12-10-2025

0999DJA161115250001 JA

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I (i)

1) A small ball of mass m and charge +q tied with a string of length ℓ, is rotating in a vertical circle
under gravity and a uniform horizontal electric field E as shown. The tension in the string will be

minimum for :

(A)

(B) θ = π

(C)

(D)

2) A prism of R.I. and apex angle A is (in air) shown. Light is incident from PQ side at angle of

incidence i. (0 < i < 90°). Choose the INCORRECT options.

(A) If A = 40° then light incident at all angles will be refracted from surface PR
If A = 80° then light incident at some angles will be refracted and at some other angles light
(B)
will be reflected
(C) If A = 92° then light incident at all angles will be reflected back
(D) Whatever is the value of A, light definitely emerge from the surface PR

3) A wire has a mass (0.3 ± 0.003)g, radius (0.5 ± 0.005)mm and length (6 ± 0.06)cm. The
maximum percentage error in the measurement of its density is –

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

4) If the screw on a screw-gauge is given six rotations, it moves by 3 mm on the main scale. If there
are 50 divisions on the circular scale the least count of the screw gauge is :

(A) 0.001 mm
(B) 0.001 cm
(C) 0.02 mm
(D) 0.01 cm

5) Two cars start off to race with velocities 2m/s and 4m/s travel in straight line with uniform
acceleration 2m/s2 and 1 m/s2 respectively. The length of the path if they reach the final point at the
same time is :-

(A) 24 m
(B) 12 m
(C) 5 m
(D) Data insufficient

6) A gas bubble oscillates with a time period T proportional to Pa db Ec where P is pressure, d is the
density and E is the energy. The values of a, b & c are :

(A)
a= , b=– , c=

(B)
a=– , b= , c=

(C)
a=– , b= , c=

(D)
a= , b= , c=

SECTION-I (ii)

1) The diagram shows part of an evacuated tube in which a stream of electrons from an electron gun
passes between a pair of parallel large deflecting plates. The vertical displacement of the electron
beam as it leaves the parallel plates is x. (Do not consider gravity and the electron enters the

deflecting region parallel to the plates) Which

one of A to D below will change the displacement x of the beam as it leaves the parallel plates ?
(A) increasing the accelerating voltage
(B) increasing the deflecting voltage
(C) increasing the distance between the electron gun and the deflecting plates
(D) increasing the distance between the two deflecting plates

2) A real object is in front of a convex mirror. It moves towards the mirror, the image also moves. If
vi = speed of image and vO = speed of the object, then

(A) vi < vO if 0 < |u| < |F|

(B) vi > vO if |u| > |F|
(C) vi < vO if |u| > |F|
(D) vi = vO if |u| = |F| ≠ 0

3) Consider a statellite in bound orbit around earth. Mark the CORRECT statement(s) :-

(A) If the satellite is to be geostationary it must orbit in equatorial plane

If satellite is in an elliptical orbit around the earth, radius of curvature of orbit both at perigee
(B)
and apogee are equal.
If the satellite is to escape from the earth completely by firing the satellite’s rocket it will
(C)
required same additional kinetic energy at all the point on its circumference.
(D) Angular momentum of a satellite about center is conserved during its orbital motion.

4) Choose the correct alternative (s) :

If the greatest height to which a man can throw a stone is h, then the greatest horizontal
(A)
distance upto which he can throw the stone is 2h.
The angle of projection for a projectile motion whose range R is n times the maximum height is
(B)
tan–1 (4/n)
The time of flight T and the horizontal range R of a projectile are connected by the equation gT2
(C)
= 2Rtanθ where θ is the angle of projection.
A ball is thrown vertically up. Another ball is thrown at an angle θ with the vertical. Both of
(D) them remain in air for the same period of time. Then the ratio of maximum heights attained by
the two balls 1 : 1.

