energy pass through the glass, most of the longer wavelengths of heat energy are trapped. Although the atmosphere
does not trap heat in the same way a greenhouse does, the warming of the atmosphere is called the greenhouse
effect. Planet Earth is a rather pleasant place to live because of the greenhouse effect that is created by its
atmosphere.
Another important feature of the atmosphere is the cloud cover. Today, meteorologists are spending more
time and energy on the study of clouds than on any other area of research. Clouds are airborne masses of water
droplets or ice crystals. Smoke, whether from forest fires, chimneys, or automobiles, adds particles to the air. Winds
pick up small particles of salt from the ocean or dust from exposed soil. All of these particles provide surfaces for
the condensation of water vapour.
When moist air is pushed upward and is cooled, the water vapour begins to condense around these small
particles. Water droplets or ice crystals will be formed, depending upon the temperature. The result of this process
is the formation of clouds.
The features of Earth's surface and the movement of its winds determine where the moisture will fall. The
amount of moisture that is returned to Earth each year can vary from less than one inch, that falls in the interior of
the Sahara Desert, to as much as 50 feet, that falls on Mount Waialeale in Hawaii- the wettest spot on Earth.
Destruction of the tropical rainforest could affect weather over the entire planet. Transpiration from plants
in the Amazon rainforest is an important source of water vapour for the formation of clouds. Clouds are an
important factor in adjusting Earth's temperature. They may be an effective sunscreen that reflects significant
amounts of light energy. They also are an effective blanket that traps heat energy.
If you change the chemistry of atmosphere; the climate may change. The amount of water vapour and other
heat-trapping gases in the atmosphere helps to regulate the temperature of the planet.
Question 1-8: Read the passage The Air around Us and complete the sentences below with words taken
from the passage. In boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet, write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
1. The writer of the passage is trying to tell us how our weather is affected by the ………………………………
2. The percentage of the solar radiation finally taken by Earth is ………………………………
3. The name we give to the energy that warms up the atmosphere is ………………………………
4. In a desert, the daytime temperatures are high because most of the solar radiation is changed to ………………………
5. In humid places, the water vapour during the daytime is compared to a ………………………………
6. According to the passage, it is the ……………………………… that prevents the night temperatures from dropping.
7. Clouds are mainly composed of water droplets or ………………………………
8. The climate may change with the change in the ………………………………
Question 9-11: Read the passage The Air around Us and answer the multiple-choice questions by circling
the letter of the correct answer. In boxes 9-11 on your answer sheet, write the corresponding letters.
9. According to the passage, the places where rain and snow fall are determined by the
Earth's surface and
A. temperature C. moisture B. winds D. oceans
10. Which of the following is NOT true based on the passage?
A. Less than half the solar radiation is reflected by the air.
B. Smoke and winds affect the condensation of water vapour.
C. The tropical rainforest is important in the formation of clouds.
D. Clouds are important in reflecting a large amount of heat energy.
11. The purpose of the passage can be best described as
A. persuasive C. informative B. encouraging D. argumentative

Section 2: Question 12 – 26: Closing the Gender Gap

Section A: The benefits of educating girls are enormous. By empowering women within their families
and communities, education enables women to contribute more fully to the social and economic development of
their societies. A girl's education is also an investment in future generations; the more educated a mother is, the
more likely are her children to be educated.
Section B: The educational level achieved by women has the most powerful influence on family size.
The impact of education on family size is strongest and most consistent for women who have completed some
secondary education. Educating girls is three times more likely than educating boys to lower family size. Education

