27-04-2025

1015CMD303001250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) The value of sin 275° × cosec 275° is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) None of these

2) As 'x' increases from 0° to 90°, the value of sinx :-

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remain constant
(4) first increases then decreases

3) Value of sin 120° is equal to :-

(1) cos(– 30°)

(2) sin 30°
(3) cos 60°
(4) cos 120°

4) If cos θ = and 'θ' lies in 1st quadrant, then find tan (90° – θ):-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The approximate value of x where

x = (sin 2°) (cos 2°), is :

(1)

(2) 2
(3) 1

(4)
6) tan(397°) is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)

The greatest value of the function –5 sinθ + 12 cosθ is

(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 7
(4) 17

8) If distance between points (5, a) and (6, 5) is , find a = ?

(1) 2, 8
(2) 2, 3
(3) 2, 4
(4) 2, 6

9) The slope of graph as shown in figure at point, 1, 2 and 3 is m1, m2, m3 respectively then.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10)

The equation y2 = 2x, represents that graph between x and y is a

(1) Straight line

(2) Parabola
(3) Hyperbola
(4) Circle

11)

In the graph slope of OA, AB and BC portion is :

(1) –, +, 0
(2) +, 0, –
(3) +, +, –
(4) –, 0, +

12) If x = t2, then graph between and t will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) If y = then the value of is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) is :

(1) 0
(2) constant
(3)
(4) 1

15)

(1) e1
0
(2) e
(3) zero
(4) None of these

16)

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) is equal to -

(1) 0
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1/2

18) Calculate slope of following equation :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A quantity Q varies with time(t) as Q = 10 sint find rate of change of Q w.r.t time at

(1) 5

(2)

(3)
(4) 0

20) Evaluate the following integrals

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) –1
(4) 1

21) Find the minimum value of the function

y = x3 – 3x2 + 6 :-

(1) 6
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) 1

22) For relation y = 3t2 – 6t, (where position y is in metre and time t is in second). The position of
particle, when velocity is zero, is :-

(1) 3
(2) –3
(3) 0
(4) 9

23) If y = x3 then find at x = 1.

(1) 6
(2) –6
(3) 3
(4) 1

24)

(1) ex(cos x + sin x)

(2) ex(cos x – sin x)
(3) ex(sin x – cos x)
(4) None

25) Find

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) +1

26)

The equation of straight line shown in figure is

(1) 6x + 8y = 15
(2) 4x + 3y = 18
(3) 2y + 6x = 7
(4) 3y + 4x = 24

27)

Which of following equation is best representation of given graph ?

(1) y = x + 1
(2) y = 2x – 1
(3) y = –x – 1
(4) y = –2x + 3
28)

If volume of the cube is given by V = a3. Where a is the side length of the cube then rate of change of
volume w.r.t. time

(1) 3a2

(2)
a3

(3)
3a2
(4) Not defined

29) If x = a cos t, y = b sin t then equals :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30)

The coordinates of a particle moving in xy plane vary with time as x = at and y = bt + 2. The locus
of the particle is

(1) Straight line

(2) Circle
(3) Parabola
(4) Ellipse

31) If is a unit vector in the direction of the vector , then :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Unit vector is used to specify the :-

(1) magnitude of a given vector

(2) direction of a given vector
(3) both magnitude and direction of a given vector
(4) None of the above

33) Find the incorrect statement :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) and are :-

(1) Concurrent vectors

(2) co-initial vectors
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Parallel vectors

35) If and , then which statement is correct ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) all of the above

36) The Resultant of and is perpendicular to . What is the angle between and ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Which of the following physical quantities is not an axial vector ?

(1) angular velocity

(2) angular momentum
(3) velocity
(4) torque

38) If resultant of two vectors shown in the figure is then value of is :-

(1)

(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

39) The vector sum of the forces of 10 N and 6 N can be.......

(1) 2 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 18 N
(4) 20 N

40) Two equal forces are acting at a point with angle of 60° between them. If the resultant force is
equal to , then magnitude of each force is :-

(1) 40 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 80 N
(4) 30 N

41) What is the angle between parallel vectors ?

(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) 180°
(4) 360°

42) Two vectors of 10 units and 5 units makes an angle of 120° with each other. Find the angle of
resultant with vector of 10 unit magnitude ?

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

43) Find the Net Resultant of these two vectors

(1) 10 N
(2) 12 N
(3) 14 N
(4) 20 N

44) Which pair of the following forces will never give resultant force of 2N?

