29-07-2025

6901CMD30334125MN007 MD

PHYSICS

1) Assertion (A) : Horizontal component of velocity is constant in projectile motion under gravity.
Reason (R) : Two projectiles having same horizontal range must have the same time of flight.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

2) Assertion : Rain is falling vertically with a certain speed. A boy holding an umbrella rides a
bicycle in east to west direction and may not get wet.
Reason : The boy is holding his umbrella (at some angle) with the vertical towards the west.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

3) The trajectories of the motion of three particles are shown in the adjoining figure. Match the

entries of column I with the entries of column II

Column-I Column-II

(A) Time of flight is least for (P) A

(B) Vertical component of velocity is the greatest for (Q) B

(C) Horizontal component of velocity is the greatest for (R) C

(D) Launch speed is least for (S) Same for all

(1) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
(2) A-S, B-S, C-S, D-P
(3) A-S, B-S, C-R, D-P
(4) A-S, B-S, C-S, D-Q

4) Two stone were projected simultaneously in the same vertical plane from same point obliquely,
with different speeds and angles with the horizontal. The trajectory of path followed by one, as seen
by the other, is :
(1) Parabola
(2) Straight line
(3) Circle
(4) Hyperbola

5) Trajectory of particle in a projectile motion is given as : y = x – . Here, x and y are in meters.

For this projectile motion match the following with g = 10 m/s2.

Column I Column II

A. Angle of projection P. 20 m

B. Velocity of projection Q. 80 m

C. Maximum height R. 45°

D. Horizontal range S. m/s

(1) A-P, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(2) A-R, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(3) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
(4) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S

6) A ball is projected from a certain point on the surface of a planet at a certain angle with the
horizontal surface. The horizontal and vertical displacements x and y vary with time t in second as :
and y = 10t - 5t2
The maximum height attained by the ball is

(1) 100 m
(2) 75 m
(3) 50 m
(4) 5 m

7) The ranges and heights for two projectiles projected with the same initial velocity at angles
with the horizontal are respectively. Choose the correct option

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection, If be the times of
flight in the two cases:-

(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)

9) A particle of mass m is projected with velocity v making an angle of with the horizontal. When
the particle lands on the ground level, the magnitude of the change in its momentum will be:-

(1)
(2) zero
(3) 2mv
(4)

10) A projectile is fired at an angle of with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its
highest point as seen from the point of projection, is:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A boat takes 2 hours to go 8 km and come back in still water lake. The time taken for going 8 km
upstream and coming back with water velocity of 4 km/h is :

(1) 140 min

(2) 150 min
(3) 160 min
(4) 170 min

12) An aeroplane moving horizontally with a speed of 180 km/h drops a food packet while flying at a
height of 490 m. The horizontal range of the packet is :

(1) 180 m
(2) 980 m
(3) 500 m
(4) 670 m

13) A boy wants to jump from building A to building B. Height of building A is 25 m and that of
building B is 5m. Distance between buildings is 4 m. Assume that the boy jumps horizontally, then
calculate minimum velocity with which he has to jump to land safely on building B.
(1) 6 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 2 m/s

14) A particle is projected horizontally with a speed of , from some height at t = 0. At what

time will its velocity make 60° angle with the initial velocity

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 1.5 sec
(4) 2.5 sec

15) Assertion: A food packet is dropped from an aeroplane flying horizontally. The path of food
packet is straight line for the pilot.
Reason: Horizontal velocity of plane and food packet is same.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

16) A tennis ball rolls off the top of a staircase way with a horizontal velocity u ms–1. If the steps are
b metre wide and h meter high, the ball will hit the edge of the nth step, if

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A plane is flying horizontally at m/s and releases an object which reaches the ground in
10s. The angle made by it with horizontal while hitting the ground is

(1) 55°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 30°

18) Two bullets are fired horizontally with different velocities from the same height. Which will
reach the ground first ?

(1) Slower one

(2) Faster one
(3) Both will reach simultaneously
(4) It cannot be predicted

19) A bird is flying towards south with a velocity 40km/h and a train is moving with a velocity 40
km/h towards east. What is the velocity of the bird w.r.t. an obserber in the train?

(1) 40 km/h. N-E

(2) 40 km/h. S-E
(3) 40 km/h. S-W
(4) 40 km/h. N-W

20) Imagine yourself standing in an elevator which is moving with an upward acceleration a = 2
m/s2. A coin is dropped from rest from the roof of the elevator, relative to you. The roof to floor
height of the elevator is 1.5 m. (Take g = 10 m/s2). Find the velocity of the coin relative to you when
it strikes the base of the elevator :-

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) 1.5 m/s

21) A man drops a ball downside from the roof of a tower of height 400 meters. At the same time
another ball is thrown upside with a velocity 50 meter/sec from the surface of the tower, then they
will meet at which height from the surface of the tower :-

(1) 100 meters

(2) 320 meters
(3) 80 meters
(4) 240 meters

22) At a metro station, a girl walks up a stationary escalator in time t1. If she remains stationary on
the escalator, then the escalator take her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk up on the
moving escalator will be :-

(1) (t1 + t2)/2

(2) t1t2/(t2 – t1)
(3) t1t2/(t2 + t1)
(4) t1 – t2
23) Six persons of same mass travel with same speed u along a regular hexagon of side 'd' such that
each one always faces the other. After how what will they meet each other ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24)

Train S is moving towards north with a speed of 25 ms–1. A monkey is moving with a speed of 5 ms–1
on the roof of train against its motion. The speed of the monkey as seen by the observer on the
ground will be :-

(1) 30 ms–1 (towards north)

(2) 30 ms–1 (towards south)
(3) 20 ms–1 (towards north)
(4) 20 ms–1 (towards south)

25) A bus is moving with a speed of 10 m/s on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the
bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should the
scooterist chase the bus ?

