Application Seq No IBSAE250717068

Roll Number 398237401543

Participant Name HARJIT SINGH
Test Center Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Bhucho kalan
Test Date 30/09/2025
Test Time 5:30 PM - 6:30 PM
Post Name SECURITY ASSISTANT/EXECUTIVE

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 What process allows plants to produce sugars using the sun’s energy and carbon dioxide?
Ans 1. Photosynthesis

2. Respiration

3. Germination

4. Fermentation

Question ID : 441009297419
Option 1 ID : 4410091156753
Option 2 ID : 4410091156751
Option 3 ID : 4410091156752
Option 4 ID : 4410091156754
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.2 What is a key feature of Khelo Bharat Niti 2025 introduced by the Indian Government?
Ans 1. It integrates sports programmes with the National Education Policy 2020.

2. It limits participation of women and persons with disabilities in sports.

3. It reduces the budget allocation for sports to focus on other sectors.

4. It seeks to privatise all national sports federations.

Question ID : 4410091309071
Option 1 ID : 4410095167923
Option 2 ID : 4410095167924
Option 3 ID : 4410095167922
Option 4 ID : 4410095167925
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.3 Which of the following statements about tiger reserves in India is correct?
Ans 1. Bandhavgarh TR lies in Chhattisgarh, whereas Kaziranga TR lies in Madhya Pradesh.

2. Indravati TR is in Chhattisgarh, and Udanti–Sitanadi TR is also in Chhattisgarh.

3. Namdapha TR is in Assam, while Dampa TR is in Manipur.

4. Nameri TR is in Arunachal Pradesh, while Pakke TR is in Assam.

Question ID : 4410091318365
Option 1 ID : 4410095205008
Option 2 ID : 4410095205007
Option 3 ID : 4410095205009
Option 4 ID : 4410095205006
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.4 As per World Bank's Spring 2025 Poverty and Equity Brief, India’s poverty at the $3.65/day
line fell from 61.8% (2011–12) to how much percentage in 2022–23?
Ans 1. 28.1%

2. 15.5%

3. 41.0%

4. 22.0%

Question ID : 4410091312286
Option 1 ID : 4410095180825
Option 2 ID : 4410095180827
Option 3 ID : 4410095180824
Option 4 ID : 4410095180826
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.5 In 2025, which state became the first to empanel sign language interpreters and special
educators under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, to assist children with special needs during
judicial proceedings?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. West Bengal

3. Bihar

4. Gujarat

Question ID : 4410091312390
Option 1 ID : 4410095181257
Option 2 ID : 4410095181259
Option 3 ID : 4410095181258
Option 4 ID : 4410095181256
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.6 Which of the following was NOT a typical feature of Harappan architecture?
Ans 1. Pyramidal temples

2. Public baths

3. Drainage systems

4. Large granaries

Question ID : 44100992393
Option 1 ID : 441009367288
Option 2 ID : 441009367286
Option 3 ID : 441009367289
Option 4 ID : 441009367287
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.7 Who among the following was appointed as India's executive director at the Asian
Development Bank in September 2025?
Ans 1. Sanjay Bahadur

2. Pankaj Kumar Mishra

3. L Satya Srinivas

4. G Aparna Rao

Question ID : 4410091312936
Option 1 ID : 4410095183459
Option 2 ID : 4410095183458
Option 3 ID : 4410095183457
Option 4 ID : 4410095183460
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.8 The Veer Savarkar Sports Complex, India’s largest sports complex, was inaugurated by Union
Home Minister Amit Shah in September 2025 in which of the following places?
Ans 1. Saharanpur

2. Naranpura

3. Faridabad

4. Bikaner

Question ID : 4410091310716
Option 1 ID : 4410095174573
Option 2 ID : 4410095174572
Option 3 ID : 4410095174571
Option 4 ID : 4410095174570
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.9 Who won the award for the Best Film Critic at the 71st National Film Awards, announced in
August 2025?
Ans 1. Subash Sahoo

2. Piyush Thakur

3. Utpal Datta

4. Sanjib Parasar

Question ID : 4410091312892
Option 1 ID : 4410095183279
Option 2 ID : 4410095183277
Option 3 ID : 4410095183278
Option 4 ID : 4410095183280
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.10 Which of the following is a famous monument in Vijayapura, Karnataka and is the tomb of
Mohammed Adil Shah?
Ans 1. Wazir Khan Mosque

2. Hazira Maqbara

3. Gol Gumbaz

4. Pari Mahal

Question ID : 4410091310465
Option 1 ID : 4410095173542
Option 2 ID : 4410095173545
Option 3 ID : 4410095173544
Option 4 ID : 4410095173543
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.11 What is the total allocation for the Ministry of Minority Affairs in the Union Budget 2025-26?
Ans 1. ₹3,350.00 crore

2. ₹2,000.00 crore

3. ₹1,868.18 crore

4. ₹3,183.24 crore

Question ID : 4410091312417
Option 1 ID : 4410095181357
Option 2 ID : 4410095181359
Option 3 ID : 4410095181358
Option 4 ID : 4410095181356
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.12 In September 2025, what is the purpose of the 'i-Passport' launched by AMTZ in
Visakhapatnam?
Ans 1. Support foreign investor entry

