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Physics Sound Wave Frequency Problems

The document consists of a series of physics and chemistry questions, covering topics such as sound waves, resonance, harmonic motion, chemical reactions, and equilibrium constants. Each question presents multiple-choice answers, requiring calculations or conceptual understanding to arrive at the correct response. The questions are structured to assess knowledge in both theoretical and practical aspects of the subjects.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
54 views41 pages

Physics Sound Wave Frequency Problems

The document consists of a series of physics and chemistry questions, covering topics such as sound waves, resonance, harmonic motion, chemical reactions, and equilibrium constants. Each question presents multiple-choice answers, requiring calculations or conceptual understanding to arrive at the correct response. The questions are structured to assess knowledge in both theoretical and practical aspects of the subjects.

Uploaded by

Sumit Vibhute
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

23-11-2025

1803CJA101029250106 JM

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) A sound source of frequency 512 Hz approaches a stationary observer with a velocity of 36 km/hr.
The speed of sound is 330 m/s. What is the frequency heard by the observer :-

(A) 522 Hz
(B) 528 Hz
(C) 524 Hz
(D) 532 Hz

2) A tuning fork A is being tested using an accurate oscillator. It is found that they produce 2 beats
per second when the oscillator reads 514 Hz and 6 beats per second when it reads 510 Hz. The
actual frequency of the fork in Hz is :-

(A) 512 Hz
(B) 504 Hz
(C) 516 Hz
(D) 510 Hz

3) The equation of sound heard by an observer is y = 8 sin(10πt) cos(200πt) at x = 0. The number of


beats heard by observer is :-

(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 20

4) A student performing resonance tube experiment. Initially tube is completely filled with water and
student start draining water to decrease water level. Length of air column is 10 cm when student
hear
1st resonance sound. While further lowering the water level student miss the next resonance sound
due to noise created by his friends. Find next length of air column at which he hear the resonance
sound again (end correction is 1 cm)

(A) 51 cm
(B) 53 cm
(C) 54 cm
(D) 55 cm

5) A mass of 20 kg is hanging with support of two strings of same linear mass density. Now pulses
are generated in both strings at same time near the joint at mass. Ratio of time, taken by a pulse
travel through string 1 to that taken by pulse on string 2 is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6) A firecracker exploding on the surface of a lake is heard as two sounds a time interval t apart by a
man on a boat close to water surface. Sound travels with a speed u in water and a speed v in air. The
distance from the exploding firecracker to the boat is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

7) This question has Statement–1, Statement–2. Of the four choices given after the Statement,
choose the one that best describes the two statement.
Statement–1 : In the resonance tube experiment, if the tunning fork is replace by another identical
tuning fork but with its arm having been filed, the length f the air column should be increased to
obtain resonance again.
Statement–2 : On filing the arms, the frequency of a tuning fork increases.

Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of
(A)
statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
(C)
Statement-1.
(D) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false

8) A plane electromagnetic wave is propagating along the direction , with its polarization along
the direction . The correct form of the magnetic field of the wave would be (here B0 is an
appropriate constant) :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

9) Three resonant frequencies of string with both rigid ends are 90,150 and 210 Hz. If the length of
the string is 80 cm, what is the speed of the transverse wave in the string?

(A) 45 m/s
(B) 75 m/s
(C) 48 m/s
(D) 80 m/s

10) A wave represented by the equation y = A cos (kx – ωt) is superimposed with another wave to
form a statioary wave such that the point x = 0 is a node. The equation of the other wave is:

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

11) When a 100-Hz oscillator is used to generate a sinusoidal wave on a certain string the
wavelength is 10 cm. When the tension in the string is doubled the generator produces a wave with
a frequency and wavelength of :

(A) 200 Hz and 20 cm


(B) 141 Hz and 10 cm
(C) 100 Hz and 20 cm
(D) 100 Hz and 14 cm

12) A wave disturbance in a medium is described by

where x and y are in meter and t is in second.