SECTION-I (iii)

Common Content for Question No. 1 to 2

A point object is placed on principal axis of a concave mirror ( of focal length 15 cm) at a distance u
= 61 cm from pole. A slab of thickness t = 3 cm and refractive index μ = 1.5 is placed with two sides
perpendicular to principal axis, such that its nearest face is x0 cm from pole. The final image of
object is to be considered after refraction by slab, reflection by mirror and final refraction by slab.
1) If the slab is shifted parallel to itself by 3 cm then the final image :

(A) shifts towards left

(B) shifts towards right
(C) may shifts towards left or right
(D) does not shift

2) If x0 = 30 cm, then the distance of final image from pole is :

(A) 19
(B) 21
(C) 23
(D) 24

Common Content for Question No. 3 to 4

A conducting sphere of radius R2 has a spherical cavity of radius R1 which is non concentric with the
sphere. A point charge q1 is placed inside the cavity at a distance r from the centre of the cavity. For
this arrangement, answer the following questions.

3) Electric potential at the centre of the cavity will be :

(A) Zero

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these

4)

Electric field (magnitude only) at the center of the cavity will be :

(A) Zero

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these

 SECTION-II

1) A person stands in an elevator, starting from rest at t = 0 the elevator moves upward, coming to
rest again at time t = t0. The acceleration of the elevator during this period is shown graphically

0
below. The total distance traveled by the elevator is s . The value of is.

2) The minimum and maximum distances of a satellite from the centre of the earth are 2R and 4R
respectively, where R is the radius of earth and M is the mass of the earth. Radius of curvature at
the point of maximum distance is αR, value of α is.

3) Consider the situation given in the diagram all surfaces are frictionless. If velocity of sphere is 4x

m/sec, then find x.

4) A block of unknown mass is at rest on a rough, horizontal surface. A force F is applied to the
block. The graph in the figure shows the acceleration of the block with respect to the applied force.

The mass of the block is ‘n’ Kg. Find ‘n’?

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I (i)
1)

In which of the following arrangements, the given order is NOT correct according to the property
indicated against it?

(A) Al+3 < Mg+2 < Na+ < F– : Increasing ionic size.
(B) B < C < N < O : Increasing IE.
(C) I < Br < F < Cl : Increasing Electron affinity.
(D) Li < Na < K < Rb : Increasing metallic radius.

2) In which of the following set of species, total number of electrons in the outer most shell is same
with that in penultimate shell

(A) Co+3, V+3, Cu+

(B) Ni+4, Co+3, Fe+2
(C) Cl¯, O–2, Al+3
(D) Cl¯, Ar, P–3

3) The entropy change when an ideal gas under atmospheric conditions at 1 atm and 27°C is allowed
to expand from 0.48 L to 0.96 L and also is simultaneously heated to 327°C will be
(Given : CV,m = 10.50 cal K–1 mol–1 and ln2 = 0.7, R = 2 cal/K-mole = 0.08 L-atm mol–1 K–1)

(A) 8.75 Cal K–1

(B) 17.5 Cal K–1
(C) 0.175 Cal K–1
(D) 1.4 Cal K–1

4) In which of the following process electron is not added to molecular orbital having gerade
symmetry.

+
(A) O2 → O2¯
(B) N2 → N2¯
(C) B2 → B2¯
–2
(D) C2 → C2

5) An element occurring in the body-centred cubic (BCC) structure has 1.208 × 1023 unit cells. The
total number of atoms of the element in these cells will be

(A) 2.416 × 1023

(B) 3.618 × 1023
(C) 6.04 × 1022
(D) 1.208 × 1023

6) The normal boiling point of ether is 308 K. Ether is to be stored in aluminium drum that can
withstand a pressure of 10 atm. If the enthalpy of vaporisation of ether is 38.18 kJ mol–1 at 308 K, the
maximum temperature to which the drum of ether could be safely exposed is [ln10 = 2.3, R = 8.3
J/mole-K]

(A) 290 K
(B) 317 K
(C) 364 K
(D) 428 K

SECTION-I (ii)

1) A mixture of 20 ml of CO, CH4 and N2 was burnt in excess of O2 resulting in reduction of 13 ml of

volume. The residual gas then treated with KOH solution to show a reduction in volume of 14 ml.
Then the correct statement among the following is