(1) 2N and 2N
(2) 1N and 1N
(3) 1N and 3N
(4) 1N and 4N

45) When two vector and are added, the magnitude of the resultant vector is always

(1) greater than (a + b)

(2) less than or equal to (a + b)
(3) less than (a + b)
(4) equal to (a + b)

CHEMISTRY

1) Rutherford's experiment on scattering of α-particles showed for the first time that the atom has-

(1) Electrons
(2) Protons
(3) Nucleus
(4) Neutrons

2) When α-particles are sent through a thin metal foil, most of them go straight through the foil
because ?

(1) Alpha particles are much heavier than electrons

(2) Alpha particles are positively charged
(3) Most part of the atom is empty space
(4) Alpha particles move with high velocity

3) The radius of the nucleus is related to the mass number (A) by-
(1)
(2) R = R0(A)
(3)

(4)

4) The number of protons, electrons and neutrons in ion, respectively are

(1) 9, 10 and 10
(2) 9, 9 and 10
(3) 10, 9 and 10
(4) 9, 9 and 9

5) Find out the atoms which are isoneutronic :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) If the table of atomic masses were established with the oxygen atom and assigned value of 100
unit, then the mass of carbon atom would be, approximately :

(1) 12 unit
(2) 75 unit
(3) 25 unit
(4) 56 unit

7)

Match the column

For

Column-I Column-II

(A) No. of e– (P) Z

(B) No. of proton (Q) A

(C) No. of neutron (R) Z+y

(D) Nucleons (S) A–Z

(1) A → P, B → R, C → Q, D → S
(2) A → R, B → P, C → S, D → Q
(3) A → S, B → Q, C → P, D → R
(4) A → Q, B → P, C → S, D → R
8) In , if mass of proton is doubled, mass of neutron is halved and mass of e¯ is tripled then find
% change in atomic weight of .

(1) 25% decreased

(2) 75% increased
(3) 25% increased
(4) None of these

9) Which of the following is isoelectronic with N2O :

(1) NO
(2) N2O5
(3) CO2
(4) CO

10) Number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the element 89Ac281 are respectively :

(1) 89, 231, 89

(2) 89, 89, 242
(3) 89, 142, 89
(4) 89, 192, 89

11) Isotone of is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (2) & (3) both

12) Bohr's theory is not applicable to

(1) He
(2) Li+2
(3) He+
(4) H atom

13) 7N15 & 9F19 are :

(1) Isotope
(2) Isobar
(3) Isodiaphers
(4) Isosters
14) and are-

(1) Isotope
(2) Isobar
(3) Isotone
(4) Isodiaphers

15) What will be the energy of photon having wavelength of 400 Å :-

(1) 31eV
(2) 310eV
(3) 3.1eV
(4) 3100eV

16) Electromagnetic radiation travels through vaccum at a speed of

(1) 186000 m/s

(2) 125 m/s
(3) 3.00 × 108 m/s
(4) It depends upon wavelength

17) Angular momentum of L-shell of H atom will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Calculate the radius ratio of second orbit and third orbit of He+.

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 4 : 9
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 3 : 2

19) Find radius of second orbit of He+.

(1) 0.529 Å
(2) 1.058 Å
(3) 2.116 Å
(4) 0.265 Å

20) Find out the ratio of velocity of electron in 3rd orbit of He+ and 4th orbit of H :-
(1) 3 : 4
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 8 : 3
(4) 3 : 8

21) Calculate energy ratio for electron in 3rd orbit of He+ to 2nd orbit of Li2+ ion :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Calculate the potential energy of electron in 3rd orbit of H-

(1) –1.5 eV
(2) –3.02 eV
(3) –4.5 eV
(4) –2.25 eV

23) The ratio of potential energy to total energy of electron of H-atom is-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 2

24) If the total energy of an e– is –3.4 eV in H-atom then find out K.E. will be :

(1) 6.8 eV
(2) 1.51 eV
(3) 3.4 eV
(4) 0.85 eV

25) Energy of e– in 2nd orbit of H-atom is-

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) –3.4 eV
(3) –1.51 eV
(4) –0.54 eV

26) An electron jumps from lower orbit to higher orbit, when

(1) Energy is released

(2) Energy is absorbed
(3) No change in energy
(4) It radiates energy

27) Frequency of infrared radiations having wavelength 3 × 106 nm :-

(1) 1014 sec–1

(2) 1011 sec–1
(3) 1018 sec–1
(4) 108 sec–1

28) The wave number of a photon having wavelength of 1000 A° is

(1) 107 m–1

(2) 10–10 m–1
(3) 10–9 m–1
(4) 1000 m–1

29) The energy of a photon of light is _________ proportional to its frequency and _________
proportional to its wavelength.

