SCIENCE – CHAPTER 3 (THE CELL) – CLASS VI (OXFORD) – 50 MCQS

1. Which organelle is known as the “powerhouse of the cell”?

A) Nucleus B) Ribosome C) Mitochondria D) Chloroplast
2. The cell wall is found in:
A) Animal cells B) Plant cells C) Both D) Neither
3. Which structure controls the activities of the cell?
A) Cell membrane B) Nucleus C) Cytoplasm D) Vacuole
4. The jelly-like substance that fills the cell is called:
A) Nucleus B) Cell wall C) Cytoplasm D) Chloroplast
5. Which organelle is responsible for making proteins?
A) Mitochondria B) Ribosome C) Lysosome D) Golgi body
6. Plant cells contain chlorophyll in:
A) Nucleus B) Vacuole C) Chloroplast D) Ribosome
7. The thin, flexible barrier that surrounds the cell is the:
A) Cell wall B) Cell membrane C) Nucleus D) Cytoplasm
8. Which of the following is NOT a part of a plant cell?
A) Mitochondria B) Lysosome C) Chloroplast D) Vacuole
9. The organelle that stores water, nutrients, and waste is the:
A) Nucleus B) Vacuole C) Ribosome D) Golgi body
[Link] structure gives the plant cell its shape?
A) Cell membrane B) Nucleus C) Cell wall D) Cytoplasm
[Link] “packaging” centre of the cell is:
A) Ribosome B) Golgi body C) Lysosome D) Mitochondria
[Link] organelle contains the genetic material?
A) Nucleus B) Ribosome C) Chloroplast D) Vacuole
[Link] process by which plant cells make food is called:
A) Respiration B) Photosynthesis C) Digestion D) Excretion
[Link] of the following is present in both plant and animal cells?
A) Chloroplast B) Cell wall C) Mitochondria D) Large vacuole
[Link] “digestive” organelle that breaks down waste is:
A) Lysosome B) Ribosome C) Nucleus D) Cell membrane
[Link] part of the microscope provides the magnified image?
A) Eyepiece B) Stage C) Base D) Diaphragm
[Link] total magnification of a specimen is calculated by:
A) Adding the magnifications of objective and eyepiece
B) Multiplying the magnifications of objective and eyepiece
C) Subtracting the magnifications
D) Dividing the magnifications
[Link] of the following is the smallest unit of life?
A) Tissue B) Organ C) Cell D) Organism
[Link] a plant cell, the green colour is due to:
 A) Carotene B) Chlorophyll C) Anthocyanin D) Xanthophyll
[Link] organelle is surrounded by a double membrane?
A) Ribosome B) Nucleus C) Lysosome D) Vacuole
[Link] function of the cell membrane is to:
A) Produce energy B) Store genetic information
C) Control entry and exit of substances D) Make proteins
[Link] of the following is a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
A) Have a nucleus B) Have membrane-bound organelles
C) Lack a nucleus D) Contain chloroplasts
[Link] organelle that detoxifies harmful substances is:
A) Peroxisome B) Ribosome C) Golgi body D) Nucleus
[Link] structure is found only in animal cells?
A) Centriole B) Chloroplast C) Cell wall D) Large central vacuole
[Link] process of cell division in which the nucleus splits is called:
A) Mitosis B) Meiosis C) Cytokinesis D) Osmosis
[Link] of the following is a function of the vacuole in plant cells?
A) Protein synthesis B) Energy production C) Storage D) Cell division
[Link] “gatekeeper” of the cell is:
A) Nucleus B) Cell wall C) Cell membrane D) Ribosome
[Link] organelle is responsible for the synthesis of lipids?
A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) Golgi body D) Lysosome
[Link] term “osmosis” refers to the movement of:
A) Water across a semi-permeable membrane B) Solutes across a membrane
C) Gases across a membrane D) Proteins across a membrane
[Link] of the following best describes a tissue?
A) A group of similar cells performing a specific function B) A single cell C) A
collection of organs D) A non-living structure
[Link] a microscope, the part that holds the slide is the:
A) Objective lens B) Stage C) Eyepiece D) Condenser
[Link] organelle is known as the “suicide bag”?
A) Lysosome B) Peroxisome C) Vacuole D) Nucleus
[Link] cell wall of plants is mainly composed of:
A) Cellulose B) Chitin C) Protein D) Lipid
[Link] of the following is NOT a function of the Golgi body?
A) Packaging proteins B) Modifying lipids C) Producing ATP D) Shipping
molecules
[Link] process by which cells obtain energy from glucose is:
A) Photosynthesis B) Respiration C) Fermentation D) Osmosis
[Link] structure is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A) Nucleus B) Ribosome C) Mitochondria D) Chloroplast
[Link] “brain” of the cell is:
A) Nucleus B) Ribosome C) Mitochondria D) Cell membrane
[Link] of the following is a characteristic of a plant cell’s vacuole?
A) Small and numerous B) Large and central C) Absent D) Filamentous
[Link] organelle that produces ribosomes is:
A) Nucleolus B) Golgi body C) Lysosome D) Endoplasmic reticulum
[Link] of the following best describes a unicellular organism?
A) Made of many cells B) Made of a single cell C) Has no cells D) Has
specialized tissues
[Link] “power” generated in mitochondria is stored as:
A) ADP B) ATP C) DNA D) RNA
[Link] part of the microscope adjusts the amount of light reaching the specimen?
A) Objective lens B) Diaphragm C) Eyepiece D) Stage
[Link] cell membrane is composed mainly of:
A) Cellulose B) Protein and lipid C) Chitin D) Nucleic acid
[Link] organelle is responsible for the breakdown of fatty acids?
A) Peroxisome B) Lysosome C) Ribosome D) Nucleus
[Link] plant cells, the site of photosynthesis is:
A) Nucleus B) Chloroplast C) Mitochondria D) Vacuole
[Link] process of moving substances against their concentration gradient is:
A) Diffusion B) Osmosis C) Active transport D) Passive transport
[Link] of the following is a characteristic of animal cells?
A) Presence of a cell wall B) Presence of chloroplasts C) Presence of centrioles
D) Large central vacuole
[Link] “factory” of the cell that assembles proteins is:
A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi
body D) Nucleus
[Link] term describes the total sum of all chemical reactions in a cell?
A) Metabolism B) Homeostasis C) Reproduction D) Growth
[Link] organelle that contains digestive enzymes and helps in cell remodeling is:
A) Lysosome B) Peroxisome C) Ribosome D) Nucleolus