(A) Volume of CO in mixture is 10 ml

(B) Volume of CH4 in mixture is 4 ml
(C) Volume of CH4 in mixture is 6 ml
(D) Volume of N2 in mixture is 6 ml

2)

Select the CORRECT statement(s) for the hydrolysis of SF4

(A) In the transition state sulphur atom gets sp3d hybridised state
(B) 'S' does not shows it's maximum oxidation state in product
(C) In one of the product pπ-dπ bond(s) is/are present
Hydrolysis product(s) obtained by 1 mole SF4, requires 12 litre , 0.5M NaOH solution for
(D)
displacement of all acidic hydrogen

3)

Which of the following order is not correct with respect to the given property?

(A) NaF < NaCl < NaBr < NaI : Ionic character
(B) SrC2O4 < BaC2O4 < BeC2O4 : Solubility in water
(C) Ca3N2 < Mg3N2 < Be3N2 : Thermal stability
(D) AgI < AgBr : covalent character

4) 10 litre box contain O3 and O2 at equilibrium at 1000 K and 8 atm. The following equilibrium is
present in the container.
2O3(g) ⇌ 3O2(g), ΔG° = –267.26 kJ/mole.

Select correct statement(s) for this reaction : (ln 10 = 2.3, R = 8.3 J/mole K)

–12
(A) The value of equilibrium constant KP is 10 atm
–7
(B) The partial pressure of O3 is 22.62 × 10 atm.
(C) The above equilibrium reaction, at 1000 K is said to be almost completed.
 –5
(D) The partial pressure of O3 is 22.62 × 10 atm.

SECTION-I (iii)

Common Content for Question No. 1 to 2

The lowering of vapour pressure on adding a non–volatile solute in a pure liquid solvent may be
measured by Ostwald–Walker method. In this method, dry air is first passed through a series of
vessels having the solution, then through a series of vessels having pure solvent and finally through
a vessel (normally U–tube) having the absorbent of the solvent. The masses of solution and pure
solvent decreases due to removal of vapours of solvent in the flow of air and the mass of absorbent
increases due to absorption of the vapour of solvent, in order to make the air dry. By measuring the
changes in mass, we may determine the lowering of vapour pressure and hence, the composition of
solution, form Raoult’s Law.

1) If the experiment is performed with aq. AlCl3 solution (α = 0.8) prepared by dissolving 1 mole
AlCl3 in 17 mole water and the decrease in mass of solution is found to be 0.18 gm, then the increase
in mass of absorbent should be:

(A) 0.216 gm
(B) 0.225 gm
(C) 0.191 gm
(D) 1.08 gm

2) If the mass of absorbent increased by 0.24 gm and the mass of pure solvent (water) decreased by
0.02 gm, then the mass percent of solute (glucose) in its aqueous solution is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Common Content for Question No. 3 to 4

The strength of H2O2 is expressed in several ways like molarity, normality, % (w/V), volume strength,
etc. The strength of "10 V" means 1 volume of H2O2 on decomposition gives 10 volumes of oxygen at
STP or 1 litre of H2O2 gives 10 litre of O2 at STP. The decomposition of H2O2 is shown as under :

H2O2 (aq) —→ H2O (ℓ) + O2 (g)

H2O2 can acts as oxidising as well as reducing agent. As oxidizing agent, H2O2 is converted into H2O
and as reducing agent, H2O2 is converted into O2.

3) What is the percentage strength (% w/V) of "11.35 V" H2O2 ?

(A) 1.7
(B) 3.4
(C) 34
(D) 17

4) 40 g Ba(MnO4)2 (mol. wt. = 375) sample containing some inert impurities in acidic medium is
completely reacted with 125 mL of "34.05 V" of H2O2. What is the percentage purity of the sample ?

(A) 28.12 %
(B) 70.31 %
(C) 52.73 %
(D) 35.16 %

SECTION-II

1) A sample of iron weighing 20 g was heated with KClO3(s) in an evacuated container. The oxygen
generated from decomposition of KClO3 converted some of Fe to Fe2O3. If the combined mass of
Fe and Fe2O3 was 21.5 g. Calculated mass of Fe2O3 (in g) formed.