2. Facilitate international travel

3. Fast-track MedTech innovation

4. Create digital health records

Question ID : 4410091312005
Option 1 ID : 4410095179703
Option 2 ID : 4410095179700
Option 3 ID : 4410095179701
Option 4 ID : 4410095179702
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.13 Which scheme has the Maharashtra government proposed to cover high cost medical
treatments exceeding ₹5 lakh (e.g. organ transplants)?
Ans 1. Ayushman Bharat State Plan

2. Maharashtra Swasthya Suraksha Yojana

3. Creation of a special corpus fund for such treatments

4. Free Insurance for critical illness

Question ID : 4410091309487
Option 1 ID : 4410095169575
Option 2 ID : 4410095169574
Option 3 ID : 4410095169576
Option 4 ID : 4410095169577
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.14 Mustard, rose and petunia are examples of plants with ____________.
Ans 1. bisexual flowers

2. unisexual flowers

3. incomplete flowers

4. dioecious flowers

Question ID : 4410091316911
Option 1 ID : 4410095199202
Option 2 ID : 4410095199204
Option 3 ID : 4410095199205
Option 4 ID : 4410095199203
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.15 Which fund was launched in the Union Budget 2025 to provide relief to distressed housing
projects and homebuyers?
Ans 1. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana

2. National Infrastructure Pipeline​

3. Urban Rejuvenation Mission

4. SWAMIH Fund 2

Question ID : 44100977929
Option 1 ID : 441009309720
Option 2 ID : 441009309719
Option 3 ID : 441009309721
Option 4 ID : 441009309718
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.16 What was the original name of Bharatanatyam before it evolved into its present form?
Ans 1. Mohiniattam

2. Sattriya

3. Kathak

4. Sadir or Dasi Attam

Question ID : 44100928977
Option 1 ID : 441009115387
Option 2 ID : 441009115389
Option 3 ID : 441009115386
Option 4 ID : 441009115388
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.17 What is the primary purpose of establishing the second 'Gene Bank' for crops germplasm, as
announced in the Union Budget 2025-26?
Ans 1. To centralise seed certification

2. To promote the research of genetically modified crops

3. To boost the export of hybrid seeds

4. To ensure future food and nutritional security

Question ID : 4410091310667
Option 1 ID : 4410095174376
Option 2 ID : 4410095174377
Option 3 ID : 4410095174374
Option 4 ID : 4410095174375
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.18 The Tamil Nadu government launched which scheme in 2025 to support parentless children
by giving them monthly assistance until they turn 18?
Ans 1. Amma Nanna Vote

2. Pennin Perumai

3. Anbu Karangal

4. Ungaludan Stalin

Question ID : 4410091309456
Option 1 ID : 4410095169452
Option 2 ID : 4410095169453
Option 3 ID : 4410095169451
Option 4 ID : 4410095169450
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.19 Which of the following is identified as a structural or land-use measure that can effectively
help mitigate the adverse impacts of floods in India?
Ans 1. Encourage settlement and promote further human activities in the riverine floodplains

2. Straighten natural river courses extensively to accelerate the flow of excess water

3. Pave catchment areas heavily to increase surface runoff and reduce infiltration

4. Remove human encroachments from channels and depopulate floodplains wherever

necessary

Question ID : 4410091318397
Option 1 ID : 4410095205126
Option 2 ID : 4410095205128
Option 3 ID : 4410095205129
Option 4 ID : 4410095205127
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.20 The Basic Customs Duty (BCD) on which of the following was increased from 10% to 20% in
the Union Budget 2025–26?
Ans 1. Lithium Ion Batteries

2. Interactive Flat Panel Display

3. Carrier Grade Ethernet Switches

4. Wet Blue Leather

Question ID : 4410091310683
Option 1 ID : 4410095174441
Option 2 ID : 4410095174440
Option 3 ID : 4410095174438
Option 4 ID : 4410095174439
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1
Ans 1. 34

2. 36

3. 32

4. 38

Question ID : 441009275705
Option 1 ID : 4410091070992
Option 2 ID : 4410091070993
Option 3 ID : 4410091070991
Option 4 ID : 4410091070994
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.2 A researcher designs a specialised culture plate for a microbiology experiment. The plate
consists of a rectangle with a semicircle attached to one of its sides. The rectangle measures
18 cm × 12 cm, and the semicircle is attached to one of the 12 cm sides. What is the
perimeter of the entire culture plate? (Use π = 3.14)
Ans 1. 66.84 cm

2. 67.85 cm

3. 68.68 cm

4. 68.92 cm

Question ID : 441009287783
Option 1 ID : 4410091118039
Option 2 ID : 4410091118040
Option 3 ID : 4410091118041
Option 4 ID : 4410091118042
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.3 A store offers a 'Buy 2 Get 1 Free' scheme on the sale of shirts. Each shirt is priced at ₹1,600.
Additionally, the store gives a 10% cash discount on the total bill amount. If Tamanna wants
to buy 6 shirts, how much will she actually pay (in ₹) after the discounts?
Ans 1. 6,400

2. 8,640

3. 5,500

4. 5,760

Question ID : 441009284839
Option 1 ID : 4410091106411
Option 2 ID : 4410091106410
Option 3 ID : 4410091106413
Option 4 ID : 4410091106412
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.4 An advanced materials research laboratory is fabricating a thin cylindrical shell with an outer
radius of 21 cm, an inner radius of 19 cm and a height of 25 cm. What is the ratio of the
magnitudes of the volume of material used to the total curved surface area (including both
the inner and outer surfaces) of the shell?
Ans 1. 1 : 2