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 40 m/s
(4) 25 m/s

26) Two trains, each 50 m long, are travelling in opposite directions with velocities 10 ms–1 and 15
ms–1. The time of their crossing each other is :-

(1) 2s
(2) 4s
(3)
(4)

27)

Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are
represented by xp(t) = at + bt2 and xQ (t) = ft – t2. At what time the relative velocity is zero
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Two boats A and B are along a north-south line 12 km apart. Boat in north starts moving with
speed 30 m/s towards south and boat in south starts simultaneously with 30 m/s towards west. The
distance of closest approach is :-

(1) 12 km
(2) 12 km
(3) 6 km
(4) 6 km

29) Two projectiles 'A' and 'B' are projected from ground at the same time. 'A' is projected at an
angle 30° with the horizontal with speed u1 and 'B' is projected vertically upward with speed u2.

What should be the value of for the A & B to collide ?

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3)
(4)

30) A person is walking to the east at 3 km/hr and the rain drops appear to him dropping vertically
downwards at km/hr. The actual velocity of rain is :-

(1) 6 km/hr, at 60° with the vertical

(2) 3 km/hr, at 60° with the vertical
(3) 6 km/hr, at 30° with the vertical
(4) 3 km/hr, at 30° with the vertical

31) Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 30 m/s. A woman rides a bicycle with a speed of 10 m/s.
What is the direction from vertical in which she should hold her umbrella?

(1) 30°
(2) 60°

(3)

(4) None

32) A man can swim in still water at speed 2 m/s. Water flows in river with speed m/s. If person
crosses the river of width 60 m in shortest path then time taken by him will be :-

(1) 4 min
(2) 1 min
(3) 3 min
(4) 2 min

33) A swimmer wishes to cross a 500 m river flowing at 5 km/h. He can swim in still water with
velocity 3 km/h. The minimum possible time to cross the river is :-

(1) 10 min
(2) 20 min
(3) 6 min
(4) 7.5 min

34) The speed of a boat is 5 km/h in still water. It crosses a river of width 1.0 km along the shortest
path in 15 minutes. The velocity (in km/h) of the river water is :-

(1) 5
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) A river is flowing from east to west at a speed of 5 m/min. A man on south bank of river, capable
of swimming 10 m/min in still water, wants to swin across the river in the shortest time; he
should swim :-

(1) due-north
(2) due north-east
(3) due north-east with double the speed of river
(4) none of the above

36) A man can swim in still water with speed of 2m/s. If he wants to cross a river of water current
speed m/s along the shortest possible path, then in which direction he should swim ?

(1) At an angle 120° to the water current

(2) At an angle 150° to the water current
(3) At an angle 90° to the water current
(4) None of these

37) A ship is travelling due east at 10 km/hr. A ship heading 30° east of north is always due north
from the first ship. The speed of the second ship in km/hr is :

(1) 20
(2) 20
(3) 20
(4) 20/

38)

A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of 8km/hr. If the resultant velocity of boat is 10 km/hr,
then velocity of the river is : ––

(1) 10 km/hr
(2) 8 km/hr
(3) 6 km/hr
(4) 4 km/hr

39) A person holding a flag is moving with velocity & air is flowing with velocity ,
then find the direction in which the flag will point :-

(1)
(2) –
(3)
(4) –

40)

The equation of trajectory of a projectile is y = 64x – 8x2. If point of projection is taken as origin then
the co-ordinates of the point where it has minimum speed are :-

(1) (24, 32)

(2) (16, 64)
(3) (64, 24)
(4) (4, 128)

41) Which of the following Position -Time graphs correctly represents two moving objects A and B
with zero relative velocity ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

42) A projectile is fired from ground with velocity . If acceleration due to gravity acting
on the particle is g. Then match the following

Column-A Column-B

(i) Time of ascent

(p)

(ii) Maximum height (H)

(q)

(iii) Time of flight

(r)

(iv) Range
(s)
(1) (i) – p; (ii) – q; (iii) – r; (iv) – s
(2) (i) – r; (ii) – s; (iii) – p; (iv) – q
(3) (i) – r; (ii) – p; (iii) – q; (iv) – s
(4) (i) – r; (ii) – s; (iii) – q; (iv) – p

43) The speed of projectile at its maximum height is times of its initial speed 'u' of projection. Its
horizontal range is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
44) A projectile's time of flight T is related to the horizontal range R by the equation of gT2 = 2R. The
angle of projection in degrees is :

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

45) A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower of height H with velocity 20 m/s. A man is
standing at the foot of tower starts running at the same instant when ball is thrown. What should be
the velocity of man to catch the ball before striking the ground (consider height of man negligible)

(1) 10 m/s
(2)
(3) 20 m/s
(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the compound is hypervalent :-

(1) IF7
(2) NH3
(3) BeF2
(4) CH4

2) Which of the following bond is strongest ?

