Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERKS - PRELIMS - XIV - MT - 116
IBPS REGIONAL RURAL BANKS (RRBs)
CLERKS-XIV PRELIMS - MODEL TEST - 116
REASONING
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Direction (1-3): In the question three statements followed by two conclusions I
and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
1. Statements: All wheels are stands Only a few stands are tables
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No table is a bed
Conclusions: I: No wheel is being bed is a possibility
II: No stand is a bed
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1) Only conclusion I follows
3) Only conclusion II follows
2) Both conclusions I and II follow
4) Either conclusion I or II follows
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5) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
2. Statements: All cakes are cool Only a few cool is ice-cream
No ice-cream is candy
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Conclusions: I: All cakes are being Candy is a possibility
II: Some ice-cream can never be Candy
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3) Both conclusions I and II follow 4) Only conclusion II follows
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5) Either conclusion I or II follows
3. Statements: Only a few photos are video A few frames are video
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All frames are camera
Conclusions: I: All photos are being frame is a possibility
II: Some photo is not camera
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Both conclusions I and II follow
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) Only conclusion II follows
Direction (4-8): Study the given information carefully to answer the given question:
C
Certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north. B is
either fourth to the left of A or fourth to the right of A. C is sitting sixth to the
right of B. As many persons sitting between A and D as between D and C. D is
sitting sixth from one end. Only one person sits between C and M. More than
three persons sit between D and M. Number of persons sits to the right of A is two
more than the number of persons sits to the left of C.
4. How many persons are sitting in the line?
1) 12 2) 15 3) 13 4) 20 5) 10
5. What is the position of D with respect to M?
1) Third left 2) Fourth right 3) Sixth left 4) Fifth right 5) Seventh left
6. If only one person sits between A and R then how many persons sit between R
and C?
1) Six 2) Seven 3) Five 4) Eight 5) Ten
7. How many persons sit right of B?
1) Eight 2) Ten 3) Four 4) Six 5) More than ten
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERKS - PRELIMS - XIV - MT - 116
8. If G is an immediate neighbor of D then what is the position G with respect to A?
1) Sixth left 2) Seventh right 3) Second right
4) Sixth right 5) Third right
Direction (9-12): The given question is based on the following five 3-digt numbers:
867 495 736 592 619
9. If all the digits in each number are arranged in descending order within the
number, which of the following will form the second highest number?
1) 736 2) 592 3) 495 4) 867 5) 619
10. If the position of first and third digit of each of the given numbers is interchanged
within the number, which of the following will form the third highest number?
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1) 592 2) 619 3) 867 4) 592 5) 736
11. If 1 is subtracted from each odd digit of each of the numbers and then each
perfect square digit is changed into 5, what is the sum of the smallest and the
largest numbers in the sequence thus obtained?
1) 1356 2) 1448 3) 1338 4) 1440 5) 1398
12. What will be the resultant if the third digit of the second highest number is
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divided by the first digit of the smallest number?
1) 2 2) 1.75 3) 1.5 4) 3 5) 2.5
question:
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Direction (13-17): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
Eight persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing four persons each.
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In row 1 - P, Q, R and S are sitting and they are facing north and in row 2 - A, B,
C and D are sitting and they are facing south but not necessarily in the same
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order. In the given arrangement, each member seated in the row faces another
member of the other row. Only two persons sitting between P and S. P and R are
not immediate neighbors of each other. C does not sit at the right end of the row.
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C sits to the immediate right of D. Immediate neighbors of P faces the one who
sits second to the left of A. D does not face Q.
13. Who among the following faces R?
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1) A 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) Either A or B
14. Who sits second to the left of D?
1) C 2) B 3) A
4) Either A or B 5) No one
15. Who among the following are immediate neighbor/s of R?
1) Q and P 2) S and P 3) Q and S 4) Only Q 5) Only P
C
16. Which of the following statements is TRUE as per the given arrangement?
1) S faces C 2) No one sits left of A
3) R sits second to the left of the one who faces D
4) Only one person sits between A and B
5) All the given statements are true
17. As per the given arrangement four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
1) A 2) S 3) D 4) P 5) Q
18. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number ‘1634927’ each of which
has as many digits between them in the given number (in both forward and
backward directions) as they have between them in the arithmetic numerical
order?
1) Ten 2) Three 3) Seven
4) Eight 5) More than ten
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERKS - PRELIMS - XIV - MT - 116
Direction (19-22): In this question relationship between different elements is
shown in the statement/s. The statement/s is/are followed by two conclusions.