2. 2 : 3

3. 3 : 4

4. 1 : 1

Question ID : 441009287860
Option 1 ID : 4410091118343
Option 2 ID : 4410091118345
Option 3 ID : 4410091118346
Option 4 ID : 4410091118344
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.5 A manufacturer sells a product to a wholesaler at a profit of 12%. The wholesaler, in turn,
sells it to a retailer at a profit of 25%, and the retailer sells it to a customer at a profit of 25%.
If the customer pays ₹511, find the cost price (in ₹) for the manufacturer.
Ans 1. 293

2. 291

3. 289

4. 292

Question ID : 441009272572
Option 1 ID : 4410091058836
Option 2 ID : 4410091058837
Option 3 ID : 4410091058838
Option 4 ID : 4410091058835
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.6 In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of rice costing ₹263 and ₹242 per kg,
respectively, to get a mixture of rice worth ₹248 per kg?
Ans 1. 15 : 7

2. 2 : 5

3. 7 : 3

4. 3 : 4

Question ID : 441009272605
Option 1 ID : 4410091058970
Option 2 ID : 4410091058967
Option 3 ID : 4410091058968
Option 4 ID : 4410091058969
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.7 Water flows out through a circular pipe whose internal diameter is 2 cm, at the rate of 5
metres per second into a cylindrical tank, the radius of whose base is 100 cm. By how much
will the level of water rise in 15 minutes?
Ans 1. 45 cm

2. 50 cm

3. 38 cm

4. 44 cm

Question ID : 441009272727
Option 1 ID : 4410091059455
Option 2 ID : 4410091059456
Option 3 ID : 4410091059458
Option 4 ID : 4410091059457
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.8

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 441009275754
Option 1 ID : 4410091071187
Option 2 ID : 4410091071189
Option 3 ID : 4410091071188
Option 4 ID : 4410091071190
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.9 A man rows a boat a certain distance downstream in 8 hours, while it takes 14 hours to row
the same distance upstream. How many hours will it take him to row four-fifths of the same
distance in still water?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 441009287941
Option 1 ID : 4410091118663
Option 2 ID : 4410091118666
Option 3 ID : 4410091118665
Option 4 ID : 4410091118664
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.10 Ravi spends 48% of his monthly income on food, and three-fourth of the remaining on rent. If
he saves ₹7,488 per month, which is equal to half of the balance, after spending on food and
rent, find the difference between his monthly income and total expenditure on food and rent.
Ans 1. ₹14,125

2. ₹14,976

3. ₹14,245

4. ₹14,796

Question ID : 441009275808
Option 1 ID : 4410091071403
Option 2 ID : 4410091071406
Option 3 ID : 4410091071404
Option 4 ID : 4410091071405
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.11 Three vessels whose capacities are in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 are completely filled with milk
mixed with water. The ratios of milk to water in the mixtures in the vessels are 5 : 3, 7 : 2, and
7 : 3, respectively. Taking one-third of the first mixture, one-fifth of the second mixture, and
one-seventh of the third mixture, a new mixture is prepared, which is kept in a new vessel.
Find the percentage of water in the new mixture (rounded off to two places of decimals).
Ans 1. 30.51%

2. 31.48%

3. 27.21%

4. 29.91%

Question ID : 441009275791
Option 1 ID : 4410091071337
Option 2 ID : 4410091071338
Option 3 ID : 4410091071335
Option 4 ID : 4410091071336
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.12 30 men can do a piece of work in 24 days. The number of men required to complete the same
work in 45 days is:
Ans 1. 18

2. 16

3. 15

4. 17

Question ID : 441009272645
Option 1 ID : 4410091059130
Option 2 ID : 4410091059127
Option 3 ID : 4410091059129
Option 4 ID : 4410091059128
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.13 Tanmay and Samay start a business together. Tanmay invests ₹87,000 more than Samay for
7 months, while Samay invests for 5 months. Out of a total profit of ₹5,615, Tanmay’s share
exceeds Samay’s by ₹1,123. Find the amount invested by Tanmay.
Ans 1. ₹13,05,000

2. ₹13,05,017

3. ₹13,05,072

4. ₹13,05,156

Question ID : 441009272622
Option 1 ID : 4410091059035
Option 2 ID : 4410091059036
Option 3 ID : 4410091059038
Option 4 ID : 4410091059037
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.14 Evaluate: 51 − [25 − {21 − (12 − 9 + 7)}].