(1) directly, directly

(2) inversely, inversely
(3) inversely, directly
(4) directly, inversely

30) The relative abundance of two neon isotopes of atomic weight 20 and 22 are 80% and 20%
respectively. The average atomic weight of neon is :-

(1) 20
(2) 20.2
(3) 20.4
(4) 21.6

31) Atomic weight of Ne is 20.2. Ne is mixture of Ne20 and Ne22 , Relative abundance of Ne22 isotope
is :-

(1) 90
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 10

32) Which of these are isosters :

(i) CO2 (ii) OF2 (iii) N2O (iv) HCl

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iii)

33) 56grams of N2 will have volume at NTP.

(1) 11.2L
(2) 22.4L
(3) 44.8L
(4) 67.2L

34) The mass of a molecule of water is :

(1) 3 × 10–26 kg
(2) 3 × 10–25 kg
(3) 1.5 × 10–26 kg
(4) 2.5 × 10–26 kg

35) 4.4 g of an unknown gas occupies 2.24 L of volume at STP. The gas may be :-

(1) N2O
(2) CO
(3) CO2
(4) 1 & 3 both

36) What is the mass of acetic acid (CH3COOH) present in its 0.1 mole?
[Molar mass of CH3COOH = 60]

(1) 6 gram
(2) 12 gram
(3) 15 gram
(4) 9 gram

37) Which of the following having maximum no. of moles?

[S = 32, O = 16, N = 14, Cl = 35.5]

(1) 16 gram SO3

(2) 22 gram N2O
(3) 32 gram O3
(4) 10 gram of Cl2

38) Gram atomic weight of oxygen is

(1) 16 amu
(2) 16 g
(3) 32 amu
(4) 32 g

39) Unit of molar mass is

(1) amu
(2) g mol-1
(3) milligram
(4) cm

40) Molecular mass of nitrogen is

(1) 28 u
(2) 32 u
(3) 48 u
(4) 1 g

41) Which of the following is a mixture

(1) H2
(2) O2
(3) Air
(4) P4

42) Which of the following is a compound

(1) H
(2) Na
(3) CO2
(4) O

43) Name of the SI unit of amount of substance

(1) Mole
(2) Mol
(3) Kelvin
(4) Candela

44) 1 atm equals to

(1) 152 cm Hg
(2) 76 cm Hg
(3) 100 cm Hg
(4) 760 cm Hg

45) A jug contains 5 L of milk. Calculate the volume of milk in

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) On the basis of structure and functions animal tissues are classified into :-

(1) 3 types
(2) 4 types
(3) 2 types
(4) 1 types

2)

Simple epithelium will be present in how many of the following structures ?

Alveoli, skin, nephron, tendon , cartilage , blood vessels, alimentary canal .

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

3) Read the following statements :

(A) Help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue
(B) Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
(C) Allows rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules.
A, B and C are respectively correct for :-

(1) Tight junction, Adhering junction, Gap junction

(2) Tight junction, Gap junction, Tight junction
(3) Adhering junction, Gap junction, Tight junction
(4) Tight junction, Gap junction, Adhering junction

4) Find out the epithelial tissue in which nuclei are located at the base ?

(1) Columnar epithelial tissue

(2) Cuboidal epithelial tissue
(3) Stratified squamous epithelial tissue
(4) Squamous epithelial tissue

5) Epithelial tissue originated from :-

(1) Ectoderm
(2) Endoderm
(3) Mesoderm
(4) All of these

6) Read the following statements carefully :-

(A) It forms the lining of alveoli of lungs
(B) It forms the lining of wet surfaces like buccal cavity and oesophagus
(C) It forms diffusion boundaries Which of the above give statements are associated with simple
squamous epithelial tissue?

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and A
(4) A, B and C

7) Thick part of loop of henle has :-

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) Compound epithelium

8) The type of tissue lining the fallopian tube is :-

(1) Columnar ciliated epithelium

(2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Neurosensory epithelium
(4) Germinal epithelium

9) Which of the following statement is not true for microvilli?

