03-11-2025

2001CMD303035250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) An iron tyre is to be fitted onto a wooden wheel 1.0 m in diameter. The diameter of the tyre is 6
mm smaller than that of whell. The tyre should be heated so that its timperature increases by a
minimum of (coefficient of volume expansion of iron is 3.6 × 10–5 °C–1)

(1) 167 °C
(2) 334 °C
(3) 500 °C
(4) 1000 °C

2) Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of the ground where AB = a. The boy at B starts
running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity v1. The boy at A starts running
simultaneously with velocity v and catches the other boy in a time t, where t is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Steam at 100°C is passed into 1.1 kg of water contained in a calorimeter of water equivalent 0.02
kg at 15°C till the temperature of the calorimeter and its contents rises to 80°C. What is the mass of
steam condensed? Latent heat of steam = 536 cal/g.

(1) 0.13 kg
(2) 1.3 kg
(3) 13 kg
(4) 0.013 kg

4) Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction
every T min. A girl is driving scooty with a speed of 60 km/h in the direction X to Y notices that a bus
goes past her every 30 minutes in the direction of her motion, and every 10 minutes in the opposite
direction. Choose the correct option for the period T of the bus service and the speed (assumed
constant) of the buses.

(1) 9 min, 40 km/h

(2) 25 min, 100 km/h
(3) 10 min, 90 km/h
(4) 15 min, 120 km/h

5) A variable force, given by the 2-dimensional vector ,acts on a particle. The force is
in newtons and x is in metres. What is the change in the kinetic energy of the particle as it moves
from the point with coordinates (2,3) to (3,0) ?(The coordinates are in metres) :-

(1) –7 Joules
(2) Zero
(3) +7J
(4) +19 J

6) A copper block of mass 4 kg is heated in a furnace to a temperature 425°C and then placed on a
large ice block. The mass of ice that will melt in this process will be: (Specific heat of copper = 500 J
kg–1 °C–1 and heat of fusion of ice = 336 kJ kg–1) :-

(1) 0.5 kg
(2) 1 kg
(3) 1.5 kg
(4) 2.5 kg

7) A substance is cooled by a constant power its temperature Vs time graph is shown. The value of

C฀฀฀฀฀ : C฀฀฀฀฀฀ : C฀฀฀฀฀฀ will be :

(1) 2 : 3 : 3
(2) 3 : 6 : 2
(3) 3 : 1 : 2
(4) None

8) If for hydrogen CP – Cv = m and for nitrogen Cp – Cv = n, where CP and Cv refer to specific heats
per unit mass relation between m and n is : (Molecular weight of hydrogen = 2 and molecular weight
of nitrogen = 14)

(1) n = 14m
(2) n = 7m
(3) m = 7n
(4) m = 14n
9) For a gas if then how much degrees of freedom gas will have.

(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 5

10) P-T diagram is shown in given figure. Which of the following graph correctly represents
the corresponding V-T diagram?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Two cylinders A and B fitted with pistons contain equal amounts of an ideal diatomic gas at 300
K. The piston of A is free to move while that of B is held fixed. The same amount of heat is given to
the gas in each cylinder. If the rise in temperature of the gas in A is 30 K, then the rise in
temperature of the gas in B is :

(1) 30 K
(2) 18 K
(3) 50 K
(4) 42 K

12) Volume (V) of a monoatomic gas varies with temperature (T) as shown.

The ratio of work done to heat absorbed by the gas when it's state
changes from A to B is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) In addition to the gas equation PV = nRT a certain gas also obeys the relation P2V = constant. If
the initial temperature is T and the gas expands to thrice its initial volume, its final temperature will
be:

(1)
(2) 3T
(3) T/3
(4)

14) For a certain process, pressure of diatomic gas varies according to the relation P = aV2, where a
is constant. What is the molar heat capacity of the gas for this process ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
15) A carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the
temperature of source is increased, so as to increase its efficiency by 50% of original efficiency.

(1) 280K
(2) 275K
(3) 325K
(4) 250K

16) The temperature inside and outside a refrigerator are 273 K and 300 K respectively. Assuming
that the refrigerator cycle is reversible. For every joule of work done heat delivered to the
surrounding will be nearly :-

(1) 11 J
(2) 22 J
(3) 33 J
(4) 50 J

17) The mean free path for a gas, with molecular diameter d and number density n can be expressed
as (T is temperature, P is pressure of the gas and kB is Boltzmann constant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (2) and (3)

18) A container with insulating walls is divided into two equal parts by a partition fitted with a valve.
One part is filled with an ideal gas at pressure P and temperature T, whereas the other part is
completely evacuated. If the value is suddenly opened, the pressure and temperature of the gas will
be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A piston shown can move freely inside a non-conducting cylinder one mole of an ideal gas is in
left and right chamber is evacuated. Initially piston is held at middle of cylinder and temperature of
gas is 300 K. If the piston is released suddenly temperature of gas will be:
(1) 150 K
(2)
(3) 300 K
(4)

20) The variation of pressure P with volume V for an ideal y monoatomic gas during an adiabatic
process is an shown at point A magnitude of rate of change of pressure with volume is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) 1 mole of gas having γ = is mixed with 1 mole of a having γ = . What will be the γ for the
mixture?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The P-V diagram of 2 g of helium gas for a certain process A → B is shown in the figure. What is
the heat given to the gas during the process A → B ?

(1) 4 P0V0
(2) 6 P0V0
(3) 4.5 P0V0
(4) 2 P0V0

23) The variation of PV graph with V of a fixed mass of a ideal gas at constant temperature is
graphically represented as shown in figure :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

24) Two spherical vessel of equal volume, are connected by a narrow tube. The apparatus contain an
ideal gas at one atmosphere and 300 K. Now if one vessel is immersed in a bucket of constant
temperature 600 K and the other in a bucket of constant temperature 300 K. Then the common

pressure will be :-

(1) 1 atm

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) PV graph was obtained from state-1 to state-2 when a given mass of a gas is subjected to

temperature changes. During the process, the gas is

(1) Heated continuously

(2) Cooled continuously
(3) Heated in the beginning and cooled towards the end.
(4) Cooled in the beginning and heated towards the end.

26) A volume V, absolute temperature T graph was obtained when a given mass of a gas is heated.

During the heating process from state-1 to state-2, the pressure

(1) remain same
(2) decrease
(3) increased
(4) none

27) An electroscope is given a positive charge, causing its foil leaves to separate. When an object is
brought near to top plate of the electroscope, the foils separate even further. We conclude

(1) that the object is positively charged

(2) that the object is electrically neutral
(3) that the object is negatively charged
(4) None of these

28) Two identical metallic spheres A and B (equally charged) when placed at certain distance in air
repel each other with a force of F. Another identical uncharged sphere C is first placed in contact
with A and then in contact with B and finally placed at midpoint between spheres A and B. The force
experienced by sphere C will be :

(1) 3F/2
(2) 3F/4
(3) F
(4) 2F

29) Two equal charges are separated by a distance d. A third charge placed on a perpendicular
bisector at x distance will experience maximum coulomb force when

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The system consists of three charges, all free to move, kept in a straight line. Find the value of Q

so that all the three charges are in equilibrium.

(1) 4q/9
(2) –4q/9
(3) 4q/3
(4) –4q/3

31) A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in a uniform electric field E. The
instantaneous power given to the charged particle by electric field at time t is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Two charges q and 3q are separated by a distance ‘r’ in air. At a distance x from charge q, the
resultant electric field is zero. The value of x is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Six point charges are placed at the vertices of a hexagon of side 1 m. Net electric field at the

centre of the hexagon is -

(1) Zero
(2) 6 q/4πε0
(3) q/πε0
(4) q/4πε0

34) How many electrons should be removed from a coin of mass 1.6 gm, So that it may be in
equilibrium in a electric field of intensity 109 N/C directed upward ?