Ans 1. 36

2. 35

3. 37

4. 34

Question ID : 441009272684
Option 1 ID : 4410091059284
Option 2 ID : 4410091059285
Option 3 ID : 4410091059283
Option 4 ID : 4410091059286
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.15 X and Y working separately can complete a piece of work in 40 days and 60 days,
respectively. If they work on alternate days beginning with X, in how much time will the work
be completed?
Ans 1. 54 days

2. 48 days

3. 45 days

4. 36 days

Question ID : 441009305088
Option 1 ID : 4410091187024
Option 2 ID : 4410091187025
Option 3 ID : 4410091187022
Option 4 ID : 4410091187023
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.16 The number of digits in the square root of 27225 is:

Ans 1. 5

2. 11

3. 3

4. 6

Question ID : 441009272721
Option 1 ID : 4410091059432
Option 2 ID : 4410091059431
Option 3 ID : 4410091059434
Option 4 ID : 4410091059433
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.17 Due to water crisis, 12% of the initial population left the town, and 25% of the remaining
population left the town for pursuing jobs. If presently 660 people inhabit the town, what is
the ratio of initial population to present population?
Ans 1. 57 : 40

2. 55 : 32

3. 53 : 36

4. 50 : 33

Question ID : 441009272546
Option 1 ID : 4410091058732
Option 2 ID : 4410091058733
Option 3 ID : 4410091058734
Option 4 ID : 4410091058731
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.18 Find the single percentage discount (correct to 1 decimal place) equivalent to three
successive discounts of 64%, 23% and 38%, respectively.
Ans 1. 75.9%

2. 91.1%

3. 82.8%

4. 77.1%

Question ID : 441009272657
Option 1 ID : 4410091059178
Option 2 ID : 4410091059177
Option 3 ID : 4410091059175
Option 4 ID : 4410091059176
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.19 The radius and vertical height of a cone are in the ratio 5 : 12. Its curved surface area is

40,040 cm2. What is the diameter (in cm) of the cone?

Ans 1. 80

2. 140

3. 160

4. 70

Question ID : 441009272759
Option 1 ID : 4410091059584
Option 2 ID : 4410091059586
Option 3 ID : 4410091059585
Option 4 ID : 4410091059583
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.20 During a sale, 30% of the goods are sold at a 40% profit, 20% of the remaining goods are sold
at a 37% profit, and the still remaining goods are sold at a loss of 48%. If there is an overall
loss of x%, then what is the value of x?
Ans 1. 7.9

2. 5.7

3. 9.7

4. 7.5

Question ID : 441009272580
Option 1 ID : 4410091058867
Option 2 ID : 4410091058868
Option 3 ID : 4410091058870
Option 4 ID : 4410091058869
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Section : Numerical or logical or Analytical Ability and Reasoning

Q.1 In a certain code language,
A = B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A $ B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A * B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is A related to K if ‘A = R $ F * B @ K’?

Ans 1. Wife's father's sister

2. Wife

3. Wife's sister

4. father's sister

Question ID : 441009272293
Option 1 ID : 4410091057743
Option 2 ID : 4410091057746
Option 3 ID : 4410091057744
Option 4 ID : 4410091057745
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.2 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

2 1 5 7 17 ?
Ans 1. 30

2. 32

3. 33

4. 31

Question ID : 441009164853
Option 1 ID : 441009653037
Option 2 ID : 441009653039
Option 3 ID : 441009653040
Option 4 ID : 441009653038
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.3 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
5362178, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. None

2. One

3. Three

4. Two

Question ID : 441009272105
Option 1 ID : 4410091056991
Option 2 ID : 4410091056992
Option 3 ID : 4410091056994
Option 4 ID : 4410091056993
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.4 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,
decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some glasses are doors.

All walls are doors.

Conclusions:

(I) Some glasses are walls.

(II) All doors are walls.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Question ID : 441009175809
Option 1 ID : 441009695267
Option 2 ID : 441009695265
Option 3 ID : 441009695264
Option 4 ID : 441009695266
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.5 G starts from Point A and drives 18 km towards the west. He then takes a left turn, drives 16
km, turns left and drives 21 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 23 km. He takes a final
left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which
direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only,
unless specified.)
Ans 1. 7 km to the south

2. 4 km to the north

3. 5 km to the west

4. 6 km to the east

Question ID : 441009272259
Option 1 ID : 4410091057610
Option 2 ID : 4410091057607
Option 3 ID : 4410091057608
Option 4 ID : 4410091057609
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.6 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,

A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A % B means ‘A is the father of B’ and
A # B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

How is L related to R if ‘R – V # N # G + V # L’?

Ans 1. Mother’s father

2. Sister’s son

3. Daughter’s son

4. Mother’s brother

Question ID : 441009187631
Option 1 ID : 441009740932
Option 2 ID : 441009740930
Option 3 ID : 441009740931
Option 4 ID : 441009740933
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.7 In a certain code language, ‘PAST’ is coded as ‘0128’ and ‘STEP’ is coded as ‘6102’. What is
the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 6

4. 0

Question ID : 441009272241
Option 1 ID : 4410091057538
Option 2 ID : 4410091057536
Option 3 ID : 4410091057535
Option 4 ID : 4410091057537
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.8 EV 7 is related to AQ 2 in a certain way. In the same way, TJ 5 is related to PE 0. To which of

the following is SO −2 related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. OJ −7

2. PJ −7

3. PI −5

4. OI −5

Question ID : 441009272309
Option 1 ID : 4410091057810
Option 2 ID : 4410091057808
Option 3 ID : 4410091057807
Option 4 ID : 4410091057809
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.9 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to
make it logically complete?

PLE -1 RJH -3 THK -9 VFN -27 ?

Ans 1. GHY -22

2. MHD -73

3. XDQ -81

4. QIO -31

Question ID : 441009272177
Option 1 ID : 4410091057282
Option 2 ID : 4410091057281
Option 3 ID : 4410091057280
Option 4 ID : 4410091057279
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.10 Refer to the following letter series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done
from left to right only.