Study the given conclusions based on the given statement/s and select the
appropriate option as your answer.
19. Statement: R > B = D > L, L O P = S W
Conclusion I: B P Conclusion II: B > P
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Either Conclusion I or II is true
3) Both Conclusions I and II are true 4) Only Conclusion I is true
5) Only Conclusion II is true
20. Statement: U = T > E = I < P D = B V < K
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Conclusion I: I < U Conclusion II: V P
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Either Conclusion I or II is true
3) Both Conclusions I and II are true 4) Only Conclusion I is true
5) Only Conclusion II is true
21. Statement: E < R < T = Y U N X > B > O
Conclusion I: N > E
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1) Only Conclusion II is true
Conclusion II: Y < B
2) Either Conclusion I or II is true
3) Both Conclusions I and II are true 4) Only Conclusion I is true
22.
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5) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
Statement: Q Y < U X > D = M > O > K
d
Conclusion I: K X Conclusion II: U > M
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Both Conclusions I and II are true
3) Either Conclusion I or II is true 4) Only Conclusion I is true
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5) Only Conclusion II is true
Direction (23-25): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
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Point L is 4m north of point H. Point S is 3m west of point L. Point K is 5m
south of point S. Point Z is 9m west of point K. Point X is 7m south of point Z. Point
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B is 12m east of point X.
23. How far and which direction is point L with respect to point B?
1) 11m east 2) 13m west 3) 12m north
4) 15m north 5) Cannot be determined
24. Point S is in which direction with respect to point X?
1) North 2) North east 3) North west
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4) South 5) South west
25. As per the given arrangement four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
1) K, X 2) H, K 3) S, Z 4) L, X 5) K, B
26. If all the letters in the word ‘SOMEDAY’ are re-arranged as per the English
alphabetical order from left to right within the word, the position/s of how many
letters will remain unchanged after the rearrangement?
1) Two 2) One 3) None 4) Three 5) Four
Direction (27-31): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
Seven people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F and G live on seven different floors of a
seven storeyed building where ground floor is numbered one, the one above that
is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor of the building is numbered
seven. Only one person lives on each floor.
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERKS - PRELIMS - XIV - MT - 116
Not more than three persons live below the floor on which G lives. Only two
persons live between B and E, who lives above B. D lives on an odd numbered floor
above C. Only two persons live between G and A, who lives above B, but not
immediately above. B lives on an even numbered floor. Only three persons live
between E and F.
27. Who among the following lives immediately above A?
1) C 2) E 3) D 4) G 5) B
28. As per the given arrangement four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
1) F 2) D 3) G 4) E 5) C
29. G lives on which of the following floors?
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1) First 2) Fourth 3) Third 4) Second 5) Fifth
30. Which of the following statements is true regarding F?
1) No one lives below F 2) Only two persons live between F and G
3) F lives above C 4) F lives on an even numbered floor
5) All the given statements are true
31.
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How many floors between A and B?
1) Two 2) One 3) Four 4) Three 5) Six
Direction (32-34): Study the given arrangement of symbol, letter and digits carefully
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to answer the given question:
9 Q L * A M © F B £ T H 8 K X @ 7 4 B % 1 W R 2 5 & ? $D36#
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32. How many such letters are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a symbol?
1) Two 2) Three 3) One 4) None 5) Four
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33. Which of the following elements is the seventh to the left of the fifteenth from the
left end of the above arrangement?
1) £ 2) @ 3) B 4) 5 5) F
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34. If all the symbols are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following
will be the eleventh from the right end?
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1) 4 2) W 3) R 4) 7 5) X
Direction (35-39): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
Six people viz. P, Q, R, S, T and U bought different articles but not necessarily
in the same order. Only three persons bought articles between P and U. Only one
person bought article between S and Q. Q bought article immediately before T
and immediately after U. Only two persons bought articles between T and R. S
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bought an article after R.
35. How many persons bought articles before Q?
1) One 2) Two 3) Four 4) Three 5) No one
36. Who amongst the following bought article at last?
1) R 2) S 3) T 4) Q 5) P
37. Who amongst the following persons bought article immediately before U?
1) R 2) T 3) Q 4) S 5) P
38. As many persons bought articles before U as after _____.
1) T 2) R 3) S 4) P 5) Q
39. How many persons bought articles between R and S?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) One 5) None
40. There are five people in the family. A is the mother of B. D is brother of B. K is
sister-in-law of B. B is unmarried. J is grandchild of A. How is J related to B?
