SCIENCE – Code no.

086
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER*
CLASS – X (2025-26)
Max. Marks: 80 Time Allowed: 3 hours
General Instructions:
(i) This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology,
Section B is Chemistry and Section C is Physics.
(ii) All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some
questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.

Section – A Marks

1 Select the group in which all organisms have the same mode of nutrition. 1
A. Cuscuta, yeast, legumes, leeches and tapeworm
B. Cactus, ticks, lice, leeches and cow
C. Cuscuta, ticks, lice, leeches and tapeworm
D. Cactus, grass, lice, lion and tapeworm

2 Which of the following options indicates the products formed after breakdown 1
of the glucose in our muscle cells when there is lack of oxygen?
A. Ethanol + carbon dioxide + Energy
B. Lactic acid + Energy
C. Lactic acid + carbon monoxide + Energy
D. Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy

3 Which of the following is a correct combination of function and part of the 1

brain?
A. Posture and balance: Cerebrum
B. Salivation: Medulla in midbrain
C. Hunger: Pons in hindbrain
D. Blood pressure: Medulla in hindbrain

4 The blood glucose level in a patient was very high. It may be due to 1
inadequate secretion of:
A. growth hormone from pituitary gland
B. oestrogen from ovary
C. insulin from pituitary gland
D. insulin from pancreas

5 In a cross between black furred rabbit (B) and white furred rabbit (b), all 1
offspring were found to have black fur. What can be inferred about the genetic
makeup of the parent rabbits?
A. BB X bb
B. Bb X Bb
C. Bb X bb
D. bb X bb
*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
6 Which are the correct statements related to ozone? 1
(i) Ozone layer helps in increasing the UV radiations reaching earth.
(ii) Ozone is a deadly poison.
(iii) Ozone layer shields the earth from UV radiations.
(iv) Ozone layer prevents UV rays which cause skin cancer.
(v) Ozone is formed with the help of Chloroflurocarbons.

A. (i), (ii), (iii)

B. (ii), (iii), (iv)
C. (iii), (iv), (v)
D. (i), (iv), (v)

7 Which of the following human activities has resulted in an increase of non- 1

biodegradable substances?
A. Organic farming
B. Increase in tree plantation
C. Use of plastic as packaging material
D. Composting of kitchen waste

The following two questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

8 Assertion (A): Tallness of a pea plant is controlled by an enzyme. 1

Reason (R): The gene for that enzyme makes proteins which help the plant to
be tall.

9 Assertion (A): Vulture will always have the least amount of pesticides in a food 1
chain.
Reason (R): Vulture occupies the last trophic level and it gets only 10% of
energy of the previous trophic level.

10 Unlike animals, plants do not have any excretory products as they do not eat 2
food. Comment upon the statement with justification.

11 Students to attempt either option A or B. 2

A. How many chambers are there in the heart of the following organisms?
How is mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood prevented in their
body?
(i) Fishes
(ii) Humans
OR
B. Explain the mechanism by which the water is transported in plants?

12 About 100 acres of forest land was declared as Natural reserve park. The 2
following organisms were predominant in the Natural reserve park:

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 rabbit, frog, grass, fish, fox, water insects, zebra, peacock, snake, trees, bird,
owl, insects, tiger, vulture, duck.
Create a food web comprising two separate food chains with different
producers by using the above data.

13 Draw and explain how the nerve cells help in transmission of impulses? 3

14 In a genetic experiment, plants with pure round green seeds (RRyy) were 3
crossed with plants with wrinkled yellow seeds (rrYY).
(i) Show the gametes formed when F1 was self-pollinated.
(ii) A total of 144 seeds were produced which developed into saplings.
Show the ratio in which these traits are independently inherited in
these144 sapling.

15 Neha consumed boiled sweet potatoes and boiled eggs for breakfast. Help her 4
to understand some steps in the process of digestion of the food taken by her
by answering the questions given below.
Attempt either subpart A or B.
A. Which of these food items is rich in proteins? In which part of the
alimentary canal is the digestion of this component initiated? Name the
enzymes, conditions required and the glands associated with the
digestion here.
OR
B. Which of these food items contains fats? How is it digested?
C. Which of these food items is rich in starch? How is its digestion initiated?
D. The figure given below represents parts of the human alimentary canal.
Which of these parts will have the maximum amount of digested food as
soon as the process of digestion is completed?

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 For visually impaired students
D. How will the digested food be taken up by the alimentary canal?

16 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A. Puneet wanted to grow banana plants.
(i) Based on your knowledge on plant reproduction should he opt for seeds
or any alternate method of reproduction. Justify your answer.
(ii) Offsprings of a banana plant usually show very little variation. What
causes variation and are variations good or bad? Justify.
OR
B. Annie was conducting research on the number of fruits produced by
watermelon under different conditions. She grew 25 watermelon plants
each in both glass house A and B. She introduced pollinators in glass
house A only.
(i) What difference will she observe in the number of fruits produced in the
two glass houses? Explain with reason.
(ii) List 3 changes that will occur in a flower once it gets fertilized.

Section – B

17 Which of the following equations represent redox reactions and what are the
values for ‘p’ and ‘q’ in these equations? 1
Equation 1: Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) Al2O3 (s) + p Fe(l) + heat
Equation 2: 2C4H10(g) + 13O2(g) △ 8CO2(g)+ q H2O(g)
A. Only equation 1 is a redox reaction, p =1 and q=3
B. Both equations 1 and 2 are redox reactions, p= 2 and q=4
C. Only equation 2 is a redox reaction, p= 2 and q= 10
D. Both equations 1 and 2 are redox reactions, p= 2 and q=10

18 Four statements about the reactions of oxides with dilute hydrochloric acid and
aqueous sodium hydroxide are listed. 1
I. Aluminium oxide reacts with both dilute hydrochloric acid and aqueous
sodium hydroxide.
II. Calcium oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid and aqueous sodium
hydroxide.
III. Zinc oxide reacts with both dilute hydrochloric acid and aqueous sodium
hydroxide.
IV. Sulphur dioxide does not react with either dilute hydrochloric acid or
aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Which statements are correct?
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III and IV

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
19 An iron nail is added to each of the two test tubes ‘P’ and ‘Q’ containing
aqueous copper (II) sulphate, and aqueous silver nitrate respectively. Which of 1
the following observation is correct?
A. In test tube ‘P’ iron nail is coated with a blue coating and in test tube ‘Q’
there is no reaction.
B. Iron nail is coated with a brown coating in test tube ‘P’ and silver coating
in test tube ‘Q’.
C. There is no reaction in either of the test tubes ‘P’ or ‘Q’.
D. There is no reaction in test tube ‘P’ but a silver coating on iron nail is
seen in test tube ‘Q’.

20 Methyl orange is added to dilute hydrochloric acid and to aqueous sodium

hydroxide. What is the colour of the methyl orange in each solution? 1

Sample colour in dilute colour in aqueous

hydrochloric acid sodium hydroxide
A Orange Red
B Red Yellow
C Red Orange
D Yellow Red

21 Which of the following substances when dissolved in equal volume of water,

will have the highest pH value? 1
A. Sulphuric acid
B. Acetic acid
C. Magnesium hydroxide
D. Sodium hydroxide

22 When excess of carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, the milkiness
disappears because 1
A. water soluble calcium carbonate converts to water soluble calcium
bicarbonate.
B. insoluble calcium carbonate converts to water soluble calcium
bicarbonate.
C. water soluble calcium carbonate converts to insoluble calcium
bicarbonate.
D. insoluble calcium carbonate converts to insoluble calcium bicarbonate.

23 In the reaction of aqueous solution of barium chloride with aqueous solution of 1

sodium sulphate, the aqueous solution formed will be:
A. BaCl2
B. BaSO4
C. Na2SO4
D. NaCl

The following question consists of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

24 Assertion (A): C4H8, C4H6 and C4H10 are members of the same homologous 1
series
Reason (R): C4H8, C4H6, C3H4, C3H6, C2H4, C2H2 are unsaturated
hydrocarbons.

25 The following activity is set-up in the science lab by the teacher. 2

He clamped an aluminium wire on a stand and fixed a pin to the free end of
the wire using wax. Then he heated the wire with a burner from the end where
the wire is clamped. Students observed the pin fall off.

A. If the teacher replaces aluminium wire by silver wire, will the students’
observation change? Justify your answer.
B. Will the aluminium wire melt? Give reason for your answer.

26 Attempt either option A or B.

3
A. An element ‘X’ is stored in kerosene, and cannot be extracted from its ore
using a reducing agent. ‘X’ forms an ionic compound on reaction with
chlorine.
(i) Can we store ‘X’ in water? Give reason to support your answer.
(ii) Identify element ‘X’. Name the process used and write the equation for
extraction of ‘X’ from its ore.
OR
B. The domes of many building in Europe are made of copper. These domes
now appear greenish in colour.
(i) Why do the domes appear greenish though copper is orange-red in
colour?
(ii) In your opinion, should the copper domes be replaced by iron domes to
overcome the problem of change of colour of copper domes?
(iii) Domes used to be made from thin sheets of metals. Why did the ancient
architects use copper to make domes?

27 Amrita electrolysed distilled water using the set-up shown in figure 1. She was 3
expecting two gases to be evolved at the anode and cathode respectively

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 Fig.1
Suddenly, she realised that the bulb in the circuit did not glow when she used
distilled water (figure 2)

Fig. 2
After this realization, she added a substance to the distilled water for
electrolysis to take place.
Answer the following questions based on the information given above:
A. Which gas was she expecting to be formed at the anode and which one
at the cathode respectively?
B. Why did the bulb not glow when Amrita passed electricity through
distilled water?
C. Which substance was added by Amrita to distilled water to get the
expected result?
-------------------
For visually impaired students
Identify the type of reaction:
A. ZnO + C Zn + CO
B. ZnCO3 heat ZnO + CO2
C. 2Mg + O2 2 MgO + heat

28 Sara took 2 mL of dilute NaOH solution in a test tube and added two drops of 4
phenolphthalein solution to it. The solution turned pink in colour. She added
dilute H2SO4 to the above solution drop by drop until the solution in the test
tube became colourless. 40 drops of dilute H2SO4 were used for the change in

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 colour from pink to colourless. When Sara added a drop of NaOH to the
solution, the colour changed to back to pink again.
Sara now tried the activity with different volumes of NaOH and recorded her
observation in the table given below:

S. No. Volume of dil. Drops of dil.

NaOH taken (mL) H2SO4 used
1 2 20
2 3 30
3 4 40
Answer the following questions based on the above information:
A. If Sara used concentrated H2SO4 in place of dilute H2SO4, how many drops
will be required for the change in colour to be observed?
(a) 40
(b) < 40
(c) >40
Justify your answer.
B. Sara measured 20 drops of dil. H2SO4 and found its volume to be 1 mL. If
Sara observed a change in colour of NaoH solution by using 3 mL of
H2SO4, how many mL of NaOH did she add to the test tube initially?
OR
Sara takes 10 drops of dilute H2SO4 in the test tube and adds two drops of
phenolphthalein solution to it. Then she adds NaOH dropwise. Sara
observes a change in colour after adding 20 drops of NaOH. What change
in colour would she observe and why?
C. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place in the
above experiment. Which of the following is true and why? The reaction is
a
(a) neutralisation and double displacement reaction
(b) neutralisation and precipitation reaction
(c) precipitation and double displacement reaction
(d) neutralisation, double displacement as well as precipitation reaction.

29 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A. A hydrocarbon with the formula CxHy undergoes complete combustion as
shown in the following equation:
2CxHy + 9O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O.
(a) What are the values of ‘x’ and ‘y’?
(b) Give the chemical (IUPAC) name of the hydrocarbon.
(c) Draw its electron dot structure.
(d) Name the alcohol which on heating with conc. H2SO4 will produce the
above hydrocarbon CxHy.