GEOGRAPHY – CHAPTER 3 (CLASS VI, OXFORD) – 50 MCQS

1. The imaginary line that divides the Earth into Northern and Southern hemispheres is the:

A) Prime Meridian B) Equator C) Tropic of Cancer D) Arctic Circle

2. The Earth’s rotation causes:

A) Seasons B) Day and night C) Tides D) Volcanoes

3. The line of longitude that passes through Greenwich, England is called the:
A) International Date Line B) Prime Meridian C) Equator D) Tropic of Capricorn

4. The time at a place 15° east of the Prime Meridian is:

A) 1 hour behind B) 1 hour ahead C) Same D) 2 hours ahead

5. The Earth’s axis is tilted about:

A) 15° B) 23.5° C) 30° D) 45°

6. The season in the Northern Hemisphere when the North Pole is tilted toward the Sun is:

A) Winter B) Spring C) Summer D) Autumn

7. The longest day of the year in the Southern Hemisphere occurs on:

A) 21 March B) 21 June C) 22 December D) 23 September

8. The imaginary line that marks the boundary between the tropics is the:

A) Arctic Circle B) Antarctic Circle C) Tropic of Cancer & Tropic of Capricorn D)

Prime Meridian

9. The distance north or south of the Equator measured in degrees is called:

A) Longitude B) Latitude C) Altitude D) Bearing

10. The 0° line of latitude is the:

A) Prime Meridian B) Equator C) International Date Line D) Greenwich Line

11. Which of the following is NOT a continent?

A) Europe B) Antarctica C) Sahara D) Australia

12. The largest ocean on Earth is the:

A) Atlantic B) Indian C) Pacific D) Arctic

13. The continent that lies completely in the Southern Hemisphere is:

A) Africa B) South America C) Antarctica D) Europe

14. The line that separates the Earth into Eastern and Western hemispheres is the:

A) Equator B) Prime Meridian C) International Date Line D) Tropic of Cancer

15. The Earth completes one rotation on its axis in:

A) 12 hours B) 24 hours C) 30 days D) 365 days

16. The movement of the Earth around the Sun is called:

A) Rotation B) Revolution C) Orbit D) Spin

17. The time taken by the Earth to complete one revolution around the Sun is:

A) 24 hours B) 30 days C) 365 days D) 12 months

18. The imaginary line that runs from the North Pole to the South Pole is a:

A) Latitude B) Longitude C) Equator D) Parallel

19. The 180° meridian is also known as the:

A) Prime Meridian B) International Date Line C) Equator D) Tropic of Capricorn

20. When it is 12 noon at the Prime Meridian, the time at 45° E longitude is:

A) 9 am B) 12 pm C) 3 pm D) 6 pm

21. The region between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn is called the:

A) Temperate zone B) Polar zone C) Tropical zone D) Arctic zone

22. The climate near the Equator is generally:

A) Cold B) Hot and wet C) Dry D) Snowy

23. The imaginary line that circles the Earth at 66.5° N latitude is the:

A) Arctic Circle B) Antarctic Circle C) Tropic of Cancer D) Tropic of Capricorn

24. The line at 66.5° S latitude is the:

A) Arctic Circle B) Antarctic Circle C) Tropic of Cancer D) Tropic of Capricorn

25. The Earth’s tilt causes:

A) Day and night B) Seasons C) Tides D) Winds

26. The continent that has the most countries is:

A) Africa B) Asia C) Europe D) South America

27. The ocean that surrounds Antarctica is the:

A) Atlantic B) Indian C) Pacific D) Southern

28. The Prime Meridian passes through:

A) Paris B) Greenwich C) New York D) Tokyo

29. The International Date Line roughly follows:

A) 0° longitude B) 90° longitude C) 180° longitude D) 45° latitude

30. The Earth’s rotation from west to east makes the Sun appear to:

A) Rise in the west B) Set in the east C) Rise in the east D) Stay still

31. The number of time zones the world is divided into is:

A) 12 B) 24 C) 36 D) 48