(1) It helps in absorption

(2) They increase surface area.
(3) They are contractile and motile
(4) They are present in intestine, gall bladder and PCT

10) Duct of salivary gland & pancreatic duct are lined by :

(1) Compound Epithelium

(2) Simple Epithelium
(3) Transitional Epithelium
(4) Pseudo stratified Epithelium

11) Read the following statements and find out how many of these are related to given figure :-
 (a) Multilayered epithelium
(b) Limited role in secretion and absorption
(c) Main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses
(d) They cover the dry surface of skin, moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

12) Recognise the figure and find out correct match :-

A-Mast cells, B-Fibroblast,

(1)
C-Collagen fibres, D- Macrophages
A-Macrophages, B-Fibroblast,
(2)
C-Collagen fibres, D- Mast cells
A-Macrophages, B-Collagen fibres,
(3)
C-Fibroblast, D- Mast cells
A-Fibroblast, B-Mast cells,
(4)
C-Collagen fibres, D- Macrophages

13) Which of the following connective tissue forms coverings like Pericardium, Periosteum,
Perichondrium ?

(1) White fibrous connective tissue (regular)

(2) Yellow fibrous connective tissue (regular)
(3) Yellow fibrous connective tissue (irregular)
(4) White fibrous connective tissue (irregular)

14) The excess of nutrients which are not used immediately are converted into fats and stored in:-

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

15) Connective tissue derived from _____ :-

(1) Ectoderm
(2) Mesoderm
(3) Endoderm
(4) Ecto-mesoderm

16) Choose the correct example of Hyaline cartilage :-

(1) Costal cartilage

(2) Tip of nose
(3) Inter vertebral disc
(4) Epiglottis

17) Which one is the largest cell of connective tissue proper ?

(1) Fibroblast
(2) Macrophage
(3) Mast cell
(4) Lymphocytes

18)

In Dense regular white fibrous connective tissue, The (A) are present in rows between many (B)
Bundle of fibre.
'A' & 'B' is respectively :-

(1) A → Collagen fibre, B → Transverse

(2) A → Collagen fibre, B → Parallel
(3) A → Elastic fibre, B → Transverse
(4) A → White fibre, B → Transverse

19) First originated tissue during embryonic development is :-

(1) Connective tissue

(2) Nervous tissue
(3) Epithelial tissue
(4) Muscular tissue

20) Stratified squamous epithelium is found in :-

(1) Pharynx
(2) Brain
(3) Duodenum
(4) Liver

21) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.

(1) The squamous epithlium is involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundary.
(2) The cuboidal and columnar epithelium help in secretion and absorption.
(3) The function of ciliated epithelium is to move particle or mucus in a specific direction.
(4) Compound epithelium play main role in secretion & absorption.

22) How many statement's are true ?

(a) Fibres are absent in hyaline cartilage.
(b) 1-4 chondrocytes are found in each lacuna of bone.
(c) Epithelial tissue has high regeneration power.
(d) For the nutrient epithelial tissue depends upon underlying connective tissue.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

23) Tendon connects :-

(1) Bone to bone

(2) Bone to muscles
(3) Muscle to cartilage
(4) Muscle to nerve

24) Cells of transitional epithelium are connected by following :

(1) Desmosomes
(2) Tight junction
(3) Interdigitation
(4) Gap junction

25) Epithelium at inner lining of large intestine is :-

(1) simple squamous epithelium

(2) simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Glandular columnar epithelium
(4) compound epithelium

26) Columnar Epithelium with microvilli is present in :-

(1) Gall Bladder

(2) Stomach
(3) PCT
(4) Pharynx

27)

Select the correct option :-

 Mesothelium → simple squamous epithelium
(1)
Endothelium → simple cuboidal epithelium
Mesothelium → simple cuboidal epithelium
(2)
Endothelium → simple squamous epithelium
Mesothelium → simple squamous epithelium
(3)
Endothelium → simple squamous epithelium
Mesothelium → simple cuboidal epithelium
(4)
Endothelium → simple cuboidal epithelium

28) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct matching :

Column-I Column-II

(1) Simple squamous (i) Beneath the skin

(2) Areolar connective tissue (ii) Tendon

(3) Dense regular C.T. (iii) Air sac

(4) PSCCGE (iv) Bronchi

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Basement membrane is made up of ?