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 (e) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction of CxHy with
hydrogen gas in presence of Nickel.
OR
B. The electronic structures of atoms P and Q are shown below

Based on the information given above, answer the following questions:

(a) If P and Q combine to form a compound, what type of bond is formed
between them?
(b) Give the chemical formula of the compound formed.
(c) The compound so formed is dissolved in water. Is the resultant solution
acidic or basic in nature? Justify your answer.
(d) Write the chemical equation for the reaction between ‘Q’ and ethanol.
(e) What will be the formula of the compound formed when ‘P’ undergoes
bonding with carbon?
-------------------
For visually impaired students
A. A hydrocarbon with the formula CxHy undergoes complete combustion as
shown in the following equation:
2CxHy + 9O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O.
(a) What are the values of ‘x’ and ‘y’?
(b) Give the chemical (IUPAC) name of the hydrocarbon.
(c) Is CxHy a saturated or an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
(d) Name the alcohol which on heating with conc. H2SO4 will produce the
above hydrocarbon CxHy.
(e) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction of CxHy with
hydrogen gas in presence of Nickel.
OR
B. Oxygen can combine with both metals and non-metals. It combines with
Calcium to form CaO and with carbon to form CO2.
(a) What type of bond is formed between carbon and oxygen?
(b) Identify the type of bond formed between Calcium and oxygen.
(c) Which of the above compounds will be a good conductor of electricity
in molten state and why?
(d) Comment on the physical state (solid, liquid or gas) of CaO and CO2.
(e) What is the valency of carbon in CO2?

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 Section – C

Arnav was making notes and he wrote down the following statements from his 1
30
understanding of reflection from curved surfaces.
I. Concave mirrors can produce both real and virtual images depending on
the position of the object.
II. Convex mirrors always produce real, inverted images regardless of the
object’s position.
III. In both concave and convex mirrors, the image location can be
1 1 1
determined using the mirror formula = + where f is the focal length,
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢
v is the image distance, and u is the object distance.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements
about reflection from curved surfaces.
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II and III
D. I and III

31 Choose the correct option from the below which explains the reason for us to 1
perceive the day sky as blue.
A. As sunlight passes through the atmosphere, shorter wavelengths, such
as blue are scattered more than other colors.
B. The sky appears blue because all colors are scattered equally, but
blue light is stronger and more visible to the human eye.
C. The blue color of the sky is due to longer wavelengths like red and
orange scattering more than shorter wavelengths, making blue stand
out more.
D. The atmosphere contains blue-colored particles that give the sky its
blue appearance.

The following question consists of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

32 Assertion (A): A point object is placed at a distance of 26 cm from a convex 1

mirror of focal length 26 cm. The image will not form at infinity.
1 1 1
Reason (R): For above given system the equation 𝑓 = 𝑣 + 𝑢 gives v = ∞.

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
33 2

The above image shows the formation of an image with an optical instrument.
A. Identify the optical instrument (shown schematically as a rectangle) in
the image.
B. What type of image is formed in this case?
C. Based on the measurements given in the image, calculate the focal
length of the instrument.
--------------
For visually impaired students
A. Under what conditions can a convex lens form a virtual image?
B. Why does a piece of paper catch fire if we allow sunlight to pass
through a convex lens onto the paper?

34 Attempt either option A or B. 2

A.

Find out the following in the electric circuit given in the figure-
(i) Effective resistance of two 8 ohm resistors in the combination.
(ii) Current flowing through the 4-ohm resistor
OR

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 B.

Study the circuit and find out-

(i) Current in 12 ohm resistor
(ii) Difference in the readings of ammeter A1 and A2 if any
--------------
For visually impaired students
A. You are given four resistors each having resistance of R ohm. Find the
maximum and minimum resistance that can be made with these four
resistors.
OR
B. A copper wire has a length L=2 m, a cross-sectional area A=0.5 mm2, and
resistivity ρ=1.7×10−8 Ω-m. Calculate the resistance of another wire made
of the same material whose length is twice the length of the wire but has
the same cross-sectional area.

35 3

The above image shows a corrective measure for a particular defect of vision.
(i) Identify the defect of vision and state what kind of lens is used to correct
this deficiency.
(ii) Draw and label a ray diagram that shows the defect of vision in the above
case before correction.
--------------
For visually impaired students
(i) What is dispersion of light?
*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 (ii) Explain the condition under which dispersion happens?
(iii) Give one reason that causes presbyopia.

36 A student needs to make a 0.12 Ω resistor. She has some copper wire of 0.80 3
mm diameter. Resistivity of copper is 1.8 × 10–8 Ωm
(i) Determine the cross-sectional area of the wire.
(ii) Calculate the length of wire required for the 0.12 Ω resistor.

37 Magnetic field lines are shown in the given diagram. A student makes a 3
statement that the magnetic field at X is stronger than at Y.
(i) Explain with reason if the student’s claim is correct.
(ii) Also redraw the diagram and mark the direction of magnetic field lines.

38 4

The above image is that of a Digital Single Lense Reflector (DSLR) Camera
which are used to take high resolution photographs by professional
photographers. The second image of the above two is a schematic diagram of
how an image is formed on the sensor of the camera. Based on your
understanding of the lenses, answer the following questions.
A. What type of lens is used in the DSLR camera shown in the image?
B. What type of image is formed on the sensor?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. A photographer is using a DSLR camera with a lens of focal length
f=50 mm to take a close-up photograph of a small object. The lens
projects an image onto the camera sensor that is located 60 mm behind
the lens. Calculate the object distance (i.e., the distance between the
object and the lens).

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 OR
D. A photographer is using a DSLR camera to take a picture of a flower.
The flower is positioned 150 mm away from the camera lens. The actual
height of the flower is 80 mm, and the image height formed on the
camera’s sensor is measured to be 20 mm. Calculate the focal length of
the camera lens.
For visually impaired students
Zarina worked as an apprentice in a factory where flashlights and solar cookers
are made. She learnt to make the circuits, the design of the light-box and light
concentrators of the solar cookers as well. She learnt the uses of lenses in
making all those tools. Based on your understanding of lenses, answer the
following questions.
A. What kind of lenses are used in the flashlight and light concentrator of the
solar-cooker?
B. Give reasons for your choices in your answer for part A.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. An object is placed 40 cm away from a lens which is normally used in a
solar-cooker. The image formed is twice the size of the object. Calculate
the focal length of the lens.
OR
D. An object is placed 20 cm in front of a lens which is used in a flashlight,
and the image is formed 10 cm away from the lens on the same side as
the object. Calculate the focal length of the lens.

39 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A.

The arrangement of resistors shown in the above figure is connected to a

battery.;
The power dissipation in the 100 Ω resistor is 81 W. Calculate
(i) the current in the circuit
(ii) the reading in the voltmeter V2
(iii) the reading in the voltmeter V1

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 OR
B.

An electric heater consists of three similar heating elements A, B and C,

connected as shown in the figure above. Each heating element is rated as 1.2
kW, 240 V and has constant resistance. S1, S2 and S3 are respective
switches.
The circuit is connected to a 240 V supply.
(i) Calculate the resistance of one heating element.
(ii) Calculate the current in each resistor when only S1 and S3 are
closed.
(iii) Calculate the power dissipated across A when S1, S2 and S3 are
closed.
--------------
For visually impaired students
A.
(i) Explain why in household circuits only the fuse is connected in series
with all the rest of the appliances but all appliances are connected in
parallel to each other.
(ii) In a household circuit, an electric heater of power 1500 Wand a fan of
power 500 W are connected in parallel to a 220 V supply. A fuse rated
for 10 A is connected to the circuit to protect it from excessive current.
(a) Calculate the total current drawn by the heater and the fan.
(b) Determine whether the 10 A fuse is appropriate for this circuit or
if it will blow.
OR
B. Two resistors, R1=6 Ω and R2=12 Ω, are connected in parallel to a 24V
battery. The circuit operates for 5 minutes.
(i) Calculate the total heat generated in both resistors.
(ii) If each resistor has a power rating of 100 W, determine whether it is safe
to use these resistors in the circuit.

***********

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE - Code No. 184
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS-X- (2025-26)

Time allowed: 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
Read the instructions carefully and follow them:

1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.

2. The question paper contains THREE sections –
Section – A: Reading Skills
Section – B: Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section – C: Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each Part.

SECTION A
READING SKILLS (20 marks)

1. Read the following passage. 10

1 The growing preference for indigenous craft items is a welcome trend in today’s globalised
world, where mass-produced goods often dominate markets. These handcrafted
products, rooted in the cultural and artistic traditions of their regions, offer more than just
aesthetic appeal. They symbolise sustainability, support local economies, and preserve
the heritage of diverse communities.

2 One of the primary reasons for choosing indigenous crafts is their eco-friendliness. Unlike
factory-made products, most traditional crafts are created using natural, locally sourced
materials. Artisans often employ time-tested methods that minimise waste and avoid
harmful industrial processes. For example, pottery made from local clay, handwoven
textiles using organic dyes, and bamboo-based crafts all have a much lower
environmental footprint compared to their machine-made counterparts. By opting for these
items, consumers indirectly contribute to reducing pollution and promoting sustainable
practices.

3 Supporting indigenous crafts also strengthens local economies. Many artisans depend
solely on their craft for livelihood, often working in small communities where opportunities
for other forms of employment are limited. When people purchase their products, it
provides a direct income to these artisans, empowering them and encouraging their
craftsmanship. Initiatives like fair trade further ensure that artisans receive fair wages,
fostering economic stability within their communities.

4 Moreover, indigenous craft items help preserve cultural heritage. Every handcrafted
product carries a story—a glimpse into the traditions, beliefs, and skills passed down
through generations. In India, whether it’s paintings, terracotta jewellery, sculptures,
athangudi tiles, mud work frames or many others, each item reflects the unique identity of

1
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the
current session i.e. 2025-26
 its region. By choosing these crafts, people not only appreciate the artistry but also help
keep these traditions alive in an era where cultural homogenisation threatens diversity.

5 In addition to their economic and cultural value, indigenous crafts add a personal touch to
homes and wardrobes. Unlike mass-produced items, which often lack individuality,
handcrafted products are unique. Each piece bears the imprint of the artisan’s effort,
creativity, and dedication, making it special for the buyer.

6 However, the preference for indigenous crafts requires sustained efforts to thrive.
Governments, organisations, and consumers all have roles to play. Policies that promote
local craftsmanship, provide training to artisans, and create global platforms for
showcasing their work can boost the visibility and demand for these products. Consumers,
too, must actively seek out and invest in handmade crafts rather than opting for cheaper,
factory-made alternatives. Choosing indigenous craft items is a meaningful step toward a
more sustainable and culturally enriched world.
Created for academic usage / 403 words
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

I Why is the growing preference for indigenous craft items described as a ‘welcome 1
trend’ in paragraph 1?

II According to paragraph 1, the indigenous craft items have all of the following 1
qualities EXCEPT being:

A. handcrafted products
B. rooted in artistic traditions
C. aesthetic in appeal
D. easily accessible

III Complete the following by selecting the correct option from those given in the 1
brackets.
The usage of locally sourced materials makes the indigenous crafts ________
(traditional / eco-friendly). (Paragraph 2)

IV Select the option that is True from (a)-(c) given for what the phrase, ‘time-tested 1
methods’ suggests in paragraph 2.

A. Artisans use traditional techniques that have been refined and proven effective
over generations
B. Artisans use outdated practices that are no longer relevant in today's
commercial markets.
C. Artisans follow techniques that prioritise speed and mass production over
craftsmanship.

V Complete the analogy by selecting one of the two correct options (a), (b) 1
fair trade: fair wages:: _______ : _______ (Paragraph 3)

(a) employment: job security (b) mass production : reduced prices

2
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the
current session i.e. 2025-26
 VI Why is supporting indigenous crafts considered an effective way to improve the 2
economic conditions of small communities? (Paragraph 3)
VII What are the main ideas of paragraph 4 and paragraph 5?
1
i) Choosing indigenous crafts helps preserve cultural heritage
ii) Handcrafted products lack individuality.
iii) Indigenous crafts reflect the artisan’s creativity.
iv) Indigenous crafts promote uniformity by erasing regional differences in artistic
traditions.
v) Cultural homogenisation encourages people to choose indigenous crafts over
mass-produced goods.
Select the correct option.