32. If you travel east across the International Date Line, you:

A) Lose a day B) Gain a day C) Keep the same day D) Change the month

33. The latitude that receives the most direct sunlight on 21 June is:

A) Equator B) Tropic of Cancer C) Tropic of Capricorn D) Arctic Circle

34. The latitude that receives the most direct sunlight on 22 December is:

A) Equator B) Tropic of Cancer C) Tropic of Capricorn D) Antarctic Circle

35. The term “longitude” refers to:

A) Distance east or west of the Equator B) Distance north or south of the Prime
Meridian C) Distance east or west of the Prime Meridian D) Distance north or south of
the Equator

36. The term “latitude” refers to:

A) Distance east or west of the Equator B) Distance north or south of the Equator C)
Distance east or west of the Prime Meridian D) Distance north or south of the Prime
Meridian

37. The continent that is also a country is:

A) Australia B) Brazil C) Canada D) India

38. The largest desert in the world is the:

A) Sahara B) Gobi C) Kantar D) Antarctica

39. The longest river in the world is the:

A) Nile B) Amazon C) Yangtze D) Mississippi

40. The highest mountain peak is:

A) K2 B) Kangaroo C) Mount Everest D) Kilimanjaro

41. The line that divides the Earth into day and night is called the:

A) Prime Meridian B) Equator C) International Date Line D) Terminator

42. The Earth’s axis is an imaginary line that runs:

A) From north to south pole B) From east to west C) Through the centre of the Earth
D) Around the equator

43. The phenomenon where the Sun does not set for 24 hours near the North Pole is called:

A) Eclipse B) Midnight Sun C) Aurora D) Solstice

44. The opposite of the Prime Meridian is the:

A) International Date Line B) Equator C) Tropic of Cancer D) Arctic Circle

45. The Earth’s rotation causes the Coriolis effect, which influences:

A) Ocean currents B) Volcanoes C) Earthquakes D) Mountain formation

46. The imaginary line that passes through the North Pole, South Pole, and the centre of the
Earth is the:

A) Equator B) Prime Meridian C) Axis D) Tropic of Capricorn

47. The time at 30° W longitude when it is 12 noon at the Prime Meridian is:

A) 10 am B) 12 pm C) 2 pm D) 4 pm

48. The region between 23.5° N and 23.5° S latitudes is the:

A) Temperate zone B) Polar zone C) Tropical zone D) Subtropical zone

49. The continent that is located entirely in the Eastern Hemisphere is:

A) Africa B) Europe C) Asia D) South America

50. The line of latitude that is also called the “great circle” is the:

A) Tropic of Cancer B) Arctic Circle C) Equator D) Prime Meridian

 MATH – CHAPTER 4 (CLASS VI, OXFORD) – 50 MCQS

1. What is ¾ + ⅙?

A) 5⁄12 B) 11⁄12 C) 1 ¼ D) 1 ⅓

2. Convert 0.75 to a fraction in simplest form.

A) 3⁄4 B) 7⁄10 C) 75⁄100 D) 15⁄20

3. Which of the following is equivalent to 2 ÷ 0.5?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 0.4

4. 5 × 0.02 = ?

A) 0.01 B) 0.1 C) 0.001 D) 0.02

5. What is 40 % of 250?

A) 50 B) 80 C) 100 D) 120

6. Express 0.125 as a fraction.

A) 1⁄4 B) 1⁄8 C) 1⁄5 D) 1⁄10

7. Which ratio is equivalent to 3 : 5?

A) 6 : 10 B) 9 : 15 C) 12 : 20 D) All of the above

8. 7 – 2.35 = ?

A) 4.65 B) 5.65 C) 4.55 D) 5.55

9. What is 3⁄5 of 60?

A) 12 B) 24 C) 36 D) 48

10. Convert 2 ⅔ to an improper fraction.

A) 8⁄3 B) 7⁄3 C) 8⁄5 D) 7⁄5

11. 0.6 ÷ 0.03 = ?

A) 2 B) 20 C) 0.2 D) 0.02

12. Which of the following is the smallest?

A) 0.04 B) 0.4 C) 0.004 D) 0.040

13. 15 % of a number is 45. What is the number?

A) 300 B) 3000 C) 300 × 0.15 D) 150

14. 9 × 0.125 = ?

A) 1.125 B) 0.1125 C) 1.25 D) 0.125

15. Simplify 12⁄18 to lowest terms.

A) 2⁄3 B) 4⁄6 C) 6⁄9 D) 3⁄4

16. What is 2 ⅓ + 1 ⅔?

A) 3 ⅓ B) 4 C) 4 ⅓ D) 3 ⅔

17. 0.75 × 0.8 = ?