(1) Mucopolysaccharides
(2) Glycoproteins
(3) Collagen fibres
(4) All of the above

30) Unicellular gland among the following is :

(1) Goblet cell

(2) Paneth cell
(3) Salivary gland
(4) Both 1 and 2

31) Compound epithelium is :-

(1) multilayered
(2) have limited role in protection
(3) cover inner surface of artery
(4) both (2) & (3)

32) Which of the following statements is associated with epithelium ?

(1) It has a free surface, which faces either a body fluids or outside environment.
(2) Cells are loosely packed with large inter cellular matrix.
(3) It is highly vascularised
(4) It is a supporting tissue

33) Find out the correct match for following options:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Following diagram represent which type of connective tissue :

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) White fibrous connective tissue
(4) Yellow fibrous conective tissue

35)

True about fibroblast is :

(1) These are chief matrix producing cell

(2) Maximum cell in connective tissue
(3) rich in RER
(4) All of above

36) In all connective tissues, except ..........., the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin.

(1) Blood
(2) Bone
(3) Cartilage
(4) Areolar tissue
37) Which of the following connective tissue often serves as a support framework for epithelium ?

(1) Adipose tissue

(2) Dense regular tissue
(3) Areolar tissue
(4) Dense irregular tissue

38) Match the columns :

Column-A Column-B

a Blood (i) Microglial cells

b Lungs (ii) Kupffer cells

c Liver (iii) Dust cells

d Brain (iv) Monocytes

a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) iv iii ii i

(3) iv ii iii i

(4) iv i iii ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) Which type of connective tissue used to form epimysium ?

(1) Dense fibrous C.T.

(2) Adipose C.T.
(3) Reticular fibrous C.T.
(4) Areolar C.T.

40)

In human white fibrous cartilage is found abundantly in :-

(1) Hyaline cartilage of joints

(2) Nostrils
(3) Intervertebral discs
(4) External ear

41) Mast cells secrete :-

(1) hemoglobin
(2) hippurin
(3) myoglobin
(4) histamine

42) Matrix of the connective tissue is secreted by :-

(1) Fibrocytes
(2) Histiocytes
(3) Macrophage
(4) Mast cells

43) Observe following diagram and found out correct option related to this :-

(1) Skin
(2) Tendon & Ligaments
(3) Pericardium
(4) Glisson's Capsule

44) White and yellow fibres are :

(1) Unbranched and branched respectively

(2) Branched and unbranched respectively
(3) Highly branched and unbranched respectively
(4) Unbranched and unbranched respectively

45) Fill in the blank A to D with the correct combination :-

I. The cells of adipose tissue are specialised to store ___(A)___.
II. ___(B)___ is fibrous protein.
III. Histamines are secreted by ___(C)___.
IV. Tendons and ligaments are ___(D)___connective tissue.

(A) – lipids, (B) – bone, (C) – fibroblasts,

(1)
(D) – muscular tissue
(A) – fats, (B) – collagen, (C) – mast cells,
(2)
(D) – dense regular
(A) – protein, (B) – cartilage, (C) – macrophages,
(3)
(D) – epithelial tissue
 (A) – vitamin, (B) – elastin, (C) – serotonin,
(4)
(D) – connective tissue

46) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of these is correct identified in the options given along with its correct location and
function ?

Tissue Location Function

Simple squamous Diffusion

(1) (A) Trachea
epithelium Boundary

Alimentary
(2) (B) Unicellular gland Secretion
canal

(3) (C) Bone Ear pinna Support

Compound
(4) (D) Skin Protection
epithelium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column I Column II Column III

Tall and Cuboidal Fallopian
a. i. K.
slender cells epithelium tube
Flattened
Tubular
cells with Columnar
b. ii. L. parts of
irregular epithelium
nephrons
boundaries
 Cilia on
Squamous Lining
c. their free iii. M.
epithelium of intestine
surface
Cube Ciliated Lining of
d. iv. N.
like cells epithelium blood vessel
(1) a–ii–M, b–iii–N, c–iv–K, d–i–L
(2) a–ii–K, b–i–L, c–iv–M, d–iii–N
(3) a–iv–M, b–iii–L, c–i–K, d–i–N
(4) a–ii–M, b–iii–N, c–iv–L, d–i–K

48)

The stretching ability is found in following :

(1) Stratified epithelium

(2) Transitional epithelium
(3) Simple epithelium
(4) All of these

49) Observe the diagram carefully and pick out the wrong statement from the options given below :-

Structural and functional unit of 'F' is nephron in which simple cuboidal and simple squamous
(1)
epithelium is present.
(2) 'F' is surrounded by dense regular connective tissue.
(3) 'C' is lined by transitional epithelium which is a stretchable epithelium
(4) 'D' is lined by stretchable epithelium

50) Arzyrophil fibres are present in :-

(1) In lymphoid organs

(2) In tendons
(3) In ligament
(4) In blood vessel

51) The cells of epithelial tissues are ____ packed with ___ intercellular matrix.