Options Main idea of paragraph 4 Main idea of paragraph 5

A. ii iv
B. v ii
C. i iii
D. iv ii

VIII Why is it important for consumers to take an active role alongside government 2
and organisations in sustaining indigenous crafts? (Paragraph 6)

2. Read the following passage. 10

1 A recent study conducted across two age groups—students aged 10–12 and 13–16—
explored their preferences for ballpoint and micro-tip pens for various writing activities
such as note-taking, examinations, and personal writing. The study aimed to understand
trends in writing habits and the factors influencing pen selection among students.
2 The results revealed distinct patterns based on age groups and writing purposes. Among
students aged 10–12, 65% preferred ballpoint pens for note-taking, citing ease of use and
affordability as key factors. However, 35% opted for micro-tip pens, valuing their precision
and smooth writing. For examinations, ballpoint pens were the overwhelming choice, with
78% favouring them for their speed and reliability, while 22% stuck with micro-tip pens,
appreciating their fine control.

3 In the 13–16 age group, preferences shifted slightly. For note-taking, 60% favoured micro-
tip pens, highlighting their ability to produce neat, legible notes, while 40% continued to
use ballpoint pens. During examinations, however, 70% still relied on ballpoint pens,
indicating their consistency under time constraints. When it came to personal writing, such
as journalling or creative tasks, 58% in this group chose micro-tip pens, appreciating the
aesthetic appeal of finer lines, while 42% stuck with ballpoint pens for their convenience.
4 These findings point to the importance of understanding age-specific preferences and
task requirements, enabling manufacturers to innovate products. Manufacturers could
further explore incorporating hybrid features, such as pens offering the speed of ballpoint
pens with the precision of micro-tip pens, to cater to a wider range of student preferences.
Created for academic usage / 250 words

3
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the
current session i.e. 2025-26
 Answer the following questions, based on the passage above

I Why did the study most likely focus on the two specific age groups of 10–12 and 1
13–16? (Paragraph 1)
This is so because these age groups ____.
A. represent the largest population of growing students.
B. are when students develop and refine their writing habits.
C. were the easiest to survey across various schools.
D. have a natural preference for ballpoint pens.

II Identify the phrase in paragraph 1 that conveys the writer's reference to the 1
patterns or preferences observed in how students use pens for various writing
tasks.

III Complete the following by selecting the correct option from those given in the 1
brackets. (Paragraph 2)
Geetha, aged 11, wishes to complete her practical file neatly, ensuring her work is
legible and appealing. She is most likely to choose a micro-tip pen for this task
because the ________ (speed / precision) offered by this type of pen helps
produce tidy work.

IV What does the writer mean by ‘affordability’ while citing the high percentage of ball 1
point pen usage? (Paragraph 2)

V Complete the following with the correct option.

1
When the writer says ‘distinct patterns’ in the line ‘The results revealed distinct
patterns based on age groups and writing purposes,’ of paragraph 3, s/he means
that _______.
A. students in both age groups use pens in the same way for all the listed purposes.
B. the preferences for pens varied according to the students' age and the type of
writing task.
C. only micro-tip pens were popular across all writing tasks in the 13-16 age group.
D. students of all age groups preferred ballpoint pens for completing creative
writing tasks.

VI Complete the following appropriately.

The one likely reason why more than 40% of students still chose ballpoint pens for 1
creative tasks, even though micro-tip pens are better suited for such activities is
_____________________. (Paragraph 3)

VII How are ‘aesthetic appeal’ and ‘finer lines’ connected? (Paragraph 3) 1

VIII Elaborate how hybrid features in pens would lead to a commercially viable product.
(Paragraph 4) 2

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current session i.e. 2025-26
 IX Fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. (Paragraph 4) 1
Understanding age-specific preferences helps manufacturers design products that
cater to the unique needs of different age groups, ensuring their products are both
________ as well as appealing.

SECTION B: WRITING SKILLS & GRAMMAR (20 marks)

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete any ten of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

I Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket for the given 1
portion of a market research:
The special subscriptions of newspapers are well _____(illustrate), to make
reading interesting for school students.
II Identify the error and write the correction in the given sentence from a life skills’ 1
book.
The road to success is not the bed of roses.
Use the given format.
Error Correction

III Fill in the blank with the correct form of verb given in the brackets. 1
I’m so happy to see my plants again! They _____ (grow) so much since I last saw
them.
IV Read the given statement. 1
They said to the guide, “We’d love to come here again next year.”

Report it correctly by completing the following.

They told the guide that _____.

V Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the conclusion of a 1
letter of placing order.
There would be no compromise _________the quality of items supplied.
A. regards
B. regard
C. regardless
D. regarding
VI Report the following by completing the sentence correctly. 1
"Don't try mending the trousers yourself," she warned him.
She warned him _____.

5
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the
current session i.e. 2025-26
 VII Complete the given opinion by filling the blank with correct option. 1
The experience of watching the movie left me _____ grateful for knowing the
importance of being empathetic to others.
A. having felt
B. feeling
C. felt
D. feels
VIII The given question has an error. Select the option that correctly identifies the error 1
and the correction.
Which kind of person does something like that?

No. Error Correction

A. Which What
B. kind kinds
C. something somethings
D. that this
1
IX Report the following question.
She said to her sister, “Are you joining us for lunch today?”

X Fill in the blank with the correct option from those given in the brackets. 1
Everyone is saying that Farhana’s chances are bright in the upcoming tournament
and she ______ (must / may) become the youngest football player ever.
XI Fill in the blank to complete the sentence in a teacher’s diary by choosing the 1
correct option.
_____ student in the class submitted their assignment on time.

A. All
B. One
C. Every
D. A

XII Choose the correct option to fill the blank. 1

I looked inside the bucket and saw there was ______water in it, so they had to
add more to use.
A. little
B. any
C. few
D. least

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the
current session i.e. 2025-26
 WRITING
NOTE: All details presented in the questions in writing section are imaginary and created for
assessment purpose.
4A As Vaibhav, the Club in-charge of your school’s Ecology Club, you strongly believe 5
in the importance of starting Eco-Clubs in schools in the rural areas surrounding
your city to promote the preservation and conservation of nature. Write a letter to
the Education Secretary of your city, in about 120 words, highlighting the
significance of ecological awareness and suggesting the need to establish Eco-
Clubs in these schools.
OR

4B As Amitha, the Vice Head Girl of Vidya Mandir, you are aware of the increasing 5
prevalence of cyber-attacks and unauthorised exploitation of systems, networks,
and technologies affecting individuals across all demographics. Write a letter to the
editor of a national daily in about 120 words, stressing the urgent need to promote
digital security among all age groups. Highlight the challenges posed by cyber
threats and propose practical solutions to address this growing issue.
5A You are the President of the Debate Society in your school. Two guest speakers 5
--Mr. Rajan Sharma and Ms. Meera Kapoor, have written to express their interest
in participating in your upcoming debate competition. Below are excerpts from
their letters.
Excerpt 1
...I am thrilled to express my interest in participating as a guest speaker at your
school's debate competition. With over 10 years of experience as a public
speaker and debate coach, I have guided numerous students to success in
national-level competitions. My approach focuses on encouraging critical thinking
and fostering a passion for debating. I have previously spoken at various schools
and universities, often receiving positive feedback for my engaging sessions and
practical insights. I believe my experience and knowledge can inspire and
empower your students to excel in debating.
Best regards
Mr. Rajan Sharma

Excerpt 2:
...It would be a privilege to participate as a guest speaker at your school's
upcoming debate competition. I have participated in international debate
forums and have won accolades for my arguments on global and social issues.
My strength lies in connecting with young audiences and making debates
relevant to real-world scenarios. I also emphasise how debating can improve
public speaking, confidence, and interpersonal skills. I look forward to sharing
my journey and experiences with your students to inspire them to use debating
as a tool for personal growth.
Yours sincerely
Ms. Meera Kapoor
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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the
current session i.e. 2025-26
 Analyse the information in a paragraph, justifying which guest speaker would be
a better choice. Consider factors such as experience, relevance to the topic, and
audience engagement.

OR

5B Jaspreet, class X, is known for her creativity, excellent communication skills, and 5
ability to think outside the box. However, she sometimes struggles with time
management and prefers collaborative efforts over working solo. She has been
assigned an art-integrated project presentation and must choose a partner from
Sunaina, Tabassum, and Alice. Below are the profiles of the three candidates.

Sunaina: Sunaina is highly disciplined and excels in meeting deadlines. She is

known for her strong organisational skills and ability to handle multiple tasks
efficiently. However, she is slightly reserved and prefers working in structured,
predictable environments.

Tabassum: Tabassum is enthusiastic and spontaneous, with a talent for

generating unique ideas. She is an excellent artist and thrives in creative settings.
However, she occasionally struggles to stay focused on tasks and complete them
on time.

Alice: Alice is confident and articulate, with a flair for delivering polished
presentations. She is detail-oriented and ensures that the final product is of high
quality. However, she sometimes prefers to take control and may overlook
collaborative efforts.

Based on the features of each candidate, analyse and decide who would be the
best partner for Jaspreet. Consider aspects such as complementary strengths,
teamwork, and the project's requirements.

SECTION D
LITERATURE TEXTBOOK (40 marks)

6 Read the given extracts A and B and answer ANY ONE of the two. 5

A. He just felt a bit dizzy Then he flapped his wings once and he soared upwards. “Ga, ga,
ga, Ga, ga, ga, Gaw-col-ah,” his mother swooped past him, her wings making a loud noise.
He answered her with another scream. Then his father flew over him screaming. He saw
his two brothers and his sister flying around him curvetting and banking and soaring and
diving. Then he completely forgot that he had not always been able to fly, and commended
himself to dive and soar and curve, shrieking shrilly.
(Two Stories About Flying - First Flight)

I Contradict the view that the young seagull celebrated his maiden flight alone. 2

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the
current session i.e. 2025-26
 II Which of the following statements best explains the young seagull’s 1
experience as he starts flying?
a) The young seagull immediately mastered flying and was no longer afraid.
b) The young seagull gradually gained confidence and joined his family in
the air.
III What can be inferred about the young seagull’s emotional state after flying with 1
his family?

IV Read the following sound and movement words. 1

i) flapped
ii) shrieking
iii) swooped
iv) soared
v) screaming
Select the option that correctly categorises (i) –(v) into sound and movement
words.
No. Sound Movement
A i, ii, v iii, iv
B iv, v i, ii, iii
C ii, v i, iii, iv
D v i, ii, iii, iv

OR

B. Historian: ...You haven’t heard about the Martian invasion of 2040? Tsk, tsk. What do
they teach children nowadays? Well, you know, the invasion never really happened,
because a single book stopped it. What was the book, you ask? A noble encyclopaedia?
A tome about rockets and missiles? A secret file from outer space? No, it was none of
those. It was — but here, let me turn on the historiscope and show you what happened
many centuries ago, in 2040. (She turns on projector, and points it left. Spotlight on
Historian goes out...)
(The Book That saved the Earth)
I What does the pause indicated by the dash in the line ‘It was — but here, let 1
me turn on the historiscope and show you’ convey?
i) a sense of impatience and frustration
ii) a point of suspense and anticipation
iii) a moment of confusion and hesitation
iv) a sudden shift to lightheartedness
v) a reflective moment of deep thought

A. i, ii, v
B. Only ii
C. iii and iv
D. Only v

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the
current session i.e. 2025-26
 II How do the stage directions, such as ‘Historian turns on projector’ and 2
‘Spotlight on Historian goes out,’ contribute to the atmosphere and
understanding of the scene in this part of the play?

III Select the option that correctly completes the following. 1

The Historian dismisses the noble encyclopaedia and rockets because she
wants to _____
a) convey the importance of scientific knowledge and military power in stopping
the invasion.
b) stress the surprising and unexpected nature of the book that stopped the
invasion.
IV What emotion is the Historian most likely conveying with the phrase ‘Tsk, tsk’? 1

7 Read the given extracts A and B and answer ANY ONE of the two. 5

A. He is learning, well behind his desperate eyes,

The epistemology of loss, how to stand up
Knowing what every man must one day know
And most know many days, how to stand up.
(The Ball Poem)
I What emotions are most appropriately conveyed by the phrase ‘desperate 1
eyes’ and ‘epistemology of loss’?

i) despair
ii) anger
iii) frustration
iv) confusion
v) helplessness

Select the correct option.

A. i, iii
B. i, iv, v
C. ii, iii, iv
D. iv, v

II What does the phrase ‘how to stand up’ suggest about the boy’s emotional 2
growth?