1) Niece 2) Nephew 3) Sister 4) Cousin 5) Either 1 or 2
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERKS - PRELIMS - XIV - MT - 116
NUMERICAL ABILITY
Direction (41– 45): Study the data and answer the following questions.
The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of meat (in kgs) consumed by
people in 5 different countries India, Australia, America, Canada, Germany in
last week of April.
Total Quantity of meat consumed (in kgs)
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510(kg) America
25.6%
Australia
Germany
Canada
20% India
ha 16%
18%
41.
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Total quantity of meat consumed by people in Australia is how much more/less
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than that of Germany?
1)50 more 2)60 less 3)80 more 4)70 less 5)50 less
42. What is the ratio of quantity of meat consumed by people in India to the total
quantity of meat conusumed by people in Australia and Germany together?
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1)3:5 2)1:5 3)5:3 4)5:1 5)2:3
43. The total quantity of meat consumed by people of India is what percentage of the
total quantity of meat consumed by all countries in last week of April?
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1)20.4 2)25 3)45 4)30 5)35.2
44. What is the difference between the total quantity of meat consumed by people of
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America to that of India in last week of April?
1)150 2)240 3)130 4)200 5)245
45. If the ratio of quantity of meat consumed by people of America to that of Pakstan
is 4:1 and then what is the average quantity of meat consumed by India and
Pakistan in the last week of April?
1)335 2)230 3)340 4)350 5)280
46. In a company, there are 60 employees and the average weight of male employees
is 95 kg and the average weight of the female employees is 65 kg. If the average
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weight of the company is 90 kg, then what is the number of male employees in
the company?
1)30 2)20 3)10 4)40 5)50
47. The ratio of the speed of the stream to the speed of upstream is 2:21. If the speed
of the boat in still water is 69 km/h, find the distance covered upstream in 5
hours. (in km)
1)315 2)330 3)420 4)460 5)280
Direction(48-57) What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following
questions.
48. (?) + 83 = 62 × 38
1)856 2)1400 3)1246 4)786 5)1334
49. 152-122+102 +2(?) = 4455÷11×3-10
1)10 2)8 3)6 4)7 5)9
50. 30% of 500+25% of 1500+(?)2 = 153-350
1)25 2)35 3)50 4)45 5)40
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERKS - PRELIMS - XIV - MT - 116
51. 1120÷14 – 10 × 32 + 22 × 14 = ?
1)68 2)45 3)70 4)65 5)44
52. 18÷ 6 × 3 + 6 = 5 × ?
1)4 2)5 3)9 4)3 5)2
53. 132 ÷6 – 14×4 = ? – 7.5 × 6
1)144 2)196 3)245 4)225 5)121
54. 280 + 672 + 521 – 453 = ?
1)1020 2)1025 3)986 4)1156 5)1240
5 1 ?
55. 3 3 6
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8 8 4
1)3 2)5 3)1 4)4 5)2
56. 20×15+20×21 = 20×12+?
1)480 2)450 3)415 4)420 5)400
57. 5455+3285-1856 = 5400+?
1)1550 2)1400
ha 1 th
3)1484 4)1200 5)1244
58. The radius of the sphere is of the side of the square. Perimeter of the square
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59.
1)121 2)324
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is 168 cm, what is the total surface area of the sphere?
3)225 4)196 5)144
A jar contains 90 liters of mixture of milk and water. If 60% of the milk is taken
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out, the initial quantity of the mixture in the jar will be half, then what is the
initial quantity of the milk in the mixture? (in liters)
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1)15 2)35 3)40 4)75 5)60
60. The ratio of investment of x, y and z is 9:10:17 and the period of investment is 4:
9:12. What is the profit share of z. (in Rs.)
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1)1200 2)1450 3)1150
4)1700 5) Cannot be determined.
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Direction(61-65): In each of these questions a number series is given. In each
series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number
61. 19, 20.5, 22.5, 26.5, 31, 36.5
1)22.5 2)19 3)20.5 4)26.5 5)36.5
62. 4.5, 10, 27,135, 945,10395
1)27 2)135 3)4.5 4)10 5)10395
63. 73, 96, 119,142,165,189
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1)119 2)189 3)96 4)142 5)165
64. 2, 8, 14, 30, 62, 126
1)14 2)126 3)62 4)2 5)8
65. 1, 9, 26, 50, 87, 136
1)136 2)9 3)87 4)26 5)50
Direction(66-68):In the given question two quantities are given, one as Quantity
I and another as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship between two
Quantities and choose the appropriate option.