(Left) X W B Y T O R U X B B W S O V (Right)

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter which is
fourth from the right end and seventh from the left end of the given series?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. One

4. Four

Question ID : 441009272149
Option 1 ID : 4410091057169
Option 2 ID : 4410091057168
Option 3 ID : 4410091057167
Option 4 ID : 4410091057170
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.11 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

19 36 70 121 189 ?
Ans 1. 276

2. 267

3. 274

4. 291

Question ID : 441009272088
Option 1 ID : 4410091056923
Option 2 ID : 4410091056926
Option 3 ID : 4410091056924
Option 4 ID : 4410091056925
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.12 ​Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that DOES NOT
belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in
the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. KO-FI

2. NR-IK

3. TX-OR

4. QU-LO

Question ID : 441009164814
Option 1 ID : 441009652872
Option 2 ID : 441009652869
Option 3 ID : 441009652871
Option 4 ID : 441009652870
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.13 Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday
and ending on Sunday of the same week. V has an exam on Tuesday. Exactly 3 people have
an exam between V and Q . T has an exam immediately before U and S has an exam
immediately after U. Only 1 person has an exam between T and R.
Who has an exam on Sunday?
Ans 1. T

2. P

3. S

4. R

Question ID : 441009272304
Option 1 ID : 4410091057790
Option 2 ID : 4410091057787
Option 3 ID : 4410091057789
Option 4 ID : 4410091057788
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.14 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,
decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
Some tablets are capsules.
All capsules are injections.

Conclusions:
(I): Some tablets are injections.
(II): All injections are capsules.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Question ID : 441009272321
Option 1 ID : 4410091057855
Option 2 ID : 4410091057856
Option 3 ID : 4410091057858
Option 4 ID : 4410091057857
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘RIPE’ is coded as ‘2784’ and ‘PEAR’ is coded as ‘2948’. How is ‘A’
coded in that language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 7

3. 2

4. 9

Question ID : 441009164779
Option 1 ID : 441009652735
Option 2 ID : 441009652734
Option 3 ID : 441009652736
Option 4 ID : 441009652733
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.16 Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday
and ending on Sunday of the same week. S has an exam on Tuesday. Exactly 2 people have
an exam between S and T. Q has an exam immediately before U and V has an exam
immediately after R. Only 1 person has an exam between U and R. Who has an exam on
Monday?
Ans 1. Q

2. V

3. U

4. P

Question ID : 441009272319
Option 1 ID : 4410091057848
Option 2 ID : 4410091057850
Option 3 ID : 4410091057849
Option 4 ID : 4410091057847
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.17 Refer to the following letter and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) L P ? @ N F & ? @ Z Y N D C R T Z B = ? Q (Right)

How many such letters are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and
also immediately followed by a letter?
Ans 1. One

2. Four

3. Two

4. Three

Question ID : 441009175783
Option 1 ID : 441009695155
Option 2 ID : 441009695152
Option 3 ID : 441009695154
Option 4 ID : 441009695153
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.18 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. C sits third to the left
of B. A sits second to the left of E. Only B sits between G and A. D is not an immediate
neighbour of C. How many people sit between G and E when counted from the right of G?
Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 3

4. 1

Question ID : 441009271851
Option 1 ID : 4410091056000
Option 2 ID : 4410091055999
Option 3 ID : 4410091056001
Option 4 ID : 4410091055998
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.19 Seven people, X, Y, Z, C, D, E and F, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the
table. E sits fourth to the right of Z. Only two people sit between D and X when counted from
the left of D. F sits third to the left of Y. C is an immediate neighbour of Y and X. How many
people sit between D and C when counted from the right of D?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Four

4. Two

Question ID : 441009175717
Option 1 ID : 441009694893
Option 2 ID : 441009694895
Option 3 ID : 441009694892
Option 4 ID : 441009694894
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.20 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

17 B 6 D 18 A 2 C 4 = ?
Ans 1. 85

2. 90

3. 97

4. 82

Question ID : 441009182107
Option 1 ID : 441009719933
Option 2 ID : 441009719932
Option 3 ID : 441009719934
Option 4 ID : 441009719935
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Section : English language

Q.1 Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank. If no article is needed, select 'No article
required'.

I bought _____ box of chocolates for Raina in the afternoon.

Ans 1. No article required

2. an

3. a

4. the

Question ID : 441009201081
Option 1 ID : 441009791602
Option 2 ID : 441009791600
Option 3 ID : 441009791599
Option 4 ID : 441009791601
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A dime a dozen
Ans 1. Very cheap

2. Common and not special

3. Less than 12 in number

4. Imported goods

Question ID : 441009242810
Option 1 ID : 441009948831
Option 2 ID : 441009948829
Option 3 ID : 441009948830
Option 4 ID : 441009948828
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The army retreated after facing heavy resistance.

Ans 1. withdrew

2. fathom

3. flourish

4. excuse

Question ID : 441009190952
Option 1 ID : 441009752627
Option 2 ID : 441009752628
Option 3 ID : 441009752629
Option 4 ID : 441009752630
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.4 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the four highlighted words in the given sentence.