(1) 2s-2s
(2) 2s-2p
(3) 1s-1s
(4) 2p-2p

3) Which of the following is correct order of σ-bond strength?

(I) 2s – 2s (II) 2s – 2p
(III) 2p – 2p (IV) 3s – 3s

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) III > I > II > IV

4) Variable covalency is exhibited by:-

(1) P and S
(2) N and O
(3) N and P
(4) F and Cl

5) Which of the following set of overlap cannot provide π-bond formation :-

(1) 3d and 2p
(2) 2p and 3p
(3) 2p and 2p
(4) 3p and 1s

6) the maximum covalency is equal to :-

(1) The number of unpaired p-electrons

(2) The number of paired d-electrons
(3) The number of unpaired electron is ground state or in excited state
(4) The no. of unpaired electron in s-subshell

7) How many of the following are hypovalent molecules :-

BF3 , AlCl3 , BeCl2 , PCl5 , PCl3 , SO3

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5

8)

σ(sigma) bond is formed by the overlapping of :- (Internuclear axis is y)

(1) s–s
(2) s–py
(3) py–py
(4) All of these

9) Total number of π electrons in the following structure :

(1) 9
(2) 16
(3) 8
(4) 18

10) Which condition favours the bond formation :

(1) Maximum attraction and maximum potential energy

(2) Minimum attraction and minimum potential energy
(3) Minimum potential energy and maximum attraction
(4) None of these

11) PCl5 is possible NCl5 does not :-

(1) N do not have vacant d-orbital

(2) NCl5 is unstable
(3) 'N' is small in size than 'P'
(4) 'N' is inert element

12) Which point represents bond formation condition as per the graph given below?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

13) Which of the following is an exception of octet rule?

(1) H2
(2) He
(3) Li+
(4) All of these

14) Which of the following angle corresponds to sp2 hybridisation?

(1) 90°
(2) 120°
(3) 180°
(4) 109°
15) For which of the following hybridisation the bond angle is maximum ?

(1) sp2
(2) sp
(3) sp3
(4) None

16) In an octahedral structure, the pair of d-orbitals involved in sp3d2 hybridization is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) % of s - character is maximum in

(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3
(4) sp3d

18) Match the column

Column I Column II
(Molecule/Ion) (Hybridisation)

(i) SF4 (a) sp3d2

(ii) IF5 (b) sp3d3

(iii) (c)
3
(iv) (d) sp

(e) sp
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-c, ii-a, iii-e, iv-d
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-e, iv-b
(4) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-e

19) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Excitation of electron is an essential condition prior to Hybridisation.
Statement-II : Half filled, full filled and vacant orbital can participate in the process of Hybridisation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct
(2) Statement-I and II both are correct
(3) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect

20) Which of the following configuration shows second excitation state of Iodine?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Maximum bond angle is present in :

(1) CH4
(2) BCl3
(3) BeCl2
(4) All have same bond angle

22) Which of the following molecular geometry is not produced by sp3d hybridization ?

(1) Triangular planar

(2) Sea-saw
(3) 'T' shape
(4) Linear

23) Hybridisation of sulphur in SO3 molecule

(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3
(4) sp3d

24) CO2 is isostructural with

(1) SO2
(2) SO3
+
(3) NO2
(4) C2H4

25) Which of the following is not linear?

(1) BeCl2
(2) SO2
(3) CO2
(4) XeF2

26) The molecular geometry of H3O+ is:

(1) Pyramidal
(2) Angular
(3) Octahedral
(4) Trigonal planner

27)

Which of the following statements is wrong:

(1) Hybridisation is the mixing of atomic orbitals prior to their combining into molecular orbitals
(2) sp2 hybrid orbitals are formed from two p atomic orbitals and one s atomic orbital
(3) sp3d2 hybrid orbitals are all at 90° to one another
(4) sp3d2 hybrid orbitals are directed towards the corners of a regular tetrahedron

28) Statement-1 : In PCl5, 3 P-Cl bond lie in one plane and make an angle of 120° with each other.
Statement-2 : In PCl5, axial bond pairs suffers more repulsive interaction from the equatorial bond
pairs, therefore axial bonds have been found to be slightly longer.

(1) Statement-1 and 2 both are correct.

(2) Statement-1 and 2 both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct.

29) Assertion (A): BrF5 and SF6 both have same hybridisation.
Reason (R): BrF5 is square pyramidal, while SF6 molecule is octahedral.

(1) Both A and R are incorrect.

(2) Both A and R are correct.
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect; R is correct.

30) Assertion (A): Though the central atom of both NH3 and H2O molecules are sp3 hybridised, yet
H–N–H bond angle is greater than that of H–O–H.
Reason (R): This is because nitrogen atom has one lone pair and oxygen atom has two lone pairs.

(1) A and R both are correct.

(2) A and R both are incorrect
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
31)

The geometry of PCl5 is :–

(1) Triangular planar

(2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Square planar
(4) Tetrahedral

32) Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and
mark the correct option.

Code :-
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) In which of the following molecules/ions are all the bonds not equal?

(1) XeF4
(2) CH4
(3) PCl5
(4) SiF4

34)

Which of the following molecule has more than one lone pair on central atom?