III Which phrase from the extract conveys the poet's idea that loss is universal? 1

IV Fill in the blank with a phrase to suitably complete the sentence. 1

The loss of his ball symbolises _______ in life.
OR

B. Or if some time when roaming round,

A noble wild beast greets you,
With black stripes on a yellow ground,
Just notice if he eats you.
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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the
current session i.e. 2025-26
 This simple rule may help you learn
The Bengal Tiger to discern.
(How to tell Wild Animals)
I What does the poet imply by referring to the Bengal Tiger as a ‘noble wild 1
beast’?
A. The tiger is majestic and dignified despite its ferocity.
B. The tiger is kind and considerate toward humans.
C. The tiger has a royal lineage and should be revered.
D. The tiger is a symbol of fear and destruction.

II Complete the following suitably. 1

The word ‘ground’ in the line ‘With black stripes on a yellow ground’ refers to
_____.

III How does the poet use humour in the description of the Bengal Tiger? 2
IV Identify the phrase in the poem that is advisory in nature. 1
8 Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 50 words 4x3=12
each.

I Otters are known for their peculiar behavioural traits. Support this statement 3
with reference to any two traits mentioned in ‘Mijbil the Otter.’

II How does the use of repetition in the poem ‘Amanda!’ highlight the speaker's 3
expectations and Amanda's responses?

III How can Nelson Mandela’s vision of ‘liberating both the oppressed and the 3
oppressor’ be applied in modern-day societies to address issues of inequality
and discrimination? (Nelson Mandela – Long Walk to Freedom)

IV How does the line ‘and then moves on’ reflect the transient nature of the fog 3
thereby contributing to the poem's deeper message about life's
impermanence? (Fog)

V How does Chubukov’s reaction to Lomov’s marriage proposal reflect his 3

priorities and values? (The Proposal)

9 Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2x3=6

I How does ‘The Necklace’ illustrate the significance of honesty as the 3

key element for leading a happy and stress-free life?

II Briefly evaluate the validity of the adage ‘Values are caught, not taught’, in the 3
context of the relationship between Anil and Hari Singh in ‘The Thief’s Story’.
III Griffin’s experiences moments of comfort and normalcy while being invisible. 3
How do these fleeting moments impact his sense of identity and his actions

11
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the
current session i.e. 2025-26
 throughout 'Footprints Without Feet'?

10 Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words 1x6

A. How does literature like ‘The Baker from Goa,’ ‘Coorg,’ and ‘Tea from Assam’ 6
contribute to promoting tourism and raising awareness about regional cultures
and traditions?

OR
B. The poems, ‘The Trees’ and ‘A Tiger in the Zoo’ resonate the theme of 6
importance of freedom and the desire to break free from any kind of
dominance. Examine.

11 Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 1x6

A. How does the author use the narrative technique of misdirection in 'The 6
Midnight Visitor', to enhance the suspense and the story’s unexpected ending?

OR

B. Comment critically on the role of the Surgery in the ‘The Triumph of Surgery’. 6

12
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the
current session i.e. 2025-26
 हिन्दी (पाठ्यक्रम-अ ) कोड (002)
प्रहिदर्श प्रश्नपत्र*
कक्षा-दसवी ीं (2025-26)

हिर्ाशरिि समय: 3 घींटे अहर्किम अींक : 80

सामान्य हिदे र् :
णनम्नणिखिर् णनदे शोां को बहुर् सावधानी से पणिए और उनका सख्ती से अनुपािन कीणजए :
(i) इस प्रश्नपत्र में कुि चार िां ड हैं - क,ि,ग,घ |
(ii) इस प्रश्नपत्र में कुि 15 प्रश्न हैं | सभी प्रश्न अणनवायत हैं |
(iii) प्रश्नपत्र में आर्ांररक णवकल्प णदए गए हैं |
(iv) प्रश्नोां के उत्तर णदए गए णनदे शोां का पािन करर्े हुए णिखिए |

िांड – क अांक
( अपणिर् बोध ) 14
1 णनम्नणिखिर् गद्ाां श को ध्यानपूवतक पिकर उस पर आधाररर् पूछे गए प्रश्नोां के उत्तर 7
णिखिए :
भारर्ीय सांस्कृणर्, जीवनशैिी और िान-पान में मोटे अनाजोां (णमिेट्स) का णवशेष स्र्ान रहा
है | ये णवणशष्ट अनाज हमारे स्वास्थ्य के णिए िाभदायक होने के सार्-सार् पयात वरि के णिए भी
अच्छे होर्े हैं क्ोांणक कम पानी और सांसाधन के बीच ये णवकणसर् हो जार्े हैं | यह हमारे णिए
गौरव की बार् है णक भारर् सरकार के सु झाव पर सां युक्त राष्टर ने वषत 2023 को अांर्रराष्टरीय मोटा
अनाज वषत के रूप में घोणषर् णकया | णजसका उद्दे श्य मोटे अनाजोां को िेकर जागरूकर्ा फैिाना
और इनके उत्पादन व सेवन को बिावा दे ना है |
आमजन के बीच मोटे अनाजोां का सेवन णपछिी कई शर्ाखियोां से प्रचणिर् है , परन्तु इसके
पोषकीय और औषधीय गुिोां की जानकारी हाि ही में हुए जैव-रासायणनक अनुसांधानोां और
णचणकत्सा सांबांधी अध्ययनोां से सामने आई है | आधुणनक जीवनशैिी से उत्पन्न होने वािे रोगोां के
सांदभत में मोटे अनाजोां के अनेक स्वास्थ्य िाभोां को दु णनया ने जाना-पहचाना और सराहा है | मोटे
अनाजोां में गेहूँ और धान की अपेक्षा प्रोटीन और सांर्ुणिर् अमीनो अम्ल अणधक पाया जार्ा है |
इस र्रह से ये मोटे अनाज बाकी अनाजोां से पोषि के मामिे में श्रेष्ठ होर्े हैं | इसके अिावा,
मोटे अनाज आहार सां बांधी रे शोां, गुिवत्तापूित वसा और महत्त्वपूित िणनज जैसे- कैखलशयम,
पोटै णशयम, मैग्नीणशयम, आयरन, ण ांक र्र्ा बी-कॉम्प्लेक्स णवटाणमनोां के समृद्ध स्रोर् हैं |
मोटे अनाजोां में पोषि और स्वास्थ्य से जुड़े इर्ने फ़ायदोां के बावजूद वर्तमान समय में मानव
आबादी इनका सेवन नहीां करर्ी या बहुर् कम िोग इसे अपने िाने की र्ािी में जगह दे र्े हैं |
यह एक णवडां बना है | मोटे अनाजोां के सेवन में इस णगरावट से भारर् में पोषि खस्र्णर् में भारी
कमी आई है | भारर् में कुपोषि की समस्या िेदजनक है |
स्रोर् – णवज्ञान प्रगणर् (माणसक पणत्रका)
(क) उपयुतक्त गद्ाां श णकस णवषयवस्तु पर आधाररर् है ? 1
(i)कुपोषि की समस्या पर
(ii) मोटे अनाज के महत्त्व पर
(iii)सांर्ुणिर् आहार के महत्त्व पर
(iv)स्वास्थ्य सांबांधी समस्याओां पर

*कृपया ध्यान दें , शै क्षणिक सत्र 2024-25 की मूलयाां कन योजना वर्तमान सत्र अर्ात र् 2025-26 में भी जारी रहे गी।
(ि) णनम्नणिखिर् कर्न और कारि पर णवचार करर्े हुए उपयुक्त णवकल्प का चयन कर णिखिए : 1
कर्न : मोटे अनाज बाकी अनाजोां से पोषि के मामिे में श्रेष्ठ होर्े हैं |
कारि : मोटे अनाजोां में अनेक पोषकीय और औषधीय िूणबयाूँ होर्ी हैं |
णवकल्प –
(i) कर्न ग़िर् है , णकांर्ु कारि सही है |
(ii) कर्न और कारि दोनोां ग़िर् हैं |
(iii) कर्न सही है और कारि कर्न की सही व्याख्या है |
(iv) कर्न सही है णकांर्ु कारि कर्न की सही व्याख्या नहीां है |
(ग) अांर्रराष्टरीय मोटा अनाज वषत का उद्दे श्य है – 1
उणचर् णवकल्प का चयन करें -
(I)मोटे अनाज के उत्पादन को बिावा दे ना |
(II)मोटे अनाज के प्रणर् जागरूकर्ा फैिाना |
(III)मोटे अनाज को मुख्य फ़सि घोणषर् करना |
(IV)मोटे अनाज की प्रणर्ष्ठा को क्षणर् पहुूँ चाना ।
णवकल्प –
(i) कर्न (I) और (II) सही हैं |
(ii) केवि कर्न (III) सही है |
(iii) कर्न (I) और (IV) सही हैं |
(iv) कर्न (I), (II) और (IV) सही हैं |
(घ) आज मोटे अनाज अपने णकन गुिोां के कारि िोकणप्रय हो रहे हैं ? 2
(ङ) कुपोषि की समस्या के समाधान में मोटे अनाजोां की क्ा भूणमका हो सकर्ी है ? 2
2 णनम्नणिखिर् काव्याां श को ध्यानपूवतक पिकर उस पर आधाररर् पूछे गए प्रश्नोां के उत्तर णिखिए : 7
गुिाब का फूि है
हमारा पिा-णििा
मैंने उसे काफी
उिट-पु िट कर दे िा है
मुझे र्ो वह ऐसा ही णदिा

सबसे बड़ा सबूर्

उसके गुिाब होने का यह है
णक वह गाूँ व में जाकर
बसने के णिए
र्ैयार नहीां है

गाूँ व में उसकी

प्रदशतनी कौन कराएगा
वहाूँ वह अपनी शोभा की
प्रशांसा णकससे कराएगा

वह फूिने के बाद
णकसी फसि में र्ोड़े ही
बदि जार्ा है

*कृपया ध्यान दें , शै क्षणिक सत्र 2024-25 की मूलयाां कन योजना वर्तमान सत्र अर्ात र् 2025-26 में भी जारी रहे गी।
 मूरि णकसान को फूिने के बाद
फसि दे ने वािा ही र्ो भार्ा है

गाूँ व में इसणिए िीक है

अिसी और सरसोां और
णर्िी के फूि
जा नहीां सकर्े वहाूँ कदाणप
गुिाब और णििी के फूि

बुरा नहीां मानना चाणहए

इस गुिाब - वृणत्त का
गाूँ व वािोां को
क्ोांणक वहाूँ रहना चाणहए णसफत ऐसे हार्-पाूँ व वािोां को

जो बो सकर्े हैं
और काट सकर्े हैं
कुएूँ िोद सकर्े हैं
िाई पाट सकर्े हैं
और णफर भी चुपचाप
समाजवाद पर भाषि सुनकर
वोट दे सकर्े हैं
गुिाब के फूि को
– भवानी प्रसाद णमश्र
(क) प्रस्तुर् कणवर्ा में णकस भाव की प्रधानर्ा है ? 1
(i) हास्य
(ii) प्राकृणर्क सौांदयत
(iii) व्यांग्य
(iv) आक्रोश
(ि) ‘गुिाब’ णकसका प्रर्ीक है ? 1
(i) शहर के पिे -णििे नौजवानोां का |
(ii) शहर के वार्ावरि का |
(iii) शहर की ण ांदगी का |
(iv) शहर की सुणवधाओां का |
(ग) णनम्नणिखिर् कर्न और कारि पर णवचार करर्े हुए उपयुक्त णवकल्प का चयन कर णिखिए : 1
कर्न : बुरा नहीां मानना चाणहए, इस गुिाब-वृणत्त का |
कारि : वह बचपन से शहर में ही पिा-बड़ा है |
णवकल्प :
(i) कर्न ग़िर् है , णकांर्ु कारि सही है |
(ii) कर्न और कारि दोनोां ही ग़िर् हैं |
(iii) कर्न सही है और कारि कर्न की सही व्याख्या है |
(iv) कर्न सही है णकांर्ु कारि कर्न की सही व्याख्या नहीां है |