(1) 9.8 × 107

(2) 9.8 × 105
(3) 9.8 × 103
(4) 9.8 × 101

35) An infinite number of electric charges each equal to 5 nano-coulomb (magnitude) are placed
along X-axis at x = 1 cm, x = 2 cm,
x = 4 cm, x = 8 cm .......... and so on. In the setup if the consecutive charges have opposite sign, then

the electric field in Newton/Coulomb at x = 0 is :-

(1) 12 × 104
(2) 24 × 104
(3) 36 × 104
(4) 48 × 104

36) A drop of rain water of mass 2 g falling from a height of 0.5 km hits the ground with speed 30
m/s. Then work done by resistive force of air is

(1) – 9.10 J
(2) –8.75 J
(3) +0.10 J
(4) –8.25 J

37) A block weighing 40 N travels down a smooth fixed curved track AB, joined to a rough
horizontal surface (figure). The rough surface has a friction coefficient of 0.10 with the block. If the
block starts slipping on the track from a point 2.0 m above the horizontal surface, the horizontal

distance it will move on the rough surface is :-

(1) 40 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 10 m

38) Find the maximum force for which both the block will move with same acceleration.

(1) 16 N
(2) 32 N
(3) 48 N
(4) 8 N
39) In the shown figure acceleration of mass M is :

(1) 20 m/s2 leftward

(2) 5 m/s2 leftward
(3) 10 m/s2 rightward
(4) 5 m/s2 rightward

40) In the system shown in figure all surfaces are smooth string is massless and inextensible (in
steady state). Find the extension in the spring if force constant of spring is K = 50 N/m (Take g = 10

m/s2)

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) Zero

41) A block of mass placed on a wedge of inclination θ. The whole system is accelerated horizontally
so that the block does not slip on the wedge. The force exerted by the wedge on the block has a
magnitude.

(1) mg

(2)

(3) mg cos θ
(4) mg tan θ

42) Two rods of lengths L1 and L2 are made of materials whose coefficients of linear expansion are α1
and α2. If the difference between the two lengths is independent of temperature

(1) (L1/L2) = (α1/α2)

(2) (L1/L2) = (α2/α1)
(3) =

(4) =

43) Which one of the following is a wrong statement in kinetic theory of gases?
(1) The gas molecules are in random motion.
(2) The volume occupied by the molecules of a gas is negligible.
(3) The force of attraction between the molecules is negligible.
(4) The collision between molecules in inelastic.

44) A body throws a ball upwards with velocity v0 = 20 m/s. The wind imparts a horizontal
acceleration of 4 m/s2 to the ball. The angle q from vertical at which the ball must be thrown so that

the ball returns to the boy's hand is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) tan–1 (1.2)

(2) tan–1 (0.2)
(3) tan–1 (2)
(4) tan–1 (0.4)

45) The number of oxygen molecules in a cylinder of volume 1 m3 at a temperature of 27°C and
pressure 13.8 Pa is : (Boltzmaan's constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)

(1) 6.23 × 1026

(2) 0.33 × 1028
(3) 3.3 × 1021
(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY

1) Which can show optical isomerism :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All
2) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Meso tartaric acid is optically inactive due to presence of internal compensation
(2) Chirality is essential condition for optical activity
(3) Racemic mixture may be dextrorotatory or leavorotatory
(4) Racemic mixture is optically inactive due to external compensation

3) How many structural isomers are formed by C6H14 ?

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

4) and are:

(1) Metamer
(2) Functional group isomer
(3) Chain isomer
(4) Position isomer

5) Which of the following pairs of compounds is a ring-chain isomer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
CH2 = CH – CH2 – OH and

(4)

6) , , & are :-

(1) Chain-isomers
(2) Position isomers
(3) Ring-chain isomers
(4) Functional isomers

7) The geometrical isomerism is shown by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which of the following group has maximum hyperconjugation effect but minimum inductive effect
:-

(1) –CH3
(2) –CH2–CH3
(3) –CD3

(4)

9) Select the correct statement.

(i) Delocalisation of σ-electron is hyperconju-gation
(ii) Delocalisation of π-electron is resonance.
(iii) Permanent partial displacement of σ-electron is inductive effect.

(1) i & iii

(2) ii & iii
(3) i & ii
(4) i, ii, iii

10) The increasing order of stability of the following free radicals is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Tautomerism is not observed in?

(1)

(2) CH3–CN

(3)

(4)

12) Which of the following carbocation is resonance stabilized?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The most stable resonating structure of is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All are equally stable

14) Which have most stable enol form :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

15) Give reactivity order towards EAR.

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(3) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
(4) (iii) > (ii) > (iv) > (i)

16) CH3 – CH = CH2 A

A is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3–CH2–CHBr2

17)

Compare the rate of electrophilic addition reaction :-

(I) (II)
(III)
(1) I > II > III
(2) II > I > III
(3) II > III > I
(4) III > II > I

18) What is the major product of the following reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Which doesn't follow markonikov's rule :-

(1) CH3–CH=CH2
(2) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(3)

(4) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2

20) Which reactions are most common in alkenes

(1) Electrophilic substitution reactions

(2) Nucleophilic substitution reactions
(3) Electrophilic addition reactions
(4) Nucleophilic addition reactions

21) (P) Major product (P) will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

22) Which of the following is major product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Major product will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
24) Oxidation number of fluorine in F2O is :

(1) +1
(2) +2
(3) –1
(4) –2

25) The reaction is balanced if:-

5H2O2 + xBrO2 + 2OH– —→ xBr– +yO2 + 6H2O;

(1) x = 5, y = 2
(2) x= 2, y = 5
(3) x = 4, y = 10
(4) x = 5, y = 5

26) Oxidation state of nitrogen is incorrectly given for :

Compound Oxidation State

(1) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 –3

(2) NH2OH –1

(3) (N2H5)2SO4 +2

(4) Mg3N2 –3

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Which of the following is a redox reaction :-

2– + 2–
(1) 2CrO4 + 2H → Cr2O7 + H2O
(2) CuSO4 + 4NH3 → [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
(3) 2Na2S2O3 + I2 → Na2S4O6 + 2NaI
2– – 2–
(4) Cr2O7 + 2OH → 2CrO4 + H2O

28) Which of the following is not the correct match for equivalent. weight :-

(1) KMnO4 + KI

(2) Cl2

KHC2O4. H2C2O4
(3)
(As reducing agent)
 KHC2O4.H2C2O4
(4)
(As acid)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R).
Assertion :- The decomposition of H2O2 to form H2O and O2 is an example of disproportionation
reaction.
Reason :- The oxygen of peroxide is in –1 oxidation state and it is converted to zero oxidation state
in O2 and –2 oxidation state in H2O.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

30) Match the following column-I and column-II :

Column-I Column-II
(a) H2S (p) Oxidising agent
(b) KMnO4 (q) Reducing agent
(c) H2O2 (r) Can acts as both oxidising and reducing agent
(1) (a - r), (b - p), (c - q)
(2) (a - q), (b - p), (c - r)
(3) (a - p), (b - q), (c - r)
(4) (a - r), (b - q), (c - p)

31) A solution of 10 ml, M/5 Mohr's salt was titrated with KMnO4 solution in acidic medium. The
amount of KMnO4 used will be :

(1) 5 ml of 0.1M
(2) 10 ml of 0.1 M
(3) 10 ml of 0.5 M
(4) 20 ml of 0.02 M

32) What will be the EMF for the given cell ?

Pt(|H2(g),P1)|H+(aq,1M)||H+(aq.,1M)|(H2(g),P2)|Pt(s)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

33) Which of the following is anodic reaction ?

(1)
SO42– + H2O → H2SO4 + O2 + 2e–

(2)
H+ + e– → H2
(3) Ag+ + e– → Ag
(4) None of these

34) (i) Cu + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2(g);

= +0.34 V
(ii) Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2(g);
= –0.76 V
(iii) Ag + 2HCl → AgCl + H2(g);
V
Which of the above reactions is feasible ?

(1) (ii)
(2) (i)
(3) (iii)
(4) All of the above

35) The values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are –0.41, +1.57, +0.77 and +1.97 V respectively.
For which one of these metals the change in oxidation state from +2 to +3 is easiest ?

(1) Co
(2) Mn
(3) Fe
(4) Cr

36) The electrolytic decomposition of dilute sulphuric acid with platinum electrode, cathodic
reaction is:-

+
(1) Reduction of H2O / H
(2) Oxidation of
Reduction of
(3)

(4) Oxidation of H2O

37)
A 5 ampere current is passed through a solution of zinc sulphate for 40 minutes. Find the amount of
zinc deposited at cathode (atomic weight Zn = 65.38) :-

(1) 40.65 gm
(2) 4.065 gm
(3) 0.4065 gm
(4) 65.04 gm

38) The ratio of weights of hydrogen gas liberated and magnesium deposited by passing the same
amount of electricity from aqueous H2SO4 and fused MgSO4 are :

(1) 1 : 8
(2) 1 : 12
(3) 1 : 16
(4) None

39) The molarity of 0.3 N Ca3(PO4)2 solution will be:-

(1) 1.8 M
(2) 0.3 M
(3) 0.05 M
(4) 5 M

40) A solution of a substance containing 1.05 g per 100 mL was found to be isotonic with 3% glucose
solution. The molecular mass of substance is :-

(1) 31.5
(2) 6.3
(3) 63
(4) 630

41) Which of following statement is not correct :-

(1) Non–ideal solutions can be azeotrope.

