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Class VI, VII, VIII, IX, X & XI (Science)

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STUDYING IN

CLASSX
CLASS X MOVING TO XI

NEET UG I JEE (Main + Advanced) I OLYMPIADS I CLASS 6thTo 10th

ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE (HYDERABAD)
HYDERABAD CAMPUS ALLEN SOUTH REGIONAL OFFICE
Floor Number 3, Sri Venkata Sai Complex, #36, 15th Cross, 3rd Block, Near South End Circle, Opp. Central
1-62/ 33/34, Kavuri Hills Rd, Madhapur, Library, Jayanagar - 560011
Hyderabad,
Telangana 500033, India (Beside Indwell House)
Helpline : +91-9902901234 I [Link]/hyderabad
Corporate Office: "SANKALP", CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 I Contact: 0744-2757575 I E-Mail: info@[Link]
CLASS - X
SECTION-A : PHYSICS

This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Two lamps X and Y are connected in series. The lamp X glows less bright than Y. Then
(1) The resistance of X is greater than the resistance of Y.
(2) The resistance of X is less than the resistance of Y.
(3) The resistance of X is equal to the resistance of Y.
(4) There is no relation between the resistances of X and Y.
2. What is the current in the circuit shown (Fig.)?

(1) 1.5 A (2) 0.5A

(3) 2.0 A (4) None of these
3. When a bar magnet is broken into two pieces,
(1) We will have a single pole on each piece
(2) Each piece will have two like poles
(3) Each piece will have two unlike poles
(4) Each piece will lose magnetism
4. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat generated will now
be
(1) Doubled (2) Four times
(3) One fourth (4) Halved
5. A boy stands straight in front of a mirror at a distance of 30 cm away from it. He sees his erect image whose
height is 1/5th of his real height. The mirror he is using is
(1) Plane mirror (2) Convex mirror
(3) Concave mirror (4) Never possible
6. When the current is passing through a straight wire, then the associated magnetic field around it is
(1) Straight (2) Elliptical
(3) Circular (4) Parabolic
7. A convex mirror of focal length f produces an image (1/n)th of the size of the object. The distance of the object
from the mirror is
(1) nf (2) f/n
(3) (n + 1)f (4) (n – 1)f
8. A passenger travels along a straight line with velocity v1 for first half time and with velocity v2 for next half
time, then the mean velocity v is given by,
v2
(1) v v1 (2) v v1v 2

2v1v 2 v1 v2
(3) v v1 v 2 (4) v
2
 CLASS - X
9. An object placed at 10 cm in front of a lens has an image at 20 cm behind the lens. What is the power of the lens
(in dioptre)?
(1) + 1.5 (2) + 3.0
(3) – 5.0 (4) + 15.0
10. An object A of mass 2 kg is moving with a velocity of 3 m/s and collides head-on with an object B of mass 1 kg
moving in opposite direction with a velocity of 4 m/s. After collision, both objects combine so that they move
with a common velocity equal to
(1) 3 m/s (2) 2 m/s
(3) 1 m/s (4) 2/3 m/s
11. A body starts from rest and accelerates uniformly. Ratio of distances travelled in one, two and three seconds of
its motion is
(1) 1 : 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 4 : 9
(3) 1 : 2 : 3 (4) 9 : 4 : 1
12. A solid cylinder of density 800 kg m–3floats in water. The percentage volume of solid cylinder outside the
water is
(1) 10% (2) 50%
(3) 50% (4) 20%
13. An object is put one by one in three liquids having different densities. The object floats with 1/9 ; 2/11 ; 3/7
parts of their volumes outside the liquid surface in liquids of densities d1, d2 and d3 respectively. Which of the
following statement is correct?
(1) d1 > d2 > d3 (2) d1 > d2 < d3
(3) d1 < d2 > d3 (4) d1 < d2 < d3
14. ge and gp denote the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth and another planet whose mass and
radius are twice that of the earth. Then
(1) gp = ge (2) gp = ge/2
ge
(3) gp = 2ge (4) gp = 2
15. Two persons do the same amount of work, one in 10 s and the other in 20 s. Find the ratio of the power used by
the first person to that by the second person.
(l) 6 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY

This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
16. Two containers have equal weights of NO2 and N2O. The one containing more number of moles is :
(1) NO2 (2) N2O
(3) Both have samenumber of mole (4) Cannot be determined
17. Alloys are :
(1) Elements (2) Compounds
(3) Homogeneous mixture (4) Hetrogeneous mixture
18. 3.011 × 1022atoms of an element weight 1.15 gm. The atomic mass of the element is :-
(1) 10 (2) 2.3
(3) 35.5 (4) 23