(1) tightly, little

(2) loosely, large
(3) loosely, little
(4) tightly, large
52) Non-nucleated and dead cells with Keratin protein found in which structure ?

(1) Inner lining of Buccal cavity

(2) Pharynx
(3) Oesophagus
(4) Epidermis of skin

53) Amoeboid cell with kidney shaped nucleus is

(1) Fibroblast
(2) Macrophage
(3) Mast cell
(4) Adipocycte

54) Ductless glands in human beings produce :-

(1) Saliva
(2) Bile
(3) Hormones
(4) Blood

55) Which of the following is/are the function/s of connective tissue ?

(a) Supporting
(b) linking
(c) Production of blood
(d) Transport of various substances

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only
(3) a and d only
(4) a, b, c and d

56) _______is directly connected to the outer nuclear membrane ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Golgi body
(3) ER
(4) Chloroplast

57) The chemical substance abundantly present in middle lamella is :–

(1) Cutin
(2) Chitin
(3) Lignin
(4) Pectin

58) Which of following boundary is capable of growth, which gradually diminishes as the cell
matures ?

(1) Primary cell wall

(2) Secondary cell wall
(3) Tertiary cell wall
(4) Cell membrane

59) A single unit membrane organelle is :-

(1) Ribosomes
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Lysosomes

60) Which of the following organelle is absent in plant cells of higher plants :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Centriole
(4) ER

61) The largest isolated single cell is the egg of a :-

(1) Mammal
(2) Reptile
(3) Amphibian
(4) Bird

62) Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms because :-

(1) Unicellular organism are capable of independent existence

(2) Unicellular organism are capable of performing the essential functions of life
(3) Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent life
(4) All of the above

63) Which of the following is membraneless organelle?

(1) Golgi body

(2) Mitochondria
(3) Ribosome
(4) Nucleus

64) Membrane proteins are classified on the basis of :-

(1) Size and shape

(2) Ease of extraction
(3) Function
(4) Number

65) Flip-flop movements in plasma membrane are shown by :-

(1) Lipids
(2) Protein
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) Minerals

66) The most important function of plasma membrane is :-

(1) Cell growth

(2) Cell division
(3) Endocytosis
(4) Transport

67) Desmotubules present in plasmodesmata is derived from :-

(1) Plasma membrane

(2) ER
(3) Golgi body
(4) Tonoplast

68) Which of the following is not a function of cell wall :-

(1) gives shape to the cell

(2) Endocytosis
(3) cell to cell interaction
(4) protection from mechanical damage & infection

69) Lipids are arranged within the membrane with :-

(1) Polar heads towards innerside and the hydrophobic tails towards outerside
(2) Both heads and tails towards outerside
(3) Heads towards outerside and tail towards inside
(4) Both heads and tails towards innerside

70) Mesosomes of prokaryotes are functionally similar to:

(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Lysosomes
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Ribosomes

71) Who gave modern cell theory?

(1) Rudolf Virchow
(2) Singer & Nicolson
(3) Schleiden & Schwann
(4) Watson & Crick

72) Carbohydrates are present in the plasmalemma in the form of :–

(1) Hemicellulose
(2) Cellulose
(3) Starch
(4) Glycoprotein

73) Basic unit of life is :-

(1) Cell
(2) Tissue
(3) Organ
(4) Organ system

74) The smooth E.R. is generally made up of :–

(1) Cisternae
(2) Tubules
(3) Vesicle
(4) All the above

75) Ribophorin occur on the surface of :–

(1) Rough E.R.

(2) Smooth E.R.
(3) Golgi body
(4) None

76) The plasma membrane consists mainly of :

(1) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer

(2) phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
(3) proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
(4) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules

77) Select the correct matching in the following pairs:

(1) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids

(2) Rough ER– Synthesis of glycogen
(3) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids
(4) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids
78) Which of the following structures is not found in prokaryotic cells?