(2) Raoult's Law is special case of Henry's Law.
(3) Aquatic species are more comfortable in hot water than cold water.
(4) Components of azeotropic mixtures can not be separated by fractional distillation.

42) Which of the following will show positive deviation from Raoult's Law :-

(1) Benzene and toluene

(2) Chloroform and acetone
(3) Acetic acid and pyridine
(4) Ethanol and water

43) Which of the following is an example of heterogeneous equilibrium ?

(1) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
(2) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
(3) CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(4) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)

44)

Consider the following equilibrium in a closed container

N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)

At a fixed temperature, the volume of a reaction container is halved. For this change, which of the
following statements holds true regarding the equilibrium constant (Kp) and degree of dissociation
(α)?
(1) Neither KP nor α changes
(2) Both KP and α change
(3) KP changes but α does not change
(4) KP does not change but α changes

45) In combustion of CH4 number of e– involved is :-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 2

BIOLOGY

1) Here 'S' (Svedberg's unit) stands for sedimentation coefficient then what are [A] & [B] for

ribosomes present in cytoplasm of eukaryotic cell :-

(1) A – 40S B – 60S

(2) A – 60S B – 40S
(3) A – 80S B – 60S
(4) A – 40S B – 80S

2) Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function ?
(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis
(2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, synthesis of lipid
(3) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
(4) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids

3) Mark the incorrect statements related to cell wall:-

(a) Non-living rigid structure
(b) Present in fungi and plants
(c) Provides barriers to undesirable macromolecules
(d) Primary wall is capable of growth
(e) Primary wall gradually diminishes as the cell matures

(1) a, b, d
(2) d only
(3) c, d
(4) All statements are correct

4) Cell wall not only gives _________ to the cell. It also help in _________ and provide barrier to
undesirable ___________.
Option :
(i) Macromolecules
(ii) Cell to cell recognition
(iii) Micromolecules
(iv) Shape
(v) Cell to cell interaction
The correct sequence is :-

(1) (iv), (iii), (i)

(2) (iv), (v), (i)
(3) (iv), (iii), (ii)
(4) (iii), (ii), (i)

5) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(a) ER divide the intracellular space into two distinct compartments
(b) Only one chloroplast is present in chlamydomonas
(c) Lysosomes is the double membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the process of
packaging in the golgi body
(d) In plant cells, the vacuole can occupy up to 90 percent of the volume of the cell
(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

6) An elaborate network of filamentous......structure present in the cytoplasm is collectively referred

to as the........ :-

(1) Cytoskeleton, Proteinaceous

(2) Proteinaceous, Cytoskeleton
(3) Lipoidal, Mitochondria
(4) Lipoidal, Plasma membrane

7) Match the following column–I with column–II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

A Aleuroplast i Photosynthesis

B Elaioplast ii Storage of starch

C Chloroplast iii Storage of protein

D Amyloplast iv Storage of fat

(1) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv
(2) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
(3) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
(4) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i

8) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Cristae (i) Chromatin

(b) Glycosylation (ii) Mitochondria

(c) Quantasome (iii) Chloroplast

(d) Histones (iv) Golgi complex

(1) (a)-ii, (b)-iv, (c)-iii, (d)-i
(2) (a)-i, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-iv
(3) (a)-i, (b)-iii, (c)-iv, (d)-ii
(4) (a)-iv, (b)-iii, (c)-ii, (d)-i
9) Which one is wrong for given diagram ?

(1) Perform the function of packaging materials

(2) Important site of formation of glycoprotein and glycolipid
(3) Highly polymorphic
(4) It recieves the materials from E.R. through its cis–face

10) The vacuole is the membrane-bound space found in the cytoplasm. This membrane is termed as
:-

(1) Cristae
(2) Grana
(3) Tonoplast
(4) Desmotubule

11) During the different stages of cell division, cells show chromosomes in place of the nucleus. The
chromosomes can be classified into four types,such as metacentric, submetacentric, acrocentric and
[Link] is the basis of such categorization of chromosomes ?

(1) Length of chromosomes

(2) Position of the secondary constriction
(3) Length of DNA
(4) Position of the centromere

12) Which of the following is true regarding flagella?

(1) It is present in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cell both

(2) Core of eukaryotic flagella show 9+0 microtubule arrangement.
(3) Flagella in eukaryotes and prokaryotes are emerges from centriole like basal body
(4) Flagella work as oars causing movement of either cell or surrounding fluid.

13) The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are :-

(1) Telocentric
(2) Acrocentric
(3) Metacentric
(4) Sub-Metacentric

14) ER → A → B :-
Identify the A and B and choose the correct option:-

(1) A-Lysosome, B-Golgibody

(2) A-Golgibody, B-Lysosome
(3) A-Vacuoles, B-Golgibody
(4) A-Lysosome, B-gas vacuole

15) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II
(A) Middle men of cell (i) Mitochondria
(B) Cell within cell (ii) Nucleolus
(C) Organelle within organelle (iii) Golgi complex
(D) Ribosome factory of cell (iv) Ribosome
(1) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
(2) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(4) A - iv, B - i, C - iii, D - ii

16) The kinetochore serves which of the following function ?

(1) They act as site of cytokinesis

(2) They are site of DNA systhesis
(3) They act as site of attachment of spindle fibres
(4) They act as site of r-RNA systhesis

17) The content of the nucleolus is continuous with the rest of the ......... as it is a ......... structure :-

(1) Nucleoplasm, Double membranous

(2) Nucleoplasm, Membrane less
(3) Cytoplasm, Membrane less
(4) Cytoplasm, Single membranous

18) The cell wall and middle lamellae may be traversed by _______ which connect the ________ of
neighbouring cells.

(1) Plasmodesmata; cytoplasm

(2) Plasmamembrane; cytoplasm
(3) Primary wall junction; protoplasm
(4) Plasmamembrane; protoplasm

19) Select the correct option stating True (T) and False (F) w.r.t. ribosomes.
A. They are granular structures first observed under electron microscope as dense particles.
B. They are composed of rRNA and proteins.
C. Sedimentation coefficient, is directly a measure of density and size.
D. Ca++ is required for binding the two subunits of ribosomes at the time of protein synthesis.
(1) A-T, B - T, C - T, D - F
(2) A-T, B - T, C - F, D - F
(3) A-T, B - F, C - F, D - T
(4) A-F, B - F, C - T, D - T

20) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to mitochondria?
A. Unless specially stained not visible under microscope
B. Contains enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins.
C. Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP
D. Sites of anaerobic respiration
E. Divide by fission

(1) B and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) A, C and E
(4) B, D and E

21) Which of the following is correct regarding the given figure?

Number of Number of Number of

centromeres kinetochores chromatids

(1) 2 1 4

(2) 1 2 2

(3) 1 2 4

(4) 2 2 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Which of the following is correct regarding the structure of a section of cilia and flagella.

Peripheral Central
Radial Central
microtubules microtubules
spoke sheath
doublets singlets

(1) 9+0 2 8 1

(2) 9+2 9+0 9 1

(3) 9 2 9 1

(4) 3 6 9 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Identify the labelled part A, B, C and D in given figure of chloroplast :-

A B C D
(1) Stroma Stroma lamella Thylakoid Granum
(2) Cytosol Stroma lamella Thylakoid Granum
(3) Cytoplasm Granum Thylakoid Stroma
Stroma
(4) Stroma Thylakoid Granum
lamella

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) Assertion (A): Ribosomes are considered as organelle within organelle.

Reason (R): Ribosomes are cell organelle and present inside two cell organelle mitochondria and
chloroplast.

(1) A and R both are true but R does not explain A

(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A and R both are true and R explain A
(4) A and R both are false

25) Read the following statements carefully and mark the correct option given below :
Statement 1 : Concentration of different substances in vacuole is higher than cytoplasm.
Statement 2 : Tonoplast facilitates the movement of different molecules into vacuole from
cytoplasm along the concentration gradient.