(1) SO2
(2) XeF2
(3) PCl5
(4) IF7

35) Which of the following is T-shaped?

(1) PCl3
(2) BCl3
(3) NH3
(4) ClF3

36)

Which of the given species has maximum number of bond pairs and minimum number of lone pairs

(1) XeF6
(2)
(3) H2O
(4)

37) Shape of H2O is :

(1) Tetrahedral
(2) Pyramidal
(3) Linear
(4) Bent

38) Match the species in column-I with the type of hybrid orbitals in column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) NH3 (i) sp2

(b) SF6 (ii) sp3

(c) BeCl2 (iii) sp3d2

(d) BF3 (iv) sp

(1) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(3) a-(ii), b-(v), c-(iv), d-(i)
(4) a-(i), b-(v), c-(iv), d-(ii)

39) The correct order of bond angles (smallest first) in H2O, NH3, BF3 and CH4 is :

(1) H2O < NH3 < CH4 < BF3

(2) NH3 < H2O < CH4 < BF3
(3) H2O < CH4 < NH3 < BF3
(4) H2O < NH3 < BF3 < CH4

40) Order of electronic repulsion is-

(LP = lone pair, BP = bond pair)

(1) LP-LP > BP - BP > LP - BP

(2) BP-BP > LP - LP > LP - BP
(3) LP-LP > LP - BP > BP - BP
(4) LP-BP > LP - LP > BP - BP

41) Consider the following statements

I. H2O molecule has V-shape with two lone pairs of electrons.
II. SF4 molecule has see-saw shape with one lone pair of electrons.
III. CℓF3 is T-shaped molecule with two lone pairs of electrons.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Choose the correct option.

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) I and III
(4) All of the above

42) Which of the following molecules has the highest value of carbon- carbon bond energy?

(1) C2H4
(2) C3H8
(3) C2H2
(4) C2H6

43) Total number of electrons shared in a triple bond

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 4

44) Statement 1: Sigma bond is stronger than pi - bond

Statement 2: Sigma bond is formed after the formation of - bond

(1) Statement 1 and 2 both are correct.

(2) Statement 1 and 2 both are incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

45) Correct order of Bond angle is :-

(1) SO2 < SO3

(2) SO2 > SO3
(3) SO2 = SO3
(4) Can't be predicted

BOTANY

1) Which one of the following protists, release toxins?

(1) Euglena
(2) Golden alga
(3) Gonyaulax
(4) Slime mould

2) Statement A : Many mycoplasma are pathogenic in plants and animals.

Statement B : Mycoplasma are the smallest living cells.

(1) Both statement A and statement B are correct.

(2) Both statement A and statement B are incorrect.
(3) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.
(4) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct.

3) Assertion : Boundaries of kingdom protista are not well defined.

Reason : Kingdom protista includes all single celled eukaryotes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4)

Archebacteria can survive in adverse conditions due to :-

(1) Having a different cell wall structure

(2) Having more amount of lipid in cell membrane
(3) Having special stabilizing protein in periplamic space
(4) Having genome of DNA

5) Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?

(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Diatoms
(3) Dinoflagellates
(4) Euglenoids

6) Choose incorrect statement ?

(1) Mycoplasma lack cell wall.
(2) Mycoplasma can't survive without oxygen.
(3) Flagella is present in Euglena
(4) Flagella is not present in Cyanobacteria

7) Choose the correct options with respect to given diagram :

(1) Paramoecium → Protozoans, presence of thousand of cilia

(2) Gonyaulax → Dinoflagellates, one longitudinal flagella
(3) Nostoc → Cynobacteria, can fix N2
(4) Euglena → Euglenoids. They have two flagella, a short and a long one.

8) Which is common in Euglenoid and Protozoa?

(1) Have cell wall

(2) Have unequal flagella
(3) Don't have cell wall
(4) Don't exhibit sexual reproduction

9) Diatomaceous earth is not used in –

(1) Polishing of stones

(2) Filteration of oil and syrups
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Antibiotic production

10) Which of the following often show blooms in polluted water body?

(1) Methanogens
(2) Halophiles bacteria
(3) Mycoplasma
(4) Cyanobacteria

11) Spores of slime moulds are dispersed by:

(1) Water
(2) Soil
(3) Wind
(4) Insects

12) Given figure is of a filamentous blue-green algae. Identify the algae and choose the option that is
correct for A, B and C in the figure.

(1) A-Frankia, B-Vegetative cell, C-Heterocyst

(2) A-Rhizobiam, B-Somatic cell, C-Mucilaginous sheath
(3) A-Euglena, B-Mucilaginous sheath, C-Heterocyst
(4) A-Nostoc, B-Heterocyst, C-Mucilaginous sheath

13) Fruiting bodies are present in :

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Euglenoids
(3) Bacteria
(4) Slime moulds

14) Members of kingdom fungi show a great diversity in :-

(1) Structure and function

(2) Structure only
(3) Morphology and Habitats
(4) Anatomy

15) Assertion : Majority of Euglenoids are fresh water organism.

Reason : All unicellular eukaryotes placed under protista.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

16) Long slender, thread like structure of fungi is called :-

(1) Hyphae
(2) Mycelium
(3) Rhizoids
(4) Thallus

17) Shell of diatoms is indestructible due to?