2) For the first order reaction A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g) the half life for decomposition of A is 3 minute at
300K. Calculate the time (in minute) in which partial pressure of A(g) will drop from 2 bar to 0.5 bar
at 400K. Given activation energy of reaction is 840 R. (Take ln2 = 0.7)

3) An aqueous solution containing 28% by mass of liquid (mol. mass = 140) has a vapour pressure of
160 mm at 30 °C. Find the vapour pressure of the pure liquid A. (The vapour pressure of water at 30
°C is 150 mm)

4) Consider the following species and calculate the multiplication x and y.

XeF5–, PCl5, XeF4, ClF3, IF7
x = number of species in which all adjacent bond angles are same
y = number of planar species.

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I (i)

1) Given quadratic equation mx2 + (2m – 1)x + m – 1 = 0 has real roots of opposite sign, then range
of 'm' is -

(A) m ∈ ϕ
(B) m ∈ R
(C) –1 < m < 0
(D) 0 < m < 1

2) Graph of y = (k – 2)x2 – 2kx + 3, k ∈ R -

(A) touch x-axis for two integral values of k

(B) intersect x-axis for all k ∈ R
(C) never intersect x-axis
(D) does not intersect x-axis for exactly one value of k.

3) Number of positive integers 'x' satisfying the inequation is -

(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 0

4) If , then equal to -

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) 1

5) If x = sec 34°, y = sec 86°, z = cos 154°. Then value of (x + y + xyz) is equal to :

(A) 0

(B)

(C) 1

(D)

6) Let the harmonic mean and geometric mean of two positive numbers be in ratio 4 : 5. Then the
two numbers are in the ratio :–

(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 1 : 4
(D) 1 : 5

SECTION-I (ii)

1) Let and ƒ : R → R be given by ƒ(x) = 3x5 – 50x3 + 135x –a . The equation ƒ(x) = 0 will have :

(A) one real root for |a| > 216

(B) three real roots for 88 < |a| < 216
(C) five real roots for |a| < 88
(D) five real roots for

2) is-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

3) Let f : R → (0, ∞) be defined as , then -

(A) f(x) is many one function.

(B) f(x) is an invertible mapping.
(C) f(x) is continuous for all x ∈ R.
(D) f(x) is bounded function.

4) Which of the following is/are correct ?

(A)

(B)
If log1227 = x, then log616 = 4
(C)
(D) log35 > log1925

SECTION-I (iii)

Common Content for Question No. 1 to 2

Let ƒ : [0,∞) → [2,∞) be a derivable function which is also surjective such that ƒ(0) = 2 and satisfying

On the basis of above information, answer the following questions :

1) If g is the inverse function of ƒ then at x = 3 is equal to

(A) –6
(B) –3
(C) 3
(D) 6

2) The value of equals

(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) 1

Common Content for Question No. 3 to 4

Let ƒ : R → R and ƒ(x) = min(|x|, ex).

3) Which of the following is false about ƒ(x)

(A)
(B) ƒ(x) is a continuous function
(C) ƒ(x) is one-one function
(D) ƒ(x) is into function.

4) Number of points, where ƒ(x) is non differentiable is

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

SECTION-II

1) If x + 4y = 14 is a normal to the curve y2 = αx3 – β at (2, 3) then value of α + β is

2) Number of points of discontinuity of ƒ(x) = sgn(sin2x) ∀ x ∈ [0, 3π]

3)

ƒ(x) = 2x3 – 27x2 – 60x + 6 is decreasing in set B then largest odd integer in set B is

4) If function is continuous at x = 0 then (a2 + b2) is

equal to
 ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I (i)

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6
A. D D D B A C

SECTION-I (ii)

Q. 7 8 9 10
A. A,B,D A,C A,B,C,D A,B,C,D

SECTION-I (iii)

Q. 11 12 13 14
A. D B C D

SECTION-II

Q. 15 16 17 18
A. 6.00 2.66 to 2.67 3.00 2.00

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I (i)

Q. 19 20 21 22 23 24
A. B D C C A C

SECTION-I (ii)