(1) Statement 1 is true while 2 is false

(2) Statement 1 and 2 both are true
(3) Statement 1 is false while 2 is true
(4) Statement 1 and 2 both are false

26) Pteridophytes consider not completely successful terrestrial plants because:-

(1) Need water for fertilization

(2) Spore germinate in cool, shady and moist places
(3) Gametophyte require cool, damp and shady places
(4) All of the above
27) In pteridophytes inconspicuous, small, multicellular, free living, photosynthetic, thalloid known
as -

(1) Prothallus
(2) Protonema
(3) Leafy stage
(4) Dioecious gametophyte

28) In the above type of inflorescence :-

(1) Floral axis is unlimited in growth

(2) Flowers are borne in basipetal order
(3) Flowers are borne in acropetal order
(4) It is a type of racemose inflorescence

29) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Pea Zygomorphic flower Vexillary aestivation

ii Calotropis Whorled phyllotaxy Reticulate venation

iii Pistia Offset Rosette like leaves

(1) (i) only
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (iii) only

30) Epipetalous, Syncarpous and inflorescence Cymose is characteristics feature of :

(1) Solanaceae, Liliaceae

(2) Liliaceae, Cruciferae
(3) Only Solanaceae
(4) Fabaceae, Liliaceae

31) Assertion : In gymnosperms, male gametophyte is highly reduced.

Reason : Male gametophyte in gymnosperms, develops from microspore by meiosis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

32) Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown in :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) According to given below diagram. Find out the type of flower and position of ovary :-

(1) Epigynous flower -ovary superior

(2) Hypogynous flower -ovary inferior
(3) Hypogynous flower -ovary superior
(4) Epigynous flower -ovary inferior

34) Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure showing structure of a monocot seed and select the

correct option:-

A B C D
(1) Endosperm Scutellum Plumule Radicle
(2) Endosperm Scutellum Radicle Plumule
(3) Scutellum Endosperm Radicle Plumule
(4) Plumule Radicle Scutellum Endosperm
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) The aleurone layer in maize grain is especially rich in :-

(1) Proteins
(2) Starch
(3) Lipids
(4) Auxins

36) In some fleshy fruits, endocarp is hard and stony due to the presence of stone cells. This type of
fruits are found in which plant :-

(1) Mango and banana

(2) Mango and trapa
(3) Mango and coconut
(4) Coconut and tomato

37) Assertion(A): Gymnosperms can be monoecious or can be dioecious

Reason (R): Gymnosperms can be homosporous or can be heterosporous

(1) A and R both are true and R correctly explains A

(2) A and R both are false
(3) A and R both are true but R does not explain A
(4) A is true while R is false

38) Find out the true (T)/false (F) statements and choose the correct option.
(I) In gymnosperms, pollen and megaspores are produced in the same strobilus.
(II) Primitive gymnosperms are homosporous whereas advanced gymnosperms are heterosporous.
(III) Gymnospermic endosperm is haploid and its formation is a pre-fertilization event.
(IV) Angiospermic endosperm is triploid and its formation is a post-fertilization event.

I II III IV

1. T T F F

2. T F T F

3. F T T F

4. F F T T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) Which of the following pteridophytes are heterosporous in nature ?

(1) Selaginella and Salvinia

(2) Adiantum and Equisetum
(3) Psilotum and Lycopodium
(4) Adiantum and Psilotum

40) Read the following statements and choose the incorrect statement

(1) In Cycas female cone is absent

(2) Pinus have winged pollen grains
(3) In Angiosperms, male gamete fuses with egg to form a zygote
(4) In Gymnosperm the multicellular female gametophyte have independent free living existence

41) Which of the following chromosome has maximum arm ratio ? S R Q

P

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) S

42) How many following statements are incorrect?

(A) Nucleus as a cell organelle was first described by Robert Brown as early as 1831.
(B) The interphase nucleus has highly condensed nucleoprotein fibres called chromatin.
(C) During different stages of cell division, cells show structured chromosome in place of the
nucleus.
(D) Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction which is also known as centromere.
(E) Many membrane bound minute vesicles called microbodies that contain various enzymes are
present only in plant cells.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

43) Which of the following cell organelle is correctly matched with its structure & function ?

(1) Lysosome: Single Membrane bound : degradation of macromolecule

(2) Vacoule : Double membrane bound : accumulation of molecule
(3) Ribosome : Single membrane bound : peptide bond formation
(4) 1 & 2 both

44) Read the following statements :-

(A) Presence of DNA
(B) Presence of cristae
(C) Presence of ribosomes
(D) Enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis
(E) Site for oxidative phosphorylation
How many of the above statements are common for both mitochondria and chloroplast ?

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

45) Which of the following plays a major roles in heredity and also controls the activities of
organelles ?

(1) Centrosome
(2) Nucleus
(3) Golgi body
(4) Nucleoli

46) Read the following properties of Erythrocytes ?

(a) Most abundant in blood.
(b) Average count is 6000-8000 mm–3
(c) Devoid of Nucleus.
(d) Biconvex in shape.
(e) Colourless
(f) Formation in Red bone merrow.
(g) Average life span is 120 day.
How many are correct and select correct option ?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Three

47) Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
A Inspiratory capacity (IC) 1 Total air, a person can inspire after normal expiration
Maximal volume of the air, a person can breath in after a forced
B Expiratory capacity (EC) 2
expiration
C Functional residual capacity (FRC) 3 Volume of the air that will remain in lungs after a normal expiration
D Vital capacity (VC) 4 Total volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration

A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 1 4 3 2
(3) 1 4 2 3
(4) 4 1 3 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Match the following disorders with their cause ?

(i) Muscular dystrophy (a) Auto immune disorder

 (ii) Tetany (b) low esrogen level

(iii) Myasthenia gravis (c) Genetic disorder

(iv) Oesteoporosis (d) Low Ca++ in body fluid

(1) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(2) (i)-c, (ii)-b, (iii)-d, (iv)-a
(3) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
(4) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-a, (iv)-b

49) Maximum volume of O2 is transported as __A__ and of CO2 is transported as __B__.

Select the option, which correctly fills A and B :-

(1) A-Oxyhaemoglobin, B-Carboxyhaemoglobin

(2) A-Dissolved in plasma, ion
(3) A-Oxyhaemoglobin, ions
(4) A-Oxyhaemoglobin, B-Carbaminohaemoglobin

50) Choose the factors which are favourable for formation of oxyhaemoglobin ?

(1) High pO2 , low pCO2

(2) Low pO2 , High pCO2
(3) Lower temperature, high H+ concentration
(4) High pCO2 , high temperature

51) Inspiration can occur if :-

(1) Intrapulmonary pressure is higher than the atmospheric pressure

(2) Intrapulmonary pressure and atmospheric pressure are equal
(3) Intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure
(4) Muscles of diaphragm relaxes

52) A person is working in stone mine for longer time. If person does not wear the mask during
working then he may suffer from :-

(1) Emphysema.
(2) Occupational lung disorders.
(3) Pneumonia.
(4) Pleuricy.

53)

CO2 dissociates from carbaminohaemoglobin when :-

(1) is low and is high

(2) is low and is Low
(3) is high and is low
(4) is high and is high

54) Read the following statements (A-D) :-

A. RBCs are the most abundant of all the cells in blood
B. A healthy adult man has on an average 5 Billions to 5.5 Billions of RBCs mm–3 of blood
C. RBCs are formed in liver in the adults.
D. RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the mammals and are biconcave in shape.
How many of the above statements are incorrect :-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

55) Which of the following statement is incorrect about blood ?

(1) Blood is a special connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix and formed elements.
(2) Plasma protein contributes 6-8% in blood-plasma.
(3) Clotting factors are also present in plasma in an active form.
(4) Blood is the most commonly used body fluid by most of the higher organisms including humans.

56) Identify the following structures related with muscle shown below and select the right option for

both of them together :-

A B

(1) Thin filament Actin filament

(2) Thick filament Thin filament

Meromyosin
(3) Thin Filament
units

(4) Tropomyosin Troponin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
57) What will happen, if there is a low Ca+2 concentration in body fluid ?