(1) Fe
(2) Mg
(3) Si
(4) Mn

18) Which one of the following is incorrect for fungi?

(1) They are eukaryotic

(2) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall
(3) They are heterotrophic
(4) They are both unicellular and multicellular

19) The causal organism for sleeping sickness belongs to

(1) Flagellated protozoans

(2) Sporozoans
(3) Ciliated protozoans
(4) Amoeboid protozoans

20) Statement-I : Protistan cell body contains incipient nucleus and lack membrane-bound
organelles.
Statement-II : Protists reproduce asexually only, so zygote formation does not occurs.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

21) Vegetative reproduction in Fungi takes place by:

(1) Fragmentation
(2) Fission
(3) Budding
(4) All of these

22) Thermoacidophiles lives at :-

(1) High temperature and high pH

(2) Low temperature and high pH
(3) Low temperature and low pH
(4) High temperature and low pH

23) Which is common about dinoflagellates, diatoms, desmids -

(1) Unicellular
(2) Eukaryotes
(3) Autotrophs
(4) All of these

24) Which bacteria are living in extreme salty areas ?

(1) Thermoacidophiles
(2) Methanogens
(3) Halophiles
(4) Cyanobacteria

25) Members of kingdom protista are primarily

(1) Parasites
(2) Terrestrial
(3) Aquatic
(4) Photosynthetic

26) Assertion : Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.

Reason : Slime moulds derive their nutrition mainly from dccaying organic matter.

(1) Assertion and the reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false

27) Diatoms have left behind large amount of cell wall deposits in their habitat. This accumulation is
referred to as ?

(1) Coral reef

(2) Paramylum
(3) Diatomite or Keiselgurh
(4) Plasmodium

28) Which of the following character is common in both cyanobacteria and green plants ?

(1) Cell wall composition

(2) Presence of chlorophyll 'a'
(3) Presence of heterocyst
(4) Presence of 80s ribosome
29) Which organism have two flagella, one longitudinally and the other transversely ?

(1) Euglenoids
(2) Diatoms (Chrysophytes)
(3) Protozoa
(4) Dinoflagellates

30) A disease which has a staggering effect on human population caused by -

(1) Entamoeba
(2) Plasmodium
(3) Trypanosoma
(4) Paramoecium

31)

Following are present in gut of cows and buffaloes and is responsible for the production of methane
from the dung of these animals

(1) Methanogen
(2) Thermoacidophiles
(3) Halophils
(4) All of these

32) Some fungi are___ associating with photosyenthetic organisms to form mycorrhizae or lichens :-

(1) Parasitic
(2) Symbiotically
(3) Photosynthetic
(4) Saprobic

33) Which protozoan has an infectous spore like stage in their life cycle?

(1) Sporozoans
(2) Ciliated protozoan
(3) Flagellated protozoan
(4) Amoeboid Protozoan

34) True nucleus absent in

(1) Diatoms
(2) Slimemould
(3) Fungi
(4) Cynobacteria

35) Pair of organisms believed to be primitive relatives of animals is:

(1) Trypanosoma & Slime mold
(2) Diatoms & Paramoecium
(3) Amoeba & Paramoecium
(4) Diatoms & Plasmodium

36)

Euglenoids have flexible body because of

(1) Cellulosic cell wall

(2) Protein rich pellicle
(3) Lipid wall
(4) Pectin wall

37) Which of the following is responsible for red tides ?

(1) Diatoms
(2) Golden algae
(3) Euglena
(4) Gonyaulax

38) Dinoflagellates are mainly

(1) Fresh water and photosynthetic

(2) Fresh water and non-photosynthetic
(3) Marine and photosynthetic
(4) Marine and non-photosynthetic

39)

Pigments of euglenoids are identical to

(1) Bacteria
(2) Diatoms
(3) Dinoflagellates
(4) Higher plants

40) Planktons belongs to the kingdom

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Fungi

41) Photosynthetic in the presence of sunlight, when deprived of sunlight they behave like
heterotrophs by predating on other smaller organisms are
(1) Slime moulds
(2) Euglenoids
(3) Dinoflagellates
(4) Chrysophytes

42) Under suitable condition slime moulds form an aggregation which is known as -

(1) Plasmodium
(2) Fruiting body
(3) Sporangia
(4) Spores

43) Specialized cells that fix atmospheric nitrogen in Anaebena are

(1) Zoospores
(2) Heterocysts
(3) Trichomes
(4) Frustule

44) How many statements are true about Chrysophytes ?

(a) They are found in fresh water as well as Marine habitat
(b) They are microscopic structure and float passively in water current
(c) This group includes diatoms and desmids
(d) They are mostly Saprophytic

(1) a and b
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d

45) Match the type of protozoans given in column-I with their examples given in column-II and
choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-I

Amoeboid
A. I. Paramecium
protozoans

Ciliated
B. II. Plasmodium
protozoans

Flagellated
C. III. Amoeba
protozoans

D. Sporozoans IV. Trypanosoma

(1) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
(2) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
(3) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
(4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
 ZOOLOGY

1) A student is observing a specimen of an animal which is having scales on the body with long tail &
the mouth has teeth but limbs are absent. What animal it will be ?

