ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES
MODULE 3
Environmental pollution
Objective type questions & answers:
1. Ground water characteristics must be monitored at least once in a till design span.
a) Week b) Month c) Day d) Quarter
2. Ground water samples should be collected at least up to a distance km.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
3. If no open wells are available, action needs to be taken to provide at least
monitoring wells.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
4. How should the monitoring wells be arranged in the absence of bore wells?
a) One on up gradient and other three on the down gradient
b) One on up gradient and other two on the down gradient
c) One on up gradient and other one on the down gradient
d) One on up gradient and other four on the down gradient
5. The ground water flow direction has to be ascertained periodically and reported at least
a) Once in a year b) Once in two years c) Once in three years d) Once in four years
6. The directions of the ground water flow have to be established with
a) State Ground Water Board b) Water Control Board c) PCB d) SPCB
7. When did the Central Pollution Control Board established?
a) 1970 b) 1972 c) 1974 d) 1976
8. Who appoints the chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Central Government b) State Government c) Governor of the State d) President of India
9. Which one of the following is the apex organization in the country in the field of
Pollution control?
a) Water Pollution Control Board b) State Pollution Control Board
c) Central Pollution Control Board d) Air pollution Control Board
10. How many officials can be nominated to the Central Pollution Control Board by the
Central Government?
a) Five b) Ten c) Twenty d) Twenty Five
11. In State Pollution Control Boards, how many constitutions of committees can constitute?
a) One b) Ten
c) Not constitute any committees d) As many committees as necessary
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12. Where is the head office of the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Mumbai b) Raipur c) Mysore d) New Delhi
13. Who decides the term of the Member Secretary in the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board b) President of India
c) Prime Minister of India d) Government of India
14. What is the full form of NAMP?
a) National Air Quality Monitoring Program
b) National Air Quality Measuring Program
c) National Air Quantity Monitoring Program
d) National Air Quality Monitoring Protocol
15. When did the Karnataka State Pollution Control Board for Prevention and Control of Water
Pollution constituted?
a) 1974 b) 1978 c) 1982 d) 1985
16. In how many tier programs the inland water quality monitoring network is operating?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
[Link] did the National Green Tribunal Act constituted?
a) 2000 b) 2005 c) 2010 d) 2015
18. Which is the first country to pass the amendment in the parliament to safeguard the
environment?
a) Brazil b) Denmark c) China d) India
19. Groundwater containing bacteria and viruses can result in
a) Cholera b) Methemoglobinemia c) Kidney problem d) Liver problem
20. --------------is caused by drinking water high in nitrates.
a) Cholera b) Methemoglobinemia c) Kidney problem d) Liver problem
21. contaminant causes kidney and liver problems if present in groundwater.
a) Benzene b) Toluene c) Benzotoulene d) Lead
22. is caused due to groundwater contamination by septic tank.
a) Cholera b) Methemoglobinemia c) Kidney problem d)Hepatitis
23. from leach ate cause chest pain in humans in case of acute exposure.
a) Lead b) Benzene c) Mercury d) Cadmium
24. from leach ate can lead to coma in humans in case of acute exposure.
a) Lead b) Benzene c) Phenol d) Cadmium
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25. Leach ate containing lead causes in humans in case of long term exposure.
a) Anorexia b) Tremor c) Anaemia d) Renal failure
26. Water present in rocks from the time of their deposition is
a) Meteoric water b) Connate water c) Juvenile water d) Secondary water
27. What is usually the nature of connate water?
a) Sweet b) Odour c) Salty d) Odourless
28. Juvenile water is also called
a) Meteoric water b) Connate water c) Magmatic water d) Secondary water
29. Bacteria and microorganisms present in the water will cause in human and
animals.
a) Indigestion b) Intestinal tract c) Brain tumour d) Cancer
[Link] dysentery is caused by
a) Viruses b) Bacteria c) Helminthes d) Protozoa
[Link] in water causes
a) Malaria b) Typhoid c) Dengue d) Chicken guinea
[Link] is an important requirement of the aquatic life.
a) Dissolved nitrogen b) Dissolved chlorine c) Dissolved oxygen d) Dissolved methane
[Link] optimum value in natural water is
a) 2-4ppm b) 4-7ppm c) 4-6ppm d) 2-7ppm
34. What is the full form of BOD?
a) Biochemical oxygen demand b) Biological oxygen demand
c) Biometric oxygen deep water d) Biological oxygen deep water
35. How does increase in temperature affect air pollution?
a) Higher temperatures reduce air pollution
b) Higher temperatures increase air pollution
c) Temperature does not affect the air pollution levels
d) Humidity factor is also necessary to predict variance of air pollution with temperature
[Link] did the air pollution on earth happened first time?