A) 0.6 B) 0.06 C) 0.006 D) 6

18. Which decimal is equal to 5⁄8?

A) 0.58 B) 0.625 C) 0.5 D) 0.75

19. 30 % of 90 = ?

A) 27 B) 30 C) 33 D) 36

20. 4 ÷ 0.2 = ?

A) 0.2 B) 2 C) 20 D) 0.02

21. Convert 1.25 to a mixed number.

A) 1 ¼ B) 1 ½ C) 1 ⅓ D) 1 ⅔

22. Which fraction is greater: 7⁄9 or 5⁄6?

A) 7⁄9 B) 5⁄6 C) They are equal D) Cannot compare

23. 0.09 + 0.011 = ?

A) 0.101 B) 0.0911 C) 0.020 D) 0.1011

24. What is 3 ⅕ – 1 ⅖?

A) 1 ⅘ B) 1 ⅗ C) 2 ⅕ D) 2 ⅖

25. 12 × 0.25 = ?

A) 3 B) 0.3 C) 0.03 D) 30

26. 45 % of 200 = ?

A) 90 B) 80 C) 100 D) 110

27. Which of the following is NOT equivalent to 0.2?

A) 1⁄5 B) 20 % C) 2⁄10 D) 0.02

28. 6 ÷ 0.75 = ?

A) 8 B) 8.5 C) 7.5 D) 8.25

29. Convert 3 ⅔ to a decimal (rounded to 2 dp).

A) 3.33 B) 3.67 C) 3.63 D) 3.66

30. 0.5 × 0.04 = ?

A) 0.02 B) 0.002 C) 0.2 D) 0.0002

31. What is 5 % of 150?

A) 7.5 B) 10 C) 12.5 D) 15

32. Simplify 15⁄25.

A) 3⁄5 B) 5⁄3 C) 3⁄10 D) 5⁄10

33. 2 ⅔ × 3 = ?

A) 8 B) 8 ⅓ C) 8 ⅔ D) 9

34. Which decimal is equal to 3⁄4?

A) 0.34 B) 0.75 C) 0.7 D) 0.9

35. 0.125 ÷ 0.5 = ?

A) 0.25 B) 0.025 C) 0.0625 D) 0.5

36. 40 % of a number is 80. What is the number?

A) 200 B) 160 C) 320 D) 240

37. Convert 0.875 to a fraction.

A) 7⁄8 B) 8⁄9 C) 7⁄10 D) 9⁄10

38. 9 – 3.45 = ?

A) 5.55 B) 6.55 C) 5.45 D) 6.45

39. What is 2 ⅕ of 45?

A) 9 B) 10 C) 11 D) 12

40. 0.06 × 0.07 = ?

A) 0.0042 B) 0.42 C) 0.042 D) 0.00042

41. Which ratio is equivalent to 4 : 7?

A) 8 : 14 B) 12 : 21 C) 16 : 28 D) All of the above

42. 25 % of 120 = ?

A) 20 B) 25 C) 30 D) 35

43. Convert 5 ⅛ to an improper fraction.

A) 41⁄8 B) 40⁄8 C) 41⁄7 D) 42⁄8

44. 0.9 ÷ 0.03 = ?

A) 30 B) 3 C) 0.3 D) 0.03

45. Which fraction is smallest?

A) 2⁄5 B) 3⁄8 C) 1⁄3 D) 4⁄9

46. 7 × 0.04 = ?

A) 0.28 B) 0.028 C) 2.8 D) 0.0028

47. 12 % of 250 = ?

A) 25 B) 30 C) 35 D) 40

48. 3 ⅔ – 1 ⅙ = ?

A) 2 ½ B) 2 ⅓ C) 2 ⅔ D) 2 ⅕

49. Which decimal equals 5⁄6?

A) 0.56 B) 0.833… C) 0.75 D) 0.6

50. 0.125 × 8 = ?

A) 1 B) 0.1 C) 0.01 D) 10
 SCIENCE – CHAPTER 1 (CLASS VI, OXFORD) – 55 MCQS

1. The first step of the scientific method is to …

A) Form a hypothesis B) Ask a question C) Conduct an experiment D) Draw a

conclusion

2. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of a good hypothesis?

A) Testable B) Based on observation C) Proven true D) Clear

3. A scientist makes a prediction based on a hypothesis. This prediction is called a …

A) Theory B) Law C) Experiment D) Guess

4. Which tool is used to measure the volume of a liquid?

A) Ruler B) Thermometer C) Graduated cylinder D) Stopwatch

5. The unit “meter” is used to measure …

A) Mass B) Length C) Time D) Temperature

6. One kilogram is equal to … grams.

A) 10 B) 100 C) 1 000 D) 10 000

7. Which instrument measures temperature?

A) Barometer B) Thermometer C) Micrometer D) Anemometer

8. The amount of matter in an object is its …

A) Weight B) Mass C) Volume D) Density

9. Which of the following is a correct way to write the scientific notation for 0.00045?

A) 4.5 × 10⁻⁴ B) 4.5 × 10⁻⁵ C) 45 × 10⁻⁴ D) 0.45 × 10⁻³

10. A student wants to find out if a plant grows faster in sunlight or shade. The independent
variable is …

A) Type of plant B) Amount of water C) Light condition D) Height of plant

11. In the same experiment, the dependent variable is …

A) Light condition B) Height of plant C) Type of soil D) Temperature

12. Which of these is a controlled variable?

A) Light B) Water amount C) Plant height D) Soil type

13. A hypothesis that says “If I water a seed with soda, it will grow faster” is …
A) Testable B) Not testable C) Already proven D) A theory