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appears to affect family size in many ways. More educated women not [Link] fewer children than less educated
ones, they are also more likely to marry and have children later, contributing to smaller family size.
Section C: Unfortunately, in many low-income countries, investment in education has not kept up
with the rapidly increasing school-age population. Many developing countries cut social spending during the 1980s,
putting more responsibility on families for financing education. Direct costs such as school fees, transportation,
uniforms and books make it more difficult for poor families to educate all their children and parents in many
countries give priority to sons.
Section D: Parents may see limited economic benefits in educating daughters. In many countries, girls
are more likely than their brothers to be kept home to perform household chores, including caring for younger
children. For these and other reasons, including early marriage and pregnancy, dropout rates for girls also tend to be
higher than those for boys. In some cultures, parents are reluctant to allow their daughters to travel long distances to
school, to be taught by male teachers and to enrol in schools without separate activities for girls.
Section E: Efforts to increase female enrolment levels must recognise the complex factors limiting
educational opportunities for girls, as well as their continued enrolment once within the school system. Building
more schools is often important to expand educational opportunities for girls. But especially in poor countries, more
efficient use of existing resources for education could make possible the enrolment of more girls.
Section F: Hiring more female teachers and providing separate facilities for girls can help to
overcome cultural barriers. In some countries, financial assistance such as scholarships for girls has also proved
successful in encouraging parents to keep their daughters in school. Flexible school schedules can help to
accommodate girls who have to work at home.
Section G: Providing access to good quality family planning services remains the most effective way
to lower population growth rates in developing countries. Average family size and child death rates are lowest,
however, in countries that combine strong family planning and health programmes with high levels of education for
women.
Question 12 – 18: The reading passage Closing the Gender Gap has 7 sections A-G. Choose the most suitable
heading for each section from the list of headings on the next page. In boxes 12-18 on your answer sheet, write the
appropriate numbers (I-VIII). There is an extra heading which you will not need.
I How to get more girls into school 12. Section A
II Responsibility for educating parents 13. Section B
III Educational problems of girls 14. Section C
IV Now parents must pay 15. Section D
V Solving some other problems 16. Section E
VI Family planning plus schooling 17. Section F
VII Importance of female education 18. Section G
VIII Educating girls means smaller families
Questions 19-23: Read the passage Closing the Gender Gap and look at the following statements. In boxes
19-23 on your answer sheet, write TRUE, FALSE or NOT GIVEN.
19. The children of a more educated mother are likely to be more educated …………………….
20. To control family size, it is as effective to educate boys as to educate girls. …………………….
21. More educated women tend to have just two children. …………………….
22. In many developing countries, families are made financially responsible for educating their children. …………….
23. Parents may not think that it is economically beneficial to educate girls. …………………….
Questions 24-26: Refer to the passage and answer the following questions. In boxes 24-26 on your answer
sheet, write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the passage.
24. What is high for girls due to early marriage and pregnancy? …………………….
25 . What do people consider important to create more educational opportunities for girls? …………………….
26. What can help girls who cannot study in school due to work at home? …………………….

Section 3: Questions 27- 40.

Health Care: Helping the Sick
Candy Stripers: A candy striper works in a hospital or medical facility. They are called candy
stripers because of their pink aprons. Candy stripers can work on either a volunteer or paid basis. Candy stripers
help sick people feel more comfortable in hospitals. Their duties include delivering newspapers, flowers and mail to

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patients. Most candy stripers are students. They come to work after classes. Many elderly people also work as
candy stripers.
Physical Therapists: Physical therapists help people regain physical mobility after an accident, illness or
surgery. A physical therapist works closely with a patient's doctor to relieve pain and increase the mobility of the
affected body part. To be a physical therapist you will need a master's degree in physical therapy. Then you must be
certified by the state. Physical therapy is a rapidly growing field.
Emergency Medical Technicians: The emergency medical technician, or EMT, is the first level of
trained life support a patient is likely to meet following a car accident or an emergency health situation. EMTs are
certified to take blood pressure and perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation. They can also give oxygen. Most
community colleges offer the minimum requirement of 120 hours of study along with the proper certification. With
enough further training, you can become a paramedic.
Paramedics: Paramedics do work similar to that of EMTs, but they are state certified to practice
more advanced procedures and have more responsibilities. They can administer specific drugs and intravenous, or
IV, solutions. Paramedics report for duty at hospitals. From there they are sent to emergency sites, often along with
an EMT, who is second-in-command. To become a paramedic, you must first become an EMT. Then you continue
your schooling for another eighteen months or two years. Starting salaries for paramedics range between $25,000
and $27,000 a year.
Medical Assistants: Medical assistants work under the direction of a doctor to assist in the examination
and treatment of patients. They interview patients, measure vital signs such as pulse rate, temperature, blood
pressure, weight, and height, and record information on patients' charts. They also prepare treatment rooms for
examination of patients by draping patients with a covering, and positioning instruments and equipment. During the
examination, medical assistants hand instruments and materials to a doctor as directed. After the examination, they
clean and sterilise instruments.
Physicians: To become a physician, or medical doctor, you must complete a long course of
training. Before applying for medical school, a student must first have a bachelor's degree from a four-year college.
Then, a student must attend medical school, which takes four years to complete. Next, the doctor must complete an
internship and a residency at a hospital. These are the doctor's first jobs when he or she works in a hospital learning
from experienced doctors. These generally take another four years. After several more years of practice and
training, doctors are eligible to take the board certification exams. Doctors can work in hospitals, private practice,
medical groups, relief organisations or government agencies.
Question 27 – 32: Look at the following list of required works numbered 27-32 and decide by whom the
work should be done according to the duties mentioned in the passage Health Care: Helping the Sick. You can use
the choices more than once. In boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet, write
A. if it should be done by Candy Stripers; 27. interviewing patients
B. if it should be done by Physical Therapists; 28. giving orders to EMT in emergency sites
C. if it should be done by Emergency Medical 29. delivering letters to patients
Technicians; 30. helping patients to move properly
D. if it should be done by Paramedics; 31. taking blood pressure in emergency sites
E. if it should be done by Medical Assistants. 32. recording information about patients