(घ) गुिाब गाूँ व में जाकर बसने के णिए क्ोां र्ैयार नहीां है ? 2

*कृपया ध्यान दें , शै क्षणिक सत्र 2024-25 की मूलयाां कन योजना वर्तमान सत्र अर्ात र् 2025-26 में भी जारी रहे गी।
(ङ) कणवर्ा के आधार पर णिखिए णक णकसान को णकस र्रह के फूि भार्े हैं और क्ोां ? 2
िांड – ि 16
( व्यावहाररक व्याकरि )
3 णनदे शानुसार ‘रचना के आधार पर वाक् भेद’ पर आधाररर् पाूँ च प्रश्नोां में से णकन्ीां चार प्रश्नोां के 4x1=4
उत्तर णिखिए :
(क) नवाब साहब ने र्ौणिया झाड़ा और सामने णबछा णिया |
(सरि वाक् में बदणिए)
(ि) हािदार साहब को उधर से गु रर्े समय मूणर्त में कुछ अांर्र णदिाई णदया |
(णमश्र वाक् में बदणिए)
(ग) मन्नू के एक इशारे पर िड़णकयाूँ कक्षा से बाहर णनकिकर नारे िगाने िगीां |
(सांयुक्त वाक् में बदणिए)
(घ) काणर्क आया नहीां णक बािगोणबन भगर् की प्रभाणर्याूँ शुरू हुईां |
(रचना की दृणष्ट से वाक् का भेद णिखिए)
(ङ) सबसे बड़ी बार् है णक काशी के पास उस्ताद णबखिल्ला िाूँ जैसा नायाब हीरा रहा है |
(रे िाां णकर् उपवाक् का भे द णिखिए)
4 णनदे शानुसार ‘वाच्य’ पर आधाररर् पाूँ च प्रश्नोां में से णकन्ीां चार प्रश्नोां के उत्तर णिखिए : 4x1=4
(क) पर्ोह ने भगर् को दु णनयादारी से णनवृत्त कर णदया र्ा | (कमतवाच्य में बदणिए)
(ि) नवाब साहब द्वारा िीरे पर मसािा णछड़का गया। (कर्ृतवाच्य में बदणिए)
(ग) आओ,पेड़ की छाया में बैिे | (भाववाच्य में बदणिए)
(घ) मुझसे यह काम नहीां हो सकर्ा | (कर्ृतवाच्य में बदणिए)
(ङ) उद्धव द्वारा ज्ञान का उपदे श णदया गया। (वाच्य पहचानकर भेद बर्ाइए)
5 णनदे शानुसार ‘पद पररचय’ पर आधाररर् पाूँ च प्रश्नोां में से णकन्ीां चार प्रश्नोां के रे िाां णकर् पदोां का 4x1=4
पद-पररचय णिखिए :
(क) शीिा अग्रवाि को कॉिेज वािोां ने नोणटस र्मा णदया |
(ि) िीरे की पणनयार्ी फाूँ कें बहुर् स्वाणदष्ट र्ीां।
(ग) शुक्ल पक्ष में चाूँ द णनरां र्र बिर्ा है ।
(घ) उनकी अूँगुणियाूँ िूँजड़ी पर िगार्ार चि रहीां र्ीां |
(ङ) शाबाश ! र्ुमने णकर्ना अच्छा कायत णकया।
6 णनदे शानुसार ‘अिांकार’ पर आधाररर् पाूँ च प्रश्नोां में से णकन्ीां चार प्रश्नोां की रे िाां णकर् काव्य 4x1=4
पांखक्तयोां में अिांकार पहचान कर णिखिए :
(क) प्रीणर्-नदी में पाउूँ न बोरयौ |
(ि) कोणट कुणिस सम बचनु र्ु म्हारा |
ब्यर्त धरहु धनु बान कुिारा ||
(ग) आगे नणदया पड़ी अपार, घोड़ा कैसे उर्रे पार ।
रािा ने सोचा इस पार, र्ब र्क चेर्क र्ा उस पार ।।
(घ) णसमटा हुआ सां कोच है हवा की णर्रकन का |
(ङ) सुनर् जोग िागर् है ऐसौ, ज्ौां करुई ककरी |
िांड – ग 30
( पाठ्य पुस्तक एवां पूरक पाठ्य पुस्तक )
7 णनम्नणिखिर् पणिर् गद्ाां श पर आधाररर् बहुणवकल्पीय प्रश्नोां के सवात णधक उपयु क्त उत्तर वािे 5x1=5
णवकल्प चुनकर णिखिए :

*कृपया ध्यान दें , शै क्षणिक सत्र 2024-25 की मूलयाां कन योजना वर्तमान सत्र अर्ात र् 2025-26 में भी जारी रहे गी।
 वही पुराना स्वर, वही पुरानी र्ल्लीनर्ा | घर में पर्ोह रो रही है णजसे गाूँ व की खियाूँ चुप कराने
की कोणशश कर रही हैं | णकांर्ु , बािगोणबन भगर् गाए जा रहे हैं ! हाूँ , गार्े -गार्े कभी-
कभी पर्ोह के न दीक भी जार्े और रोने के बदिे उत्सव मनाने को कहर्े । आत्मा परमात्मा के
पास चिी गई, णवरणहनी अपने प्रेमी से जा णमिी, भिा इससे बिकर आनांद की कौन बार् ?
मैं कभी-कभी सोचर्ा, यह पागि र्ो नहीां हो गए, णकांर्ु नहीां, वह जो कुछ कह रहे र्े उसमें
उनका णवश्वास बोि रहा र्ा-वह चरम णवश्वास, जो हमेशा ही मृत्यु पर णवजयी होर्ा आया है ।
बेटे के णक्रया-कमत में र्ू ि नहीां णकया; पर्ोह से ही आग णदिाई उसकी। णकांर्ु ज्ोां ही श्राद्ध की
अवणध पूरी हो गई, पर्ोह के भाई को बुिाकर उसके सार् कर णदया, यह आदे श दे र्े हुए णक
इसकी दू सरी शादी कर दे ना।
(क) बािगोणबन भगर् जी द्वारा णकया गया कौन-सा कायत सामाणजक परां परा के णवरुद्ध र्ा ?
(I) पर्ोह से बेटे की णचर्ा को आग णदिाना |
(II) पर्ोह को उसके भाई के सार् मायके भेजना |
(III) बेटे का श्राद्ध णवणध-णवधान से करना |
(IV) बेटे की मृत्यु का उत्सव मनाना |
णवकल्प –
(i) कर्न (I) और (II) सही हैं |
(ii) केवि कर्न (III) सही है |
(iii) कर्न (I) और (IV) सही हैं |
(iv) कर्न (II) और (III) सही हैं |
(ि) ‘णवरहनी अपने प्रेमी से जा णमिी’ – इस कर्न में बािगोणबन भगर् के अनुसार
णवरहनी कौन है ?
(i) परमात्मा
(ii) आत्मा
(iii) काया
(iv) मृत्यु
(ग) णनम्नणिखिर् कर्न और कारि पर णवचार करर्े हुए उपयुक्त णवकल्प का चयन कर णिखिए :
कर्न : बािगोणबन भगर् ने अपने पुत्र को मुिाणग्न दे ने का कायत अपनी पुत्रवधु से करवाया |
कारि : बािगोणबन भगर् रूणिणवरोधी और नारी सम्मान के पक्षधर र्े |
णवकल्प :
(i) कर्न ग़िर् है , णकांर्ु कारि सही है |
(ii) कर्न और कारि दोनोां ही ग़िर् हैं |
(iii) कर्न सही है और कारि कर्न की सही व्याख्या है |
(iv) कर्न सही है णकांर्ु कारि कर्न की सही व्याख्या नहीां है |
(घ) िेिक को यह सां देह है णक बािगोणबन भगर् कहीां पागि र्ो नहीां हो गए क्ोांणक
(I) वे पर्ोह को उसके भाई के सार् मायके भेज रहे र्े |
(II) वे रोने के बदिे उत्सव मनाने को कह रहे र्े ।
(III) वे पु त्र की मृत्यु के बाद गाए जा रहे र्े |
(IV) वे पर्ोह को चुप कराने की कोणशश कर रहे र्े |
णवकल्प –
(i) कर्न (I) और (II) सही हैं |
(ii) केवि कर्न (III) सही है |
(iii) कर्न (I) और (IV) सही हैं |

*कृपया ध्यान दें , शै क्षणिक सत्र 2024-25 की मूलयाां कन योजना वर्तमान सत्र अर्ात र् 2025-26 में भी जारी रहे गी।
 (iv) कर्न (II) और (III) सही हैं |
(ङ) बेटे की मृत्यु के बाद बािगोणबन भगर् अपनी बह से क्ा अपेक्षा रिर्े र्े ?
(i) वह उनकी आजीवन से वा करे |
(ii) वह णवधवा का जीवन व्यर्ीर् करे |
(iii) वह कबीर के गीर् गाया करे |
(iv) वह पुनणवतवाह कर िे |
8 णनधात ररर् गद् पािोां के आधार पर णनम्नणिखिर् चार प्रश्नोां में से णकन्ीां र्ीन प्रश्नोां के उत्तर िगभग 3x2=6
25-30 शिोां में णिखिए :
(क) ‘नेर्ाजी का चश्मा’ कहानी के आधार पर हािदार साहब के व्यखक्तत्व का पररचय
णिखिए |
(ि) िेखिका मन्नू भांडारी ने अपनी माूँ की र्ुिना धरर्ी से क्ोां की है ?
‘एक कहानी यह भी’ पाि के आधार पर स्पष्ट कीणजए।
(ग) ‘मेरे माणिक एक सुर बक्श दे । सुर में वह र्ासीर पै दा कर णक आूँ िोां से सच्चे मोर्ी की र्रह
अनगि आूँ सू णनकि आएूँ |’ ‘नौबर्िाने में इबादर्’ पाि के आधार पर णबखिल्ला िाूँ के
इस कर्न को स्पष्ट कीणजए।
(घ) िेिक सांस्कृणर्-असांस्कृणर् और सभ्यर्ा-असभ्यर्ा के भ्रमजाि में फूँसे मनुष्ोां से क्ा प्रश्न
करर्ा है ?
9 णनम्नणिखिर् पणिर् काव्याां श पर आधाररर् बहुणवकल्पीय प्रश्नोां के सवात णधक उपयुक्त उत्तर वािे 5x1=5
णवकल्प चुनकर णिखिए :
र्ारसप्तक में जब बैिने िगर्ा है उसका गिा
प्रेरिा सार् छोड़र्ी हुई उत्साह अस्त होर्ा हुआ
आवा से राि जैसा कुछ णगरर्ा हुआ
र्भी मुख्य गायक को ढाूँ िस बूँधार्ा
कहीां से चिा आर्ा है सांगर्कार का स्वर
कभी-कभी वह योां ही दे दे र्ा है उसका सार्
यह बर्ाने के णिए णक वह अकेिा नहीां है
और यह णक णफर से गाया जा सकर्ा है
गाया जा चुका राग
और उसकी आवा में जो एक णहचक साफ़ सुनाई दे र्ी है
या अपने स्वर को ऊूँचा न उिाने की जो कोणशश है
उसे णवफिर्ा नहीां
उसकी मनुष्र्ा समझा जाना चाणहए |
(क) ‘र्ारसप्तक में जब बैिने िगर्ा है उसका गिा’ इस पांखक्त में ‘उसका’ शि णकसके णिए
प्रयोग णकया गया है ?
(i) सांगर्कार के णिए |
(ii) सांगीर्कार के णिए |
(iii) र्बिा वादक के णिए |
(iv) मुख्य गायक के णिए |
(ि) णनम्नणिखिर् काव्य पांखक्तयोां में से णकस पांखक्त से मुख्य गायक के उत्साह के क्षीि होने का पर्ा
चिर्ा है ?
सही णवकल्प का चयन कीणजए –
(I) आवा से राि जैसा कुछ णगरर्ा हुआ |