66. Quantity I: The ratio of the length and breadth of a rectangle is 7:6 and the
perimeter of the rectangle is 208 m. What is the area of the rectangle.
Quantity II: Find the total surface area of the cone, whose radius is 14 m, and
slant height is 35m.
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I Quantity II 4) Quantity I Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERKS - PRELIMS - XIV - MT - 116
67. Quantity I: X and Y entered into a partnership with an investment of Rs.2400
and Rs.3200. At the end of year, the total profit obtained is Rs.4200. Find the
profit earned by Y.
Quantity II: 2400
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I Quantity II 4) Quantity I Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
68. Quantity I: Raju bought 320 pencils for Rs.1600. If he sold 75% of the pencils at
20% profit and sold the remaining pencils at 40% profit, then find the overall
profit earned by Raju?
Quantity II: 400
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
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3) Quantity I Quantity II 4) Quantity I Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
69. A jar contains 256 litres of pure milk, half of the milk is replaced by water. The
process is repeated once more, then what is the final ratio of milk to water in the
jar?
70.
1) 1:3 2) 2:5
ha 3) 5:1 4) 7:3 5) 3:1
Kamal and Kartik started the business with the investment in the ratio of 3:7.
Kamal and Kartik invested for 7 months and 6 months respectively. If the total
1) 15000 2) 14500
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profit of the business is Rs.24000, then what is the profit share of kartik? (in Rs.)
3) 16000
1 th
4) 24000 5) 12000
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71. The simple interest on a sum of money is of the sum. If the number of years
25
is equal to the rate of interest per annum, then what is the rate of interest per
annum?
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1) 5 2) 3 3) 7 4) 2 5) 9
72. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 6:7. If the number of boys
and girls in the class is increased by 24 and 30 respectively and the ratio of the
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number of boys and girls 5:6, then what is the total number of girls in the class
initially?
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1) 42 2) 35 3) 28 4) 70 5) 14
Direction (73-78): Study the data carefully and answer the following questions.
The line graph shows the distribution of certain number of blankets donated
by a charity to 5 different orphanages namely (A, B, C, D and E).
Number of blankets donated
C
600
500
400
300
–
200
100
0
A B C D E
73. What is the difference between the total number of blankets donated by orphanage
A and D ?
1) 240 2) 200 3) 250 4) 300 5) 400
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERKS - PRELIMS - XIV - MT - 116
74. What is the ratio of the total number of blankets donated by orphanage C and the
total number of blankets donated by orphanage E ?
1)3:5 2)5:3 3)2:1 4)3:7 5)1:2
75. Find the average of total number of blankets donated by orphanage B and orphanage
E.
1) 210 2) 230 3) 260 4) 275 5) 300
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76. The total number of blankets donated by orphanage A is what percentage more/
less than the total number of blankets donated by orphanage E?
1 2
1) 50% more 2) 40% less 3) 33 % less 4) 62 % more 5) 25% less
ha 3 3
77. If the ratio of the total number of blankets donated by orphanage A and another
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orphanage Z is 4:5, then what is the total number of blankets donated by orphanage
Z?
d
1) 250 2) 350 3) 400 4) 500 5)450
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78. If out of the total number of blankets donated by orphanage D , 25% of the blankets
are defective, then find the total number of blankets which are non-defective.
C
1) 330 2) 250 3) 440 4) 110 5) 220
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79. The ratio of the marked price to cost price of a product is 9:5. A discount of 30% is
allowed on the product. what is the profit or loss percentage, after the application
of discount?
1) 35% loss 2) 26% profit 3) 45% loss 4) 20% loss 5) 60% profit
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80. How many ways the letters of the word CONTENT can be arranged such that all
consonants should come together?
1) 180 2) 240 3) 160 4) 120 5) 140
KEY
1.1 2.3 3.1 4.3 5.5 6.2 7.1 8.4 9.3 10.5 SCAN QR FOR
11.2 12.3 13.3 14.5 15.3 16.3 17.5 18.5 19.5 20.3 OUR RESULTS
21.4 22.5 23.3 24.2 25.5 26.2 27.3 28.5 29.3 30.1
31.4 32.3 33.5 34.4 35.2 36.5 37.1 38.3 39.1 40.5
41.1 42.1 43.1 44.3 45.1 46.5 47.1 48.1 49.1 50.3
51.1 52.4 53.5 54.1 55.1 56.1 57.3 58.5 59.4 60.5
61.1 62.4 63.2 64.5 65.1 66.2 67.5 68.5 69.1 70.3
71.4 72.1 73.1 74.2 75.4 76.3 77.1 78.1 79.2 80.1