(1) Weakening and paralysis of muscle

(2) Rapid spasms in muscle
(3) Progressive degeneration of muscles
(4) Slow contraction in muscles

58)

Identify the Non-matching pair :-

Skeletal parts Category

1 Sternum and ribs Axial skeleton

Clavicle and glenoid

2 Pelvic girdle
cavity

3 Humerus and ulna Appendicular skeleton

4 Malleus and Stapes Ear ossicles

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

59) Auto immune disorder of neuromuscular junction is :-

(1) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Gout
(4) Osteoporosis

60) Identify the correct for A,B and C :-

A B C
(1) Coxal bone Pubis Ischium
(2) Sacrum Ilium Ischium
(3) Ilium Ischium Pubis
 (4) Patella Tibia Fibula
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) Number of bones in cranium, face, hyoid and each middle ear are respectively :-

(1) 14, 8, 1 and 3

(2) 8, 14, 1 and 3
(3) 3, 8, 14 and 1
(4) 14, 8, 3 and 1

62)

What is true for hymen, found in the vagina of female?

(1) Its presence is a reliable indicator of virginity

(2) Its absence is an indication of sexual experience
(3) It always gets torn during first coitus
(4) Its presence is not a reliable indicator of virginity

63) Which statement is wrong ?

(1) Mammary lobes containing clusters of cells called alveoli

(2) Uterus is also called womb
(3) The last part of the oviduct is called ampulla
(4) Stroma of ovary divided into two zone

64) Which of the following is an indicator of normal reproductive phase and extends between
menarche and menopause.

(1) Menstruation cycle

(2) Gestation
(3) Ovulation
(4) Implantation

65) Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs :

(1) After entry of sperm before completion of fertilization

(2) After completion of fertilization
(3) Before entry of sperm
(4) Without any relation of sperm entry.

66) LH and FSH level during human menstrual cycle increase on :-

(1) 14th Day
(2) 7th Day
(3) 21st Day
(4) 9th Day

67) The leydig cells found in the human body are the secretory source of :

(1) Glucagon
(2) Androgens
(3) Progesterone
(4) Intestinal mucus

68) Progesteron hormone is secreted by :-

(1) Corpus aorta

(2) Corpus albicans
(3) Corpus luteum
(4) Corpus callosum

69) Fertilization most commonly occurs if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to

(1) Fimbriae-Infundibulum junction

(2) Infundibulum-Ampulla junction
(3) Ampulla
(4) Isthmus-Fundus junction

70) What will happen when no. of platelets reduce in a person ?

(1) It lead to high BP

(2) It lead to hypoxia
(3) It leads to excessive loss of blood during injury
(4) It leads to acute microbial infection

71) Given below is the diagrammatic representation of a sarcomere, mark the option with correct
description of the structures labelled as A, B, C and D in the same.

(1) A- Elastic fibre that bisects I-band B-Width of this band reduces during muscle conlaction
(2) B-Consists of myosin filaments C-width of this band remains same during muscle contraction
(3) C-light band that contains actin filaments
(4) D-Don't exist when the sarcomere get contracted maximally
72) Which of the following statements are correct ?
I. Ca+2 is necessary for blood coagulation
II. Coagulation in blood vessel is prevented during normal condition by heparin.
III. Clotting of blood involves changes of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin
IV. Blood clotting involves cascading process involving a number of factors present in the active
form always.

(1) I, III, IV
(2) II, IV
(3) I, II, III
(4) III, IV

73) Select the option with the correct identification of the structures labelled by alphabets (A-F) in
the given diagram of human skull :-

(1) A - Temporal bone, B - Parietal bone C - Occipetal condyle

(2) C - Occipetal condyle, D - Zygomatic bone E - Mandible
(3) A - Parietal bone , D - Vomer bone F - Mandible
(4) B - Temporal bone, C - Hyoid bone E - Mandible

74) Mark the incorrect pair of examples of joints and joint place :-

(1) Fibrous joint → between cranial bones

(2) Pivot joint → between Atlas and occipital condyles
(3) Cartilagenous joint → between two successive vertebrae
(4) Saddle joint → between 1st carpal and 1st matacarpal.

75)

Read the following statement :-

(a) Length of I-band is decreased
(b) A-band remains constant
(c) Myosin head are attached with open active sites of actin filaments and to form cross bridge
(d) Length of sarcomere is decreased

How many statements are correct with regards to muscle contraction?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

76) Muscles of the heart are :

(1) striated and voluntary

(2) non-treated and voluntary
(3) non-striated and involuntary
(4) striated, branched and involuntary

77) Which sequence is correct for male genital tract?

(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Urethra
(2) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Urethra
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Epididymis → Urethra
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa efferentia → Seminal vesicle →
(4)
Urethra

78) The secretion of which glands causes semen to coagulate ?

(1) Seminal vesicle & cowper's gland.

(2) Prostate & Bulbourethral gland.
(3) Seminal vesicle & prostate.
(4) Bartholin gland & Bulbourethral gland.

79) In mammals, maturation of sperms takes place at a temperature

(1) Equal to that of body

(2) Higher than that of body
(3) Lower than that of body
(4) At any temperature

80)

Given below is diagram of ovary. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C, D and select the right option
about them.

A B C D
Primary Secondary Graafian Corpus
(1)
Follicle Follicle Follicle Luteum
 Corpus Secondary Graafian
(2) Ovum
Albicans Follicle Follicle
Corpus Primary Graafian
(3) Ovum
Luteum Follicle Follicle
Graafian Primary Corpus Secondary
(4)
Follicle Follicle Luteum Follicle
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Statement-I : Volume of inspired air during a normal respiration is tidal volume.
Statement-II : Volume of expired air during a normal respiration is tidal volume.

(1) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are correct

(2) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Only Statement-I is correct
(4) Only Statement-II is correct

82) How many of the following structures are found in abdomen of adult male.
Vasa-efferentia, rete testis, epididymis, prostate, saminal vesicle, ampulla of vas deferens.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

83)

Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column - I Column - II Column - III

(A) Proliferative phase (a) 14th day (i) Formation of corpus luteum
(B) Secrectory phase (b) Ist – 4th day (ii) Development of graafian follicle
(C) Menstruation phase (c) 15 – 28 day (iii) Shedding of stratum functionale
th th

(D) Ovulatory phase (d) 5th – 13th day (iv) Release of secondary oocyte
(1) A → d → iii; B → c → i, C → b → iv, D → a → ii
(2) A → c → ii; B → b → iii, C → a → i, D → d → iv
(3) A → d → ii; B → c → i, C → b → iii, D → a → iv
(4) A → d → iii; B → b → iv, C → a → ii, D → c → i

84) Identify A, B, C and D and choose the option showing correct correlation of them :-
 single gland secretion of which
(1) (A) Seminal vesicle
enter directly in urethra
(2) (B) Prostate gland paired gland
which carries both urine and
(3) (C) Vas deferens
semen
receives secretion of seminal
(4) (D) Ejaculatory duct
vesicle.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) Which of the following is not the function of Sertoli cells

(1) Secretion of testosterone

(2) Regulation of spermatogenesis by releasing inhibin
(3) Formation of blood testis barrier
(4) Release of anti mullerian factor

86) Immunological competent cells are present in_____of human testes.

(1) Seminiferous tubules

(2) Area outside of seminiferous tubule
(3) Rete testes
(4) Tubuli recti

87) How many spermatozoa are produced from 20 primary spermatocytes on completion of
spermatogenesis?

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 80
(4) 120

88) Which of the following statement about human sperm is correct?

(1) Plasma membrane covers only the head of sperm

(2) Head contains an elongated diploid nucleus and acrosome
(3) Mitochondria in the middle piece produce energy for sperm motility
(4) Proximal centriole in the neck of the sperm give rise to axial filament of the sperm

89) Statement-I: The male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired
bulbourethral glands.
Statement-II: Secretin of male accessory glands constitute the seminal plasma which is rich in
fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

90) In the graphical representation of menstrual cycle d, b, c, a represents :-

(1) Progesterone, LH, Estrogen, FSH

(2) FSH, LH, Progesterone, Estrogen
(3) FSH, LH, Estrogen, Progesterone
(4) Estrogen, LH, FSH Progesterone
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 4 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 1 4 1 4 1 4 1 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 4 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 4 3 3 1 3 1 2 3 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 4 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 1 2 3 1 4 1 4 4 4 4 2 4 3 3 2 3 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 3 3 2 3 3 4 4 2 4 2 1 1 4 1 2 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 3 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 4 2 4 2 3 1 3 3 4 1 2 2 2 3 2 1 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 1 3 1 4 1 2 3 3 3 2 3 1 1 3 4 4 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 1 3 2 1 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 2 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 3 1 1 1 2 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 1 3 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 3 4 1 2 3 3 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) ΔL = L Δθ or 2πΔR Δθ

0.0006 = 0.994 × × Δθ
∴ Δθ ≈ 500°C
Hence, the correct answer is option (c).