At the extremity of the desert, the inquisiteve traveller discovered an ancient covenant, its
secrets meant to tantalise the minds of those who dared to seek the truth.
Ans 1. tantalise

2. inquisiteve

3. covenant

4. extremity

Question ID : 441009198960
Option 1 ID : 441009783145
Option 2 ID : 441009783143
Option 3 ID : 441009783144
Option 4 ID : 441009783142
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.5 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

P: This one leads through a dark plantation of fir trees and brings you out between low cliffs
to the loneliest and ugliest little bay on all our coasts.
Q: Our house is high up on the Andaman coast and there are beautiful walls all around us in
every direction except one.
R: One is called the North spit and another the South.
S: The sand hills here run down to the sea and end in two stretches of rock, sticking out
opposite to each other.
Ans 1. QPSR

2. RQPS

3. QRSP

4. SQRP

Question ID : 441009242605
Option 1 ID : 441009948067
Option 2 ID : 441009948070
Option 3 ID : 441009948068
Option 4 ID : 441009948069
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

To remove fears, doubts and false ideas, usually by proving them wrong or unnecessary
Ans 1. Quell

2. Dispel

3. Impede

4. Rebut

Question ID : 441009242635
Option 1 ID : 441009948176
Option 2 ID : 441009948177
Option 3 ID : 441009948175
Option 4 ID : 441009948178
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.7 Select the most appropriate punctuation mark to be used in place of the blank. If no
punctuation mark is required, select ‘No punctuation required’.

The new political party decided to do a door_________to_________door campaign.

Ans 1. Semi colons (;)

2. No punctuation required

3. Hyphens (-)

4. Commas (,)

Question ID : 441009272493
Option 1 ID : 4410091058524
Option 2 ID : 4410091058526
Option 3 ID : 4410091058525
Option 4 ID : 4410091058523
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The policy was introduced last year, _____ its effectiveness remains questionable.
Ans 1. as if

2. whether

3. since

4. yet

Question ID : 441009193194
Option 1 ID : 441009761373
Option 2 ID : 441009761372
Option 3 ID : 441009761371
Option 4 ID : 441009761370
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

They have taken an initiative to launch ___________.

Ans 1. childrens’ games

2. children games

3. children’s games

4. childrens games

Question ID : 441009272478
Option 1 ID : 4410091058466
Option 2 ID : 4410091058464
Option 3 ID : 4410091058463
Option 4 ID : 4410091058465
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who is unfairly blamed for something done by others

Ans 1. Perpetrator

2. Scapegoat

3. Culprit

4. Bystander

Question ID : 441009214586
Option 1 ID : 441009842385
Option 2 ID : 441009842383
Option 3 ID : 441009842382
Option 4 ID : 441009842384
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.

Throw someone under the bus

Ans 1. To rescue someone in crisis
2. To hide someone’s mistake
3. To give someone credit
4. To blame someone for personal benefit

Question ID : 441009193370
Option 1 ID : 441009761876
Option 2 ID : 441009761874
Option 3 ID : 441009761873
Option 4 ID : 441009761875
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.12 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. Proponents of the harms-based approach focus on the idea that to dehumanise someone
is to treat them in a way that harms their humanity; whereas proponents of the psychological
approach focus on the idea that to dehumanise someone is to think of them as less than
human.
B. However, there is an ongoing debate about how to develop this basic characterisation.
C. Other theorists adopt a pluralistic view that combines elements of both approaches.
D. Dehumanisation is widely thought to occur when someone is treated or regarded as less
than human.
Ans 1. DABC

2. BACD

3. BDAC

4. DBAC

Question ID : 441009318085
Option 1 ID : 4410091238798
Option 2 ID : 4410091238800
Option 3 ID : 4410091238799
Option 4 ID : 4410091238797
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that rectifies the underlined incorrectly spelt word in the
given sentence.

National Review covered the legredimean used by Stalin and then again by Putin to fuel their
rise to absolute power.
Ans 1. lagerdimain

2. legerdamean

3. legardemain

4. legerdemain

Question ID : 441009320959
Option 1 ID : 4410091250097
Option 2 ID : 4410091250099
Option 3 ID : 4410091250100
Option 4 ID : 4410091250098
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

We must leave now ________ it is getting dark.

Ans 1. when

2. as soon as

3. as long as

4. since

Question ID : 441009272473
Option 1 ID : 4410091058445
Option 2 ID : 4410091058446
Option 3 ID : 4410091058444
Option 4 ID : 4410091058443
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the highlighted word in the given sentence.

After the scandal broke, the company's stock prices began to plummet overnight.
Ans 1. nose-dive

2. fluctuate

3. rebound

4. spearhead

Question ID : 441009310919
Option 1 ID : 4410091210173
Option 2 ID : 4410091210174
Option 3 ID : 4410091210172
Option 4 ID : 4410091210175
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

JMW Turner's 'The Fighting Temeraire' became a 'national celebrity' when it was first unveiled
in 1839, and its (1) ___________ has endured to the present day. It was once (2) ___________
Britain’s favourite painting and (3) __________ features on £20 banknotes. But the widely (4)
____________ interpretation of this iconic painting's message might, in fact, (5) _________
Turner's true intentions.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans 1. notoriety

2. dishonour

3. eminence

4. infamy

Question ID : 441009230323
Option 1 ID : 441009900113
Option 2 ID : 441009900114
Option 3 ID : 441009900112
Option 4 ID : 441009900111
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