(1) Ichthyophis
(2) Bangarus
(3) Chelone
(4) Hemidactylus

2) Which of the following is not correct for amphibians ?

(1) They are not found in marine habitats.

Alimentary canal and reproductive tracts open into a common chamber called cloaca while
(2)
urinary tract open directly outside.
(3) Most of them have two pairs of limbs.
(4) Development is indirect.

3)

Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Bufo (i) Tree frog

(B) Rana (ii) Limbless amphibian

(C) Hyla (iii) Frog

(D) Ichthyophis (iv) Toad

(1) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii)
(2) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii)
(3) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii)
(4) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (iii)

4) The skin of amphibians is :-

(1) Dry and scaleless.

(2) Moist and scaly.
(3) Moist and scaleless.
(4) Moist and scales on limbs.

5) Assertion:- Amphibians are cold blooded animals.

Reason:- Their body temperature is not regulated internally and varies with the external
environment.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

6) Amphibians show _______ fertilisation and are _______ :-

(1) Internal and oviparous

(2) Internal and viviparous
(3) External and oviparous
(4) External and viviparous

7) Which of the following best describes the respiratory system of amphibians ?

(1) Respiration occurs exclusively only through lungs in all life stages.
(2) Respiration occurs through gills, lungs, and skin.
(3) Respiration is limited to gills during terrestrial phases.
(4) Respiration depends solely on diffusion through skin.

8) Which type of heart is there in the members of class Amphibia ?

(1) Venous heart.

(2) Four chambered heart.
(3) Three chambered heart.
(4) Two chambered heart.

9) Statement I- Amphibians are the first chordate tetrapods to come out of the water.
Statement II- Their eggs have protective covering to check the evaporation in terrestrial life.

(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

10)

Which combination of features best describes the body structure of amphibians?

(1) One pair of limbs, head only, no tail.

(2) Two pairs of limbs, head and trunk, tail in some.
(3) Four pairs of limbs, trunk only, tail in all.
(4) No limbs, head and tail only.

11) Which of the following are not amphibians?

(1) A and C
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

12) Statement-I : In reptiles external ear openings are not present.

Statement-II : Tympanum represents ear in amphibians and reptiles both.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

13) Match the following

Column I Column II

a Chelone i Turtle

b Testudo ii Tortoise

c Bangarus iii Krait

d Naja iv Cobra
(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(3) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)
(4) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv)

14) All are correct for reptiles, except :-

(1) Skin is dry, glands are absent except the oil gland.
(2) Heart is usually three chambered.
(3) Snake and lizards shed their scales as skin cast.
(4) Poikilothermals.

15) Which is not true with respect to reptiles ?

(1) Dermal scales are found

(2) Do not have external ear opening
(3) Cornified skin
(4) Direct development
16) Bangarus, Vipera, Python, and Krait
How many of the among these snakes are non-poisonous :

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

17) Term 'Reptile' refers to

(1) Creeping movement

(2) Dry & cornified skin
(3) Epidermal scales
(4) Viviparity

18) Respiration in reptiles takes place through-

(1) Lungs.
(2) Skin.
(3) Buccopharyngeal cavity.
(4) All of the above.

19) Select the correct feature for animal given in the picture :-

(1) 4 chambered heart

(2) Homoiothermous
(3) Oviparous
(4) Pneumatic bones

20) In birds, jaw is modified into (a) and heart is (b)

Fill in the blanks correctly :

(1) (a) - Toothed beak (b) - 4 chambered

(2) (a) - Beak (b) - 4 chambered
(3) (a) - Toothed beak (b) 3 chambered
(4) (a) - Beak (b) - 3 chambered

21) Statement-1 : In Aves forelimbs are modified into wings.

Statement-2 : Aves have air sacs connected to lungs suppliment respiration.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

22) The aves have additional chamber in digestive tract and of which ____ is for food storage and
_____ for food grinding.

(1) crop, gizzard

(2) gizzard, crop
(3) crop, pharynx
(4) pharynx, gizzard

23) Assertion: Birds have pneumatic bones.

Reason: This reduce weight for flight.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

24) The branch of science dealing with the study of birds is

(1) Icthyology
(2) Malacology
(3) Herpetology
(4) Ornithology

25) Identify the name of given animals from the given option.

A B C D

(1) Struthio Neophron Pavo Psittacula

(2) Neophron Struthio Pavo Psittacula

 (3) Neophron Struthio Psittacula Pavo

(4) Pavo Struthio Psittacula Neophron

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Name the body part of Aves, where oil gland is present

(1) Tympanum
(2) Crop
(3) Gizzard
(4) Uropygium

27) In birds scales are present on :-

(1) Fore limbs

(2) Hind limbs
(3) Head
(4) Neck

28) Which of the following mammal is exception for viviparity ?

(1) Balaenoptera
(2) Ornithorynchus
(3) Camelus
(4) Panthera tigris

29) What is the function of preen glands in birds?

(1) To maintain body temperature.

(2) Sweat production .
(3) To secrete some hormones.
(4) Secretion of oil.