14. Which safety symbol means “wear eye protection”?

A) A red circle with a line B) A yellow triangle with an exclamation C) A green square
with glasses D) A blue circle with a hand

15. When heating a test-tube, you should …

A) Point it toward yourself B) Hold it with bare hands C) Use a test-tube holder D)
Shake it vigorously

16. Which of the following is a correct way to record data?

A) In a notebook, with date and units B) On a scrap piece of paper C) Only in your
head D) As a drawing without labels

17. The process of repeating an experiment to confirm results is called …

A) Replication B) Fabrication C) Observation D) Inference

18. Which statement is an inference?

A) “The plant is 10 cm tall.” B) “The water is 25 °C.” C) “The plant looks wilted because
it didn’t get enough water.” D) “The beaker contains 250 mL of liquid.”

19. A scientific law …

A) Explains why something happens B) Is a tested explanation C) Describes a consistent

natural pattern D) Is a guess

20. Which of these is an example of a scientific theory?

A) “All metals conduct electricity.” B) “The Earth orbits the Sun.” C) “Plants need water
to grow.” D) “The Sun rises in the east.”

21. The metric system is based on powers of …

A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 12

22. Which prefix means “one-thousandth”?

A) Centi- B) Milli- C) Kilo- D) Mega-

23. One litre is equal to … cubic centimetres.

A) 10 B) 100 C) 1 000 D) 10 000

24. Which of the following is a qualitative observation?

A) The liquid is 50 mL. B) The rock is heavy. C) The temperature is 22 °C. D) The
plant grew 3 cm.

25. A student measures the mass of a rock three times and gets 52 g, 53 g, and 52 g. The
results are …

A) Accurate but not precise B) Precise but not accurate C) Both accurate and precise
D) Neither accurate nor precise

26. Which of these is a correct way to label a graph?

A) Title on the x-axis only B) Units in parentheses on each axis C) No legend needed
D) Only numbers on the y-axis

27. In an experiment, the variable that is kept the same across all groups is the …

A) Independent variable B) Dependent variable C) Controlled variable D) Confounding

variable

28. Which of the following is a correct example of a hypothesis?

A) “Plants are green.” B) “If I give a plant more sunlight, it will grow taller.” C) “Water
is wet.” D) “The sky is blue.”

29. The first step after making an observation is to …

A) Form a hypothesis B) Ask a question C) Conduct an experiment D) Publish results

30. Which safety rule is most important when handling chemicals?

A) Wear gloves B) Smell them C) Taste them D) Keep them on the floor

31. A student wants to know if a ball rolls farther on a smooth or a rough surface. The
independent variable is …

A) Type of ball B) Surface type C) Distance rolled D) Height of ramp

32. The dependent variable in the same experiment is …

A) Surface type B) Distance rolled C) Type of ball D) Height of ramp

33. Which of the following is a correct way to write the number 2 500 in scientific notation?

A) 2.5 × 10³ B) 2.5 × 10² C) 25 × 10² D) 0.25 × 10⁴

34. Which instrument is used to measure the force of gravity on an object?

A) Spring balance B) Ruler C) Thermometer D) Stopwatch

35. The amount of space an object occupies is its …

A) Mass B) Weight C) Volume D) Density

36. Which of the following is a correct example of a control group?

A) The group that receives the experimental treatment B) The group that receives no
treatment C) The group with the highest variable value D) The group measured after the
experiment

37. A scientist observes that a metal expands when heated. This is an example of …

A) A hypothesis B) An observation C) A theory D) A law

38. Which of the following best describes a “model” in science?

A) A perfect copy of nature B) A simplified representation of a system C) A random

guess D) A final conclusion

39. Which of these is a correct statement about peer review?

A) It is optional and rarely done B) It helps improve the quality of research C) Only the
teacher reviews the work D) It is done after the paper is published

40. When a scientist says “the results are significant”, they mean …

A) The results are important for the scientist’s career B) The results are likely not due to
chance C) The results are very large D) The results are easy to understand

41. Which of the following is a physical property?

A) Flammability B) Reactivity with acid C) Density D) Ability to rust

42. The process of turning a solid directly into a gas is called …

A) Melting B) Freezing C) Sublimation D) Condensation

43. Which of these is a correct example of a quantitative observation?

A) “The sky is blue.” B) “The water feels cold.” C) “The marble is 5 cm in diameter.”
D) “The plant looks healthy.”