19. Isotone of30 14Si is -

77 (2)31 15P
(1) 34Se

(3)32 16S (4) (2) & (3) both

 CLASS - X
20. Fluoride ion is isoelectronic with :-
(1) Ne (2) O2–
(3) N3– (4) All of these
21. Ratio of specific charge of a proton and deutarium is -
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1
22. Which pair of elements are transition element :-
(1) Sc, Zn (2) Sc, Cu
(3) Cu, Ag (4) 2 & 3 both
23. The group no. for the inner transition elements is :-
(1) 6th (2) 4th
(3) 3rd (4) 8th
24. Consider the given elements /ion, Mg, Mg2+, Al, Al3+. Find species which is largest & smallest respectively
:-
(1) Al & Al3+ (2) Mg & Mg2+
(3) Mg & Al3+ (4) Al & Mg2+
25. Which of the following does not represent correct numbering of C-atoms according to IUPAC system :-
3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5
(1) H C=CH–CH – 3 (2) CH –CH–CH –CH–CH 3
OCH
C2H 5 CH3

Cl 3 2 1 Br
(3) Cl C–CH2–CH (4) All
Br
Cl
26. Match the list-I and list-II and select the correct answer :-
List - I List - II
(a) CnH2n (p) Alcohol, ether
(b) CnH2n–2 (q) Alkene, cycloalkane
(c) CnH2n+2O (r) Aldehyde, Ketones
(d) CnH2nO (s) Alkynes, Alkadiene
(1) (a - p), (b - q), (c - r), (d - s) (2) (a - s), (b - r), (c - q), (d - p)
(3) (a - q), (b - s), (c - p), (d - r) (4) (a - r), (b - p), (c - s), (d - q)
27. The IUPAC name of CH –CH–CH
3
– 2 CH2 –COOH is :-
CHO
(1) 4 – formyl pentanoic acid (2) 2 – formyl pentanoic acid
(3) 4 – methyl – 4 oxo pentanoic acid (4) 4 – carboxy – 2 – methyl butanal
28. Which is the strongest acid (pKa value is given)
(1) HCOOH [3.77] (2) C6H5COOH [4.22]
(3) CH3COOH [4.7] (4) CH3CH2COOH [4.88]
29. Which of the following compound is tribasic acid:-
(1) H3PO2 (2) H3PO3
(3) H3PO4 (4) H4P2O7
30. Which of the following is correct order of increasing acidity :-
(1) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (2) HI < HBr > HCl < HF
(3) HF > HCl < HBr > HI (4) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
CLASS - X
SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Which of the following are phagocytic cells?
(1) Neutrophils, mast cells (2) Mast cells, macrophages
(3) Mast cells, antibodies (4) Neutrophils, macrophages
32. ________ is a characteristic feature of epithelial cells of the intestine
(1) Glottis (2) Pilus
(3) Bolus (4) Microvilli
33. Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product, when :-
(1) More than one gene influence the same phenotype.
(2) More than one phenotype is influenced by the same gene.
(3) More than one genotype in influenced by the same gene.
(4) More than one allele are there for a character.
34. Which one of the following is an eye disease?
(1) Hepatitis (2) Measles
(3) Glaucoma (4) Bronchitis
35. Which of the following is found in sponges only?
(1) Mesoglea (2) Nerve cells
(3) One exit (4) Numerous inlets
36. Excretion in flatworms is by
(1) Malpighian tubule (2) Nephridia
(3) Flame cells (4) Nephrons
37. The ______ synthesizes most of the excretory compound in humans and is eliminated through____
(1) Liver, Urine (2) Kidneys, Urine
(3) Liver, Bile juice (4) None of the above
38. Which of the following is the name of the combination vaccine given to children to protect them
against Tetanus, Whooping Cough, and Diphtheria?
(1) BCG Vaccine (2) DPT Vaccine
(3) HIB Vaccine (4) TAB Vaccine
39. Read the following statement (a–d) and answer as asked next to them :-
(a) The water we take in plays an important role in metabolic processes and also prevents dehydration of the
body.
(b) Digestion in digestive system of hydra is carried out by mechanical and biochemical methods.
(c) Oral cavity has a number of teeth and a muscular tongue.
(d) All mammals including human beings forms two set of teeth during their life.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
(1) Four (2) Two
(3) Three (4) One
40. During far vision :-
(1) Focal length of lens is reduced. (2) Radius of curvatue of Lens increased