Q. 25 26 27 28
A. A,B,D B,C,D A,D B,C

SECTION-I (iii)

Q. 29 30 31 32
A. A A B B

SECTION-II

Q. 33 34 35 36
A. 5.00 3.00 360.15 9.00

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
 SECTION-I (i)

Q. 37 38 39 40 41 42
A. D B D A A C

SECTION-I (ii)

Q. 43 44 45 46
A. A,B,C A,B C,D B,C,D

SECTION-I (iii)

Q. 47 48 49 50
A. B D C B

SECTION-II

Q. 51 52 53 54
A. 9.00 4.00 9.00 5.00
 SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

1)

Correct answer is (D)

2)

Correct answer is (D)

3)

Correct answer is (D)

4)

Correct answer is (B)

5)

Correct answer is (A)

6)

Correct answer is (C)

7) For (A) : increasing accelerating voltage will increase the velocity of electron thus will
decrease the time to cross the plates thus deflection decreases.
For (B) : increasing deflecting voltage will increase the magnitude of electric field between the
plates thus increase the deflection.
For (C) : increasing the distance between the electron gun and the deflecting plates will have
no effect on the deflection.
For (D) increasing the distance between two deflecting plates will decrease the electric field if
potential difference between the plates is kept constant thus the deflection decreases.

8)

Correct answer is (A,C)

9)

Correct answer is (A,B,C,D)

10) (A) ∴ A is correct.

(B)

∴ B is correct

(C)

⇒ gT2 = 2R tanθ ∴ C is correct

(D)
hmax ∝ T2

T1 = T2, hmax(1) = hmax(2) ∴ D is correct

11) The shift due to slab is = 1cm towards left. Hence the object

appears to mirror at a distance 61 – 1 = 60 cm. From mirror formula we get v = 20

cm.

Hence the mirror forms the image at v = 20 cms towards right. The slab again causes a shift
of 1cm towards right. hence the final image is formed at a distance of 21 cm from pole.
Shifting of slab towards left does no cause any change to position of final image.

12) The shift due to slab is = 1cm towards left. Hence the object
appears to mirror at a distance 61 – 1 = 60 cm.

From mirror formula we get v = 20 cm.

 Hence the mirror forms the image at v = 20 cms towards right. The slab again causes a shift
of 1cm towards right. hence the final image is formed at a distance of 21 cm from pole.
Shifting of slab towards left does no cause any change to position of final image.

13)

Correct answer is (C)

14)

Correct answer is (D)

15)

16)
msv1 . 2R = ms v2 . 4R
v1 = 2v2 ...(i)
from conservation of energy

= ....(ii)
 on solving (i) and (ii)

v1 = and v2 =
Radius of curvature at B.

⇒ Rc =

17)

Correct answer is (3.00)

18)

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

19) Question Explanation:

Find incorrect order of given properties.
Concept:
This question is based on electron gain enthalpy.
(chapter - periodic table, inorganic)
Solution:
(1) Al+3 < Mg+2 < Na+ < F– Atomic radium
It is isoelectronic series & size decreases with increase in atomic number.
(2) B < C < N < O I.E.
Due to stable half filled configuration
I.E.N > I.E.O
(3) I < Br < F < Cl E.A.
Due to small size of F orbital E.A. of F is less than Cl
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb metallic radius
Radius increases because number of shells increases.
Final Answer:
The correct option is (2)

20)

Correct answer is option (D)

21) n = = 0.02 moles

ΔS = nCv,m ln + nR ln
ΔS = 0.02 × 10.5 ln2 + 0.02 × 2 × ln2 = 0.02 × (10.5 + 2 ) × 0.7= 0.175 Cal K–1

22)

The correct answer is option (C)

23) For BCC : Z = 2

∴ Number of atoms = 2 × 1.208 × 1023 = 2.416 × 1023

24)

On solving we get T2 = 364 K

The maximum temperature to which drum can be exposed safely = 364 K

25)

CO + CH4 + N2 = 20
x y z

CO + O2 → CO2
x x/2 x
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O(ℓ)
y 2y y
Volume reduction due to

Reaction =

+ 2y = 13 ....... (i)
x + y = 14 ...... (ii)
y = 4 ml
x = 10 ml
z = 6 ml.