44. A student records the time a pendulum takes to swing 10 times. This is measuring …

A) Mass B) Length C) Time D) Temperature

45. Which of the following is a correct way to present data in a table?

A) No headings, just numbers B) Headings with units in each column C) Only the
average value D) Random order of rows

46. Which safety symbol indicates “do not eat or drink”?

A) A red circle with a slash over a fork and knife B) A yellow triangle with a flame C) A
green square with a hand D) A blue circle with a thermometer

47. The variable that is changed by the experimenter is the …

A) Dependent variable B) Independent variable C) Controlled variable D) Constant

48. Which of the following is an example of a scientific law?

A) “All living things need water.” B) “If you drop a ball, it falls.” C) “Plants grow faster
with music.” D) “The Earth is round.”

49. A hypothesis must be …

A) Proven true B) Testable and falsifiable C) Written in a paragraph D) Accepted by

everyone

50. Which of these is a correct example of a conclusion?

A) “My hypothesis was correct.” B) “The data showed that the plant grew 5 cm more in
sunlight.” C) “I think the experiment was fun.” D) “The results are random.”

51. Which tool would you use to measure the length of a pencil?

A) Thermometer B) Ruler C) Stopwatch D) Balance

52. The amount of matter in a given volume is …

A) Mass B) Weight C) Density D) Temperature

53. Which of the following is a correct statement about a theory?

A) It is a guess that has not been tested B) It explains a wide range of observations C) It
is always true D) It never changes

54. When you repeat an experiment and get the same results, the experiment is …

A) Reliable B) Unreliable C) Biased D) Unscientific

55. Which of the following is NOT a step in the scientific method?

A) Ask a question B) Form a hypothesis C) Publish results D) Guess the answer

without testing
 SCIENCE – CHAPTER 7 (CLASS VI, OXFORD) – 55 MCQS

1. Anything that occupies space and has mass is called …

A) Energy B) Matter C) Force D) Light

2. Which of the following is NOT a state of matter?

A) Solid B) Liquid C) Gas D) Plasma

3. The particles in a solid …

A) Move freely in all directions B) Slide past each other C) Vibrate about fixed
positions D) Are far apart

4. When a liquid changes to a gas, the process is called …

A) Freezing B) Melting C) Evaporation D) Condensation

5. The temperature at which a liquid turns into a solid is its …

A) Boiling point B) Melting point C) Freezing point D) Sublimation point

6. Which of the following is a chemical change?

A) Cutting paper B) Melting ice C) Burning wood D) Dissolving salt

7. Rusting of iron is an example of …

A) Physical change B) Chemical change C) Reversible change D) No change

8. Which property helps us decide if a material is a good conductor of heat?

A) Colour B) Transparency C) Conductivity D) Hardness

9. Metals are usually …

A) Brittle B) Poor conductors of electricity C) Shiny D) Transparent

10. Which material is most likely to be used for making cooking pots?

A) Wood B) Glass C) Metal D) Fabric

11. A mixture in which the components are not uniformly distributed is called …

A) Solution B) Suspension C) Colloid D) Homogeneous

12. Salt dissolved in water forms a …

A) Suspension B) Colloid C) Solution D) Compound

13. Which method is best for separating sand from water?

A) Filtration B) Evaporation C) Magnetism D) Distillation

14. To obtain pure water from seawater, we use …

A) Filtration B) Decantation C) Distillation D) Sieving

15. Which of the following is a magnetic material?

A) Aluminium B) Iron C) Plastic D) Wood

16. The process of a solid turning directly into a gas is called …

A) Sublimation B) Deposition C) Vaporisation D) Freezing

17. Dry ice (solid CO₂) changes to gas by …

A) Melting B) Sublimation C) Condensation D) Freezing

18. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?

A) Solar energy B) Wind energy C) Coal D) Hydroelectric power

19. The layer of the Earth that we live on is the …

A) Core B) Mantle C) Crust D) Lithosphere

20. Rocks that are formed from magma cooling inside the Earth are called …

A) Sedimentary B) Metamorphic C) Igneous D) Fossil

21. Which type of rock can be formed by the compaction of sand?

A) Limestone B) Sandstone C) Granite D) Marble

22. The process by which water moves through the soil is called …

A) Erosion B) Infiltration C) Evaporation D) Condensation

23. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Carbon dioxide D) Argon

24. The increase in Earth’s average temperature due to human activities is called …

A) Global cooling B) Global warming C) Ozone depletion D) Acid rain

25. Which of these is a way to conserve water?

A) Leaving taps running B) Using a bucket to wash cars C) Throwing away plastic
bottles D) Using sprinklers all day