(A) A node occurs at x = 0.15 m


(B) An antinode occurs at x = 0.3 m
(C) The speed of wave is 5 ms–1
(D) All are correct
13) A transverse harmonic wave represented by y = A cos (kx – wt) travels along a string towards a
boundary at x = 0, with a 2nd string. The speed of wave in 2nd string is half of speed of wave in string
1. Then the equation of reflected wave is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

14) If the distance x of a particle on a straight line measured from a fixed origin on it and its velocity
v are connected by the relation 4v2 = 25 – x2 (where v, x are in S.I. units), then the amplitude of
harmonic motion is

(A) 3m
(B) 4m
(C) 5 m
(D) None of these

15) A solid cylinder attached to horizontal massless spring can roll without slipping along horizontal

surface. Find time period of oscillation.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

16) Four simple harmonic vibrations


y1 = 8 sin ωt, y2 = 6 sin (ωt + π/2), y3 = 4 sin (ωt + π), y4 = 2 sin (ωt + 3π/2) are superimposed on
each other. The resulting amplitude and initial phase are respectively:-

(A) and tan–1(1)


(B) and tan–1(6/8)
(C) 20 and tan–1(1/2)
(D) 20 and tan–1(2)

17) Two particles are performing SHM about same mean position and have same amplitude A. At t =
0 both particle have same velocity and separation between them is then at which time they
cross each other if time period of SHM for both particle is T.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

18) The oscillations represented by curve 1 in the graph are expressed by equation x = A sinω t. The
equation for the oscillations represented by curve 2 is expressed as :

(A) x = 2A sin(ω t – π/2)


(B) x = 2A sin(ω t + π/2)
(C) x = – 2A sin(ω t – π/2)
(D) x = A sin(ω t – π/2)

19) A block P of mass m is placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. Another block Q of mass 2m is
kept on P and connected to the wall with the help of a spring of spring constant k as shown in the
figure. μs is the coefficient of friction between P and Q. The blocks move together performing SHM
of amplitude A. The maximum value of the friction force between P and Q is

(A)

(B)

(C) zero
(D) μsmg

20) An EM wave from air enters a medium. The electric fields are in air
and in medium, where the wave number k and frequency v refer to their
values in air. The medium of non-magnetic. If and refer to relative permittivity of air and
medium respectively, which of the following options is correct ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

SECTION-II

1) Two radio frequency point sources separated by 2.0 m are radiating in phase with λ = 0.50m. A
detector moves in a circular path around the two sources in a plane containing them. How many
maxima it detects in full rotation?

2) A steel wire is rigidly fixed at both ends. Its length, mass and cross-sectional area are 1m, 0.1 kg
and 10–6 m2 respectively. Then the temperature of the wire is lowered by 20°C. If transverse waves
are set up by plucking the wire at 0.25 m from one end and assuming that the wire vibrates with
minimum number of loops possible for such a case. Find the frequency of vibrations (in Hz). If your
answer is N fill value of N/11. Given the coefficient of linear expansion of steel = 1.21 × 10– 5°C–1,

and Young's modulus = 2 × 1011 N/m2.

3) The displacement current of 4.425 µA is developed in the space between the plates of parallel
plate capacitor when voltage is changing at a rate of 106 Vs–1. The area of each plate of the capacitor
is 40 cm2. The distance between each plate of the capacitor is x × 10–3m. The value of x is :

4) A sound wave is propagating in a medium with bulk modulus 1.5 × 105 N/m2 and the pressure
equation is given by where x is in meter, t in second & p in N/[Link]
volumetric strain at x = 7m and t = 1sec is given by α × 10–8. Fill a in OMR sheet.

5) Find the time (in sec) period of oscillations of a torsional pendulum, if the torsional constant of the
wire is K = 10π2J/rad. The moment of inertia of rigid body is 10 kg m2 about the axis of rotation.