Question 33 – 40: Refer to the passage Health Care: Helping the Sick and look at the following statements.
In boxes 33-40 on your answer sheet, write YES/ NO/ NOT GIVEN:
33. Candy stripers working in hospitals are all paid. ………………………….
34. Elderly people work more hours as candy stripers than students do. ………………………….
35. You don't need to be certified to be a physical therapist if you have a master's degree. ………………………….
36. An EMT needs more training to be a paramedic. ………………………….
37. Paramedics often wait in the hospitals until EMTs take the patients back from emergency sites. ……………………….
38. Medical assistants have to make sure that the instruments are in the right positions for examinations. ……………….
39. One must spend four years in a medical school to be a medical doctor. ………………………….
40. Doctors working to complete an internship at a hospital are not paid well. ………………………….

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Unit 17 Sample Reading Test
Section 1: Question 1 – 14 Victoria READ Society
Why We Are Needed: Basic literacy skills provide the key to success in today's world. Imagine the daily
fear that your teacher will ask you to read aloud during class. Imagine knowing that your friends will laugh because
you have made another mistake. Imagine pretending you do not care every day. Imagine not being able to read your
bus or TV schedule. Imagine not being able to fill out an application form for a job because you cannot read.
Literacy leads to success in everyday life.
Who We Are: The Victoria READ Society was founded in 1976. Two teachers were hired to
provide basic instruction in reading, writing, maths, and study skills to children who were having difficulty with
their school work. Now, we serve over 700 students in three locations in Greater Victoria. Our students know that
their problems with learning affect their ability to succeed in schools, in jobs, in retraining programmes, and in
coping with the basic demands of everyday life.
READ is a non-profit society and is run by a volunteer Board of Directors with 29 staff. READ teachers are
all specially trained and B.C. certified.
Our Commitment: Reading and understanding words and numbers unlock the door to everything in
our world. At READ, we bring students into the world of knowledge and opportunity, giving them the skills
necessary to become fully participating members of society.
Programmes: The Victoria READ Society offers the following specialised programmes:
 Academic Assessment – Identifies strengths & weaknesses on which to have an individual programme.
 CORE – Students centred one to one part-time programme for children and adults.
 ABS – Adult Basic skills, Full time small classes of adults to develop basic literacy skills and job
readiness skills.
 LINC – Language Instruction for Newcomers to Canada. Full-time English as a Second Language
classes.
 ESL for work – Full time for adults – preparation for employment.
 Support Networks – Full time job readiness programme for adults with literacy needs.
READ has supported community development initiatives both inside and outside the organisation through
programmes such as Support Networks, Literacy Materials Bulletin, Project Literacy Victoria, and Literacy B.C.
Bursary Fund: Most of our CORE programme funding comes from tuition fees . However, our
Bursary Fund subsidises tuition for children whose famr lies cannot pay the full amount. Financial support comes
from the Provincial Employees Community Services Fund, the Vancouver Foundation, service clubs, the Public
Gaming Commission, individual donors and our annual "READ Festival". Over 400 children receive individualised
instruction each year in the CORE programme, with over 80 families receiving financial assistance from the
Bursary Fund.
Our Success: The Victoria READ Society is very proud of its accomplishments over the past
twenty years. Many of our students have now graduated from university or community college or have found
satisfying employment. Many have returned to thank us for helping them attaining their personal goals. READ is
unique because it is independent from schools and colleges. READ is able to offer the specialised and intensive
instruction that many students need to be confident and successful.
Questions 1-7: Read the passage Victoria READ Society and complete the summary below by choosing
one word or phrase from the box below for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.
Example: 1976
Victoria READ Society was started in 1976 and at that time only two teachers were employed to teach children
having problems with their 1……………………………….. . The Society grew fast and now with more than 700 students to
2. …………………….. , we are working in three locations in Greater Victoria. By teaching the students the basic skills,
we help them to fully 3. …………………….. in the society. There are many 4. …………………….. programmes offered by
the Victoria READ Society, among which CORE is an individualised 5. …………………….. programme for both
children and adults. Every year, the CORE programme provides many children with individualised 6. …………………
and the Bursary Fund subsidises 7. …………………….. for more than 80 families who cannot pay the full amount.
Question 8-14: Read the passage Victoria READ Society and look at the following statements. In boxes
8-14 on your answer sheet, write YES/ NO/ NOT GIVEN
8. When the Victoria READ Society was founded, only two teachers worked there as volunteers. ……………………..
9. The students in READ do not know whether they have problems with learning. ……………………..
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10. The increasing number of the students helps to bring READ more profit. ……………………..