a) When humans started using tools b) When humans started using firewood
c) When humans started using clothes d) When humans started using wheels
37. Who made the first anti-pollution law?
a) Martin Luther King b) Nelson Mandela c) Queen Elizabeth d) King Edward
38. Which was the first major disaster of air pollution?
a) New York smog b) London smog c) Paris smog d) Delhi smog
39. What is the significance of black color moth in Europe during 19th century?
a) Indication of evolution b) Indication of soil pollution
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c) Indication of mutation d) Indication of air pollution
40. What is the main cause of increase in air pollution in the 20th century?
a) Development of the transport system b) Development of infrastructures
c) Development of electricity d) Development of water resources
41. How many primary pollutants are there?
a) Three b) Five c) Seven d) Nine
42. What are secondary pollutants?
a) Pollutants due to fire b) Pollutants due to emission
c) Pollutants due to a chemical reaction d) Pollutants due to oxidation
43. Which is the colorless, odorless and toxic gas which produced when organic materials
incompletely burn?
a) Sulphur oxide b) Carbon monoxide c) Oxygen d) Particulates
44. Which of the following cause soot in the environment?
a) Hydrocarbons b) Nitrogen oxide c) Sulphur oxide d) Particulates
45. What is aerosol?
a) General term for particles in air b) General term for particles in soil
c) General term for particles in water d) General term for particles inside humans
46. What is smog?
a) Mixture of smoke and particulates b) Mixture of smoke and oxygen
c) Mixture of smoke and fog d) Mixture of soot and fog
[Link] + solid particles + liquid particles results in
a) Dust b) Mist c) Smog d) Smoke
48. Which of the following is used in ceramic industries?
a) Electrostatic precipitator b) Dynamic precipitator
c) Spray tower d) Wet cyclonic scrubber
49. Wet scrubbers are classified into types.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6
50. The centrifugal collectors are classified into how many types?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 2
[Link] of the following air pollution control device has maximum efficiency?
a) Electrostatic precipitator b) Dynamic precipitator
c) Spray tower d) Wet cyclonic scrubber
52. Which of the following fluid is used in web scrubbers?
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a) Lime b) MgSO4 c) NaCl d) K2Cr2O7
53. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the fabric filter?
a) They can remove very small particle
b) They are liable to chemical attack
c) They have low efficiency in comparison to venturi scrubber
d) They can handle large volume of gas at relatively high speed
54. Which of the following removes both gaseous and particulate contaminants?
a) Venturi scrubber b) Gravitational settling chamber
c) Dynamic precipitator d) Wet scrubber
55. Identify the correct statement regarding the Electrostatic precipitator.
a) Minimum particle size removal is <0.5μm
b) They can be operated at high temperature
c) It has a low maintenance cost
d) It does not cause any freezing problem
[Link] decomposition of the matter produces into and in presence of
a) Carbon dioxide and oxygen b) Oxygen and nitrogen
c) Nitrogen and carbon dioxide d) Nitrogen and chlorine
57. from leach ate can lead to gum disease in humans in case of acute exposure.
a) Nickel b) Benzene c) Phenol d) Cadmium
58. What is the upper surface of the zone saturation called?
a) Aquifer` b) Aquiclude c) Water table d) Aquifuge
[Link] of the following is not a negative effect of storm water?
a) Volume b) Runoff c) Potential contaminants d) Evaporation
[Link] disappearance of the plants and animals is due to the in water.
a) Nitrogen depletion b) Chlorine depletion
c) Oxygen depletion d) Ozone depletion
[Link] is noise?
a) Desirable sound b) Desirable and unwanted sound
c) Undesirable and unwanted sound d) Undesirable and wanted sound
[Link] which unit sound is measured?
a) Kilometer b) Pascal c) Kilogram d) Decibel
[Link] pollution cause hearing loss in organisms?
a) Air pollution b) Noise pollution c) Water pollution d) Soil pollution
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63. What is the dB of a threshold of hearing?
a) 0 b) 10 c) 50 d) 100
64. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?
a) 100 b) 110 c) 120 d) 146
65. At what decibel instantaneous rupture of membrane happens?
a) 100 b) 120 c) 146 d) 150
[Link] is the ambient noise level in the residential one during night time?
a) 40 dB b) 45 Db c) 50 dB d) 55 dB
[Link] is called for a temporary hearing loss?
a) Temporary ear pain b) Temporary hearing problem
c) Temporary threshold shift d) Temporary hearing shift
[Link] what level a sound becomes physical pain?
a) Above 50 dB b) Above 70 Db c) Above 80 dB d) Above 100 dB
[Link] of the following sound is pleasant to our ears?
a) Heavy machinery b) Transportation equipment c) Loud noise d)Music
70. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on
a) Noise b) Sound c) Actions d) Behavior
70. When did the Noise Pollution Regulations and Control Rule established in India?
a) 2000 b) 2004 c) 2005 d) 2007
72. What timings loud speakers shouldn’t use in public areas?
a) 10:00 pm to 5:00 am b) 1:00 am to 7:00 am
c) 11:00 pm to 6:00 am d) 10:00 pm to 6:00 am
[Link] can a person complaint to the police regarding noise pollution level?
a) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 10 dB
b) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 20 dB
c) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 30 dB
d) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 50 dB
74. What is the meaning of silence zone for noise pollution?
a) Area comprising more than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
b) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
c) Area comprising more than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets
d) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets
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75. When did the Factories Act constitute in India?
a) 1930 b) 1947 c) 1948 d) 1956
[Link] Ministry published a draft of Noise Pollution Rules?