JMW Turner's 'The Fighting Temeraire' became a 'national celebrity' when it was first unveiled
in 1839, and its (1) ___________ has endured to the present day. It was once (2) ___________
Britain’s favourite painting and (3) __________ features on £20 banknotes. But the widely (4)
____________ interpretation of this iconic painting's message might, in fact, (5) _________
Turner's true intentions.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.
Ans 1. voted

2. ratified

3. endorsed

4. enacted

Question ID : 441009230324
Option 1 ID : 441009900117
Option 2 ID : 441009900115
Option 3 ID : 441009900116
Option 4 ID : 441009900118
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

JMW Turner's 'The Fighting Temeraire' became a 'national celebrity' when it was first unveiled
in 1839, and its (1) ___________ has endured to the present day. It was once (2) ___________
Britain’s favourite painting and (3) __________ features on £20 banknotes. But the widely (4)
____________ interpretation of this iconic painting's message might, in fact, (5) _________
Turner's true intentions.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.
Ans 1. currently

2. simultaneously

3. instantly

4. initially

Question ID : 441009230328
Option 1 ID : 441009900134
Option 2 ID : 441009900133
Option 3 ID : 441009900132
Option 4 ID : 441009900131
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

JMW Turner's 'The Fighting Temeraire' became a 'national celebrity' when it was first unveiled
in 1839, and its (1) ___________ has endured to the present day. It was once (2) ___________
Britain’s favourite painting and (3) __________ features on £20 banknotes. But the widely (4)
____________ interpretation of this iconic painting's message might, in fact, (5) _________
Turner's true intentions.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1. imagined

2. accepted

3. adapted

4. assumed

Question ID : 441009230333
Option 1 ID : 441009900152
Option 2 ID : 441009900153
Option 3 ID : 441009900151
Option 4 ID : 441009900154
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

JMW Turner's 'The Fighting Temeraire' became a 'national celebrity' when it was first unveiled
in 1839, and its (1) ___________ has endured to the present day. It was once (2) ___________
Britain’s favourite painting and (3) __________ features on £20 banknotes. But the widely (4)
____________ interpretation of this iconic painting's message might, in fact, (5) _________
Turner's true intentions.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1. contemplate

2. contrive

3. contend

4. contradict

Question ID : 441009230336
Option 1 ID : 441009900163
Option 2 ID : 441009900164
Option 3 ID : 441009900165
Option 4 ID : 441009900166
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Section : General Studies

Q.1 Which description correctly defines plantation agriculture in India?
Ans 1. Large-scale estates cultivating a single crop with modern inputs

2. A method of producing cereals and pulses for family needs

3. Collective grazing of animals on open common lands

4. An activity confined only to rainfed upland rice areas

Question ID : 4410091316214
Option 1 ID : 4410095196424
Option 2 ID : 4410095196423
Option 3 ID : 4410095196426
Option 4 ID : 4410095196425
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.2 What was the main focus of India’s First Five Year Plan (1951–56)?
Ans 1. Land reform and agricultural development

2. Growth of information technology sector

3. Development of transport and communication

4. Industrialisation through heavy industries

Question ID : 4410091310727
Option 1 ID : 4410095174615
Option 2 ID : 4410095174617
Option 3 ID : 4410095174616
Option 4 ID : 4410095174614
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.3 The Prayag Prashasti, composed by Harishena, provides information about the reign of which
Gupta ruler?
Ans 1. Srigupta

2. Kumaragupta I

3. Chandragupta II

4. Samudragupta

Question ID : 4410091269701
Option 1 ID : 4410095011156
Option 2 ID : 4410095011159
Option 3 ID : 4410095011157
Option 4 ID : 4410095011158
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.4 The legislative powers in India are divided into three lists: the Union List, the State List and
the ____.
Ans 1. Regional List

2. Concurrent List

3. Federal List

4. Exclusive List

Question ID : 44100987255
Option 1 ID : 441009346811
Option 2 ID : 441009346813
Option 3 ID : 441009346812
Option 4 ID : 441009346814
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.5 Which factor explains why Ooty is cooler than nearby Coimbatore despite similar latitude?
Ans 1. Altitude difference

2. Desert location

3. Direction of winds

4. Proximity to the sea

Question ID : 4410091312217
Option 1 ID : 4410095180537
Option 2 ID : 4410095180539
Option 3 ID : 4410095180538
Option 4 ID : 4410095180536
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.6 Which of the following is the primary objective of the Jal Jeevan Mission?
Ans 1. To desalinate seawater and providing to every rural household

2. To promote rainwater harvesting and water conservation in rural areas

3. To provide functional household tap connections to all rural households

4. To ensure proper water supply and sanitation in villages

Question ID : 4410091310414
Option 1 ID : 4410095173324
Option 2 ID : 4410095173325
Option 3 ID : 4410095173323
Option 4 ID : 4410095173322
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.7 Which among the following pairs of Nuclear Power Plant and its location is INCORRECTLY
matched?
Ans 1. Madras Atomic Power Plant – Tamil Nadu

2. Narora Atomic Power Plant – Gujarat

3. Tarapur Atomic Power Plant – Maharashtra

4. Kaiga Generating Station – Karnataka

Question ID : 4410091316286
Option 1 ID : 4410095196700
Option 2 ID : 4410095196702
Option 3 ID : 4410095196699
Option 4 ID : 4410095196701
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.8 Which of the following was NOT a crop originally covered under the National Food Security
Mission (NFSM) in India when it was launched in 2007?
Ans 1. Wheat

2. Rice

3. Maize

4. Pulses

Question ID : 4410091310481
Option 1 ID : 4410095173615
Option 2 ID : 4410095173614
Option 3 ID : 4410095173617
Option 4 ID : 4410095173616
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.9 Which of the following statements about Parliamentary Committees in India is correct?
Ans 1. Estimates Committee includes members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

2. Joint Parliamentary Committees consist of members from both Houses to investigate

specific national issues.
3. Departmentally Related Standing Committees are constituted under Article 105 of the
Constitution.
4. Public Accounts Committee examines only Union Government accounts.

