X SCIENCE SET-A (24_NOV)
Class 10 - Science
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is
Chemistry and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A
student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
Biology
1. For evolution to occur in a population, which of the following must happen? [1]
i. The frequencies of some alleles in an organism's genotypes must change during its lifetime.
ii. The frequencies of each allele in an organism's genotype must remain constant within its
lifetime.
iii. The frequencies of some alleles in a population’s gene pool must change over successive
generations.
iv. The frequencies of each allele in a population's gene pool must remain constant over
successive generations.
a) Statement (i) is correct. b) Statement (ii) is correct.
c) Statement (iii) is correct. d) Statement (vi) is correct.
2. What does the given flow chart represent? [1]
a) Both Unidirectional energy flow and b) Lindeman's law
Lindeman's law
c) Unidirectional energy flow d) Biomagnification
3. Instead of water, we use glycerine as a mounting medium: [1]
a) To clean the material b) To colour the material
c) To prevent the material from drying d) To enlarge the material
4. Which one of the endocrine gland is known as a master gland? [1]
a) Pituitary b) Thyroid
c) Parathyroid d) Adrenal
5. Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in [1]
a) Cytoplasm b) Ribosome
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c) Genes d) Golgi bodies
6. Which of the following was not the outcome of Mendel’s experiments? [1]
a) Factors reside in chromosomes b) Dominant trait
c) Independent assortment d) Segregation of factors
7. Which one of the following is not a natural ecosystem? [1]
a) Cropland ecosystem b) Forest ecosystem
c) Grassland ecosystem d) Pond ecosystem
8. Assertion (A): Haemodialysis can save the life of patients with kidney failure. [1]
Reason (R): Waste products like urea can be removed from the blood by haemodialysis.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
9. Assertion (A): The effect of auxin hormone on the root is exactly opposite to that on a stem. [1]
Reason (R): Auxin hormone increases the rate of growth of cells in the same organ that
perceives a particular type of stimulus.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
10. a. State one drawback of each of the following: [2]
I. Oral contraceptive pills
II. Copper-T
b. Under which category of contraceptive methods, is the use of condom kept? In what way, its
use is better as compared to other methods of contraception?
11. Some plants like pea plants have tendrils which help them to climb up other plants. Explain how [2]
is it done. Name the plant hormone responsible for this movement.
OR
Why is Mendel known as father of genetics?
12. How much energy will be available to hawk in the food chain comprising hawk, snakes, paddy [2]
and mice if 10000 J of energy are available to paddy from the sun?
13. Study the fig (a) and (b). What difference you observe in the figure (b)? Give a justified reason for [3]
your answer.
14. Differentiate between exocrine gland and endocrine gland. [3]
15. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The modes by which various organisms reproduce depend on the body design of the organisms.
In asexual reproduction, a single individual parent produces offsprings without the involvement
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of gametes. This method is a common means of increasing the offsprings rapidly under
favourable conditions. Asexual reproduction occurs mostly in unicellular organisms, some plants
and certain simple multicellular animals.
i. State the name of the organism in which binary fission takes place in a definite orientation.
Also name the disease caused by this organism. (1)
ii. List any two advantages of producing plants through vegetative propagation. (1)
iii. Explain the process of budding in Hydra. (2)
OR
What happens when (2)
I. a spirogyra filament matures and attains a considerable length, and
II. a sporangia in Rhizopus bursts on maturation?
16. Answer the following: [5]
i. Which plant did Mendel choose for his hybridisation experiment and why?
ii. List two contrasting visible characters of garden pea Mendel used for his experiment?
iii. Explain the Laws derived by Mendel from his experiment?
OR
a. What is variation? How is variation created in a population? How does the creation of variation in a
species promote survival?
b. Explain how, offspring and parents of organisms reproducing sexually have the same number of
chromosomes.
Chemistry
17. Select the incorrect match(es). [1]
i. Burning of magnesium ribbon - Combination reaction
ii. Action of carbon dioxide on quick lime - Combination reaction
iii. Exposure of silver bromide to light - Decomposition reaction
iv. Addition of zinc to dilute sulphuric acid - Double displacement reaction
v. Addition of an acid to a base to form a salt - single displacement reaction
a) (i) and (iii) only b) (ii), (iii) and (v) only
c) (v) only d) (iv) and (v) only
18. The soap molecule has a [1]
a) hydrophilic head and a hydrophilic tail b) hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic
tail
c) hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic d) hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic
tail tail
19. Which among the following is not a base? [1]
a) KOH b) C2H5 OH
c) NaOH d) NH4OH
20. Select the incorrect match. [1]
a) A metal extracted by using electrolytic b) A metal unreactive towards oxygen
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reduction - Aluminium and dilute acids - Gold
c) A metal used in joining electric wires - d) A metal whose oxide is soluble in
Magnesium both acids and bases - Zinc
21. Fatty foods become rancid because of [1]
A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Reaction with Hydrogen
D. Reaction with oxygen
a) A and C b) B and C
c) A and D d) All of these
22. Which of the following represents a saponification reaction? [1]
a) CH3COOH + C2H5OH b) CH COONa + NaOH −−→ CH +
CaO
3 4
H2 SO4
−−−−→ CH3COO2H5 Na2CO3
c) 2CH3COOH + 2Na → 2CH3COONa + d) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → CH3COONa
H2 + C2H5OH
23. Bleaching powder is treated with CO2: [1]
a) CaCO3 and Cl2 are formed. b) It absorbs the gas.
c) CaCl2 is formed. d) CaO is formed.