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I

1) The compound which gives negative iodoform test is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

2)

Which of the following compound can give positive Tollen's test ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

3) Which among the following compounds will not give effervescence with sodium bicarbonate ?
(A) C6H5COOH
(B) C6H5SO3H
(C) C6H5OH
(D) Picric acid

4) Sodium fusion extract of an organic compound gives a blood red colouration with few drops of
FeCl3 solution. This indicates the presence of

(A) Nitrogen in the organic compound


(B) Sulphur in the organic compound
(C) Nitrogen and sulphur in the organic compound
(D) Sulphur and chlorine in the organic compound

5) Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by

(A) Tollen's reagent


(B) Benedict's reagent
(C) Neutral FeCl3
(D) Schiff's base

6) For estimation of 'N', among which of the following compounds, kjeldahl's method cannot be
used.

(A) Pipyridine
(B) Aniline
(C) Farmamide
(D) Acetonitrile

7) Before testing sodium extract solution for halogens, the solution is acidified with and
boiled. This is to

(A) Oxidize halides to X2


(B) To precipitate phosphorous in the solution as sodium phosphate
(C) To remove sulfide and cyanide ions as H2S and HCN gas
(D) To convert halogens to sodium halide

8) In which of the following reaction product formation is favoured by decrease in temperature and
pressure

(A)
CO2(g) + C(s) 2CO(g); ΔHº=172.5kJ

(B)
CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(l); ΔHº= – 21.7kJ

(C)
2O3(g) 3O2(g); ΔHº = –285 kJ
(D)
H2(g) + F2(g) 2HF(g) ΔHº = –541 kJ

9) Calculate KC for reaction A(g) + B(g) 2C(g).


If 0.5 mole of A, 1.25 moles of B and 0.5 moles of C are placed in one litre flask and allowed to reach
equilibrium & final concentration of C is 1M

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 1.5

10) Two solid compounds X and Y dissociates at a certain temperature as follows :


X(s) A(g) + 2B(g) ; Kp1 = 9 × 10–3atm3
Y(s) 2B(g) + C(g) ; Kp2 = 4.5 × 10–3atm3
The total pressure of gases over a mixture of X and Y is -

(A) 4.5 atm


(B) 0.45 atm
(C) 0.6 atm
(D) 6 atm

11)

Pure PCl5 is introduced into an evacuated chamber and comes to equilibrium at 247°C and 2.0 atm.
The equilibrium gaseous mixture contains 40% chlorine by volume. Calculate KP at 247°C for the
reaction.

(A) 0.625 atm


(B) 4 atm
(C) 1.6 atm
(D) None of these

12) The equilibrium constant of the reactions

SO2(g) + and
2SO2 + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
are K1 and K2 respectively. The relation between K1 and K2 is

(A) K1 = K2
2
(B) K2 = K1
2
(C) K1 = K2
K2 =
(D)
13) 4 mol of carbon dioxide was heated in 1 dm3 vessel under condition which produced at
equilibrium 25% dissociation into carbon monoxide and oxygen. The number of moles of carbon
monoxide produced :-

(A) 0.5
(B) 1.0
(C) 2.0
(D) 4.0

14) On increasing the pressure, in which direction will the gas phase reaction proceed to re-
establish equilibrium, is predicted by applying the Le Chatelier's principle. Consider the reaction :
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) Which of the following is correct, if the total pressure at which the
equilibrium is established, is increased without changing the temperature?

(A) K will remain same.


(B) K will decrease.
(C) K will increase
(D) K will increase initially and decrease when pressure is very high.

15)

Which of the following solutions has the maximum pH value ?

(A) 0.2 M HNO3


(B) 0.2 M HCl
(C) 0.2 M CH3COOH
(D) 0.2 M CH3COONa

16) pH of 10–10 M NH4OH (Kb = 2 × 10–5)

(A) 10
(B) 4
(C) slightly less than 7
(D) slightly greater than 7

17) Select correct statement

+ –
(A) When NaOH and C6H5NH3 Cl are mixed, they cannot form buffer solution
(B) pH of acidic buffer solution is always less than 7 at 25ºC
(C) For pure water as temperature increases pOH decreases
3–
(D) For triprotic acid H3PO4 concentration of PO4 is equal to Ka3.