30) Assertion : The characteristic feature of Aves are the presence of feathers.
Reason : Most of the birds can fly.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

31) Flightless birds are

(1) Struthio and Corvus
(2) Struthio and Pavo
(3) Aptenodytes and Psittacula
(4) Aptenodytes and Struthio

32) Fertilization in birds is :-

(1) Usually internal

(2) External in flying birds
(3) External in flightless birds
(4) Self and internal

33) The hind limbs of birds helps in :-

Which of the following are correct ?
(A) Swimming
(B) Walking
(C) Perching
(D) Clasping
(E) Flying

(1) B, C & D only

(2) B & E only
(3) All except A
(4) All except E

34) Class defining trait amongst mammals is :-

(1) Cosmopolitan habitat

(2) Presence of mammary glands
(3) Two pairs of limbs
(4) Internal fertilization

35) The common name for dolphin is :-

(1) Balaenoptera
(2) Equus
(3) Delphinus
(4) Pteropus

36) Which of the following mammal is commonly known as flying fox ?

(1) Pteropus
(2) Balenoptera
(3) Equus
(4) Canis
37) What is common between the animals shown below?

(1) Both are oviparous

(2) Both are viviparous
(3) Both are warm blooded
(4) Both have hairs on their body

38) Given below are some animals in the box.

Rana, Hyla, Ichthyophis, Rattus, Macaca,

Corvus, Columba, Panthera leo,
Elephas, Macropus
How many of them have ear pinnae ?
(1) Seven
(2) Five
(3) Eight
(4) Ten

39) Which of the following set of animals belongs to same class?

(1) Petromyzon and Exocoetus

(2) Calotes and Columba
(3) Struthio and Delphinus
(4) Vipera and Testudo

40) What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo ?

(1) Oviparity
(2) Homeothermy
(3) Belong to same class but different in their division
(4) Belongs to same phylum but different division

41) Match the following:

Column 1 Column II
(i) Epidermal scales (a) Equus
(ii) Warm blooded (b) Alligator
(iii) Four chambered heart (c) Neophron
(iv) Feathers (d) Bangarus

(1) (i) - (d) ; (ii) - (a); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (b)

(2) (i) - (b) ; (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d)
(3) (i) - (b) ; (ii) - (a) ; (iii) - (d) ; (iv) - (c)
(4) (i) - (d) ; (ii) - (a) ; (iii) - (b) ; (iv) - (c)

42) Which of the following characters is not shared by birds and mammals?

(1) Breathing by lungs.

(2) Warm blooded nature.
(3) Internal skeleton.
(4) Viviparity.

43)

Select the total number of lizards from the following list of animals -
Chelone, Calotes, Crocodilus, Hemidactylus, Columba, Neophron

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

44) Which one of the following characteristics is shared by birds and reptiles?

(1) Presence of beak.

(2) Different type of teeth present in jaws.
(3) Oviparity.
(4) Ability to maintain a constant body temperature.

45) Naja heart is composed of

(1) Two auricles and two ventricles.

(2) Two auricles one ventricle.
(3) One auricles and two ventricles.
(4) One auricle and one ventricle.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 3 2 3 4 2 2 1 3 3 3 4 2 1 2 4 3 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 4 2 3 3 2 1 3 1 2 3 3 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 2 1 4 3 1 4 4 3 1 3 4 2 2 2 1 2 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 1 2 1 3 2 4 1 4 1 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 2 3 1

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 2 1 2 2 4 3 4 4 3 4 4 3 2 1 3 2 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 4 3 3 1 3 2 4 2 1 2 1 4 3 2 4 3 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 2 3 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 3 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 4 1 1 4 3 4 2 2 4 2 4 1 4 2 3 1 3 2 4 2
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 1 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Conceptual.

2) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 76
Conceptual.

3) Here, maximum height for all the particles is same

So, all the three particles have same uy.

So, all the three particles have same time of flight.

Range (R) is maximum for C.
R = Horizontal component of velocity × T
So, horizontal component of velocity is greatest for C.

ux is least for A and uy is same for all, so u is least for A.

4)

Option : (2)

5)

Option : (3)

6)
At maximum height, vy = 0
10 — 2t = 0
or 2t = 10 or t = 5s
y = (10×5—5×5)m = 25m

7)

For complementary angles

but
8)

... (i)

... (ii)

9)

Option : (1)

10)
Angle of elevation

11)

Option : (3)
12)

Option : (3)

13)

Option : (4)

14)

Option : (2)

15)

Conceptual.

16)

....(i)
Horizontal distance travelled by ball

....(ii)
Squaring Eq. (ii), we get

17)

Option : (4)

18)

Option : (3)

19) (South-West)

tanθ = 1; θ = 45°

20) Using
 ar = g – (–a) = (g+a)
= 0 + 2(g+a).h

21) Let both balls meet at point P after time t. The distance travelled by ball A,

The distance travelled by ball B,

h1 + h2 = 400 m
⇒ ut = 400, t = 400/50 = 8 s
∴ h1 = 320m and h2 = 80 m

22)

Option : (3)

23) t =

Alternative method

24)

⇒
⇒
⇒
25) Srel. = urel.t
1000 = (v – 10) (100) ⇒ v = 20 ms–1

26) Total length to be crossed = 50 + 50 = 100m

Relative Velocity = 10 + 15 = 25 m/s

Time taken =

27) Explanation : To find when the case have same velocity

Concept : Rate of change of position in w.r.t time in equal to instantaneous velocity

Formula :
Final Ans.