26. The ability of a material to be stretched into a wire is called …

A) Ductility B) Malleability C) Elasticity D) Hardness

27. Which of the following is a good insulator of heat?

A) Copper B) Aluminium C) Wood D) Iron

28. The change of water from gas to liquid is …

A) Evaporation B) Condensation C) Sublimation D) Deposition

29. When a candle burns, the wax …

A) Melts and then solidifies B) Undergoes a physical change only C) Undergoes a

chemical change D) Turns into water only

30. Which of the following is a mixture?

A) Water B) Salt C) Air D) Carbon dioxide

31. In a solution, the substance present in larger amount is the …

A) Solute B) Solvent C) Precipitate D) Residue

32. Which of the following can be separated by magnetism?

A) Sand and salt B) Iron filings and sulphur C) Water and oil D) Sugar and flour

33. The process of heating a liquid until it becomes a gas is …

A) Freezing B) Boiling C) Condensing D) Sublimating

34. Which property of a material tells us how heavy it is for a given volume?

A) Mass B) Density C) Weight D) Volume

35. A material that allows light to pass through it is called …

A) Opaque B) Transparent C) Translucent D) Reflective

36. Which of the following is a chemical property?

A) Flammability B) Melting point C) Boiling point D) Density

37. The layer of gases surrounding the Earth is the …

A) Atmosphere B) Lithosphere C) Hydrosphere D) Biosphere

38. Which of the following is NOT a fossil fuel?

A) Coal B) Natural gas C) Petroleum D) Solar energy

39. The process of removing salt from seawater is called …

A) Desalination B) Distillation C) Filtration D) Evaporation

40. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

A) Coal B) Wind C) Oil D) Natural gas

41. The solid form of water is …

A) Steam B) Ice C) Water vapour D) Rain

42. Which of the following best describes a colloid?

A) Particles settle down quickly B) Particles are too small to be seen but scatter light C)
Completely dissolved D) Made only of gases

43. The temperature at which a liquid begins to boil is its …

A) Melting point B) Boiling point C) Freezing point D) Sublimation point

44. Which of the following is a physical change?

A) Burning paper B) Rusting iron C) Melting butter D) Cooking an egg

45. The property that lets a metal be hammered into thin sheets is …

A) Ductility B) Malleability C) Conductivity D) Elasticity

46. Which of these is a good conductor of electricity?

A) Plastic B) Wood C) Graphite D) Rubber

47. The process of a gas changing directly into a solid is …

A) Deposition B) Sublimation C) Condensation D) Vaporisation

48. Which of the following is a characteristic of a compound?

A) It can be separated by physical means B) It has properties different from its constituent
elements C) It contains only metals D) It is always a gas

49. The Earth’s crust is mainly made up of …

A) Iron B) Nickel C) Silicate rocks D) Carbon

50. Which of the following helps to reduce air pollution?

A) Burning waste B) Planting trees C) Using cars more D) Dumping chemicals in

rivers

51. The process by which plants make their own food is …

A) Respiration B) Photosynthesis C) Decomposition D) Fermentation

52. Which gas do plants absorb from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?

A) Oxygen B) Carbon dioxide C) Nitrogen D) Methane

53. The layer of the atmosphere where weather occurs is the …

A) Stratosphere B) Troposphere C) Mesosphere D) Thermosphere

54. Which of the following is a non-metal?

A) Copper B) Iron C) Sulphur D) Aluminium

55. The ability of a material to return to its original shape after being stretched is …

A) Ductility B) Elasticity C) Malleability D) Brittleness

 HISTORY – CHAPTER 4 (PAGES 30-36) – CLASS VI – OXFORD SYLLABUS

Topics covered: Early humans, the Stone Age, tools, fire, shelter, cave art, and the transition
to farming._

1. The earliest stage of human history is called the …

A) Bronze Age B) Iron Age C) Stone Age D) Medieval Age

2. The first humans who lived by hunting and gathering are known as …

A) Farmers B) Nomads C) Hunter-gatherers D) Artisans

3. The period when early humans began making tools from stone is the …

A) Palaeolithic B) Mesolithic C) Neolithic D) Chalcolithic

4. The term “Palaeolithic” means …

A) New stone B) Old stone C) Middle stone D) Shiny stone

5. Which of the following was NOT a material used for Palaeolithic tools?

A) Flint B) Bone C) Copper D) Stone

6. The first controlled use of fire by humans is estimated to have begun about …

A) 5 000 years ago B) 20 000 years ago C) 100 000 years ago D) 1 million years ago