18) A solution is 0.1 M in Ag+, Ca+2, Mg+2 and Al3+ ions. Which compound will precipitate first when
Na3PO4 is added in such a solution -

–16
(A) Ag3PO4 [Ksp = 10 ]
–33
(B) Ca3(PO4)2 (Ksp = 10 )
–24
(C) Mg3(PO4)2 [Ksp = 10 ]
–20
(D) AlPO4 (Ksp = 10 )

19) Solubility of CO2(g) in water at 1 bar and 25°C involves the following equilibria :
0
CO2(g) CO2(aq) ; K1 = 0.04
CO2(aq.)+H2O(l) H+(aq.) + HCO3–(aq);
0
K2 = 4 × 10–6
HCO3–(aq.) H+(aq.) + CO32–(aq);
K30 = 5 × 10–11
[H+] in saturated solution of CO2(g) in water is -

(A) 0.04 M
(B) 4 × 10–3M
(C) 4 × 10–4M
(D) 2 × 10–3M

20) 50 ml of 10–3 M HCl is mixed with 50 ml of 0.05M CH3COOH (pKa = 4.7). The degree of
dissociation of water in the resulting solution is :-

(A) 1.8 × 10–13


(B) 1.8 × 10–15
(C) 1.8 × 10–14
(D) 3.6 × 10–13

SECTION-II

1)

List-I (Components) List-II (Nature)

(P) (1)

(Q) (2)
(R) (3)

(S) NH4CN (4)

2) Titration of diprotic acid (H2A) by strong base has been summarised in following graph.

What is the pH at II equivalence point ? (Assume no change in volume on addition of base)

3) Consider the reaction N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g).


The temperature at which KC = 20.4 and
KP = 600.1, is_____K. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Assume all gases are ideal and R = 0.0831 L bar K–1 mol–1]

4)

Matching List based integer :

List - I List - II
Compound Positive test

(P) Valeric acid (1) Tollen's test as well as FeCl3 test

(Q) D-glucose (2) Iodoform test

(R) Vanillin (3) NaHCO3 test

(S) (4) Molish test


5) How many of the following will decolourise bromine water solution :

(i) CH3–CH=CH2 (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(v) (vi)

(vii) CH4 (viii)

(ix)

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

1) A pack of cards has one card missing. Two cards are drawn randomly and are found to be spades.
The probability that the missing card is not a spade, is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

2) Let a 6-digit positive integer formed by 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 without repetitions. Then the probability
that it is divisible by 3 is equal to :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

3) Two dices are rolled. If both dices have six faces numbered 1,2,3,5,7 and 11, then the probability
that the sum of the numbers on the top faces is less than or equal to 8 is :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

4) Let in a Binomial distribution, consisting of 5 independent trials, probabilities of exactly 1 and 2


successes be 0.4096 and 0.2048 respectively. Then the probability of getting exactly 3 successes is
equal to :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5) Let 9 distinct balls be distributed among 4 boxes, B1, B2, B3 and B4. If the probability than B3

contains exactly 3 balls is then k lies in the set :

(A) {x ∈ R : |x – 3| < 1}
(B) {x ∈ R : |x – 2| 1}
(C) {x ∈ R : |x – 1| < 1}
(D) {x ∈ R : |x –5| 1}

6) In a workshop, there are five machines and the probability of any one of them to be out of service

on a day is . If the probability that at most two machines will be out of service on the same day is

, then k is equal to :

(A)

(B) 4

(C)

(D)

7) Let A and B be two independent events such that and . Then, which of the
following is TRUE ?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

8) If the perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining the points P (1, 4) and Q (k, 3) has y-
intercept equal to –4, then a value of k is :-

(A)
(B) –2
(C)
(D) –4

9) Let R be the point (3, 7) and let P and Q be two points on the line x + y = 5 such that PQR is an
equilateral triangle. Then the area of ΔPQR is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

10) Let A(1, 1), B(–4, 3) C(–2, –5) be vertices of a triangle ABC, P be a point on side BC, and Δ1 and
Δ2 be the areas of triangle APB and ABC. Respectively.
If Δ1 : Δ2 = 4 : 7, then the area enclosed by the lines AP, AC and the x-axis is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) 1

11) Let A (α, –2), B (α, 6) and be vertices of a ΔABC. If is the circumcentre of
ΔABC, then which of the following is NOT correct about ΔABC:

(A) ares is 24
(B) perimeter is 25
(C) circumradius is 5
(D) inradius is 2

12) If the tangent at P on the circle x2 + y2 + 2x + 2y – 7 = 0 meets the straight line 3x – 4y = 15 at a


point Q on x-axis, then length of PQ is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

13) Let P and Q be two distinct points on a circle which has center at C(2, 3) and which passes
through origin O. If OC is perpendicular to both the line segments CP and CQ, then the set {P, Q} is
equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

14) Let
and

. Then the minimum value of such that


is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

15) The number of solutions of the equation 2x + 3tanx = π, is

(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3

16) Let the equation x(x + 2)(12–k) = 2 have equal roots. Then the perpendicular distance of the

point from the line 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 is

(A) 15
(B)
(C)
(D) 12

17) A line passing through the point P(a, 0) makes an acute angle α with the positive x-axis. Let this

line be rotated about the point P through an angle in the clock-wise direction. If in the new

position, the slope of the line is 2 – and its distance from the origin is , then the value of
3a2tan2α – 2 is

(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 8

18) If the four distinct points (4, 6), (–1,5), (0,0) and (k, 3k) lie on a circle of radius r, then 10k + r2 is
equal to

(A) 32
(B) 33
(C) 34
(D) 35

19) Let the system of equations :


2x + 3y + 5z = 9,
7x + 3y – 2z = 8,
12x + 3y – (4 + λ)z = 16 – μ,
have infinitely many solutions. Then the radius of the circle centred at (λ, μ) and touching the line 4x
= 3y is

(A)

(B)

(C) 7

(D)

20) A box contains 10 pens of which 3 are defective. A sample of 2 pens is drawn at random and let
X denote the number of defective pens. Then the variance of X is

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

SECTION-II

1) If the line, 2x – y + 3 = 0 is at a distance and from the lines 4x – 2y + α = 0 and 6x – 3y +


β = 0, respectively, then the sum of all possible values of α and β is _____

2) Let two points be A(1,–1) and B(0,2). If a point P(x',y') be such that the area of ΔPAB = 5 sq. units
and it lies on the line, 3x + y – 4λ = 0, then a positive value of λ is

3) Let the equation x2 + y2 + px + (1 – p)y + 5 = 0 represent circles of varying radius r ∈ (0, 5]. Then
the number of elements in the set S = {q : q = p2 and q is an integer} is _________.

4) Let B be the centre of the circle x2 + y2 – 2x + 4y + 1 = 0. Let the tangents at two points P and Q

on the circle intersect at the point A(3, 1). Then is equal to _____.

5) Two balls are selected at random one by one without replacement from a bag containing 4 white
and 6 black balls. If the probability that the first selected ball is black, given that the second selected

ball is also black, is , where gcd(m, n) = 1, then m + n is equal to :


ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. B C C C C D B A C B D D A C D A A A A B

SECTION-II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 16 2 8 4 2

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. D C C C C A C C C B C C B A D D A D C A

SECTION-II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2313 12 354 3412 5

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. C B B A A C C D D C B C D C B A A D B B

SECTION-II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 30 3 61 18 14
SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

1) f =

2)

Sol. 516 Hz

3)

The number of beats heard by observer is 10.

4) f = ;f=

⇒ ℓ2 = 5ℓ1 + 4e = 54 cm

5)

6)
t1 : time taken by sound to travel in water
t2 : time taken by sound to travel in air.
t1 =

t2 =
t2 – t1 = t (given)

7) On filing frequency increases and so wavelength decreases, so thength of air column should
be decreased.

8) Ans. (A)
A is the correct answer

9)

The speed of the transverse wave in the string is 48 m/s.

10) ynet = 0 ( for x = 0)


ynet = A cos ( wt) A cos (wt)
=0

11) velocity will be times


Frequency will be same so, 100 Hz.

∴ D is answer

12)

A = 0.02 cos(10πx)
at x = 0.15 m, A = 0
at x = 0.3m, A = –0.02m
13)
Let t = 0

Reflection is from denser medium, so reflected wave is inverted.