2)

3)

ΔHwater calorimeter = ΔHsteam

(1.12) × 103 (1) (80 – 15) = m (536)
m = 130g = 0.13 kg

4)

Let speed of bus = vB,

speed of scooty = vS = 60 kg/h
and distance between two consecutive buses = d Now according to question
d = (vB + vS) (10 min) = (vB – vS) (30 min)
⇒ vB + vS = 3vB – 3vS ⇒ vB = 2vS = 120 km/h

Time period,

5) ΔK = W =

6) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
A 4kg copper block initially at 425°C is placed on ice block. We find the mass of ice melted or
block cools to 0°C.
Concept:
Heat lost by copper melts ice.
Formula:
H = msΔT
Calculation:
Hlost ⇒ msΔT ⇒ 4×500×425

Hgain ⇒ MLf ⇒ by ice

Heat conservation.
m × 336 = 4 × 500 × 425

Final Answer: Option 4

7)

8) CP – Cv = m, for hydrogen (M1 = 2)

Cp – Cv = n, for nitrogen (M2 = 14)

For hydrogen:

For nitrogen:

∴
∴ m = 7n

9)
2CV = 5R
f=5

10) Process AB and CD are isothermal process. BC

is isochoric. VB > VA, VB = VC and VD > VC. There
all process are correctly represented by option

11)

Question Asking About:

Two cylinder A and B contain equal amounts of an ideal diatomic gas at 300K. The piston of A
is free to move, while B is fixed. Given that A experience a 30K. The piston of A is free to move,
while B is fixed. Given that A experience a 30 K temperature rise, we determine the
temperature rise in B after the same heat.

Key Concept:
The first Law of Thermodynamics states:
 Q =ΔU + W
For a constant pressure process (A), work is done by the gas. For a constant volume
process(B), all heat goes into increasing internal energy since no work is done.

Formula
Heat absorbed in a process is:

Q = nCΔT
For an ideal diatomic gas:

• At constant pressure :

• At constant volume:
• Relation:
• Ratio:

Since the heat given to both cylinders is the same:

cancelling n R :

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Substituting ΔTA = 30K

= 42 K

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

12)

from graph V ∝ T
⇒ P = constant
 13) B. Given Data:

A. Initial temperature of the gas = T

B. Final volume of the gas = 3 × initial volume

C. Concept:

A. Ideal Gas Law: P1V1 = nRT1, where P is pressure, Vis volume, n is the number of moles, R is
the ideal gas constant, and T is temperature.
B. Given Relation : P2V = constant

D. Mathematical Calculation:
1. Initial State:

A. Let the initial pressure be P1, initial volume be V1, and initial temperature be T1.
B. According to the ideal gas law: P1V1 = nRT1
C. According to the given relation: P12V1 = constant1

2. Final State:

A. Let the final pressure be P2, final volume be V2 (which is 3V1), and final temperature be T2.
B. According to the ideal gas law: P2V2 = nRT2
C. According to the given relation: P22 V2 = constant1

3. Equating Constants:

A. Since both P12V1 and P22V2 are equal to the same constant, we can equate them: P12V1 = P22V2

4. Substituting Values:

A. Substitute V2 = 3V1: P12V1 = P22(3V1)

2 2
B. Simplify: P1 = 3P2
C. Rearrange: P22 = (1/3)P12
D. Take the square root of both sides: P2 = (1/ )P1

5. Using Ideal Gas Law:

A. Divide the final state ideal gas equation by the initial state ideal gas equation: (P2V2)/(P1V1) =
(nRT2)/(nRT1)
B. Substitute P2 = (1/ )P1 and V2 = 3V1: [(1/ )P1 × 3V1]/(P1V1) = T2/T1
C. Simplify: = T2/T1

6. Solve for Final Temperature:

A. Rearrange to isolate T2: T2 = × T1

E. Final Answer:
The final temperature of the gas is × T1. Option 4

14) Explain Question:

We are given a process where pressure varies as the square of volume for a diatomic gas. We
need to find its molar heat capacity.
Concept:

Use the polytrophic process relation PVn constant. Heat capacity is found using
.
Formula:
From P=aV2, rewrite as PV-2= constant, son =–2

Use:
Calculation:

Diatomic gas has

15)

T1 = 500K
Increase in efficiency = 50% of 40% =20%
New efficiency

16) Efficiency of refrigerator β =

β=

Also, β =
∴ Heat delivered to surroundings

Q1 = Q2 + W = =11.11 J

17)

Since we known n = and PV = NKBT

Putting value of
18)

Free expansion,

19)

Internal energy will remain same

so, T = 300 K

20) Slope of graph at A

21) For γ = Cv = = =

CP = = =

For γ = Cv = 3R, CP = 4R

∴ γmix = =

22) Change in internal energy from A → B is

ΔU =

Work done in process A → B is equal to the area covered by the graph with volume axis, i.e.

Hence, ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW

23) Explanation :
The problem requires us to analyze the variation of PV with volume (V) for a fixed mass of an
ideal gas at constant temperature.

Concept :
Boyle's Law

Formula :
PV = Constant
Where
P = Pressure
V = Volume

Calculation :
∵ PV = Constant

V then P and vice versa

So,

Correct option: (4)

24)

moles = constant
μ1 + μ2 = μ'1 + μ'2

P' = 2 atm ×

P' = atm

25) In P-V graph as we move away from origin temperature starts increasing

26) tanθ = slope =

Slope ∝

27) The object should be positively charged. Being positively charged it repels positive charge
from top plate towards leaves causing to separate more.

28) Let qA = qB = q

When C is placed in contact with A, charge on A & C will be =

Now C is placed in contact with B, charge on B & C will be =

Now,

(2)

29) Suppose third charge is similar to Q and it is q

So net force on it
Fnet = 2F cosθ

Where and

For Fnet to be maximum

i.e.

or

i.e.

30)
ℓ – x = 2x

9Q = 4q

31)

Explanation:

Inst. power P = ?

Concept :
This question is based on instantaneous power.

Solution:

⇒ P = Fv
Final Answer:
Option (4)

32)

(r – x)2 = 3x2

33)

Asking about:
In a regular hexagon with alternating charges –q, +q, +q, –q, +q, –q at vertices, find the net
electric field at the center.
Concept
Apply vector addition of electric fields using symmetry.
Formula
The electric field due to a point charge is:

The resultant electric field at the center of the hexagon is the vector sum of the fields due to
each charge.
Calculation

⇒
⇒ (2E + 2E) ⇒ 4E

Final Answer :-
Thus the correct answer is option :- 3
34) Asking About - How many electrons need to be removed from a coin of mass 1.6 gm so
that it may be in equilibrium in an electric field of field of intensity 109 N/C directed upward.

Concept Based - This question based on Equilibrium of body in E.F.

The gravitational force is: mg = qE Fg = mg The electric force on the coin is: Fe = qE
Formula Used : The coin will be equilibrium when the upward electric force balances the
downward gravitational force.
For equilibrium, Fg = Fe, so : mg = neE
Solving for n (the number of electrons removed):

n=
Calculation -
Substituting the given values

Answer : Option (1)

The number of electrons that should be removed is 9.8 × 107,
so the correct answer is option (1) 9.8 × 107

35)
36)
According to WET,
Wg + Wair = K2 – K1
10J + Wair = 0.9 – 0
Wair = –9.1 J

37)
mgh + Wfr = 0 – 0
Wfr = –mgh
–µKNS = –mgh
–µKmgS = –mgh

= 20 m

38)

f = 4a
F – f = 8a = 2f
F = 3f
Fmax = 3 fmax
= 3 (0.4)(4)(10)
= 48 N

39)

Question Explain:
A block of mass M is connected to a string that passes over two pulleys. One end of the string
is pulled by a point A with a constant acceleration of 10m/s2 to the right. Find the acceleration
of the mass M.

Concept:
The length of the string remains constant.