*कृपया ध्यान दें , शै क्षणिक सत्र 2024-25 की मूलयाां कन योजना वर्तमान सत्र अर्ात र् 2025-26 में भी जारी रहे गी।
 (II) प्रेरिा सार् छोड़र्ी हुई उत्साह अस्त होर्ा हुआ |
(III) कहीां से चिा आर्ा है सांगर्कार का स्वर |
(IV) उसकी आवा में जो एक णहचक साफ़ सुनाई दे र्ी है |
णवकल्प –
(i) कर्न (I) और (II) सही हैं |
(ii) केवि कर्न (III) सही है |
(iii) कर्न (I) और(IV) सही हैं |
(iv) कर्न (II) और (III) सही हैं |
(ग) णनम्नणिखिर् कर्न और कारि पर णवचार करर्े हुए उपयुक्त णवकल्प का चयन कर णिखिए :
कर्न : सांगर्कार की आवा में एक णहचक साफ़ सु नाई दे र्ी है और वह
अपनी आवा को ऊूँचा नहीां उिने दे ने की कोणशश करर्ा है |
कारि : दू सरोां को सफ़ि बनाने के णिए त्याग करना मनुष्र्ा होर्ी है |
सांगर्कार का त्याग उसकी मनुष्र्ा का पररचायक है |
णवकल्प :
(i) कर्न ग़िर् है , णकांर्ु कारि सही है |
(ii) कर्न और कारि दोनोां ही ग़िर् हैं |
(iii) कर्न सही है और कारि कर्न की सही व्याख्या है |
(iv) कर्न सही है णकांर्ु कारि कर्न की सही व्याख्या नहीां है |
(घ) सांगर्कार णकस प्रकार मुख्य गायक को अहसास णदिार्ा है णक वह अकेिा नहीां है ?
(i) मुख्य गायक के समान भारी स्वर में गाकर |
(ii) मुख्य गायक को प्रेररर् करके |
(iii) मुख्य गायक से ऊूँचे स्वर में गाकर |
(iv) मुख्य गायक के टू टर्े स्वर में अपना स्वर णमिाकर |
(ङ) सांगर्कार के स्वर में णहचक सुनाई दे ने का क्ा कारि है ?
(i) सांगर्कार में आत्मणवश्वास का अभाव है |
(ii) सांगर्कार मुख्य गायक का मान बनाए रिना चाहर्ा है |
(iii) सांगर्कार को गायन में अभी प्रवीिर्ा नहीां आई है |
(iv) सांगर्कार में भय और हीनर्ा का भाव है |
10 णनधात ररर् कणवर्ाओां के आधार पर णनम्नणिखिर् चार प्रश्नोां में से णकन्ीां र्ीन प्रश्नोां के उत्तर िगभग 3x2=6
25-30 शिोां में णिखिए :
(क) गोणपयोां को उद्धव से क्ोां कहना पड़ा – ‘हरर हैं राजनीणर् पणि आए’ |
‘सूरदास के पद’ के आधार पर उत्तर णिखिए |
(ि) “सो णबिगाउ णबहाई समाजा | न र् मारे जैहणहां सब राजा’- परशुराम जी के मुूँह से ऐसा सुनकर
िक्ष्मि की क्ा प्रणर्णक्रया रही ?
(ग) ‘उत्साह’ और ‘अट नहीां रही है ’ कणवर्ाओां के आधार पर सूयतकाां र् णत्रपािी ‘णनरािा’
जी के प्रकृणर् णचत्रि का वितन अपने शिोां में कीणजए।
(घ) ‘आत्मकथ्य’ कणवर्ा के माध्यम से कणव श्री ‘जयशां कर प्रसाद’ जी के व्यखक्तत्व की जो झिक
णमिर्ी है , वह उनकी ईमानदारी और साहस का प्रमाि है , स्पष्ट कीणजए।
11 पूरक पाठ्य पुस्तक के णनधात ररर् पािोां पर आधाररर् णनम्नणिखिर् र्ीन प्रश्नोां में से णकन्ीां दो प्रश्नोां के 2x4=8
उत्तर िगभग 50-60 शिोां में णिखिए :

*कृपया ध्यान दें , शै क्षणिक सत्र 2024-25 की मूलयाां कन योजना वर्तमान सत्र अर्ात र् 2025-26 में भी जारी रहे गी।
(क) 'मार्ा का अूँचि' पाि में ग्राम्य सांस्कृणर् के णजस रूप का णचत्रि है - वह आधुणनक युग में पयात प्त
अांशोां में पररवणर्तर् हो चुका है । पररवणर्तर् रूप से कुछ उदाहरि दे र्े हुए इस कर्न के समर्तन में
अपने णवचार णिखिए ।
(ि) ‘यांत्रोां की दु णनया ने मनुष् को याां णत्रक व भाव शून्य बनाने का कायत णकया है , जबणक यात्राएूँ मनुष्
को भाव शून्य होने से रोकर्ी हैं ।’ ‘साना-साना हार् जोणड़’ पाि के आधार पर आप अपने
णवचार णिखिए |
(ग) ‘मैं क्ोां णििर्ा हूँ ’ पाि के आधार पर बर्ाइए णक भीर्री णववशर्ा क्ा होर्ी है ? िेिक श्री
अज्ञेय जी ने इसे स्पष्ट करने के णिए णकसकी चचात की है ?
िांड – घ 20
( रचनात्मक िेिन )
12 णनम्नणिखिर् र्ीन णवषयोां में से हकसी एक णवषय पर सांकेर् णबन्दु ओां के आधार पर िगभग 120 1x6=6
शिोां में एक अनुच्छेद णिखिए :
(क) ऑनिाइन गेणमांग का बिर्ा जाि
 ऑनिाइन गेणमांग क्ा है ?
 बच्चोां और णकशोरोां पर बिर्ी पकड़
 ऑनिाइन गेणमांग के दु ष्पररिाम
(ि) स्वस्र् जीवन शैिी
 स्वस्र् जीवन शैिी की आवश्यकर्ा
 स्वस्र् आदर्ें णजनका पािन णकया जाना चाणहए
 स्वस्र् जीवनशैिी के िाभ
(ग) हाि ही में दे िी णफ़ल्म / नाटक की समीक्षा
 कहानी,पात्र,सांवाद,अणभनय कैसा िगा ?
 क्ा वास्तणवक जीवन के णनकट र्ी ?
 क्ा प्रेरिा णमिी ?
13 (क) आप आनांदी/आनांद हैं | अपने क्षेत्र में णबजिी की कटौर्ी से उत्पन्न समस्याओां का 1x5=5
उल्लेि करर्े हुए णकसी िोकणप्रय दै णनक समाचार-पत्र के सांपादक को िगभग 100 शिोां में
पत्र णिखिए।
अर्वा
(ि) आप आनांदी/आनांद हैं | छोटे -मोटे रोगोां के णिए आपकी दादी माूँ द्वारा बर्ाए गए घरे िू
नुस्ोां को सांकणिर् करके आपने एक पुस्तक बनाई है | णजसका नाम आपने ‘दादी माूँ के घरे िू
नुस्े’ रिा है | पु स्तक के प्रकाशन के अवसर पर अपनी दादी माूँ को आमांणत्रर् करर्े हुए उन्ें
िगभग 100 शिोां में पत्र णिखिए।
14 (क) आप प्रेरिा/प्रेरक हैं । आपने णहन्दी णवषय में एम.ए.णकया है सार् ही आपके पास 1x5=5
बी.एड. की णडग्री भी है | आपके शहर के एक प्रणर्णष्ठर् णवद्ािय में णहन्दी णवषय के स्नार्क
णशक्षकोां के कुछ पद ररक्त हैं |आपको उस पद के णिए आवेदन करना है | इसके णिए िगभग
80 शिोां में अपना एक स्ववृर् िेि र्ैयार कीणजए |
अर्वा
(ि) आप प्रेरिा/प्रेरक हैं । आपके क्षेत्र में सफ़ाई व्यवस्र्ा चरमराई हुई है । सफ़ाई कमतचारी
अक्सर अनुपखस्र्र् रहर्े हैं । नगर णनगम अणधकारी को इससे अवगर् करार्े हुए िगभग 80 शिोां
में ई-मेि कीणजए ।
15 (क) सौर ऊजात के प्रयोग को प्रोत्साहन दे ने के णिए एक आकषतक णवज्ञापन िगभग 40 शिोां 1x4=4
में णवद् युर् मांत्रािय की ओर से र्ैयार कीणजए |

*कृपया ध्यान दें , शै क्षणिक सत्र 2024-25 की मूलयाां कन योजना वर्तमान सत्र अर्ात र् 2025-26 में भी जारी रहे गी।
 अर्वा
(ि) आपके णहन्दी णशक्षक/णशणक्षका का नया ‘काव्य सांग्रह’ प्रकाणशर् हुआ है | उन्ें इस
अवसर पर बधाई दे र्े हुए िगभग 40 शिोां में एक बधाई सांदेश णिखिए |

*कृपया ध्यान दें , शै क्षणिक सत्र 2024-25 की मूलयाां कन योजना वर्तमान सत्र अर्ात र् 2025-26 में भी जारी रहे गी।
 MATHEMATICS (BASIC) – Code No. 241
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS - X (2025 - 26)

Maximum marks:80 Time :3 hours

General Instructions
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them:

1. This question paper contains 38 questions. All Questions are compulsory.

2. This Question Paper is divided into 5 Sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. In Section A, Question numbers 1-18 are multiple choice questions (MCQs) and question no.19 and
20 are Assertion- Reason based questions of 1 mark each.
4. In Section B, Question numbers 21-25 are very short answer (VSA) type questions, carrying 02 marks
each.
5. In Section C, Question numbers 26-31 are short answer (SA) type questions, carrying 03 marks each.
6. In Section D, Question numbers 32-35 are long answer (LA) type questions, carrying 05 marks each.
7. In Section E, Question numbers 36-38 are case study-based questions carrying 4 marks each with
sub parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
8. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice in 2 questions of Section B, 2 questions of
Section C and 2 questions of Section D has been provided. An internal choice has been provided
in all the 2 marks questions of Section E.
22
9. Draw neat and clean figures wherever required. Take 𝝅 = wherever required if not stated.
7
10. Use of calculators is not allowed.

SECTION – A
(Multiple Choice Questions)
Each MCQ of 1mark, has four options with only one correct option, choose the correct option

Q. No. Question Marks

Q1. The exponent of 3 in the prime factorization of 2025 is

1
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Q2. If 2024𝒙 + 2025𝒚 = 1 ; 2025𝒙 + 2024𝒚 = −1, then 𝒙 − 𝒚 =

1
A) 0
B) –2
C) 2
D) –1

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 1 of 11
 Q3. The number of polynomials having − 2 and 5 as its zeroes is
1
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) Infinitely many

Q4. Which of the following is not a quadratic equation?

1
A) (𝒙 + 2)2 = 2(𝒙 + 3)
B) 𝒙2 + 3𝒙 = (−1)(1 − 3𝒙2 )
C) (𝒙 + 2)(𝒙 − 1) = 𝒙2 − 𝟐𝒙 − 3
D) 𝒙3 − 𝒙2 + 2𝒙 + 1 = (𝒙 + 1)3

Q5. The value of x for which 2x, (x + 10) and (3x + 2) are the three consecutive terms
of an AP is 1

A) 6
B) −6
C) −2
D) 2
Q6. If 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 +⋯+ 50 = 25k, then k =
1
A) 50
B) 51
C) 49
D) 26

Q7. The distance between the points (cos30°, sin30°) and (cos60°, – sin 60°) is
1
A) 0 unit
B) √3 units
C) 1 unit
D) √2 units

Q8. The co-ordinates of the point which is mirror image of the point ( −3, 5) about x-axis
are 1

A) (3, 5)
B) (3, −5)
C) ( −3, −5)
D) ( −3, 5)

Q9. AB AC
If in ∆ABC and ∆DEF, = then they will be similar when
EF DE
1
A) ∠A = ∠D
B) ∠A = ∠E
C) ∠C = ∠F
D) ∠B = ∠E

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 2 of 11
 Q10. If ∆ABC~∆PQR, then perimeter of the triangle PQR (in cm) is
1
A) 12
B) 24
C) 18
D) 20

For visually Impaired students only

If ∆ABC~∆PQR, where AB = 3cm, BC = 4cm, AC = 5cm and PR = 10cm, then

perimeter of the triangle PQR (in cm) is

A) 12
B) 24
C) 18
D) 20
Q11. In the figure given below, radius r of the circle which touches the sides of the
triangle is 1

A) 3 cm
B) 6 cm
C) 7 cm
D) 4 cm

For visually Impaired students only

From a point P, which is at a distance of 26cm from the centre O of a circle with
radius 10 cm, the pair of tangents PQ and PR to the circle are drawn. Then the
area of the quadrilateral PQOR (in cm2) is

A) 220
B) 240
C) 260
D) 280

Q12. Which one of the following is not equal to Unity? 1

A) sin2 𝒙 + cos2 𝒙
B) cot 2 𝒙 − cosec 2 𝒙
C) sec 2 𝒙 − tan2 𝒙
D) tan𝒙. cot𝒙

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 3 of 11
 Q13. Consider the following frequency distribution
1
Class 0–5 5 – 10 10 – 15 15 – 20 20 – 25
Frequency 11 12 13 9 11

The upper limit of median class is

A) 10
B) 13
C) 15
D) 20

Q14. Let empirical relationship between the three measures of central tendency be 1
a(Median) = Mode + b(Mean), then (2b + 3a) =

A) 11
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14

Q15. From an external point Q, the length of tangent to a circle is 12 cm and the distance 1
of Q from the centre of circle is 13 cm. The radius of circle (in cm) is
A) 10
B) 5
C) 12
D) 7

Q16. In the given figure, PA is a tangent from an external point P to a circle with centre 1
O and diameter AB. If ∠POB=115°, then measure of ∠APO is

A) 25°
B) 30°
C) 20°
D) 65°

For visually Impaired students only

At one end A of a diameter AB of a circle with radius 13 cm, tangent XAY is drawn
to the circle. The length of the chord CD parallel to XY and at a distance 18 cm
from A is
A) 24 cm
B) 25 cm
C) 26 cm
D) 18 cm

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 4 of 11
 Q17. The circumferences of two circles are in the ratio 3 : 4. The ratio of their areas is
1
A) 3:4
B) 4:3
C) 9 : 16
D) 16 : 9

Q18. An event is most unlikely to happen. Its probability is

1
A) 0.0001
B) 0.001
C) 0.01
D) 0.1

Each of the following questions contains two statements i.e., ASSERTION

and REASON, and has following four choices. Only one of which is the
correct answer.