14) 4v2 = 25 – x2

Differentiating,

a=5

15)

16) From phasor diagram we have,

∴ Resultant will have magnitude & will be at a phase of tan–11 intially

17) Phase difference between to particle SHM


=

Phase travelled by

P or Q =

So time =

18)

A′ = 2A
ω′ = ω

ϕ′ =

19) ... (i)

... (ii)

20) Ans. (B)


B is the correct answer
21)
16 maximas

22) ΔL = L0 · a · ΔT = – (1 × 1.21 × 10–5 × 20)


–4
= – 2.42 × 10
⇒ Strain = 2.42 × 10– 4
Stress = Young's modulus × Strain

Tension = Stress × Area = (2 × 1011) · (2.42 × 10– 4) · (10– 6) N


= 48.4 N
The vibration here
The point pluckes would be an anti-node. As can be seen, the string will vibrate in its second
harmonci.

v= = = 22 Hz.

23) Ans. (8.00)


(8.00) is the correct answer

24)
Volumetric strain =

Also by P =


At x = 7m ; t = 1 sec.

25) 10π2 × θ = 10 × ω2 × θ
ω=π
∴ T = 2 sec

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

26)

Acid derivation does not give iodoform test.

27)

28) Phenol is less acidic than H2CO3

29) The presence of both nitrogen and sulphur in the lassaigne's test in an organic compound
shows a blood red colouration with FeCl3 solution. This is due to the formation of NaCNS in
the sodium fusion extract.

30) Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by FeCl3.

31) Cyclic amines does not give Nh3 in kjeldahl's method

32)

S2 and CN– present in the 'Na' - extract must be removed, because they can also form
precipitate with AgNa3
33) Question Explanation:
Which equilibrium favoured by low temperature and low pressure.
Concept:
This question is based on Le-chatelier's principle.

Solution:
Temp.↓ equilibrium shift forward for exothermic reaction where heat is released
Pressure ↓ equilibrium shift forward when number of gaseous moles increases on product
side

for 2O3(g) 3O2(g); ΔHº = –285 kJ


Low temperature & low pressure is favoured for forward direction.

Final Answer:
The correct option is (3).

34) A(g) + B(g) 2C(g)


0.5 1.25 0.5

+0.5
= 0.25 M = 1M = 1M

KC = 4

35) Question Explanation:


Find total pressure above two simultaneous equilibrium.

Concept:
This question is based on simultaneous equilibrium.

Solution:

∴ P1 = 2P2
∵ 4.5 × 10–3 = P2(4P2 + 2P2)2 =

∴ and P1 = 0.1
PT = P1 + 2P1 + 2P2 + P2 = 3(P1 + P2)
= 3(0.1 + 0.05) = 3 × 0.15 = 0.45 atm

Final Answer:
The correct option is (2)
36) Explanation:
Initially only PCls is taken and at equilibrium pressure is 2atm and volume % of Cl2 is 40%

Calculate Kp
Concept:
This Question is based on Equilibrium constant Kp
Solution:
PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
% volume = % mole
at equilibrium
So

Kp =
Kp = 1.6
Final Answer: Option: 3

37) Question Explanation:


Find relation between two equilibrium constant with different stoichiometry.

Concept:
This question is based on properties of equilibrium constant.

Solution:

from expressions of K1 and K2

Final Answer:
The correct option is (3)

38)

39) Question Explanation:


Find effect of pressure on equilibrium constant.

Concept:
This question is based on Le-chatelier's principle.
Solution:
For a given equilibrium, equilibrium constant depends only on temperature but doesn't depend
on pressure.

Final Answer:
The correct option is (1)

40)

Explanation
"Which of the given electrolytes has the highest pH"?
Given data:
Given solutions with concentration are-
0.2M HNO3, 0.2 M HCl, 0.2 M CH3COOH, 0.2 M CH3COONa
HNO3 and HCl : These are strong and will have a pH less than 7.
• CH3COOH: This is a weak acid and will have a pH less than 7 , but higher than the strong
acids.
• CH3COONa: This is the salt of a weak acid (CH3COOH) and a strong base (NaOH). It will
undergo hydrolysis to form a basic solution with a pH greater than 7.
Therefore the solution with the highest pH will be the basic one which is 0.2 M CH3COONa.

