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Gel Electrophoresis and DNA Techniques

The document contains a series of questions and answers related to biotechnology and genetic engineering, specifically focusing on topics such as gel electrophoresis, PCR, and plasmid vectors like pBR322. It includes multiple-choice questions that assess knowledge on various concepts, techniques, and characteristics relevant to the field of zoology and biotechnology. The answers to the questions are provided at the end of the document.

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Kalim Ansari
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
10 views6 pages

Gel Electrophoresis and DNA Techniques

The document contains a series of questions and answers related to biotechnology and genetic engineering, specifically focusing on topics such as gel electrophoresis, PCR, and plasmid vectors like pBR322. It includes multiple-choice questions that assess knowledge on various concepts, techniques, and characteristics relevant to the field of zoology and biotechnology. The answers to the questions are provided at the end of the document.

Uploaded by

Kalim Ansari
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Corp.

Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005


Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

N C E R T HO T S PO T - 16

Topics covered :
Zoology : Biotechnology-I -Principles and Processes

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A II. pBR322 contain two antibiotic resistant genes


1. Sel ect the correct statement w. r.t. gel as selectable marker.
electrophoresis. III. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is natural genetic
(1) Unstained DNA can be visualized directly by engineer
exposing to UV radiation IV. AII restriction endonucleases are ideal for
(2) Smaller the size of DNA fragment, larger is the genetic engineering
distance it travels through the gel
(3) DNA fragments travel along the surface of the I II III IV
gel whose concentration does not affect
(1) T T F F
movement of DNA
(4) DNA is negatively charged molecule and so it is (2) F F T T
loaded in the gel towards the anode (3) T T T F
2. Choose the incorrect statement.
(4) F T T F
(1) DNA ligase helps in ligation of DNA fragments
(2) Endonucleases break internal phosphodiester 5. Which of the following statements is incorrect
bonds regarding PCR?
(3) Exonuclease removes nucleotides from the end (1) It is a process of in vitro replication of gene
of a DNA molecule (2) Denaturation of DNA fragment is done initially
(4) Sal I was the f irst discovered restriction (3) Annealing of primers occur at 74°C
endonuclease (4) Taq polymerase is extracted from Thermus
3. Which of following statements is incorrect ? aquaticus
(1) Each restriction enzyme recognises a specific 6. Read the statements given below and mark the
palindromic nucleotide sequence in DNA incorrect one with respect to gel electrophoresis
(2) Palindromic sequence is read same on two (1) Smaller the fragment size, farther it travels from
strands when orientation of reading is kept same anode
(3) Restriction enzymes always cut the strand of
(2) Agarose is a natural polymer extracted from sea
DNA at the centre of palindrome site
weeds
(4) Restriction endonuclease cuts DNA at other than
free ends (3) DNA bands cannot be seen in visible spectrum
4. Identify the statements as true(T) or false(F) of light
I. Lac Z gene coding for -galactosidase enzyme (4) It helps in separation of DNA on the basis of their
was used as marker in pUC 8. sizes
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-16
7. DNA fragments produced as a result of DNA digestion (2) D - When a foreign gene is inserted at this site
are separated using the technique then recombinant organism can grow in
(1) Gel electrophoresis (2) Electrolysis tetracycline medium
(3) Western blotting (4) PCR (3) C - When a foreign gene is inserted at this site
8. Choose odd one w.r.t. isolation of DNA from a cell then recombinant form will grow in both
ampicillin and tetracycline media.
(1) Chitinase (2) Cellulase
(4) B - Sal-I which inactivates the chromogenic gene
(3) Ribonuclease (4) Deoxyribonuclease
producing -galactosidase
9. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature
of pBR322 ? 13. Which amongst the following are modern methods
that ensure early detection of a disease?
(1) Cla I, Hind III and Eco RI sites are present but
out of selectable marker (a) PCR (b) ELISA
(2) It bears two sets of antibiotic resistance genes (c) RDT (d) Blood test
(3) Reasonably high copy number (1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b), (c)
(4) It is prepared by chromosomal DNA (3) (a) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
10. In order to induce the uptake of plasmids by bacteria, 14. The correct sequence of PCR is
the bacteria are made competent by treating them (1) Annealing – Extension – Denaturation
with a specific concentration of
(2) Denaturation – Annealing – Extension
(1) Mg++ (2) Ca++
(3) Annealing – Denaturation – Extension
(3) Divalent cations (4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) Extension – Annealing – Denaturation
11. Which of the following palindromic sequences is 15. State true(T) or false(F).
recognised by EcoRI?
A. T-DNA introduced by Ti plasmid causes Crown
(1) 5GGGCCC3 (2) 5GAATTC3 Gall disease in several dicot plants.
(3) 3AAATTT5 (4) 3AAGGAA5 B. Two selectable markers of pBR322 are lacR
12. Structure of plasmid vector is shown in the diagram and ampR.
C. EcoRI enzyme produces blunt ends fragments.
D. Sel ection of transf orm ant f rom non-
transformant can be done by tetracyclin, if
EcoR I Cla I Hind III insertional i nacti v ati on takes i n Pvu-I
recognition site of pBR322.
C
A A B C D
D (1) F T F F
amp R tet R
(2) F F T F
B (3) T F T T
pBR322
(4) T F F T
ori 16. Select the mismatched
(1) Ori - responsible for initiating replication
rop (2) Sticky ends - single stranded free ends
(3) Genetic glue - DNA ligase
(4) Cloning sites - Sites of exonucleases
II
pvu 17. DNA stained with Ethidium bromide gives _____
colour in ultraviolet ray
(1) Bright orange
Select the correct match (2) Red
(1) A - BamH III, used to inactive tetracycline (3) Green
resistant gene (4) Violet