Question ID : 4410091317824
Option 1 ID : 4410095202833
Option 2 ID : 4410095202832
Option 3 ID : 4410095202830
Option 4 ID : 4410095202831
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.10 Which Article of Indian Constitution states that ‘A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the
Council of States’?
Ans 1. Article 106

2. Article 107

3. Article 108

4. Article 109

Question ID : 44100984600
Option 1 ID : 441009336162
Option 2 ID : 441009336163
Option 3 ID : 441009336164
Option 4 ID : 441009336165
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.11 Which Constitutional Amendment is called the 'Mini Constitution' due to the vast changes it
introduced?
Ans 1. 52nd Amendment, 1985

2. 73rd Amendment, 1992

3. 61st Amendment, 1989

4. 42nd Amendment, 1976

Question ID : 4410091310060
Option 1 ID : 4410095171843
Option 2 ID : 4410095171845
Option 3 ID : 4410095171844
Option 4 ID : 4410095171842
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.12 What was the main feature of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931)?
Ans 1. Suspension of Civil Disobedience and release of political prisoners

2. Acceptance of Pakistan's demand

3. End of the Non-Cooperation Movement

4. Agreement on Dominion Status

Question ID : 4410091309249
Option 1 ID : 4410095168628
Option 2 ID : 4410095168629
Option 3 ID : 4410095168626
Option 4 ID : 4410095168627
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.13 Which event led Mahatma Gandhi to launch the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920?
Ans 1. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the khilafat issue

2. Simon Commission Report and Mahad Satyagraha

3. Poona Pact

4. Quit India Resolution

Question ID : 4410091309232
Option 1 ID : 4410095168563
Option 2 ID : 4410095168562
Option 3 ID : 4410095168565
Option 4 ID : 4410095168564
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.14 Which statement best explains the impact of the Doctrine of Lapse introduced by Lord
Dalhousie?
Ans 1. It promoted industrial growth in India.

2. It abolished princely rule altogether.

3. It allowed Indian rulers complete autonomy.

4. It annexed dependent princely states without male heirs into British India.

Question ID : 4410091309534
Option 1 ID : 4410095169760
Option 2 ID : 4410095169759
Option 3 ID : 4410095169758
Option 4 ID : 4410095169761
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.15 Whose reign was called the golden period of Mughal architecture?
Ans 1. Shahjahan

2. Aurangzeb

3. Akbar

4. Jahangir

Question ID : 441009868354
Option 1 ID : 4410093426448
Option 2 ID : 4410093426449
Option 3 ID : 4410093426447
Option 4 ID : 4410093426450
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.16 Which Constitutional Amendment Act introduced the National Judicial Appointments
Commission (NJAC) in India?
Ans 1. 73rd Amendment Act, 1992

2. 44th Amendment Act, 1978

3. 99th Amendment Act, 2014

4. 86th Amendment Act, 2002

Question ID : 44100984580
Option 1 ID : 441009336074
Option 2 ID : 441009336075
Option 3 ID : 441009336077
Option 4 ID : 441009336076
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.17 Which of the following is NOT a component of the terms of credit?

Ans 1. Interest rate

2. Collateral

3. Documentation

4. Source of credit

Question ID : 4410091310618
Option 1 ID : 4410095174174
Option 2 ID : 4410095174175
Option 3 ID : 4410095174176
Option 4 ID : 4410095174177
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.18 Which pairing correctly matches the refinery type with the example?
Ans 1. Field-based – Digboi; Market-based – Barauni

2. Field-based – Haldia; Market-based – Koyali

3. Field-based – Mathura; Market-based – Panipat

4. Field-based – Barauni; Market-based – Digboi

Question ID : 4410091316299
Option 1 ID : 4410095196752
Option 2 ID : 4410095196753
Option 3 ID : 4410095196754
Option 4 ID : 4410095196751
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.19 Chandigarh, New Delhi and Jaipur are best classified as which type of towns?
Ans 1. Industrial towns

2. Religious towns

3. Transport towns

4. Administrative towns

Question ID : 4410091316315
Option 1 ID : 4410095196815
Option 2 ID : 4410095196818
Option 3 ID : 4410095196816
Option 4 ID : 4410095196817
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.20 Which among the following refers to the actions taken by central banks to regulate the money
supply and interest rates?
Ans 1. Industrial Policy

2. Trade Policy

3. Monetary Policy

4. Fiscal Policy

Question ID : 4410091313373
Option 1 ID : 4410095185203
Option 2 ID : 4410095185202
Option 3 ID : 4410095185201
Option 4 ID : 4410095185200
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3