Solution:

Formula: and
Calculation:
Correct option (2)

40)
30 – kx = 3a ...(1)

a= m/s2

41)

a = g tan θ

42) ΔL1 = ΔL2

L1α1Δθ = L2α2Δθ or =
Hence, the correct answer is option (b).

43) The kinetic theory of gases assume the collision between molecules as perfectly elastic.
So, incorrect statement is collision between molecules is inelastic.

44)
The ball returns back to boy's hand only if the path of the ball is a straight line. Hence initial
velocity and net acceleration must be along the same line. Hence

45) Explanation :
Volume, temperature, and pressure of oxygen gas in a cylinder are given and need to find the
number of molecules present using Boltzmann's constant.
 Concept :
Ideal Gas Law in terms of Boltzmann's constant

Formula :
Ideal Gas Law (in terms of Boltzmann constant): PV=NkT

Calculation :

Volume (V) = 1 m3

Temperature (T) = 27∘C = 27+273 = 300 K

Pressure (P) = 13.8 Pa

Boltzmann's constant (k) = 1.38×10−23 JK−1

Final Answer :
Option (3)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Theory based

47)

Racemic mixture in optically inactive due to external compensation.

48)

Theory based

49) and So, both are F.I

50)

Theory based
51)

Theory based

52)

Theory based

53) –CH3 show maximum hyperconjugation effect but minimum inductive inductive effect.
For Hyperconjugation :- C–H bond energy should be low (more µ–H more hyper conjugation
with less C–H bond energy)
For Inductive Effect :- no. of carbon and branching increases inductive effect.

54)

Theory based

55)

Theory based

56) No active hydrogen atom.

57)

Theory based

58)

Theory based

59)

60)

Rate of EAR ∝ Stability of carbocation ∝ +M/Resonance/+I.

61)

Theory based
62)

Theory based

63)

64)

Theory based

65) Electrophillic addition reactions are shown by alkenes or alkynes in these reactions
attacking species is electrophiles

66)

NCERT XI Page No. # 389

67)

Theory based

68)

69)

Theory based

70) 5H2O2 + 2BrO2 + 2OH– —→ 2Br– + 5O2 + 6H2O;

71)
 72)

Theory based

73)

Theory based

74)

Theory based

75)

Theory based

76)

gram eq (Mohr's salt) = 10 × × 1 = 2

gram eq (KMnO4) = 20 × 0.02 × 5 = 2

77) Question Explanation: The question asks to determine the EMF (Electromotive Force)
for a given concentration cell involving hydrogen gas at two different pressures, P1 and P2.

Concept : Nernst equation :

Solution :
• Anode (Oxidation): H2(g, P1) → 2H+(aq) + 2e–
• Cathode (Reduction): 2H+(aq) + 2e– → H2(g, P2)
The overall cell reaction is: H2(g, P1) → H2(g, P2)
For this reaction :
•n=2
• = 0.

•Q=
Substituting these values into the Nernst equation:

Final answer : Option 2

78)

Concept:

A. Anodic reaction involves oxidation, where electrons are lost.

 B. Cathodic reaction involves reduction, where electrons are gained.

In the given reactions:

A. Reaction 1: Involves the loss of electrons, so it is an oxidation reaction (anodic).

B. Reaction 2: Involves gain of electrons (reduction), so it is a cathodic reaction.
C. Reaction 3: Involves gain of electrons (reduction), so it is a cathodic reaction.

Mathematical Calculation
This is a conceptual question, so no mathematical calculations are necessary.

79)

A. Question Explanation:

The question presents three reactions between metals (Cu, Zn, Ag) and hydrochloric acid
(HCl) and provides the standard reduction potentials for the metal ions. We need to determine
which of these reactions are feasible (spontaneous).

B. Given Data:

A. Cu + 2HCl → CuCl₂ + H₂(g); E⁰(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V

B. Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂(g); E⁰(Zn²⁺/Zn) = -0.76 V
C. Ag + 2HCl → AgCl + ½H₂(g); E⁰(Ag⁺/Ag) = +0.80 V

C. Concept: Spontenity of reaction

D. Solution:

ΔG⁰ = -nFE⁰cell

For a reaction to be spontaneous, E⁰cell must be positive.

To determine E⁰cell, we need to consider the half-reactions involved. In each case, the oxidation
of the metal occurs, and the reduction of H⁺ to H₂ occurs. The standard reduction potential for
2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂ is 0 V.

E. Mathematical Calculation:

We will calculate E⁰cell for each reaction:

A. Cu reaction: Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ (oxidation); E⁰ = -0.34 V (sign changed because it's

oxidation) 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂ (reduction); E⁰ = 0 V E⁰cell = E⁰(reduction) + E⁰(oxidation) = 0 + (-0.34)
= -0.34 V

B. Zn reaction: Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ (oxidation); E⁰ = +0.76 V (sign changed) 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂

(reduction); E⁰ = 0 V E⁰cell = 0 + 0.76 = +0.76 V
 C. Ag reaction: Ag → Ag⁺ + e⁻ (oxidation); E⁰ = -0.80 V (sign changed) H⁺ + e⁻ → ½H₂
(reduction); E⁰ = 0 V E⁰cell = 0 + (-0.80) = -0.80 V

F. Final Answer:

Only reaction (ii) with Zinc has a positive E⁰cell, meaning it is the only feasible reaction.

A. (ii)

80)

Given Data:
The standard electrode potentials for the metals are:

A. Cr: -0.41 V
B. Mn:+1.57 V
C. Fe:+0.77 V
D. Co:+1.97 V

Concept:

A. A more negative electrode potential value for the M3+/M2+ reaction means the metal is more
easily oxidized, i.e., it is easier for the metal to go from the +2 to the +3 oxidation state.
B. A more positive electrode potential indicates a greater tendency for reduction, meaning it is
harder to oxidize the metal from +2 to +3 .

Explanation:

A. Chromium (Cr) has the most negative electrode potential (–0.41 V), meaning that the Cr2+ ion
is easily oxidized to Cr3+. This makes the change from +2 to +3 easiest for Cr .

81) On dilution, H2O in solution increases so reduction of H2O occurs at cathode.

82)

83) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
The question asks for the ratio of the weights of hydrogen gas (H2) liberated and magnesium
(Mg) deposited when the same amount of electricity is passed through aqueous H2SO4 and
fused MgSO4.
Concept: Faraday's Laws of Electrolysis
Calculation:
1. Electrode Reactions:
2H+ + 2e– → H2
Mg2+ + 2e– → Mg
2. Equivalent Weights:
Equivalent weight of H2 = Molecular weight / Valency = 2 / 2 = 1
Equivalent weight of Mg = Atomic weight / Valency = 24 / 2 = 12
3. Relationship between mass, Equivalent weight, and charge:
Mass deposited (m) Equivalent weight (E)
Since the same charge (Q) is passed, we can write:
m = (Q/f) × E, where F is faraday constant.
Thus, the ratio of mass deposited is equal to the ratio of their
4. Ratio of Weights:
Ratio of weights (H2 : Mg) = Equivalent weight of H2 : Equivalent weight of Mg
Ratio = 1 : 12
Final Answer:
The ratio of the weights of hydrogen gas liberated and magnesium deposited is 1 : 12.
Therefore, Option 2 is correct.

84) N = M × n-factor
0.3 = M × 6

85)

Theory based

86)

Theory based

87)

Theory based

88) Explanation: An equilibrium is heterogeneous if it involves reactants and products in

different phases (solid, liquid, gas). In contrast, a homogeneous equilibrium occurs when all
substances are in the same phase. Concept: Homogeneous and heterogeneou.
Solution:
CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2 (g).
• This reaction involves solids (CaCO3 and CaO) and a gas (CO2), making it a
heterogeneous equilibrium. • In heterogeneous equilibria, only the concentration of gases
and aqueous species appear in the equilibrium expression, while solids and liquids are
omitted. • Other options involve only gases, making them homogeneous equilibria
Answer Option 3, {CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)}.