2
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-16
18. Match column I and column II and choose the correct molecular analogues for products and services. This
option. definition was proposed by :
Column I Column II (1) Genetic Enginnering Approval Committee
a. Selectable marker (i) DNA precipitation
(2) Department of Environment and Forest
b. Blunt ends (ii) Sma I
(3) US Patent and Trademark Office
c. Chilled ethanol (iii) Identify transformed
cells (4) European Federation of Biotechnology
d. Plasmids (iv) Autonomous replication 26. W hich of the following is not an example of
biotechnology?
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (1) In vitro fertilization
19. Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning (2) Test-tube programme
because they
(3) Developing a DNA vaccine
(1) Are chromosomal DNA
(4) Urine analysis for presence of pathogen
(2) Are never resistant to antibiotics
(3) Are incomplete RNA molecules 27. Choose incorrect statement
(4) Are small circular DNA molecules with their (1) EcoRI was isolated from RY 13 strain of [Link]
own ori sequence bacteria
20. Absence of -galactosidase activity in recombinant (2) PCR is in vitro replication of DNA
pUC8 is
(3) Recombinant protei ns are produced by
(1) Observed in blue colonies with intact ampR gene
homologus host

(2) Observed in blue colonies with disrupted ampR (4) Chitinase is used to isolate DNA from fungal cell
gene 28. Which of the following sequence is responsible for
(3) Observed in white colonies with intact ampR gene controlling copy number of the linked DNA?
(1) rop (2) ori
(4) Observed in white colonies with inactivated ampR
gene (3) ampR (4) tet R
21. Thermostable Taq enzyme isolated from thermophilic 29. Genetic engineering involves techniques to alter the:
bacteria is
(1) Chemistry of DNA
(1) Dehydrogenase
(2) DNA polymerase (2) Chemistry of RNA

(3) DNA ligase (3) Phenotype of host organism


(4) Restriction endonuclease (4) All of these
22. What is the disadvantage of pBR322 30. Today, we know more than ______ restriction
(1) Has two selectable markers enzymes that have been isolated from over ______
(2) Prepration of replica plate is needed strains of bacteria. Fill the blanks :
(3) It is plasmid derived vector (1) 230, 900 (2) 900, 230
(4) Has cloning sites (3) 930, 200 (4) 200, 900
23. Which among the following vectors is commonly used 31. Which enzyme is required to prevent unwanted self-
for plants ? ligation of vector DNA molecules in recombinant DNA
(1) BAC (2) pBR322 technology?
(3) Cosmid (4) Ti - plasmid (1) DNA polymerase
24. Downstream processing does not involve (2) DNA ligase