(1) Plasma membrane

(2) Nuclear envelope
(3) Ribosome
(4) Mesosome

79) Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane ?

(1) Camillo Golgi

(2) Schleiden and Schwann
(3) Singer and Nicolson
(4) Robert brown

80) Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

(1) Microsomes – Participate in the process of photosynthesis

(2) Lysosomes – Involved in synthesising amino acids
Endoplasmic reticulum – Plays role in the formation of a new nuclear membrane during cell
(3)
division
(4) Centrosomes – Provide enzymes required in the digestive process

81) Why the hydrophobic tails of phospholipid molecule are towards inner side of the cell membrane
?

(1) To form strong bond

(2) To make the cell membrane a compact structure
(3) To protect the head of phospholipid molecule from water
(4) To protect the tails from the aqueous enviroment

82) Animal cell differs from plant cell in possessing :-

(1) Golgi body

(2) Centrosome
(3) Vacuole
(4) Plastid

83) Choose the incorrect statement with respect to cell membrane :-

(1) Cell membrane is an asymmetric structure

(2) Cholesterol controls fluidity of animal cell membranes
(3) Phospholipid molecules frequently exhibit flip-flop movement
(4) Integral proteins can not be easily detached from cell membrane

84) For a plant cell, correct statement is :-

(1) Central vacuole is not present

(2) Centrioles are not present for cell division
(3) Cell membrane is not present
(4) Peroxisomes are absent

85) In the prokaryotes ribosomal units are formed in:-

(1) Nucleolus
(2) Nucleoplasm
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Nucleus

86) Which of the following statements is incorrect about the plasma membrane ?

(1) The ratio of proteins and lipid varies considerably in different cell types
(2) 52% protein and 40% lipids are in the membrane of human RBC
(3) Integral proteins are found on the intracellular surface of cell membrane only
(4) Head of lipid is hydrophilic

87)

As the ......A.......... molecules cannot pass through the .......B......... lipid bilayer, they require .....C.....
to facilitate their transport across the membrane.
Choose the correct words for blanks respectively from the following :–

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88)

According to fluid-mosaic model, the quasi-fluid nature of............enables lateral movement

of..............within the overall bilayer. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as its
................ :-
(i) Carbohydrates
(ii) Lipids
(iii) Proteins
(iv) Fluidity
(v) Selective permeability
 Correct sequence is :-

(1) ii, iii, iv

(2) iii, i, iv
(3) iii, ii, v
(4) i, ii, iv

89)

Who for the first time reported that the most striking difference between animal and plant is of cell
wall -

(1) Schleiden
(2) Schwann
(3) Virchow
(4) Nagelli

90) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Middle lamella is chiefly made up of calcium and magnesium pectate

(2) Secondary cell wall is found in harder woody parts of a plant
(3) Plasmodesmata are cytoplasmic bridges that connect the neighbouring plant cells
(4) Secondary wall is formed on the outer side of the cell
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 1 3 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 2 2 3 3 2 4 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 1 2 3 4 1 3 2 1 1 2 4 3 4 2 3 1 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 4 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 4 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 1 3 1 1 3 2 2 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 1 4 3 4 4 3 1 4 1 3 2 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 1 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 1 1 4 3 2 1 3 1 1 2 4 2 2 1 1 2 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 2 3 3 1 3 4 4 4 1 1 1 2 4 1 3 2 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 2 1 2 4 1 2 2 1 1 4 2 3 4 3 4 1 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 3 2 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 2 1 3 1 2 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 3 2 3 3 2 1 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) sin275° × cosec 275°

= sin 275° ×

2)

As θ increases from 0° to 90°

sin θ increases

3) sin 120° = sin 60° = cos 30° = cos(– 30°) =

4)

cosθ = = , B = 7, H = 25, P = 24

tan[90° – θ] = cotθ =

5) x = (sin2°) (cos2°)

x (sin2°) (1) = sin

6) tan(360° + 37°) = tan37° =

7)

8)

9)

Slope is increasing

10)
By theory

11)

theory based

12) x = t2

13) y = =

14)

= constant

15)

16)

17)

18)
4x + 3y = –12
3y = – 4x –12
 slope = m = –

19) As Q = 10 sint t

⇒ = 10 cos t
at t = π/4

⇒ = 10 cos π/4
=

20)