11. Most of the 29 people working as Board of Directors are middle-school teachers. ……………………..
12. Children who come from poorer families are only supposed to pay one third of the tuition fee. ……………………..
13. The money donated by people is part of the programme funding. ……………………..
14. The Victoria READ Society does not belong to any school or university. ……………………..
Section 2: Questions 15 – 28 Hire Me!
Section 1: Many of the leads on new jobs will come from people that know you the best. To increase
need to be looking out for them, so know their interests. Remember, networking is a two-way street.
Section 2: You name it and there is an association or group for it. Associations are groups of people
that have at least one thing in common. You can start by using the yellow pages under associations to find one that
may appeal to you. They usually meet once a month to network and share ideas that are related to their interests.
This is a great way to build your networking contacts with people that share some of your goals.
Section 3: We use it every day to find doctor, dentist, plumber or anything else in town. Why not use
the yellow pages to find a job? Before you open the yellow pages, write down what you want to find out so that you
won't waste either your time or the employer's time. The best times to call most businesses are from 9:30 a.m. to
11:00 a.m. and 1:30 p.m. to 3:00p.m.. All you are asking is, "How do I obtain employment with your company?"
Some companies now have voicemail called "job lines" to tell you of the procedures. Be ready to write down the
information. I recommend that you purchase a street map book of the city. The book will help you pinpoint the
location of the business. The book will also prevent you from asking the question, "Can you give me the
directions?" Always thank them for their time. Remember- you interrupt their day.
Section 4: Every Sunday thousands of employers place job openings in the major papers and smaller
local community papers throughout the city to attract needed personnel to service their customers. Before you seek
the information, you will need to ask the following three questions: 1. Where do I want to work? 2. Which fields
interest me? 3. Do you have the required skills to apply for this position? For the best results, respond to the ad
within 48 hours of printing. Many ads only want you to fax or apply in person - so follow the rules.
Section 5: Hidden behind all those voicemail boxes is a real person. Job fairs enable you to meet them
be a great opportunity to find out what skills you need to learn to get into a specific field. Job fairs are like a
wedding reception line. Shake hands, talk for one or two minutes and move on to the next in line. Your goal is to
get a contract inside the company.
Section 6: Every working day we get in our cars and line up like cattle to move down the roadways
each of us alone in our cars. Try taking the bus and use this time to network. Think of the bus as a small
informational meeting of 40 people. Start your approach with a friendly "hello". Some people may not say it back
to you. In time you may meet some contacts through taking the bus. If networking on the bus doesn't work for you,
at least you can take advantage of the other benefits of riding the bus- using the time to organise your day, read the
paper or a good book, saving over 200 gallons of gas per year, paying no parking fees - and you can wave at your
friends stuck in the slow lane.
Section 7: Coaches come in many forms and sizes. The one thing they have in common is that they
have been down the path before you. They know some of the pitfalls ahead and want to help you avoid them. They
teach you the rules of the game and help you learn to work as a team player. You need to learn all you can from
them. It is your duty to take what you have learned and pass it on to someone else. So, find a coach and be a coach
to someone else.
Question 15-20: The reading passage Hire Me! has 7 sections numbered I-VII. Choose the most
suitable heading for each section from the list of headings below. In boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet, write the
appropriate letters (A-H). The heading of Section V has been given as an example. There is an extra heading which
you will not need.
A. Learning from the experienced E. Talking to friends and family
B. Networking on the bus F. Checking help wanted ads
C. Finding out about your interests G. Attending job fairs
D. Meeting more people H. Using telephone directory
15. Section I 17. Section III 19. Section VI
16. Section II 18. Section IV 20. Section VII
Example: Section V G
Question 21 – 28: Read the passage Hire Me! and look at the following statements. In boxes 21-28 on your
answer sheet, write TRUE/ FALSE/ NOT GIVEN
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21. To find jobs, you should tell the people around you what kind of jobs you want …………………………
22. People in an association may not be able to find anything they have in common. …………………………
23. Some businesses do not mind at all if you call them before 9:30a.m .. …………………………
24. A street map book will be helpful when you are seeking a job. …………………………
25. Before you read the paper for job information, you need to know about the job location you prefer. …………………
26. People can find out what skills they need for a specific job by attending job fairs. …………………………
27. People in the bus will always respond if you greet them with a friendly "hello". …………………………
28. Sometimes you need to pay for the help offered by the coaches. …………………………

Section 3:Question 29 – 40: Read the following passage.