Final Answer. 0.2 M CH3COONa


correct Ans. 4

41) Explain the question : Calculate pH of an extremely dilute weak base.


Concept : This question is based on ionic product of water (Kw) dominance.
Solution : the extremely low concentration of NH4OH (10–10 M) means that the hydroxide ions
(OH–) contributed by the weak base dissociation (NH4OH ⇌ H+ + OH–). The concentration of
0
OH from water is 10–7 M. If we were to calculate [OH–] solely from the base (assuming 10–7 M

is negligible), we would use [OH–] » × 10–7.5 » 3.16


10–8 M. Which is less than the water contribution. Therefore, the total [OH–] must be
dominated by water and slightly increased by the base, meaning[OH–]total > 10–7 M. If [OH–]total >
10–7 M, then pOH < 7, and consequently, pH = 14 – pOH must be slightly greater than 7.
Final answer : 7

42) Explanation:
Identify the correct statement from options about chemical equilibria.

Concept:
This question is based on acid-Base Chemistry

Solution:
(1) NaOH → strong base

After mixing it can form buffer when NaOH is limiting reagent, so this statement is correct
(2) The statement says the pH of an acidic buffer is always less than 7 at . While this is
the general definition, the use of "always" can make it technically incorrect. For example, a
buffer could be prepared from an acid with a slightly greater than 7 (e.g., phenol,
), and while it's an acid, the solution could have a pH above 7. So, this statement is
not universally correct.

(3) The statement claims that as temperature increases, the pOH of pure water decreases. The
autoionization of water ( ) is an endothermic process. According to Le
Chatelier's principle, an increase in temperature shifts the equilibrium to the right, which
increases the concentration of both and . A higher concentration means a lower
pOH value ). This is a fundamental physical law. This statement is
definitively correct.

4. For a triprotic acid , the concentration of is given by the third ionization

constant. In a solution containing only , we have only if we assume


from the first ionization which is a valid approximation but not a strict

equality. However, the statement is not "approximately equal to" but "is equal to" .

Final answer: 3

43)

concentration is lower in AlPO4, it means solubility of is less. it is easily get precipi


tated with Min concentration of Needed.
∴ AlPO4 will precipitate.

44) Question Explanation:


Question is asking about [H+] in saturated solution of CO2(g) in water.

Given Data :
0
• K1 = 0.04
0
• K2 = 4 × 10–6
0
• K3 = 5 × 10–11

Concept :
This question is based on equilibrium constant relationship

Solution:
• The first equilibrium dictates the concentration of dissolved CO2.
• The second equilibrium determines the [H+] and [HCO3–]
• We can assume [H+] = [HCO3–] due to the stoichiometry of the second reaction.
0
• [CO2 (aq)]= K1 = 0.04 M
0
• K2 = [H+][HCO3–]/[CO2(aq)]
• Let [H+] = x, then [HCO3–] = x
• 4 × 10–6 = x2 / 0.04
• x2 = 4 × 10–6 × 0.04 = 16 × 10–6

•x= = 4 × 10–4 M

Final Answer: The correct option is (3).

45) pH of CH3COOH = =3
Mixing of HCl solution does not change the [H+]
Final solution has [H+] = 10–3 M therefore [OH–] = 10–11 M

Therefore,
46)

47) Maximum buffer capacity is obtained when pH = and when pH =


pH at second equivalence point

= 12

48) N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g); Δng = 2 – 1 = 1


Now, Kp = Kc .
or, 600.1 = 20.4 × (0.0831 × T)1
∴ T = 353.99 K = 354K
49)

50) Question Explanation:


The question asks to identify how many of the given compounds will decolorize bromine water
solution.

Concept:

This question is based on a test for unsaturation.

Solution:
Bromine water is a characteristic test for the presence of carbon-carbon multiple bonds (alkenes and
alkynes). The red-brown color of Br2 is decolorized as Br2 undergoes an electrophilic addition across
the π-bond to form a colorless vicinal dibromide.