21) = 3x2 – 6x = 0
⇒ 3x(x – 2) = 0
⇒ x = 0 or x = 2

= 6x – 6

for x = 2; = 6 = +ve
Hence y is minimum at x = 2
ymin = 23 – 3(2)2 + 6 = 2

2
22) y = 3t – 6t

t = 1 sec.
at t = 1 sec.
y = 3 × 12 – 6 × 1 = 3 – 6 = –3

23)

24)

Use product rule

25) cos480° + cos540°

⇒ cos(450° + 30°) + cos(540°)
⇒ – cos(5 × 90° + 30°) + cos(6 × 90° + 0°)
⇒ – sin30° –1

26)

Slope = –tan θ = and c = 8,

y = mx + c = x+8
3y + 4x = 24

27)

m > 0, c > 0
In y = mx + c

28)

V = a3

29)

30) is of form y = mx + c

31) Unit vector of is →

42)
 44) If two vectors A and B are given then range of their resultant can be written as (A – B) ≤ R
≤ (A + B)
i.e., Rmax = A + B and Rmin = A – B.
If B = 1 and A = 4, then their resultant will lie in between 3N and 5N. It can never be 2N.

CHEMISTRY

49) Hint : No. of protons = Z

No. of neutrons = A – Z
Sol. : For , No. of protons = 9
No. of electrons = 9 + 1 = 10
No. of neutrons = 19 – 9 = 10

50) Isoneutronic means, species same no. of neutrons

51)

16O = 16 amu

16 amu = 100

∴ 1 amu =

∴ 12 amu = = 75 unit

63)

65)

He⁺: n1 = 3, Z1 = 2
H: n2 = 4, Z2 = 1

66)

67) PE = 2 × TE
 = 2 × (–1.51)
= –3.02 eV

68)

PE = 2 TE

69) T.E. = – K.E. = – (–3.4) = 3.4 eV

70)

E = –13.6 × = –13.6 × = – 3.4 eV

71)

When e- jumps from lower to higher energy level, energy is absorbed.

When e- comes from higher to lower energy level, energy is released.

73) Wave number =107m–1

74) Allen Module – [Link] 49, [Link]. 2

Fact

75)

Average atomic mass

76)

Ne20 and Ne22 At. weight = 20.2

X1 X2

= 20.2

X1 = 90% X2 = 10%
 80)

Moles of gas = = Mw = 44
N2O and CO2

90)

Since, 1 and 1 m = 100 cm

or

Hence,

BIOLOGY

91)

Animal tissues are generally classified into four main types:

1. Epithelial tissue: Covers body surfaces and lines hollow organs, body cavities, and ducts.
Functions include protection, absorption, secretion, and filtration.

2. Connective tissue: Supports, connects, and separates different types of tissues. Includes
cartilage, bone, blood, adipose tissue, and others.

3. Muscle tissue: Responsible for body movement. Includes skeletal, smooth, and cardiac
muscle.

4. Nervous tissue: Conducts electrical signals throughout the body. Includes neurons and
neuroglia.

The correct answer is 2. (4 types)

93) NCERT Pg. # 102

94) NCERT XI Page # 101, Para # 6 (Eng)

96) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 101, 102

97) The correct answer is: (2) Cuboidal epithelium

 Explanation:

A. The thick segment of the Loop of Henle (ascending limb) is lined with cuboidal epithelium.
B. The thin segment (descending limb) is lined with simple squamous epithelium.

Thus, thick Loop of Henle has cuboidal epithelium.

100) NCERT Pg # 102

104) NCERT XI, Page#103, 2nd para

107) NCERT Pg. # 103

110) XIth NCERT Pg. No. 102

111) NCERT (XI), Pg. # 101

116)

NCERT (page no.101)

132) NCERT Pg. # 102 (Para-10)

135) NCERT Pg. # 103, Para no. 11 and 12

139) NCERT XIth Pg.#101,292,293

141) Concept :
Epithelium/Epithelial Tissue

Solution/Explanation :
A tissue which grows upon another tissue is called Epithelium. It always rest upon underlying
connecting tissue. Epithelium is the only tissue in which cells are always arranged in uniform
layer. Epithelium cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix.
Due to absence of intercellular spaces blood vessels, lymph vessels & capillaries are unable to
piece this tissue so blood circulation is absent in epithelium. Hence cells depend for their
nutrients on underlying connective tissue.

143) Module-2, Pg # 114, NCERT XIth Pg # 103

144) NCERT XIth Pg # 102

145) NCERT (XI) (E) Pg. # 102,104

177)

NCERT XI Pg # 94