7. Fire helped early humans in all of the following ways EXCEPT …

A) Cooking food B) Keeping warm C) Scaring away predators D) Making pottery

8. Cave paintings are mostly found in …

A) Deserts B) Mountains C) Underground caves D) River banks

9. The famous cave painting site in France is …

A) Lascaux B) Altamira C) Chauvet D) Varanasi

10. Cave paintings often depict …

A) Modern cities B) Animals and hunting scenes C) Spacecraft D) Mathematical

equations

11. The shift from hunting-gathering to farming is called the …

A) Agricultural Revolution B) Industrial Revolution C) Renaissance D) Digital

Revolution

12. The first crops to be cultivated were …

A) Wheat and barley B) Rice and maize C) Potatoes and tomatoes D) Coffee and tea

13. Domestication of animals began around …

A) 2 000 years ago B) 10 000 years ago C) 20 000 years ago D) 50 000 years ago

14. Which animal was probably the first to be domesticated?

A) Cow B) Sheep C) Dog D) Pig

15. The development of permanent settlements is a hallmark of the …

A) Palaeolithic B) Mesolithic C) Neolithic D) Bronze Age

16. The term “Neolithic” means …

A) Old stone B) New stone C) Middle stone D) Hard stone

17. Which of the following is a characteristic of Neolithic houses?

A) Tents made of animal skins B) Mud-brick walls C) Tree-houses D) Ice igloos

18. The practice of burying the dead with tools and ornaments suggests …

A) Fear of the dead B) Belief in afterlife C) Lack of resources D) Random habit

19. The wheel was first invented in the …

A) Palaeolithic B) Mesolithic C) Neolithic D) Bronze Age

20. The earliest known wheel was made of …

A) Metal B) Wood C) Stone D) Plastic

21. The “Venus of Willendorf” is an example of …

A) A weapon B) A cave painting C) A stone figurine D) A pottery jar

22. The “Venus of Willendorf” is thought to represent …

A) A hunter B) A deity or fertility symbol C) A warrior D) A map

23. The “Ötzi the Iceman” lived during the …

A) Palaeolithic B) Mesolithic C) Neolithic D) Bronze Age

24. Ötzi’s well-preserved body was found in …

A) The Alps B) The Sahara C) The Andes D) The Himalayas

25. Which of the following was NOT found with Ötzi?

A) Copper axe B) Bow and arrows C) Flint tools D) Gold jewelry

26. The “Stonehenge” monument is located in …

A) France B) England C) Germany D) Italy

27. Stonehenge was built during the …

A) Palaeolithic B) Mesolithic C) Neolithic D) Bronze Age

28. The purpose of Stonehenge is still debated, but it likely served as …

A) A marketplace B) A burial site C) A defensive fort D) A residential area

29. The “Megalithic” structures are characterized by …

A) Small bricks B) Large stones C) Wooden logs D) Glass panels

30. The “Megalithic” period overlaps with the …

A) Palaeolithic B) Mesolithic C) Neolithic D) Iron Age

31. The first metal used by humans was …

A) Iron B) Copper C) Bronze D) Gold

32. The “Bronze Age” began when people learned to alloy copper with …

A) Tin B) Zinc C) Lead D) Silver

33. The “Bronze Age” saw the rise of …

A) Hunter-gatherers B) Urban centres C) Nomadic tribes D) Cave dwellers

34. The “Sumerian” civilization developed in …

A) Egypt B) Mesopotamia C) Indus Valley D) China

35. The “Cuneiform” writing system originated in …

A) Egypt B) Mesopotamia C) Greece D) Mesoamerica

36. The “Epic of Gilgamesh” is a …

A) Historical record B) Mythological poem C) Scientific treatise D) Legal code

37. The “Great Pyramid of Giza” was built during the …

A) Palaeolithic B) Neolithic C) Bronze Age D) Iron Age

38. The “Great Sphinx” is associated with which pharaoh?

A) Khufu B) Khafre C) Menkaure D) Ramses II

39. The “Indus Valley” civilization is known for …

A) Ziggurats B) Harappan city planning C) Pyramids D) Cave paintings

40. The “Harappan” cities were built with …

A) Mud bricks B) Stone blocks C) Wooden logs D) Glass

41. The “Decline” of the Indus Valley civilization is linked to …

A) Volcanic eruption B) River flooding C) Climate change D) Alien invasion

42. The “Yellow River” civilization is another name for …

A) Egyptian B) Mesopotamian C) Chinese D) Mayan

43. The “Shang” dynasty is famous for …

A) Building the Great Wall B) Developing bronze work C) Inventing paper D)

Creating the alphabet

44. The “Zhou” dynasty introduced the concept of …

A) Democracy B) Mandate of Heaven C) Communism D) Feudalism

45. The “Silk Road” connected …

A) Europe and Africa B) Asia and Europe C) North America and South America D)
Australia and Asia

46. The “Maya” civilization is known for …

A) The wheel B) A written calendar C) Iron smelting D) Steam engines

47. The “Maya” calendar ends on …

A) 21 December 2012 B) 31 December 1999 C) 1 January 2000 D) 31 December 2020

48. The “Inca” empire was located in …

A) Mexico B) Peru C) Egypt D) Turkey

49. The “Inca” built the city of …

A) Tenochtitlan B) Machu Picchu C) Angkor Wat D) Petra

50. The “Aztec” civilization was centered in …

A) Central America B) South America C) North America D) Caribbean

51. The “Aztec” capital was …

A) Cuzco B) Tenochtitlan C) Quito D) Lima

52. The “Columbian Exchange” refers to …

A) Trade between Europe and Asia B) Exchange of goods and diseases between the Old
and New Worlds C) A peace treaty D) A scientific conference

53. The “Renaissance” began in …

A) Italy B) France C) England D) Spain

54. The “Printing press” was invented by …

A) Leonardo da Vinci B) Johannes Gutenberg C) Isaac Newton D) Galileo Galilei

55. The “Age of Exploration” was driven by …

A) Desire for spices and new trade routes B) Fear of the ocean C) Lack of food D)
Religious holidays