The compounds that will decolorize bromine water are (i), (iii), (iv), (viii), and (ix).

Final Answer: 5

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

51) E1 : Event denotes spade is missing

A : Event drawn two cards are spade


52) Total cases :
6·6·5·4·3·2
n(s) = 6 · 6!
Favourable cases :
Number divisible by 3 ≡
Sum of digits must be divisible by 3
Case-I
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Number of ways = 6!
Case-II
0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
Number of ways = 5·5!
Case-III
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Number of ways = 5·5!
n(favourable) = 6! + 2·5·5!

53) n(E) = 5 + 4 + 4 + 3 + 1 = 17

So, P (E) =

54) P(X = 1) = 5C1.p.q4 = 0.4096


P(X = 2) = 5C2.p2.q3 = 0.2048


⇒ q = 4p and p + q = 1

⇒ and
Now

P(X = 3) =

55) required probability =

Which satisfies |x – 3| < 1

56) Probability that at most 2 machines are out of service

=
= ⇒k=

57) (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

58)

Slope =
Equation of ⊥r bisector is
y + 4 = (k –1) (x– 0)
⇒ y + 4 = x(k –1)

59)

sin 60° =

a=
Area of ΔPQR =

60)

Given

&

Given
….(1)
Equation of BC is 4x + y = –13 ….(2)
Solve equation (1) & (2)

Point

Here point

So Area of triangle AQR

61) A (α, –2) : B (α, 6) :


since AC is perpendicular to AB.
So, ΔABC is right angled at A.

Circumcentre = mid point of BC. =

α=8
Area =
Perimeter = 24
Circumradius = 5

Inradius =

62) Answer
Q (5, 0)

63)

Using symmetric from of line

P,Q :

(–1, 5) & (5, 1)

64)

; C2 : (0,2)
S3 : x2 + y2 – 4x –2y + 5 – r2 = 0

C3 : (2,1)

65)

5 solutions

66) (x2 + 2x) (12 – k) = 2


λx2 + 2λx – 2 = 0 k ≠ 12 Let 12 – k = λ
D=0
4λ2 + 8λ = 0
λ = 0 or λ = –2
⇒ 12 – k = – 2
k = 14

So
option (A)

67)
mPR = 2 – = tan 15°

∴ = 15° ⇒
equation of PR :
y = tan 15° (x – a)
y = (2 – ) (x – a)

⊥ distance from origin =

|a| = =
2
a =2
3a2 tan2 α –

3 × (4 + ).

68)
m1m2 = – 1 so right angle equation circle is
(x – 4) (x – 0) + (y – 6) (y – 0) = 0
x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y = 0
(k,3k) lies on it so
k2 + 9k2 – 4k – 18k = 0
10k2 – 22k = 0

k = 0,

k = 0 is not possible so
also

so 10k + r2 =
69)
⇒ 12(–21) –3(–39) – (λ + 4)(–15) = 0
⇒ –252 + 117 + 15(l + 4) = 0
⇒ 15λ + 177 – 252 = 0
⇒ 15λ – 75 = 0 ⇒ λ = 5


⇒ 7 – 7(μ – 8) = 0 ⇒ 1 – (μ – 8) = 0 ⇒ μ = 9
⇒ centre of circle (5, 9)

radius = length of from centre (5, 9) =

70)

μ = Σxi P(xi) =

Variance (x) = ΣPi(xi – μ)2 =

71) Apply distance between parallel line formula


4x – 2y + α = 0
4x – 2y + 6 = 0

|α – 6| = 2 ⇒ α = 8, 4
sum = 12
again
6x – 3y + β = 0
6x – 3y + 9 = 0

|β – 9| = 6 ⇒ β = 15, 3
sum = 18
sum of all values of α and β is = 30

72) : 3x + y – 2 = 0
Also,

73)
Since,
So, 0 < 2p2 – 2p – 19 < 100

so, number of integral values of p2 is 61

74)

75)
m = 5, n = 9
m + n = 14

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