89)

Question Explanation
The question asks how the equilibrium constant (Kp) and degree of dissociation (α) change for
 the reaction when the container volume is halved at a fixed temperature.
Concept
This question is based on Le Chatelier's Principle and Properties of Equilibrium Constant (Kp)
Reasoning
- The equilibrium constant (Kp) for a given reaction depends only on temperature. Since the
temperature is fixed, Kp does not change.
- When the volume is halved, the pressure increases. According to Le Chatelier's Principle, the
equilibrium will shift in the direction that reduces the pressure, which is the direction with
fewer moles of gas.
- The equilibrium will shift to the left (towards N2O4) to decrease the number of gas moles.
- A shift to the left means that less N2O4 dissociates, so the degree of dissociation (α)
decreases.
Final Answer
Kp does not change, but α changes (decreases).
Correct option: 4

90)

Theory based

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT XI, Pg # 136

92)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 95

93)

NCERT - XI Pg # 94

94) NCERT Pg. # 132

95)

c is not correct

96) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 136, Para–5

97) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 135, Para–3

 98)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96,97,101

99) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 133, Fig. 8.6

100) NCERT XI Pg. # 134

101) NCERT XI Pg. # 139

102) NCERT-XI, Pg # 137, 8.5.8

103) NCERT XI Pg. # 139

104) NCERT XI Pg. # 134

105) Module - 6 Pg. # 190, 193, 198, 204

106) NCERT XI (E/H) Pg # 165 (10.2.2)

107) NCERT XI Pg # 138

108) NCERT Pg. # 132

109) [NCERT Pg. 136, PYQI

110) NCERT [Link]. 97

111) Explanation

A. The centromere is the region of a chromosome that connects two chromatids and helps
with the attachment of kinetochores.

B. In the metaphase or anaphase of mitosis or meiosis, the following common conditions

apply:

A. If there is 1 centromere and 2 chromatids attached, it suggests the chromosome

has duplicated, and the chromatids are connected at the centromere.

There can be 2 kinetochores attached to the chromatids (one for each chromatid).
Correct Answer ✔ 2

112)

NCERT Pg # 137

113) NCERT XI Pg. # 136

114) NCERT XII Pg # 126

115) NCERT XI Pg # 134

116) NCERT-XI; Page No. # 30

117) NCERT-XI; Page No. # 32

118) NCERT XI # 72

119) NCERT-XI Pg. # 71

120) NCERT-XI; Page No. # 68

121) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 39

122) NCERT pg.# 74

123) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 73

124) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 77

125) NCERT pg.# 76

126) NCERT-XI Pg.# 65, 66

127) NCERT-XI Pg. # 39

128)

NCERT Page No. 39, 40

129) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 38

130) NCERT Page No. 39,41

131)

NCERT XI pg.# 139

132) NCERT-XI, Page#138,139,140

133)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 134

134)

Question Explanation: Comparing structural and functional features of two organelles.

Concept: Semiautonomous nature of mitochondria and chloroplast.

Solution: (A) Presence of DNA is Common. Both possess their own circular DNA (extranuclear
DNA).

(B) Presence of cristae is Not Common. Cristae are characteristic infoldings of the inner
membrane of mitochondria. Chloroplasts have thylakoids.

(C) Presence of ribosomes is Common. Both have 70S ribosomes for protein synthesis.

(D) Enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis is Not Common. This mainly occurs in the stroma of
the chloroplast (Calvin cycle).

(E) Site for oxidative phosphorylation is Not Common. This process is confined to the inner
membrane of mitochondria. Chloroplasts perform photophosphorylation.

Therefore, only (A) and (C) are common. The number of common statements is two.

Final Answer: Two

135) NCERT XI Pg.# 140

136)

NCERT XI (E) Page 279

137)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 187

 138)

NCERT, Pg#312, Para.-20.5

139) NCERT XI- Pg. # 274

140)

NCERT XI, Pg.# 275 para 2 (E)

Pg.# 275 para 3, 276 para 1 (H)

141) NCERT XI, Page # 271, para-1

142) NCERT Pg.# 190

143)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 274

144)

Let's analyze each statement:

• A statement is correct. Red blood cells are indeed the most numerous cells in the blood .
• B statement is incorrect. The normal range for a healthy adult male is typically around 4.5 to
5.5 million RBCs per microliter (µL} of blood.
• C statement is incorrect. In adults, RBCs are primarily produced in the bone marrow,
specifically in the red bone marrow.
• D statement is correct. Mature RBCs in mammals lack a nucleus and have a biconcave shape
.
Therefore, two of the statements (B and C) are incorrect.
So, the correct answer is Option 3.

145)

NCERT XI (E) Page 278, 279

146)

Question explanation: Identify the following structures related with muscle shown below
and select the right option for both of them together ?

Concept: STRUCTURE OF CONTRACTILE PROTEIN

Solution: A-Thin Filament ,B-Meromyosin units

Final answer: 3
 147) NCERT Pg. # 312, para = 20.5

148) NCERT-XI ; Page No. # 309-11

149) NCERT Page # 313

150) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 311, Fig.-20.10

151) NCERT Pg. # 309

152) NCERT(XII) Pg#46 Para:3.2

153)

A. Ampulla: The ampulla is indeed a part of the oviduct (Fallopian tube), but it is the widest part,
not the last.
B. Isthmus: The last part of the oviduct is called the isthmus. It is a narrow region that connects
the ampulla to the uterus.

The incorrect statement is : (3) The last part of the oviduct is called ampulla.

154) Question is Asking About:

Indicator of reproductive phase and extends between menarche and menopause.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
It is known as menstruation cycle.
​Hence, option (1) is correct.

155)

Question is Asking About :

Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs.

Solution/Explanation :
After entry of sperm before completing the fertilization.

156) Explanation :
LH and FSH peak on the 14th day of the menstrual cycle. This surge triggers ovulation (the
release of an egg).

Hence,
Option (1) is correct : 14th Day

157) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 43

 158) NCERT Pg. # 50

159) Explanation :
The ampulla is the widest part of the fallopian tube.
It is the location where the ovum (egg) is typically fertilized by sperm.

The correct answer is (3) : Ampulla

160) NCERT (XI) Pg # 280 (E)

161) CORRECTION IN QUESTION IMAGE: KINDLY APPLY THE GIVEN IMAGE IN THE
QUESTION AND REPLACE WITH THE GIVEN IMAGE

The given image in the question is

of sarcomere and we have to identify the correct given point related to A,B,C,D. At first the
identification of A,B,C,D are as follows:
A: Z-line
B: A-band
C: I-band
D: overlapping zone Analyzing the Options Based on Labeling:

A. Option 1: A(Z-line) is the elastic fiber that bisects I-band which is correct but for B(A-band)
given is that width reduces during muscle contraction which is the incorrect point so option 1
will be incorrect.
B. Option 2 : B(A-band) consists of myosin filaments which is incorrect as the A-band of a muscle
cell is made up of thick myosin filaments and parts of thin actin filaments. C(l-band) width
remains same during muscle contraction which is incorrect because width of I-band decreases
during muscle contraction. So. option 2 is incorrect.
C. Option 3: C(l-band) is the light band that contains actin filaments. This is the correct
answer.
D. Option 4 : D(overlapping zone) don't exist when sarcomere get contracted maximally which is
incorrect because overlapping present when sarcomere get contracted maximally .

162)

NCERT XI - Pg# 281

163)
NCERT-XI; Page No. # 224

164)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 227

165)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 218-219

166)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 219

167)

Question Explanation:Identifying the correct sequence of the male genital tract.

Concept:Male Reproductive Tract.

Solution:

The male genital tract is a series of ducts that transport sperm from the testes to the outside
of the body.
Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules, then move to the Rete testis, followed by the
Vasa efferentia.
From there, they enter the Epididymis for maturation and storage. They then travel through
the Vas deferens to the ejaculatory duct,
which merges with the Urethra for expulsion.

Final Answer: Option (1)

Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Urethra

168)

NCERT-XII; Page No. # 28

169)

NCERT-XII; Page No. # 27

170)

NCERT-XII; Page No. # 33

171)

Explain Question : This question is asking about : tidal volume in respiration.

Concept : This question is based on respiratory volumes.
Explanation : Tidal volume is the amount of air inspired or expired during normal breathing.
Final answer : 1

172)

NCERT-XII; Page No. # 27

173)

NCERT-XII; Page No. # 35

174)

NCERT-XII; Page No. # 27

175)

NCERT-XII; Page No. # 27

176)

NCERT-XII; Page No. # 27

177)

NCERT-XII; Page No. # 27

178)

NCERT-XII; Page No. # 32

179) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XII, Page # 28
Both statement I and II are correct.
Final Answer : (3)

180)

NCERT-XII; Page No. # 34