(3) Curvature of lens is increased (4) All of the above

CLASS - X
41. Some waste products are listed below:
* Grass Cutting
* Polythene Bag
* Plastic Toys
* Used Tea Bags
* Old Clothes
* Paper Straw
Which group of waste materials can be classified as non-biodegradable?
(1) plant waste, used tea bags (2) polyethene bags, plastic toys
(3) used tea bags, paper straw (4) old clothes, broken footwear
42. Figure shows human urinary system with structures labelled A to D. Select option which correctly
identifies them and gives their characteristics and/or functions :-
A

B
C Kidney

Urinary bladder

(1) D-Cortex - outer part of kidney and do not contain any part of nephrons
(2) A-Adrenal gland - located at the anterior part of kidney. Secrete Catecholamines which stimulate glycogen
breakdown
(3) B-Pelvis - broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle
(4) C-Medulla-inner zone of kidney and contains complete nephrons
43. Which one of the following options is an example of an exotic breed of cattle ?
(1) Aseel (2) Leghorn
(3) Jersey (4) Sahiwal
44. Rapid elongation of a bamboo stem is due to
(1) Intercalary meristem (2) Apical meristem
(3) Cambium (4) None of the above
45. The largest amount of extracellular material is present in the
(1) Stratified epithelium (2) Striated muscle
(3) nerve fibres (4) Areolar tissue

SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS

This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
46. The sum of two irrational numbers is -
(1) Rational (2) Irrational
(3) Either (1) or (2) (4) Natural number
47. If (x + a) is a factor of x2+ px + q and x2+ mx + n then the value of a is :
m p n q
(1) n (2) m
q p
n q m p
(3) m (4) n
p q
 CLASS - X
48. In the given figure, if AB and CD are straight lines andCOE = 90°, then the value of the angles x, y and z are
:
D

z°
O y°
A B
2 x°
5 x°
90° 2

(1) 16°, 50°, 130° (2) 18°, 45°, 135°

(3) 20°, 40°, 140° (4) 30°, 15°, 165°
49. In the given diagramB =C = 65° andD = 30°, then the true statement is :

65° 65° 30°

B D
C

(1) BC = CA (2) CA > CD

(3) BD > AD (4) AC = AD
50. Write the name of the quadrant in which the point (–3, 5) lies.
(1) First quadrant (2) Second quadrant
(3) Third quadrant (4) Fourth quadrant
51. In a trapezium ABCD with bases AB and CD, where AB = 52, BC = 12, CD = 39 and DA = 5. The area of the
trapezium ABCD, is :
(1) 182 (2) 195
(3) 210 (4) 260
7 2x 8
52. If2x , then x = ?
5x 8 5x 4
10 5
(1) 213 (2) 39

1 6
(3) 22 (4) 37
53. Suppose the triangle ABC has an obtuse angle at C and let D be the midpoint of side AC. Suppose E is on BC
such that the segment DE is parallel to AB. Consider the following three statements.
(i) E is the midpoint of BC
(ii) The length of DE is half the length of AB
(iii) DE bisects the altitude from C to AB
(1) Only (i) is true (2) Only (i) and (ii) are true
(3) Only (i) and (iii) are true (4) All three are true.
 CLASS - X

54. In the figure AD = DB, BE =1 2EC and CF = 1 3AF. If the area ofABC = 120 cm2, the area (in cm2) ofDEF

is :

D F

B C
E

(1) 21 (2) 35
(3) 40 (4) 45
55. InABC, line segments AD, BE and CF are the altitudes. If AB × AC = 28.80 and BE × CF = 20, then
AD × BC equals :
(1) 24.4 (2) 24.2
(3) 24.0 (4) 23.8
56. AB and CD are two parallel chords of a circle of radius 3 cms. If AB = 4 cms and CD = 5 cms. Then the distance
between them in cms is