24. Assertion (A): Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points. [1]
Reason (R): A large amount of energy is required to break the strong inter-ionic attraction in
ionic compounds.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
25. Balance the following chemical equations and state whether they are exothermic or [2]
endothermic.
i. N a + H2 O → N aOH + H2
ii. F eSO4 → F e 2 O3 + S O2 + S O3
26. i. Where do compounds of carbon find applications? [3]
ii. Give three characteristic properties of covalent compounds.
OR
An organic compound 'X' which is sometimes used as an antifreeze has the molecular formula
C2H6O. On oxidation 'X' gives 'Y' which gives effervescence with sodium bicarbonate solution. What
can 'X' and 'Y' be? Write their structural formula.
27. Does Tartaric acid helps in making cake or bread fluffy. Justify. [3]
28. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Non-metals are highly electronegative in nature. They have a tendency to gain electrons in their
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valence shell to achieve nearest noble gas configuration. Thus, they form anions and act as good
oxidising agents.
− n−
X + ne → X
(non−metal atom) (anion)
They react with air or oxygen on heating to form oxides which react with water to form acids.
Thus, non-metal oxides are acidic in nature. Non-metals do not react with dilute acids at all. This
is because they are electronegative and therefore, cannot displace hydrogen from acids but they
form covalent hydrides when heated with hydrogen.
i. What happens when sulphur trioxide reacts with water? (1)
ii. Why non-metals are electronegative in nature? (1)
iii. Why non-metals generally act as oxidising agents? (2)
OR
Why do non-metals not react with dilute acids? (2)
29. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions: [5]
(i) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide → Calcium carbonate + Water
(ii) Zinc + Silver nitrate → Zinc nitrate + Silver
(iii) Aluminum + Copper chloride → Aluminium chloride +Copper
(iv) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate → Barium sulphate + potassium chloride
(v) Lead acetate + Dil. Hydrochloric acid → Lead chloride + Acetic acid
OR
Compound 'A', when dissolved in water, gives compound 'B' and liberates heat. Compound 'A' is used
in whitewashing. Compound 'B' reacts with CO2 to form a white precipitate of compound 'C'. Identify
compounds 'A', 'B' and 'C' Also write the equations involved.
Physics
30. When a beam of white light passes through a region having very fine dust particles, the colour of [1]
light mainly scattered in that region is:
a) Orange b) Yellow
c) Blue d) Red
31. Two wires are placed in parallel; repulsion force and current in these two wires are f and I [1]
respectively. What will be a force if the current is doubled in each wire?
a) b) 2f
f
c) 4f d)
2f
32. Assertion (A): Light travels faster in air than in glass. [1]
Reason (R): Air is denser than glass.
a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) A is false but R is true.
d) A is true but R is false.
33. An electric kettle is rated at (1000 W - 220 V). [2]
i. What is the resistance of its element when in use?
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ii. What is the safe value of current that can pass through its element?
34. Parthiv with normal near point (25 cm) reads a book with small print using a magnifying glass, a [2]
thin convex lens of focal length 5 cm. What are the closest and farthest distances at which he can
read the book viewing through the magnifying glass?
OR
The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. What is the nature and power of the
lens required to correct the problem.
35. i. Why does a magnetic compass needle pointing North and South in the absence of a nearby [3]
magnet get deflected when a bar magnet or a current-carrying loop is brought near it.
Describe some salient features of magnetic lines of field concept.
ii. Describe the activity that shows that a current-carrying conductor experiences a force
perpendicular to its length and the external magnetic field. How does Fleming’s left-hand rule
help us to find the direction of the force acting on the current-carrying conductor?
36. Distinguish between real image and virtual image. [3]
37. Should the resistance of an ammeter be low or high? Give reason. [3]
38. The diagram shows how a human eye sees a candle. [4]
i. What is X?
ii. Which part of the eye produces maximum refraction of light rays?
a. Lens
b. Pupil
c. Retina
d. Cornea
iii. What type of image is formed on the retina?
a. Virtual and inverted
b. Real and inverted
c. Virtual and erect
d. Real and erect
iv. What would the size of the image formed on the retina depend on?
a. Age of the person
b. Curvature of the lens
c. focal length of the lens
d. Distance of the candle from the eyes
39. What is an electromagnet? Upon what factors its strength depends? [5]
OR
Explain house hold electric circuits. What are their relative advantages?
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