28)

Option : (4)

29)

u1sin30° = u2

30)

Option : (3)

31)

Option : (3)

32)

33)
t = 600 sec. = 10 min.
34) The resultant velocity of the boat and river is 1.0 km/0.25 h = 4 km/h.
Velocity of the river = = 3 km/h.

35) For the shortest time, the man should swim perpendicular to the bank, i.e., due north.

36)

sinθ =

sinθ =
θ = 60°
angle from water current = 90 + 60 = 150°

37)

for ship to be relatively at north

should be along
⇒ n2 sin30° = 10 ⇒ n2 = 20

38)

VR = 6 Km/hr

39)

40)

Option : (4)
 41) vA = vB = tan θ
same slope.

42) Conceptual.

43)

Option : (1)

44)

Option : (2)

45)
s = ut
H = 1/2 gt2

s = ut

s= ut

v=u
v = 20 m/s

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explanation - The question asks to identify which of the given compounds (IF7, NH3, BeF2,
CH4) has a central atom with more than eight valence electrons.

Concept - (Octet Rule & its voilation)

A. IF7: Iodine has 14 valence electrons, making it hypervalent.

B. NH3: Nitrogen has 8 valence electrons, following the octet rule.
C. BeF2: Beryllium has 4 valence electrons, not hypervalent.
D. CH4: Carbon has 8 valence electrons, following the octet rule.
Final Answer - Option (1)

47)

Explanation:
Question is asking about which of the following overlapping is strongest
Concept:
Overlapping
1s-1s has the lowest n values more overlapping due to smallest size. 8 more altraction.
Answer: 3

48) 2p-2p > 2s – 2p > 2s-2s > 3s – 3s

Extent of overlapping ∝ directional character ∝ .

49)

Due to presence of vacant d-orbital

P = 3, 5
S = 2, 4, 6

50)

Option : (4)

51)

Option : (3)

52)

The molecules with incomplete octet →

BF3, AlCl3, BeCl2

53)

Option : (4)

54)

Option : (4)

55)
Option : (3)

56) being a 2nd period element do not have 2d orbital.

57)

Option : (3)

58)

Option : (4)

59)
sp2 has trigonal planar shape.

60) NCERT Pg # 117, 118

61)

Option : (2)

62)

Option : (1)

63)

Option : (2)

64)

Hybridisation can take place in ground state and excited state.

65)

66)

Option : (3)

67)

Option : (1)

68)

Option : (2)

69)

Option : (3)

70)

Option : (2)

71)

Option : (1)

72)

Option : (4)

73)

NCERT-XI, Part-1, Chapter-4

74) Conceptual.
 75) Conceptual.

76)

Option : (2)

77) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about match the column of molecule with shape.

Concept :
This question is based on hybridisation.

Solution :
XeF6 ⇒ 6σ + 1 L.P. ⇒ sp3d3 ⇒ Distorted octahedral
XeO3 ⇒ 3σ + 1 L.P. ⇒ sp3 ⇒ Pyramidal
XeOF4 ⇒ 5σ + 1 L.P. ⇒ sp3d2 ⇒ Square pyramidal
XeF4 ⇒ 4σ + 2 L.P. ⇒ sp3d2 ⇒ Square planar

Final Answer :
Option (1)

78)

Explanation -
The question asks: Which molecule/ion has bonds of differing lengths, requiring knowledge of
molecular geometry and electron pair repulsion?

Concept - (Bond length, molecular geometry & electron pair repulsion)

A. Molecular geometry dictates bond equality.

B. XeF4 and SiF4 have symmetrical geometries (square planar, tetrahedral).
C. SF4 has a "see-saw" shape due to a lone pair. This lone pair causes unequal bond lengths (axial
vs. equatorial).
D. Therefore, SF4 has bonds that are not all equal.

Final Answer - Option (3)

79)

(a) SO2

(b) XeF2

(c) PCl5
(d) IF7

80)

81)

Option : (1)

82)

H2O
2σ + 2ℓp = sp3
Bent / v - shape / Angular

83)

Option : (1)

84) Bond angle % s-character

85)

Question Explanation : Find the correct order of repulsion.

Concept : This question is based on VSEPR theory

Solution : The order of electronic repulsion is - (LP – LP) > (LP – BP) > (BP – BP)

Final Answer : option (3)

86)

Option : (4)

87)
 Option : (3)

88)

Option : (2)

89)

Option : (3)

90)

Option : (1)

BOTANY

91)

NCERT Pg. No. 15

92)

NCERT Pg. No. 14

93)

NCERT Pg. No. 14

94)

NCERT Pg. No. 13

95)

NCERT Pg. No. 14

96) NCERT Pg. No. 14

97) NCERT Pg. No. 15

98)

NCERT Pg. No. 16

99)

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107) NCERT Pg. No. 14

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109)

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110) NCERT Pg. No. 14

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ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT pg no. - 48

137) NCERT Pg. # 48

138) NCERT Pg. # 48

139)

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140)

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141) NCERT Page No. 48

142) NCERT pg no. - 48

143) NCERT Pg- 48.

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145) NCERT Page No. - 48.

146)

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147) NCERT Pg. # 48 & 49

148) NCERT pg no - 49

149) NCERT Pg. # 49

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151) NCERT Pg. # 49

152)

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153) Module- 4 Pg No. 32.

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155)

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