5
(1) 11 (2) 5 11
2

11 11
(3) 5 (4) 2
2 5
57. A hollow spherical ball whose inner radius is 4 cm is full of water. Half of the water is transferred to a conical
cup and it completely filled the cup. If the height of the cup is 2 cm, then the radius of the base of cone in cm
is :
(1) 4 (2) 10
(3) 8 (4) 16
58. The mean weight of a class of 34 students is 46.5 kg. If weight of the teacher is included, the mean rises by 500
gm. Then weight of the teacher is:
(1) 175 kg (2) 62 kg
(3) 64 kg (4) 72 kg
59. A bag contains 40 balls out of which some are red, some are blue and remaining are black. If the probability of

drawing a red ball is11 20and that of blue ball is 1 5, then the number of black balls is
(1) 5 (2) 25
(3) 10 (4) 30
60. If am. an= amn, then m(n – 2) + n(m – 2) is -
2n 4
(1) (2) 0
n 1

n 2n 4 n
(3) n 1 (4)
n 1
CLASS - X
SECTION-E : IQ (MENTAL ABILITY)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Directions : (61) Find the missing numbers.
61. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?
(1) 340 (2) 210 (3) 260 (4) 222
62. QJV, OLS, MNP, KPM, ?
(1) IJR (2) IRJ (3) RJI (4) JIR
Direction : (63) : Which squence of letters when placed at the blanks one after the other will complete the given
series ?
63. bc _ b _ c _ b _ ccb
(1) cbcb (2) bbcb (3) cbbc (4) bcbc

64.
2 6 3 4
204 636 309 ?
(1) 408 (2) 104 (3) 416 (4) 404
65. Find out the sign to be interchange for making the given equation correct
10 + 1010 – 10 × 10 = 10
(1) + and – (2) + and × (3)and × (4) + and
66. If PLAY = 50 , SOUL = 63, then TRUE = ?
(1) 64 (2) 60 (3) 63 (4) 62
67. If East become North-West, North-West become South and so on then what will South become ?
(1) North-West (2) South-West (3) West (4) North-East
68. In a class of students, Ravi occupies fifth position from the top and 25th from the bottom in a test.
How many students are there in the class ?
(1) 30 (2) 28 (3) 29 (4) 25
69. Pointing to a person, Rohit said to Neha, ''His mother is the only daughter of your father. ''How is
Neha related to that person ?
(1) Aunt (2) Mother (3) Daughter (4) Wife
Directions : (70)
(i) J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting in a line facing towards East.
(ii) J is fourth to the right of N.
(iii) Q is fourth to the left of M.
(iv) L and O are not at the ends and are neighours of K and P respectively.
(v) Q is next to the left of J and J is the neighbour of K.
70. What is the position of O ?
(1) To the right of N (2) Next to the right of L
(3) Next to the right of M (4) Between P and J
71. Who is the neighbourer of M
(1) O (2) L
(3) K and L (4) Can not be determined
Directions : (72) Which of the Venn diagrams given in the alternatives best represents the relation between the
given items ?
72. Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
 CLASS - X
73. A dice has been thrown two times and produces following results.

2
5
4
3
2
6

(ii) (iv)
Which number will appear opposite to the number 3 ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 1
74. 'Height' is related to 'Length' in the same way as 'Weight' is related to
(1) Length (2) Height (3) Mass (4) Breadth
Directions (70) : In each of the following, there are some figure which have some particular series.
Find out the next figure ?

75.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

76. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is
true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
1. Some machines are kites.
2. No machine is a pigeon.
Conclusions:
I. Some machines are pigeons.
II. All kites are pigeons.
III. Some kites are not pigeons.
(1) Only conclusions I and II follow. (2) Only conclusions I and III follow.
(3) Only conclusion III follow. (4) Only conclusion II follow.
77. If a person was born on 29 Feb 1896 then his next birthday will fall on?
(1) 29 Feb 1908 (2) 29 Feb 1904 (3) 29 Feb 1912 (4) 28 Feb 1900
78. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
23 5 110
56 9 121
49 3 ?
(1) 77 (2) 111 (3) 95 (4) 113

Q
O P L
79. N which latter is opposite to Q?
M
(1) L (2) M (3) N (4) P
CLASS - X
80. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

(1) 28 (2) 22 (3) 16 (4) 25

 SHARP_CLASS- X

ANSWER KEY TEST DATE:

Q. No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
PHYSICS
Ans. 2 1 3 1 2 3 4 4 4 4 2 4 4 2 2
Q. No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
CHEMISTRY
Ans. 2 3 4 4 4 1 4 3 3 4 3 1 1 3 1
Q. No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
BIOLOGY
Ans. 4 4 2 3 4 3 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 1 4
Q. No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
MATHS
Ans. 3 2 4 3 2 3 1 4 2 3 3 3 3 3 2
Q. No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
MAT
Ans. 2 2 1 3 2 2 4 3 2 1 2 2 1 3 1 3 2 1 3 2