(1) Purification (2) Expression (3) Alkaline phosphatase


(4) Reverse transcriptase
(3) Separation (4) Preservation
25. Biotechnology is defined as the integration of natural
sciences and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and

3
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-16
32. If pBR322 is cut by Pvu II and a foreign gene is 38. Recombinant DNA can be directly injected into the
inserted there then the gene affected will be : nucleus of an animal cell by
(1) ampR (2) rop (1) Microinjection method
(3) tet R (4) ori (2) Biolistic or gene gun method
33. Enzyme Taq polymerase (3) Heat shock method
(1) Extends primers on genomic DNA template (4) Disarmed plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(2) Is thermolabile 39. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
(3) Is used in ELISA molecular diagnosis?

(4) Is employed during downstream processing (1) PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in
suspected AIDS patients
34. Arrange the following steps in sequence of
involvement during RDT. (2) PCR is a powerful technique to identify all inborn
diseases
A = Recombination B = Down streaming
(3) ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-
C = Fermentation D = Spooling
antibody interaction
E = Gel Electrophoresis F = PCR
(4) Recombinant DNA technology serves the
G = Transformation. purpose of early diagnosis
(1) D  E  F  G  A  C  B
40. Bubbles in sparged st irred-tank bioreactor
(2) D  E  F  A  G  C  B dramatically:
(3) E  D  F  A  G  C  B (1) Decrease the oxygen transfer are
(4) E  F  D  A  G  B  C (2) Increase the number of transgenic bacteria
35. In bioreactors, how much volume of cultures can be (3) Increase the CO2 transfer area
processed? (4) Increase the oxygen transfer area
(1) 50–100 litres (2) 10–50 litres 41. Which of the following scientists developed a method
(3) 100–1000 litres (4) 1000–10,000 litres of removing plasmids from a cell and reinserting them
in other cells?
36. Purification and concentration of the substances
produced by genetic engineering is done under a (1) Herbert Boyer (2) Richardson
process known as (3) [Link] (4) Stanley Cohen
(1) Upstream processing
42. W hich substance would you add to cause
(2) Downstream processing precipitation of purified DNA from a solution?
(3) Elution (1) Ether
(4) Both (1) & (3) (2) Chilled ethanol
37. The term ‘B’ and ‘R’ in the name pBR322 represents (3) Taq. DNA polymerase
which of the following?
(4) Water
(1) Name of the scientists
(2) Name of the restriction endonuclease enzymes
(3) Name of cities in U.S.A.
(4) Name of the strains of bacteria used

4
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-16
43. A : Taq polymerase is isolated from Thermus
SECTION-B
aquaticus
In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) R : It is used as DNA polymerase in PCR
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the 44. A : Restriction enzymes are endonucleases.
reason is the correct explanation of the R : EcoRI recognises a six nucleotide sequence.
assertion, then mark (1).
45. A : PCR is a novel technique for amplification of
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the DNA.
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (2). R : PCR is also used in diagnosis of HIV.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false, then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
statements, then mark (4).

  

5
NCERT Hot Spot Chapter-16

Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005


Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NCERT HOT SPOT - 16


ANSWERS
ZOOLOGY

1. (2) 16. (4) 31. (3)


2. (4) 17. (1) 32. (2)
3. (3) 18. (3) 33. (1)
4. (3) 19. (4) 34. (2)
5. (3) 20. (3) 35. (3)
6. (1) 21. (2) 36. (2)
7. (1) 22. (2) 37. (1)
8. (4) 23. (4) 38. (1)
9. (4) 24. (2) 39. (2)
10. (4) 25. (4) 40. (4)
11. (2) 26. (4) 41. (4)
12. (2) 27. (3) 42. (2)
13. (2) 28. (2) 43. (2)
14. (2) 29. (4) 44. (2)
15. (4) 30. (2) 45. (2)

  

(1)

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