Demand for Water in the United States
If all of the water in the atmosphere were to fall evenly as rain, the Earth would be entirely covered with
one inch of water. But when it rains, it pours. Rain doesn't fall equally on everyone. Unusual weather patterns
sometimes create long periods of droughts or disastrous floods. In the United States, the average annual rainfall is
30 inches, and most of the rain falls in the East. Less than 4 inches of rain falls each year on parts of the Southwest,
while parts of the Pacific North-west receive 200 inches a year.
The survival and success of a community frequently depend upon the water it can provide for agriculture
and industry. Water has often become the limiting factor in the growth of communities. Although the eastern part of
the United States is wet, water supplies are sometimes not sufficient to meet the demand. The high population
density along the eastern coast puts great demand upon the region's water supply.
In poor tropical countries, where women must walk several miles for water, each person may use less than
one gallon of water per day. It is estimated that Californians use about 100 to 200 gallons a day per person. During
recent droughts in New Jersey and California, some residents were required to limit water use to 50 gallons per
person per day.
Average Daily Water Use for a Family of Four
Water Use Gallons or Litres per day Percent of Total Daily Use
Gallons Litres
Toilet 100 380 39
Bathing & Hygiene 88 334 34
Laudry 35 133 14
Kitchen 27 103 11
Housekeeping 5 9 2
Totals 255 959 100
Our demand for water is great and it continues to grow. World water demand has grown faster than the
population. Water use is nearly 50 per cent more per person than in 1950. Each day during 1985, nearly 1.3 trillion
litres of water flowed through complex systems of pipes to homes, factories, farms and power plants in the United
States.
Most water - 141 billion gallons per day - is used for agriculture. A large supply of water is necessary to
produce the food that we eat. One hundred and twenty gallons of water is required to produce an egg for your
breakfast. A steak for dinner requires 3,500 gallons.
Irrigated agriculture is the number one user of water in the western United States. In California, farmers use
about 85 per cent of the available water supply. They grow about half the fruits and vegetables produced in the
United States. In California, cotton, rice, and alfalfa rely most heavily on irrigated water. In Kern Country, a farmer
can make seven cuttings of alfalfa in an irrigated field. Without water for irrigation, the fields may produce only
one cutting.
The second major user of water in the United States is production of electricity at thermoelectric power
plants. Power plants use 131 billion gallons of water per day, but 97 per cent of this water is returned to the lake or
the river and is immediately available to be used again.
The chart below shows how water was used in the United States in 1985. The charts include only water that
is withdrawn from a source. They do not include recreation, power generation, transportation or wildlife uses that
do not remove water from the stream.

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 Daily Water Withdrawal Uses in the Entire United States -1985
Use Litres per day Consumed Returned
Agricultural 534 54% 46%
Thermoelectric 496 3% 97%
Domestic and Commercial 118 20% 80%
Industrial and Mining 117 16% 84%
Question 29 – 31: Read the passage Demand for Water in the United States and answer the following
questions. In boxes 29-31, write for each answer NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the passage.
29. What could be the reason for natural disasters like droughts and floods? …………………………………..
30. Which factor can frequently affect the survival and success of a community? …………………………………..
31. What is the reason for great water demand along the eastern coast of the United States? …………………………………..
Question 32 - 36: Read the passage Demand for Water in the United States and choose, according to the
passage, one phrase (A-G) from the list of phrases to complete each key point below. In boxes 32-36, write the
appropriate letters (A-G). There are more phrases than key points, so you will not use them all.
A. is used for irrigation E. sometimes people have to limit water use
B. includes water removed from rivers F. can be recycled later
C. is the wettest place in the country G. people grow more fruits and vegetables
D. the food we eat
32. The eastern part of the United States …………………………………..
33. In the United States, …………………………………..
34. Most of the water supply…………………………………..
35. Most of the water from power plants …………………………………..
36. The chart of Daily Water Withdrawal Uses…………………………………..
Questions 37-40 Read the passage Demand for Water in the United States and look at the following state-
ments. In boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet, write TRUE/ FALSE/ NOT GIVEN
37. Water supplies in the eastern part of the United States can always meet the demand. …………………………………..
38. Water used in California per person could be 200 times as much as the water used per person in tropical
Countries. …………………………………..
39. Among the items of average daily water use for a family of four, the percentage of water use on housekeeping is
the lowest. …………………………………..
40. Water demand in the world grows almost twice as fast as the population. …………………………………..

45