Q19.
Q1. ASSERTION (A): Line joining the midpoints of two sides of triangle is parallel to the
third side. 1
Q2.
REASON (R): If a line divides two sides of a triangle in the same ratio then it is
parallel to the third side.
A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Q20.
Q3. ASSERTION (A): Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Possible outcomes are two
heads, one head and one tail, two tails. Hence, the probability of getting two heads 1
1
is 3 .
Q4.
REASON (R): Probabilities of ‘equally likely’ outcomes of an experiment are always
equal.
A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 5 of 11
 SECTION – B
(Very Short Answers)
This section comprises of VSA of 2 marks each

Q21. (A) Show that the number 2 × 5 × 7 × 11 + 11 × 13 is a composite number.

2
OR

(B) Find the smallest number which is divisible by both 306 and 657.

Q22. Find the radius of the circle with centre at origin, if line l given by 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 5 is 2
tangent to the circle at point P.

For visually Impaired students only

Find the radius of the circle whose end points of a diameter are (0, 0) and (6, 8).

Q23. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 𝒙2 + (𝒂 + 1)𝒙 + 𝒃 are 2 and – 3, then 2

find the values of a and b.

Q24. Find the nature of roots of the quadratic equation 𝒙2 + 4𝒙 − 3√2 = 0. 2

Q5. (A) Evaluate : 2 sin 30°tan60° − 3 cos 2 60 °sec 2 30°

Q25.

OR
2
7
(B) If sin 𝒙 = , where x is an acute angle, then find the value of
25
sin𝒙. cos𝒙(tan𝒙 + cot𝒙).

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 6 of 11
 SECTION – C
(Short Answers)
This section comprises of SA type questions of 3 marks each

Q26. Show that √2 − √5 is an irrational number. 3

Q27. (A) The frequency distribution table of agriculture holdings in a village is given
below:

Q6. Area of land

1–3 3–5 5–7 7–9 9 – 11 11 – 13
(in hectares)
No. of families 20 45 80 55 40 12
3
Find the modal agriculture holdings of the village.

OR

(B) If the mean of the following distribution is 54, find the value of p.

Class Interval 0 – 20 20 – 40 40 – 60 60 – 80 80 – 100

Frequency 7 p 10 9 13

Q28. A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle, as shown in the given 3

AB + CD
figure. Show that =1
AD + BC

For visually Impaired students only

Show that parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 7 of 11
 Q29. (A) On a particular day, 50000 people attended a Cricket Test Match between
India and Australia in Sydney Cricket Ground. Let x be the number of adults 3

attended the cricket match and y be the number of children attended the
cricket match. Cost of an adult ticket was ₹1000 while cost of a child ticket was
₹200. On that day Revenue earned by selling all 50,000 tickets, was
₹4,20,00,000. Find how many adults and how many children attended the
cricket match?
OR
(B) Solve for x and y, graphically: 2𝒙 + 𝒚 = 6; 𝒙 + 𝒚 = 5

For visually Impaired students only

(A) On a particular day, 50000 people attended a Cricket Test Match between
India and Australia in Sydney Cricket Ground. Let x be the number of adults
attended the cricket match and y be the number of children attended the
cricket match. Cost of an adult ticket was ₹1000 while cost of a child ticket
was ₹200. On that day Revenue earned by selling all 50,000 tickets, was
₹4,20,00,000. Find how many adults and how many children attended the
cricket match.
OR
(B) A 2-digit number is 6 times the sum of its digits. The number formed by
reversing the digits is 9 less than the given number. Find the number.

Q30. Prove that : (sin𝒙 − cos𝒙 + 1). (sec𝒙 − tan𝒙) = (sin𝒙 + cos𝒙 − 1) 3

Q31. The sum of first n terms of an AP is 5𝒏2 − 𝒏. Find the nth term of the AP. 3

SECTION – D
(Long Answers)
This section comprises of LA type questions of 5 marks each

Q32. Prove that a line drawn parallel to one side of a triangle intersecting other two sides 5
in distinct points, divides the other two sides in the same ratio.

Q33. (A) The numerator of a fraction is 3 less than its denominator. If 2 is added to both 5
of its numerator and denominator then the sum of the new fraction and original
29
fraction is . Find the original fraction.
20
OR
(B) A train covers a distance of 300 km at a uniform speed. If the speed of the train 5
is increased by 5 km/hr, it takes 2 hours less in the journey. Find the original
speed of the train.

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 8 of 11
 Q34. (A) The angle of elevation of the top of a chimney from the foot of a tower is 60°
and the angle of depression of the foot of the chimney from the top of the tower 5
is 30°. If the height of the tower is 40 meters, find the height of the chimney.
Also, find the length of the wire tied from the top of the chimney to the top of
tower.
OR
(B) The angles of depression of the top and bottom of a 50m high building from the
top of a tower are 45° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the tower and the
horizontal distance between the tower and the building. (Use √3 = 1.73)
Q35. A solid toy is in the form of a hemisphere surmounted by a right circular cone of
height 2cm and diameter of base 4cm. If a right circular cylinder circumscribes the 5
toy, find the difference of the volumes of the cylinder and the toy. [Use π = 3.14]

SECTION - E
(Case-study Based Questions)
This section comprises of 3 case-study based questions of 4 marks each with three sub-parts.
Q36. Carpooling is the sharing of car journeys so that more than one person travels in a
car, and prevents the need for others to have to drive to a location themselves. By
having more people using one vehicle, carpooling reduces each person’s travel
costs such as: fuel costs, tolls, and the stress of driving. Carpooling is also a more
environmentally friendly and sustainable way to travel as sharing journeys reduces
air pollution, carbon emissions, traffic congestion on the roads, and the need for
parking spaces.

Q7. Three friends Amar, Bhavin and Chetanya live in societies represented by the points
A(4,5), B(6,2) and C(2,6) respectively. They all work in offices located in a same
building represented by the point O(0,0). Since they all go to same building every
day, they decided to do carpooling to save money on petrol. Based on the above
information, answer the following questions.
Q8.
1
i) What is the distance between B and C?
ii) If Bhavin and Chetanya planned to meet at a club situated at the mid-point of
1
the line joining the points B and C, find the coordinates of this point.
iii) (A) Which society is farthest from the office? Also find its distance from the office. 2
OR
(B) Out of B and C which society is nearer to A? Also find their distances.
*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 9 of 11
 Q37. A water sprinkler is a device used to irrigate agricultural crops, lawns, landscapes,
golf courses, and other areas. Water sprinklers can be used for residential,
industrial, and agricultural usage.

Q9.
Q10. A water sprinkler is set to shoot a stream of water a distance of 21 m and rotate
through an angle which is equal to complementary angle of 10°.

1
i) What is the area of sector in terms of arc length? 1
ii) What is the area of the watered region (in terms of 𝝅)?
iii) (A) If the radius(r) changes to 28m, find the angle θ so that the area of the
watered region remains the same. 2

OR

(B) If the radius(r) is increased from 21m to 28m and the angle remains
the same, what is the increase in the area of the watered region?

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 10 of 11
 Q38. One of four main blood types can be found in a human body. They are known as A,
B, AB and O. Each blood type can be further classified as either a Rhesus positive
(+) or Rhesus negative (−).For example, a possible combination is blood type O and
Rhesus negative which is written as O–

The data below shows the distribution of the blood types and Rhesus types of given
blood type for a Blood Donation Center recorded (in percentages) for the year
2023.

NUMBER
BLOOD RHESUS OF
GROUP FACTOR PERSONS
(in %)
O– x
O
O+ 30
A– 8
A +
A 24
B– 6
B
B+ 18
AB – 1
AB +
AB 3

i) Find the value of 𝒙. 1

ii) Find the probability that a randomly selected person has a Rhesus negative 1
blood type.
iii) (A) What is the probability that the person selected from the record is 2
Rhesus positive but neither blood type A nor B?
2
OR

(B) People with blood type AB positive (AB+) are known as the universal
recipient and with blood type O negative (O−) are known as universal donor.
Find the probability of a selected person to be neither universal recipient
nor universal donor.

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 11 of 11
 SOCIAL SCIENCE-Code- 087
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS: X (2025-26)

Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C- Political Science, and D-
Economics.
3. Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
4. Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should
not exceed 40 words.
5. Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 60 words.
6. Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 120 words.
7. There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each.
Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
8. The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and
Q19. In Section B -Geography (3 marks)
9. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
10. In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be attempted
by Visually Impaired candidates only.

[Link] SECTION A Marks

HISTORY (20 marks)
1. Match the following and Choose the correct option: 1

COLUMN I COLUMN II
A Frederic Sorrieu 1 Torch of enlightenments
B Statue of Liberty 2 Shattered remains of absolutist
Institutions
C Foreground in front of the Statue 3 Democratic and Social
of Liberty Republics
D Sorrieu’s utopian vision. 4 French Artist

1.A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

2.A-2, B-4, C-4, D-1
3.A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
4.A-4, B-1, C-3, D-4

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 2. Identify and name the leader shown in the picture given below: - 1

Source-India and the Contemporary World-II, NCERT

A. Lala Lajpat Rai

B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C. Gopal Krishan Gokhale
D. Raja Rammohan Roy

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Q. No. 2

Which one option from the following is the appropriate reason for the formation of the
Swaraj party?

A. To ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians.

B. To return to Council Politics.
C. To ask Dominion State for India.
D. To oppose Simon Commission.
3. Thousands of people fled Europe for America in the 19th century due to - 1

A. Widespread poverty and deadly diseases

B. Frequent famines and poor living conditions
C. Continuous wars and political instability
D. Harsh climate and repeated natural disasters
4. Louise-Sebastien Mercier proclaimed “Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! 1
Tremble before the virtual writer!” Who are referred to as the tyrants in this context?