a) Ministry of Foreign Affaires b) Ministry of Pollution Control
c) Ministry of Industries d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
77. In which year the Motor Vehicles Act came into force?
a) 1983 b) 1984 c) 1988 d) 1990
[Link] of the efficient ways to control aircraft noise is
a) Building aircrafts with old technologies
b) Maximize the passengers to 100
c) Increase the amount of pressure it can withstand
d) Constructing aerodromes far away from the residential areas
[Link] which section, if a person violates the noise pollution regulations, is liable for penalty?
a) Section 12 b) Section 15 c) Section 18 d) Section 19
80. What is the db level for heavy vehicles in India?
a) 70 b) 75 c) 77 d) 80
[Link] are the ambient air quality standards in industrial area during day time?
a) 75 db b) 80 db c) 85 db d) 100 db
82. In which Act, noise is included as an environmental pollutant?
a) 1974 b) 1981 c) 1988 d) 1994
[Link] is the primary standard level for carbon monoxide for assuring air quality?
a) 10ppm b) 90ppm c) 1ppm d) 9ppm
84. What is the primary function(s) of the alveoli?
a) Transfer of oxygen to the blood
b) Removal of carbon dioxide from the blood
c) Transfer of toxic substances to the blood
d) All of the mentioned
85. Particles of what size are filtered by the nasal passage?
a) >10micrometre b) >500 micrometre c) >1 mm d) >5 micrometre
[Link] is noise?
a) Desirable sound b) Desirable and unwanted sound
c) Undesirable and unwanted sound d) Undesirable and wanted sound
[Link] which unit sound is measured?
a) Kilometer b) Pascal c) Kilogram d) Decibel
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[Link] pollution cause hearing loss in organisms?
a) Air pollution b) Noise pollution c) Water pollution d) Soil pollution
89. What is the dB of a threshold of hearing?
a) 0 b) 10 c) 50 d) 100
90. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?
a) 100 b) 110 c) 120 d) 146
91. At what decibel instantaneous rupture of membrane happens?
a) 100 b) 120 c) 146 d) 150
[Link] is the ambient noise level in the residential one during night time?
a) 40 dB b) 45 Db c) 50 dB d) 55 dB
[Link] is called for a temporary hearing loss?
a) Temporary ear pain b) Temporary hearing problem
c) Temporary threshold shift d) Temporary hearing shift
[Link] what level a sound becomes physical pain?
a) Above 50 dB b) Above 70 Db c) Above 80 dB d) Above 100 dB
[Link] of the following sound is pleasant to our ears?
a) Heavy machinery b) Transportation equipment c) Loud noise d)Music
96. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on
a) Noise b) Sound c) Actions d) Behavior
97. When did the Noise Pollution Regulations and Control Rule established in India?
a) 2000 b) 2004 c) 2005 d) 2007
98. What timings loud speakers shouldn’t use in public areas?
a) 10:00 pm to 5:00 am b) 1:00 am to 7:00 am
c) 11:00 pm to 6:00 am d) 10:00 pm to 6:00 am
[Link] can a person complaint to the police regarding noise pollution level?
a) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 10 dB
b) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 20 dB
c) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 30 dB
d) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 50 dB
100. What is the meaning of silence zone for noise pollution?
a) Area comprising more than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
b) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
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c) Area comprising more than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets
d) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets
101. When did the Factories Act constitute in India?
a) 1930 b) 1947 c) 1948 d) 1956
[Link] Ministry published a draft of Noise Pollution Rules?
a) Ministry of Foreign Affaires b) Ministry of Pollution Control
c) Ministry of Industries d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
103. In which year the Motor Vehicles Act came into force?
a) 1983 b) 1984 c) 1988 d) 1990
[Link] of the efficient ways to control aircraft noise is
a) Building aircrafts with old technologies
b) Maximize the passengers to 100
c) Increase the amount of pressure it can withstand
d) Constructing aerodromes far away from the residential areas
[Link] which section, if a person violates the noise pollution regulations, is liable for penalty?
a) Section 12 b) Section 15 c) Section 18 d) Section 19
106. What is the db level for heavy vehicles in India?
a) 70 b) 75 c) 77 d) 80
[Link] are the ambient air quality standards in industrial area during day time?
a) 75 db b) 80 db c) 85 db d) 100 db
108. In which Act, noise is included as an environmental pollutant?
a) 1974 b) 1981 c) 1988 d) 1994
[Link] is the primary standard level for carbon monoxide for assuring air quality?
a) 10ppm b) 90ppm c) 1ppm d) 9ppm
110. What is the primary function(s) of the alveoli?
a) Transfer of oxygen to the blood
b) Removal of carbon dioxide from the blood
c) Transfer of toxic substances to the blood
d) All of the mentioned
111. Particles of what size are filtered by the nasal passage?
a) >10micrometre b) >500 micrometre c) >1 mm d) >5 micrometre
112. The Environmental Protection Act, 1986 was enacted in response to which of the
following environmental disasters in India?
a) Bhopal Gas Tragedy b) Delhi Air Pollution Crisis
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c) Ganga River Pollution d) Flooding in Chennai
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