26)

∴ 6 moles of NaOH is required

(6 = 0.5 × 12)
27)

Correct answer is option (A,D)

28) ΔG° = –RT ln KP

–103 × 267.26 = –8.3 × 1000 × 2.3 log KP
KP = 1014
2O3(g) ⇌ 3O2(g), KP = 1014

KP = 1014 =
= 22.62 × 10–7 atm.

29)
t=0 1 0 0
α = 0.8 0.2 0.8 2.4 ∴ i = 3.4

⇒
⇒ P0 – PS = 0.036 ⇒ P0 = 0.036 + 0.18 = 0.216 g

30) Loss in mass of solvent ∝ P0–PS = 0.02

Gain in mass of absorbent ∝ P0 = 0.24

∴ % w/w = =

31) Strength in percentage mean how many g H2O2 present per 100 mL
∵ M ⇒ 1 and mol. wt. of H2O2 = 34
 ∴ 34 H2O2 present per litre of solution or 3.4 H2O2 present per 100 mL of solution.

32) m-eq. of Ba(MnO4)2 = m. eq. of H2O2

× 10 × 1000 = 3 × 125 × 2 ; w = 28.125

% purity = = = 70.31

33) Mass of oxygen added to Fe = (21.5 – 20)g = 1.5g

2 mol mol gives 1mol

112g 48g gives 160 g

O2 is L.R.

34)

(t½) = 1.5 min. (at 400K)

PA = 2bar → 0.5 bar
We need (2t½) = 3 min.

35) For two miscible liquids,

0 0
Ptotal = Mole fraction of A × PA + Mole fraction of B × PA

Number of moles of
Liquid B is water. Its mass is (100 – 28), i.e., 72.

Number of moles of
Total number of moles = 0.2 + 4.0 = 4.2
Given, Ptotal = 160 mm
0
pB = 150 mm

So, = ;

36)

Correct answer is (9.00)

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
37)

Required condition is
m.ƒ(0) < 0, where ƒ(x) = mx2 + (2m–1)x + m–1
⇒ m(m – 1) < 0 ⇒ 0 < m < 1

38) ⇒ D = 4k2– 4.3(k –2) = 4[k2–3k + 6] > 0 ∀ k ∈ R if k = 2, y = –4x + 3

39)

∴ No positive integer.

40) Sn = n(n2 – 1)
∴ Tn = 3n(n – 1)

41)

42) Let a and b be two positive numbers. H is H.M. and G is G.M.

, Let

⇒ 2x2 – 5x + 2 = 0 ⇒

43) Let g(x) = 3x5 – 50x3 + 135x

g'(x) = 0 for x =
g(1) = 88; g(–1) = –88; g(3) = –216;
g(–3) = 216
Now consider g(x) = a

44)

Tr = tan–1(r + 3) – tan–1(r + 1)

Sum = + – (tan–1(2) + tan–1(3))

Final Answer:
The correct options are (1) & (2).

45)
Graph of f(x)
Now verify alternatives.

46) (B)

(D) log35 > log1925

log35 > 2log195
47)

48)

Integrate

49)

(a)
(b) By graph it is a continuous function
(c) ƒ(x) is many one function
(d) ƒ(x) is into function because range is [0,∞)

50)
Non differentiable at two points.

51) y2 = αx3 – β
if (2, 3) is lie on the curve
8α – β = 9 ...(1)
slope of normal at (2, 3)

⇒α=2

52)

ƒ(x) = sgn(sin2x), x ∈ [0, 3π]

53) ƒ(x) = 2x3 – 27x2 – 60x + 6

ƒ'(x) = 6x2 – 54x – 60
= 6(x2 – 9x – 10) = 6(x + 1)(x – 10)
∴ ƒ'(x) < 0
⇒ x ∈ (–1, 10)
Largest odd integer = 9

54)

Limit exist if a + b – 3 = 0 ........(i)

and

........(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
a = 2, b = 1
∴ a2 + b2 = 5