A. Educated classes who wanted to change the society

B. Absolutist institutions like monarchy and church
C. Authors of the new books
D. Printing press

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 5A. “The Silk route was a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links 2
between distant parts of the world.” Explain the statement with any two examples.
OR
5B. ‘Sometimes the new crops could make the difference between life and death.’.
Explain the statement.
6 A. ‘A variety of cultural processes played an important role in developing a sense of 3
nationalism in India’. Support the statement with suitable examples.
OR
6 B. Salt March 'became an effective tool of resistance against colonialism.’ Justify the
statement with suitable arguments.
7A. ‘In Britain the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval 5
or revolution but was the result of a long-drawn-out process.’ Analyze this statement
with suitable reasons.
OR
7B. ‘The Treaty of Vienna was drawn up in 1815 with the object of undoing most of the
changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars.’ Highlight the
significant provisions of this treaty.
8. Read the given text and answer the following questions:(1+1+2=4) 4
Why Newspapers?
Krishnaji Trimbuck Ranade inhabitant of Poona intends to publish a Newspaper in
the Marathi Language with a view of affording useful information on every topic of
local interest. It will be open for free discussion on subjects of general utility, scientific
investigation and the speculations connected with the antiquities, statistics,
curiosities, history and geography of the country and of the Deccan especially... the
patronage and support of all interested in the diffusion of knowledge and Welfare of
the People is earnestly solicited.
Bombay Telegraph and Courier, 6 January 1849

"The task of the native newspapers and political associations is identical to the role
of the Opposition in the House of Commons in Parliament in England. That is to
critically examine government policy to suggest improvements, by removing those
parts that will not be to the benefit of the people, and also by ensuring speedy
implementation.
These associations ought to carefully study the particular issues, gather diverse
relevant information on the nation as well as on what are the possible and desirable
improvements, and this will surely earn it considerable influence”.
Source: Native Opinion, 3 April 1870
.
8.1. Explain the main reason for publishing newspapers by Krishna ji.

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 8.2. How was the task of native newspaper and political association seen identical
to the role of the opposition?
8.3. Analyze the reasons for the popularity of newspapers during the 19th century.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (2 marks)

9. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify (1+1=
them and write their correct names on the lines marked on the map. 2)

A) The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched.

B) The city where Indian National Congress session was held in September
1920.

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Question 9.
A) The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched.
B) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in September 1920

SECTION B
GEOGRAPHY (20 marks)

10. What is essential for resource development to contribute to overall development? 1

A. The availability of resources alone is enough.
B. The presence of foreign invaders and their governance.
C. Technological development and institutional changes.
D. Only human resources can contribute to development.

11. Identify the appropriate option to fill in the empty boxes: 1

Classification of Soils

Alluvial ? ?

Ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, Ideal for suitable for crops
wheat and other cereal and pulse crops. growing cotton like cashew nut.

A. Black soil, Red and Yellow soils

B. Laterite soil, Black soil.
C. Red & Yellow soils & Black soil.
D. Black soil & Laterite soil.

12. A total of 628 tigers died in India during the past five years due to natural causes and 1

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 other reasons, including poaching, according to government data. Meanwhile, 349
people were killed in tiger attacks during this period, with Maharashtra alone
recording 200 deaths.
[source: [Link]
Which of the following is the most significant indirect consequence of poaching on
the tiger population?

A. Reduction in the prey species, dwindling tiger's food supply.

B. Increase in human-wildlife conflicts in protected areas
C. Rise in the tiger population.
D. Decrease in tourism revenue in national parks
13. Based on the classification of forests, which of the following statements would most 1
likely apply to states like Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala?

A. These states mostly have forests managed as reserved or protected forests for
conservation.
B. They rely on unclassed forests and local community management for forest
conservation.
C. They have forest resources and primarily focus on industrial development.
D. There are no classified forests and forest management is entirely left to private
ownership.
14. Which one of the following states has made roof top water harvesting compulsory in 1
India?

A. Haryana
B. Punjab
C. Assam
D. Tamil Nadu.
15. Which of the following statements best evaluates the overall goal of the Pradhan 1
Mantri Krishi Sinchaee Yojana?

A. Addressing the negative ecological effects of large dams by reducing water usage.
B. To provide better irrigation systems and sustainable water conservation practices
for farmers.
C. Shifting farmers from traditional crops to more commercial, water-intensive crops.
D. Preserve the natural river flow and prevent the fragmentation of aquatic
ecosystems.

16. Rice is grown as a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but as a subsistence 2
crop in Odisha. Using your understanding of geographical factors and economic
practices, explain why rice cultivation differs in these regions.
17A. Person P is willing to establish a mineral based industry. He has been advised to set 5
up a bauxite industry in Odisha as a suitable way to make a profitable venture.
Analyse the possible reasons behind the advice given to her.
OR

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 17B. ‘Coal is the most important and abundant fossil fuel in India.’ Justify the statement
by evaluating the significant role it plays in the growth of the Indian economy in its
different forms.

18. Read the given text and answer the following questions:(1+2+1=4) 4

Global pollution is rising due to rapid economic growth, population increases, and
insufficient environmental management. This poses serious health risks for people
and ecosystems, particularly in low- and middle-income countries. Contributing to
these challenges, the global economy relies on deeply intertwined supply chains,
sustained by more than 100 billion tons of raw materials entering the system each
year. Intensive material consumption depletes natural resources and causes
negative environmental impacts at every stage of the product lifecycle. Global waste
is expected to increase to 3.4 billion tons by 2050.
Pollution of all types hinders development outcomes. Exposure to air pollution, water
pollution, and hazardous chemicals and wastes like mercury, lead and persistent
organic pollutants (POPs) causes debilitating and fatal illnesses, creates harmful
living conditions, and destroys ecosystems. Pollution undermines sustainable
economic growth, exacerbates poverty and inequality in both urban and rural areas,
and significantly contributes to climate change. Poor people, who cannot afford to
protect themselves from the negative impacts of pollution, end up suffering the most.
Pollution is the largest environmental cause of disease and premature death. It is
estimated to be several times more deaths than from AIDS, tuberculosis, and malaria
combined. Global health crises, such as the COVID-19 pandemic, are reminders of
the strong linkages between environment and health and of the need to address such
linkages systematically. [Source: [Link]

18.1 Why do you think is global waste expected to increase by 2050?

18.2 How do manufacturing industries cause pollution of different types? Explain with
examples.
18.3 Is it correct to consider pollution as a possible cause for worsening of the current
global trends of poverty and inequality? Justify.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (3 marks)

19. On the same outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable symbols: 1

I.(p) The dam in the Sutlej-Beas river basin, which is being used both for hydel
power production and irrigation.
OR
(q) The dam in the Mahanadi basin that integrates conservation of water with
flood control.

II. Any two of the following: (1x2=

(i) A major sea port in West Bengal 2)

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 (ii) An international airport in Tamil Nadu
(iii) An international airport in Punjab

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Q. No. 19.

b) Answer any three of the following:

i Name the dam in the Mahanadi basin that integrates conservation of water
with flood control.
ii Specify the name of a major sea port in West Bengal.
iii Name an international airport in Tamil Nadu.
iv State the name of an international airport in Punjab.
SECTION C
POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)
20. Which of the following statement(s) are true with respect to the ethnic composition of 1
Belgium?
I. 59 percent of the total population of Belgium lives in the Wallonia region and
speaks French.
II. 40 percent live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch.
III. One percent of the Belgians speak German.
IV. In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak French while 20 per cent
are Dutch speaking.
Choose the correct option:
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I and IV
21. The cartoon below depicts Germany’s government that was formed after the 2005 1
elections. It included the two major parties of the country, namely the Christian
Democratic Union and the Social Democratic Party. The two parties are historically
rivals to each other. Which of the following options best explains the cartoon?

Source-Democratic Politics, NCERT

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 A. Coalition Government.
B. Two Party System.
C. Democratic government.
D. Bi-party system.
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Q. No. 21
Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the correct
statement(s) -
I. Imposing the will of the majority community over others.
II. It helps in reducing the possibility of conflict between the social groups.
III. Power Sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.
IV. It brings socio- political opposition among parties.

Choose the correct option:

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. II and III
22. Consider the following case and choose the correct option- 1

Suppose the Government of India plans to issue new currency notes of different
denominations in order to curb the influence of black money. The Government of one
state is opposed to this policy of the Central Government. Can the state government
stop the union government from implementing this policy?

A. Yes, because Currency is the subject of State List

B. No, because Currency is a subject of Union List
C. Yes, because the approval of both the governments is necessary to implement
this change.
D. No, because any such change must be approved by the local government also.

23. Two statements are given as Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Study the statements 1
carefully and identify the correct alternative:
ASSERTION (A): Exclusive attention to caste can produce negative results in
democracy.
REASON (R): It can divert attention from other important issues thus leading to
tensions, conflicts and even violence.
Choose the correct option:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 24. Highlight any two key features of federalism. 2

25. ‘Women in India face discrimination, disadvantages and oppression in many ways.’ 2
Highlight any two aspects of life where you witness this inequality.
26. ‘Democracy leads to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens in every sphere.’ 3
Support this statement with suitable arguments.
27A. ‘Political parties play a significant role in the effective working of a democracy.’ 5
Explain.

OR
27B. ‘The challenge of dynastic succession is undoubtedly a major challenge for political
parties in India.’ Analyse the statement’.

28. Read the given text and answer the following questions:(1+1+2=4) 4
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala
community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority.
As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of
MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. Over the years, it
created feelings of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of
the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their
language and culture. As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil
communities strained over time. On the other hand, the Belgian leaders took a
different path. They recognised the existence of regional differences and cultural
diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times to
work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same
country. Source-Adapted from Power Sharing,NCERT

28. 1 State any two demands of Tamils in Sri Lanka.

28. 2 State the results of the Majoritarian Government in Sri Lanka.
28. 3 Explain any two provisions of the Belgian model of power sharing.

SECTION D
ECONOMICS (20 marks)

29. Underemployment is caused when - 1

A. More workers are employed than actually required
B. Fewer workers are employed than actually required
C. Workers are paid more than their actual output
D. Jobs are given only to highly educated workers

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 30. What can be inferred about the limitations of using per capita income (average 1
income) to compare well-being across countries? Choose the correct option as the
answer.

A. It shows how equally or unequally income is distributed among the people in a

country.
B. The only measure needed to understand a country’s development is Per capita
income.
C. It gives a basic idea of economic well-being but hides the income inequality.
D. It only reflects the industrial growth of a country and does not consider other
important factors.

31. Which of the following examples best demonstrates how the tertiary sector supports 1
both the primary and secondary sectors?

A. Farmers grow vegetables and sell them directly to consumers, with no

transportation or storage involved.
B. A factory makes shoes and uses raw materials like leather to create the product,
relying on transport and retail stores to distribute the shoes.
C. A bakery bakes bread and uses delivery services to send the bread to local
shops for sale, without any direct involvement of raw materials.
D. A company produces furniture from wood, but does not require any transport or
retail services to sell the product.

32. Which one of the following issues currency notes in India? 1

A. Finance Ministry.
B. Reserve Bank of India.
C. State Bank of India.
D. Central Bank of India.

33. Person Z tries to explain how the requirement of a double coincidence of wants in a 1
barter system limits trade and exchange. Which of the following justification do you
think will be used by him/her?

A. It makes trade more complicated, as each person must have what the other
person wants, limiting the pool of potential trade partners.
B. The barter system allows trade to be conducted more efficiently since both parties
already know what they need from the transaction.
C. It increases the number of exchanges because each person can trade for exactly
what they want.
D. The system creates value for goods by ensuring that both parties have a direct
need for each other’s goods.

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 34. Recognize and choose the option that correctly matches the effects and consequent 1
outcomes of globalization.

Column A Column B
(Effects of globalisation) (Outcomes)

[Link] foreign investment i. Expansion of global markets and access to

technology

[Link] exchange and ii. Loss of traditional jobs due to automation and
awareness cheaper labor elsewhere

[Link] exchange iii. Spread of cultural practices, ideas, and values

and awareness across borders

[Link] of multinational iv. Large companies becoming dominant players

corporations in global markets

Choose the correct option:

A. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv
B. 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
C. 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-i
D. 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv
35. Evaluate the utility of public services in contributing to the overall well-being of 3
individuals and society.
36. ‘Expanding access to loans in the formal sector is important, yet it is equally critical 3
that these loans are accessible to all people for national development.’ Justify the
statement.
37. Highlight the significant three factors that have contributed to the growth of 3
globalisation.
38A. A research student spoke with two people, M and N to learn about their work-related 5
differences. On the basis of the interview conducted with both of them, the student
concludes that while person M was working in an organized sector, person N was an
employee of a workplace that was functioning in an unorganised way. Analyse the
key differences between the two sectors that must have enabled the research
student to come to this conclusion.
OR
38B. Privatisation can have both positive and negative effects on the economy. Support
the statement with argument.

11
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 Map for Q. no. 9 (Section A) & Q. no. 19 (Section B)

12
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26